PMP People — Leading Projects Practice Question
Midway through a construction project, a key vendor notifies you that they cannot deliver critical steel beams on time due to a factory fire. This risk was identified and included in the risk register. What should the PM do FIRST?
⚠ Common exam trap
Test-takers frequently confuse the need for immediate action (options A or B) with the correct process of first consulting the risk register, or they escalate prematurely (option D) instead of executing the pre-planned response.
Answer choices
Why each option matters
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
✓
Implement the risk response that was documented in the risk register
Since the risk was already identified and documented in the risk register, the project manager must first follow the pre-planned risk response. This ensures a structured, timely reaction without unnecessary escalation or ad-hoc decisions. Option C is correct because the risk response plan is the authoritative source for the first action when a known risk occurs.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
- ✗
Contact the vendor and negotiate a new delivery date
Why it's wrong here
While negotiating a new delivery date might be a component of a risk response, it is not necessarily the *first* or *only* action. The project manager's primary responsibility is to consult the pre-defined risk response plan documented in the risk register. This option suggests a reactive, singular approach that bypasses the structured process of executing the optimal, pre-approved strategy for managing the identified threat.
- ✗
Immediately place an order with a backup vendor
Why it's wrong here
Immediately placing an order with a backup vendor, while a potential contingency, is a premature action without first consulting the documented risk response plan. The risk register might specify specific triggers, conditions, or alternative mitigation strategies to be attempted before engaging a backup. Executing such a significant contingency without verifying it against the established plan could lead to unnecessary costs, contractual complications, or misallocation of resources, bypassing the structured decision-making process.
- ✓
Implement the risk response that was documented in the risk register
Why this is correct
The core principle of proactive risk management dictates that potential risks are identified and specific responses are planned *before* they materialize. When a risk event occurs, the project manager's immediate and correct action is to consult the risk register and execute the pre-approved, documented response plan. This ensures a consistent, efficient, and pre-authorized approach to managing the identified threat, aligning with the project's overall risk strategy and leveraging prior planning.
- ✗
Inform the sponsor and ask for instructions
Why it's wrong here
Escalating to the sponsor for instructions without first attempting to implement the documented risk response is an abdication of the project manager's responsibility. The PM is empowered and expected to manage identified risks according to the established risk management plan, which includes pre-defined actions. Escalation is typically reserved for risks that exceed the PM's authority, are not covered by existing plans, or after planned responses have been exhausted and proven ineffective, not as a first step.
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JA
Written by Johnson Ajibi, MSc IT Security
Senior Network & Security Engineer · founder of Courseiva
This PMP practice question is part of Courseiva's free PMI certification practice question bank. Courseiva provides original exam-style practice questions with explanations, topic-based practice, mock exams, readiness tracking, and study analytics to help learners prepare for the PMP exam.