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Juniper Networks Enterprise Routing and Switching, Specialist (JNCIS-ENT, JN0-352) (JNCIS-ENT) (JNCIS-ENT) — Questions 226–300

320 questions total · 5 pages · All types, answers revealed

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226
MCQhard

A BGP speaker receives an UPDATE message containing a malformed attribute. According to BGP specifications, which action does the receiving router take?

A.Strip the attribute and propagate the route to iBGP peers.
B.Send an UPDATE message requesting retransmission.
C.Send a NOTIFICATION message and terminate the BGP session.
D.Silently ignore the attribute and install the route.
AnswerC

BGP treats a malformed path attribute as a fatal error under RFC 4271. The receiving speaker must send a NOTIFICATION with the appropriate error code and subcode, then tear down the peering session rather than silently discard the UPDATE or retain the route.

Why this answer

A malformed attribute or critical error triggers a NOTIFICATION message with an appropriate error code, followed by session teardown.

227
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements accurately describe the behavior and characteristics of a routing instance of type 'forwarding'? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.It automatically generates a default route pointing to the loopback interface.
B.It runs independent OSPF and BGP instances.
C.It requires MP-BGP for VPN label signaling.
D.It is primarily used for filter-based forwarding applications.
E.It maintains a separate forwarding table without running dynamic routing protocols.
AnswersD, E

Forwarding-type routing instances are designed for filter-based forwarding, where firewall filters direct matching traffic into a separate routing table for alternate next-hop treatment. This is their primary deployment scenario, distinguishing them from virtual-router or VRF instances.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because a 'forwarding' routing instance (also called a VRF-lite style instance) is designed for filter-based forwarding (FBF), where firewall filters on the ingress interface classify traffic and direct it into the instance's own routing table to control next-hop selection. Option E is correct because a forwarding-type instance maintains its own separate forwarding/routing table (RIB/FIB) but does not run any dynamic routing protocols such as OSPF, IS-IS, or BGP within it; routes are populated statically or via policy/filter actions. Option A is wrong because a forwarding instance does not automatically create a default route to the loopback interface; any default route must be configured manually or injected by policy.

Option B is wrong because running independent OSPF and BGP instances is characteristic of a VRF-type routing instance, not a forwarding instance. Option C is wrong because MP-BGP for VPN label signaling is associated with VRF instances in MPLS L3VPN deployments, not with forwarding instances, which are local to the device and do not use VPN labels.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the confusion between 'forwarding' and 'virtual-router' routing instances — candidates incorrectly assume forwarding instances run routing protocols or auto-generate routes, when in fact they are protocol-less and require static configuration.

228
MCQmedium

You are configuring a Link Aggregation Group (LAG) with LACP on an EX3400 switch. You want to ensure that the interface bundle drops traffic if fewer than two active member links are operational. Which feature configuration achieves this?

A.Configure 'set interfaces ae0 aggregated-ether-options lacp minimum-links 2'.
B.Configure 'set protocols lacp minimum-active-ports 2'.
C.Configure 'set chassis aggregated-devices ethernet link-threshold 2'.
D.Configure 'set switch-options lacp threshold 2'.
AnswerA

The minimum-links setting defines how many active member links must be up before the aggregate interface is marked up. Setting it to 2 on ae0 ensures the bundle drops traffic when fewer than two links remain operational.

Why this answer

On Junos EX switches, the LACP minimum-links feature is configured under the aggregated Ethernet interface using 'set interfaces ae0 aggregated-ether-options lacp minimum-links 2'. This setting ensures that if fewer than two member links are active, the LAG is marked down and traffic is dropped, preventing degraded forwarding.

Exam trap

The trap is mixing up the configuration hierarchy — candidates often try to configure LACP parameters under 'protocols lacp' or 'chassis', but on Junos they belong under 'interfaces aeX aggregated-ether-options lacp'.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'set protocols lacp minimum-active-ports 2' is not valid Junos syntax — LACP parameters are configured under the interface, not under a global protocols lacp hierarchy. Option C is wrong because 'set chassis aggregated-devices ethernet link-threshold 2' is not a real Junos command; link-threshold is not a valid knob for this purpose. Option D is wrong because 'set switch-options lacp threshold 2' is not valid syntax — switch-options is used for other features like MAC learning, not LACP thresholds.

229
Multi-Selecteasy

An administrator is configuring VLANs on a Junos EX Series switch. Which TWO tasks must be performed to successfully assign a physical interface as an access port for a newly created VLAN? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Enable spanning-tree protocol globally for the access VLAN to become active.
B.Configure the interface family as inet and assign an IP address.
C.Configure the interface as a trunk port with native-vlan-id enabled.
D.Configure the interface mode as access under [edit interfaces <name> unit 0 family ethernet-switching].
E.Create the VLAN under the [edit vlans] hierarchy specifying a vlan-id.
AnswersD, E

Setting the interface mode to access under family ethernet-switching binds the port to a single VLAN untagged, satisfying the requirement to assign a physical interface as an access port. Without this, the port defaults to trunk mode and cannot carry the newly created VLAN's traffic correctly.

Why this answer

Option E is correct because a VLAN must first exist in the configuration before an interface can be assigned to it; on Junos EX switches you create it under [edit vlans] with a name and a vlan-id (e.g., set vlans SALES vlan-id 100). Option D is correct because the physical port is made an access port by setting the interface mode to access under [edit interfaces <name> unit 0 family ethernet-switching], which places untagged traffic from that port into the specified VLAN. Spanning tree (option A) is not required to make a VLAN active, and it is enabled by default on EX switches anyway.

Option B is wrong because an access port carries Layer 2 traffic in family ethernet-switching; assigning family inet and an IP address is for a routed/Layer 3 interface, not a switched access port. Option C is wrong because trunk mode with native-vlan-id is used for carrying multiple VLANs (802.1Q tagging), not for assigning a single access VLAN to a physical interface.

230
MCQhard

When should you consider increasing the 'csnp-interval'?

A.To improve convergence time.
B.To increase the maximum LSP size.
C.To fix adjacency flapping.
D.To reduce control traffic overhead on slow links.
AnswerD

The csnp-interval controls how often Complete Sequence Number PDUs are sent on a broadcast link. Increasing it lengthens the gap between CSNPs, reducing control traffic overhead on slow links where frequent flooding would otherwise consume scarce bandwidth.

Why this answer

Increasing the interval is useful on slow or congested links to reduce the frequency of full database synchronization traffic.

231
MCQeasy

Which interface naming convention is used by Junos OS to identify a generic routing encapsulation (GRE) tunnel interface?

A.gr-
B.lt-
C.st-
D.ip-
AnswerA

Junos OS reserves the `gr-` prefix exclusively for generic routing encapsulation tunnel interfaces, satisfying the stem's requirement for the GRE-specific naming convention. Other tunnel types use distinct prefixes, such as `ip-` for IP-IP and `vt-` for virtual tunnels, so `gr-` uniquely identifies GRE logical units.

Why this answer

Junos OS uses the 'gr-' prefix to identify GRE tunnel interfaces, for example gr-0/0/0. This naming convention is fixed and is used consistently in configuration and operational commands for GRE tunnels.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests interface naming conventions, and candidates confuse gr- with lt-, st-, or ip- because all are tunnel-related prefixes with similar functions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'lt-' identifies logical tunnel interfaces used for tunnel services such as GRE, IPIP, and PIM encapsulation on certain platforms — it is not the standard GRE interface name. Option C is wrong because 'st-' identifies secure tunnel interfaces used for IPsec VPN tunnels. Option D is wrong because 'ip-' identifies IP-over-IP (IPIP) tunnel interfaces, not GRE.

232
MCQhard

An administrator implements port security on a switch stack. A user moves their IP phone (which has an integrated PC attached to it) to a port configured with a MAC limit of one. Only the IP phone works, and the PC is blocked. What feature should be configured to allow multiple authenticated MAC addresses behind a single port securely?

A.Enable DHCP snooping with static ARP inspection override.
B.Increase the mac-limit to 2 and enable dynamic MAC learning persistence.
C.Configure IEEE 802.1X with multiple supplicants or MAC Authentication Bypass (MAB).
D.Configure storm control with a multi-device profile.
AnswerC

IEEE 802.1X with multiple supplicants authenticates several devices independently on one port, while MAB authenticates devices lacking a supplicant via their MAC address. This lets the phone and attached PC both pass port security's single-MAC limit securely.

Why this answer

IEEE 802.1X with multiple supplicants (or MAC Authentication Bypass for non-802.1X devices) allows multiple authenticated MAC addresses to share a single switch port, which is exactly the scenario of an IP phone with a PC daisy-chained behind it. The phone authenticates via 802.1X (or MAB), and the PC authenticates separately, each getting its own authorization. This is the secure, standards-based way to support multiple devices on one port without simply raising the MAC limit.

Exam trap

The trap is reaching for a simple MAC-limit increase or a Layer 2 security feature (DHCP snooping, storm control) when the question is really about authentication — the secure answer is always 802.1X/MAB, not loosening port security.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DHCP snooping and Dynamic ARP Inspection are Layer 2 security features that prevent rogue DHCP servers and ARP spoofing — they do not authenticate or authorize multiple MAC addresses on a port. Option B is wrong because simply raising mac-limit to 2 with dynamic learning persistence is insecure — it allows any two MACs to be learned without authentication, defeating the purpose of port security and leaving the port open to MAC flooding. Option D is wrong because storm control limits broadcast/multicast/unknown-unicast rates to prevent loops and DoS; it has no role in authenticating multiple devices on a port.

233
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO statements are true regarding IP Source Guard? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.It is configured under the routing-instances protocol hierarchy.
B.It automatically encrypts all user data packets using AES-256.
C.It functions by monitoring and rate-limiting broadcast ARP traffic storms.
D.It prevents IP spoofing attacks by filtering traffic based on binding databases.
E.It relies on the DHCP snooping database to validate client source IP addresses.
AnswersD, E

IP Source Guard inspects source addresses against the DHCP snooping binding table, dropping packets whose IP/MAC pair is absent. This filtering directly blocks spoofed source addresses, satisfying the stem's requirement to prevent IP spoofing attacks on untrusted access ports.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because IP Source Guard (IPSG) is an anti-spoofing feature that filters ingress traffic by comparing each packet's source IP (and often MAC) against a trusted binding table, dropping any packet whose source address does not match an entry, thereby preventing IP spoofing attacks. Option E is correct because on Juniper devices IPSG builds its binding table from the DHCP snooping database (populated by snooped DHCP ACK/lease bindings), so client source IP addresses are validated against dynamically learned DHCP bindings; static bindings can also be added, but the primary mechanism relies on DHCP snooping. Option A is incorrect because IPSG is configured at the interface/access-port level (e.g., 'ip-source-guard' under the interface or VLAN/forwarding-options hierarchy), not under the routing-instances protocol hierarchy.

Option B is incorrect because IPSG performs filtering and validation, not encryption; AES-256 encryption is unrelated to this feature. Option C is incorrect because IPSG does not monitor or rate-limit broadcast ARP storms; ARP storm control and related protections are separate features (e.g., ARP policing/storm control), not IP Source Guard.

234
MCQeasy

An administrator is configuring a new EX Series switch running Junos OS and needs to assign an access port to VLAN finance. Which configuration hierarchy is used to assign an interface to a specific VLAN?

A.[edit vlans finance]
B.[edit interfaces <interface-name> unit 0 family ethernet-switching]
C.[edit bridge-domains finance]
D.[edit protocols l2-learning]
AnswerB

Access VLAN membership is assigned under the interface's unit 0 family ethernet-switching hierarchy, where the vlan member statement names the target VLAN. This is the Junos hierarchy that binds a switched port to VLAN finance, satisfying the access port requirement.

Why this answer

In Junos OS, access and trunk interface properties for Layer 2 switching are configured under the [edit interfaces <interface-name> unit 0 family ethernet-switching] hierarchy.

235
MCQeasy

What is the primary benefit of enabling edge port configuration on switch access ports connected to end devices?

A.It forces the port to operate exclusively in full-duplex mode.
B.It allows the port to transition immediately to the forwarding state, avoiding startup delays.
C.It increases the interface bandwidth by disabling spanning tree calculations entirely.
D.It enables automatic detection of unauthorized rogue bridges on access links.
AnswerB

Edge port, equivalent to RSTP edge or Cisco PortFast, lets an access port skip listening and learning and enter forwarding immediately when a link comes up. This removes the roughly 30-second STP startup delay before end devices can pass traffic.

Why this answer

Enabling edge port configuration on switch access ports connected to end devices allows the port to transition immediately to the forwarding state, bypassing the listening and learning states of STP/RSTP. This avoids startup delays (up to 30 seconds with classic STP) and improves convergence for end-user devices. Edge ports are also known as PortFast in Cisco terminology.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that edge ports disable STP entirely or affect duplex settings, when they only affect the port's initial STP state.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because edge port configuration does not force full-duplex mode; duplex is typically auto-negotiated or manually set, independent of edge port status. Option C is wrong because edge ports do not disable spanning tree calculations entirely; they still participate in STP but are assumed to not create loops, so they can forward immediately. Option D is wrong because edge ports do not detect rogue bridges; they are designed for end devices, and if a BPDU is received, the port loses its edge status and participates in STP to prevent loops.

236
MCQmedium

While examining an RSTP topology, you notice that a designated port has suddenly stopped receiving BPDUs from its upstream neighbor, causing the port to transition into a discarding state to prevent potential loops. Which feature is actively providing this protection?

A.Loop protection
B.Root protection
C.BPDU guard
D.TC protection
AnswerA

Loop protection detects a designated port that stops receiving BPDUs from its upstream neighbour. It then moves that port into a discarding state, preventing a unidirectional link failure from creating a bridging loop, which matches the described RSTP behaviour.

Why this answer

Loop protection is the RSTP feature designed to prevent loops on designated ports that stop receiving BPDUs from their upstream neighbor. When a designated port no longer receives BPDUs, it would normally age out and potentially cause a loop; loop protection detects this condition and places the port into a discarding state (or blocks it) to prevent the loop. This matches the scenario exactly.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing loop protection with root protection or BPDU guard; candidates often mix up which feature reacts to loss of BPDUs versus receiving unexpected BPDUs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because root protection is applied to root ports to prevent them from becoming designated ports when superior BPDUs are received, guarding against a rogue switch becoming root; it does not react to loss of BPDUs on a designated port. Option C is wrong because BPDU guard is applied to edge ports (access ports) and shuts them down if any BPDU is received, which is the opposite condition (receiving BPDUs, not losing them). Option D is wrong because TC protection (Topology Change protection) is used to rate-limit or ignore topology change notifications, not to protect against loss of BPDUs on a designated port.

237
MCQeasy

Which command displays the IS-IS interface parameters?

A.show isis configuration
B.show interfaces isis
C.show isis interface
D.show protocols isis interface
AnswerC

`show isis interface` directly queries the IS-IS interface database, returning per-interface parameters such as circuit type, metric, hello interval, and DIS priority. This satisfies the stem's requirement for interface-level IS-IS parameters, unlike commands that display adjacency or link-state database information.

Why this answer

'show isis interface' shows the configuration and state of IS-IS interfaces.

238
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting an issue where an EX4300 Virtual Chassis fails to boot after adding a new switch member. The system console displays errors regarding incompatible Junos images and hardware mismatch on the Virtual Chassis ports. What is the correct procedure to recover and integrate the new member?

A.Isolate the new switch, boot it independently, upgrade/downgrade its Junos OS version to match the master switch, and then connect it to the Virtual Chassis ring.
B.Configure GRES on the replacement switch using the CLI before connecting stacking cables.
C.Disable LACP on all aggregated links across the stack.
D.Factory reset all existing switches in the Virtual Chassis via the master console.
AnswerA

Booting the new member standalone lets you align its Junos OS release with the master before rejoining, resolving the image mismatch and hardware errors on the Virtual Chassis ports. Isolation prevents the incompatible member from disrupting the existing chassis during the upgrade.

Why this answer

The EX4300 Virtual Chassis requires all member switches to run the same Junos OS release; a mismatch triggers boot failure and VCP errors. The correct recovery is to isolate the new member, boot it standalone, install the matching Junos image, and only then reconnect it to the Virtual Chassis ring. This ensures the master can synchronize the member without image incompatibility.

Option A is the only procedure that directly resolves the root cause.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that high-availability features like GRES or link aggregation settings can resolve Virtual Chassis image mismatches, when the actual fix requires matching Junos OS versions before connecting the member.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because GRES (Graceful Routing Engine Switchover) is a high-availability feature for dual Routing Engines within a single chassis or Virtual Chassis master/backup, not a tool for resolving Junos image mismatches or hardware incompatibility on a new member. Option C is wrong because disabling LACP on aggregated links has no bearing on Virtual Chassis boot errors caused by incompatible Junos images; LACP is a link aggregation protocol, not a stacking or image management function. Option D is wrong because factory resetting all existing switches would destroy the working Virtual Chassis configuration and cause unnecessary downtime, while the actual problem is isolated to the new member's software version.

239
MCQeasy

What is the default preference value for a direct route in Junos OS?

A.5
B.20
C.0
D.10
AnswerC

A direct route in Junos OS carries a default preference of 0, the lowest value available, which makes it the most preferred route in the routing table. This satisfies the stem's requirement precisely: directly connected interfaces always win over static, OSPF, or BGP routes when identical prefixes compete.

Why this answer

In Junos OS, the default preference (administrative distance) for a direct route is 0. This is the highest priority among all route types, ensuring that directly connected networks are always preferred over routes learned via dynamic protocols or static configuration. The value 0 reflects that a directly connected interface is the most trusted source of routing information.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the memorization of default preference values, and candidates frequently confuse the preference for direct routes (0) with that of static routes (5) or OSPF (10).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 5 is the default preference for static routes in Junos OS, not direct routes. Option B is wrong because 20 is not a standard default preference for any common route type in Junos; it might be confused with OSPF internal preference (10) or something else. Option D is wrong because 10 is the default preference for OSPF internal routes, not direct routes.

240
MCQeasy

What action does the 'set protocols rstp max-age <seconds>' command perform on a Juniper switch?

A.It sets the maximum time a port can remain in the discarding state during bootup.
B.It limits the maximum age of MAC table entries learned via spanning tree.
C.It restricts the maximum number of hops an MSTP BPDU can traverse.
D.It defines how long BPDU information is stored before being considered expired.
AnswerD

Max-age sets the interval BPDU information is retained before being discarded as stale. Once this timer expires without a fresh BPDU from the root or designated bridge, the switch ages out that topology information and reconverges, preventing indefinite reliance on outdated spanning-tree data.

Why this answer

The 'max-age' timer in RSTP/MSTP (IEEE 802.1D-2004 / 802.1Q) defines how long a bridge retains received BPDU information before it declares that information stale and ages it out. When the max-age timer expires without receiving a fresh BPDU from the designated bridge, the port transitions and topology information is recalculated. On Juniper switches, 'set protocols rstp max-age <seconds>' tunes this BPDU-aging timer, with a default of 20 seconds and a valid range of 6–40 seconds.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the confusion between STP timers — candidates mix up max-age (BPDU expiry), forward delay (state transition), hello-time (BPDU interval), and max-hops (MST region diameter), so read each option carefully to identify which timer is actually being described.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the time a port stays in discarding during bootup is governed by the forwarding delay and the proposal/agreement handshake, not max-age. Option B is wrong because MAC table aging is controlled by the bridge's MAC aging timer (default 300 seconds on Juniper), which is independent of the STP max-age timer. Option C is wrong because the maximum hops an MSTP BPDU can traverse is controlled by the 'max-hops' parameter (default 20), not max-age.

241
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements are true regarding BGP communities in Junos? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Communities are optional transitive path attributes.
B.Communities replace the AS_PATH attribute entirely.
C.Communities are evaluated after the router ID tie-breaker.
D.Communities can only be applied to eBGP sessions and are stripped on iBGP.
E.Standard communities are formatted as two 16-bit values separated by a colon (ASN:value).
AnswersA, E

BGP communities are optional transitive path attributes, so a router that does not recognise them still propagates them to peers. This satisfies the stem's requirement for a true statement about Junos BGP communities, as Junos stores and matches them without stripping the attribute.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because BGP communities are carried as an optional transitive path attribute (attribute type code 8), meaning they are not required in every UPDATE but, when present, are propagated to other BGP speakers. Option E is correct because a standard community is a 32-bit value expressed as two 16-bit numbers in the ASN:value format, for example 65000:100, where the first field is typically the autonomous system number and the second is an administrator-defined value. Option B is wrong because communities are an additional attribute and do not replace AS_PATH, which remains the primary loop-prevention and path-selection attribute.

Option C is wrong because community matching is a policy action performed during route evaluation, not a tie-breaker after router ID; the router ID tie-breaker applies only when comparing otherwise equal paths. Option D is wrong because communities can be attached and matched on both eBGP and iBGP sessions, and they are not automatically stripped on iBGP.

242
MCQhard

An engineer deploys MACsec across an untrusted Metro Ethernet Layer 2 transport circuit. After enabling MACsec, packets larger than 1500 bytes fail to pass through the link. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The MKA key exchange failed due to MTU handshake validation timeouts.
B.Dynamic ARP Inspection is dropping fragmented Ethernet frames.
C.The MACsec ICV and header overhead exceed the standard 1500-byte MTU, requiring an increased MTU along the path.
D.The cipher suite GCM-AES-256 compresses frames beyond the minimum frame size limit.
AnswerC

MACsec encapsulates each frame with a SecTAG header and an ICV trailer, adding up to 32 bytes of overhead. On a 1500-byte MTU path, frames at full size exceed the transport's capacity and are dropped. Raising the MTU on all intervening interfaces accommodates this encapsulation overhead, satisfying the untrusted Metro Ethernet circuit's size constraint.

Why this answer

MACsec encapsulation adds overhead (ICV and security headers) to the Ethernet frame, increasing its size. If the transport provider network or physical interface MTU is not increased to accommodate this overhead, frames are dropped.

243
Multi-Selectmedium

Which of the following are valid IS-IS PDU types? (Choose THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.IIH PDU
B.LSP PDU
C.CSNP PDU
D.Hello ACK PDU
E.Routing Update PDU
AnswersA, B, C

IIH (IS-IS Hello) PDUs are the valid IS-IS PDU type used to establish and maintain adjacencies on broadcast and point-to-point circuits, carrying neighbour and circuit information. Alongside LSP and SNP types, IIH forms the complete set of IS-IS PDU categories defined by the protocol.

Why this answer

IS-IS defines three core PDU categories, and options A, B, and C map directly onto them. A: IIH (Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System Hello) PDUs are the valid IS-IS hello packets used to discover and maintain adjacencies on broadcast and point-to-point links, with LAN and P2P variants. B: LSP (Link State PDU) is the valid IS-IS packet that carries link-state information and is flooded to build the link-state database, analogous to an OSPF LSA.

C: CSNP (Complete Sequence Number PDU) is a valid IS-IS PDU used to describe the complete set of LSPs in a database, sent by the DIS on broadcast networks and used for database synchronization. Options D and E are not IS-IS PDU types: IS-IS hellos are not acknowledged with a separate 'Hello ACK PDU' (acknowledgment is implicit via receipt of a subsequent IIH), and there is no 'Routing Update PDU' in IS-IS—routing information is distributed through LSPs, CSNPs, and PSNPs.

244
MCQhard

An administrator implements filter-based forwarding and applies a firewall filter on the ingress interface. However, traffic matching the filter is dropped rather than routed to the alternate routing instance. Upon investigation, what is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The ingress interface is configured as a trunk port.
B.The destination IP address does not have a matching route in the alternate routing instance's table.
C.The firewall filter term lacks a 'count' action statement.
D.The routing instance type is set to virtual-router instead of forwarding.
AnswerB

Filter-based forwarding relies on the alternate routing instance having a matching route for the destination. If none exists, the packet cannot be forwarded and is dropped, which is the most likely cause of the described behaviour.

Why this answer

Filter-based forwarding (FBF) works by matching traffic with a firewall filter and then using a 'routing-instance' action to steer it into an alternate routing table. If the alternate routing instance has no route for the destination IP, the packet cannot be forwarded and is dropped, which matches the symptom described.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the assumption that FBF 'just works' once the filter is applied — the trap is forgetting that the alternate routing instance needs its own populated routing table for the destination.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because whether the ingress interface is a trunk or access port does not affect FBF functionality — FBF operates on routed traffic regardless of port mode. Option C is wrong because a 'count' action is optional for diagnostics; its absence does not cause traffic to be dropped. Option D is wrong because 'virtual-router' is a valid routing instance type for FBF (it provides a separate routing table), so this is not the cause of the drop.

245
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE parameters must match between two peer devices to successfully establish a MACsec secure session using pre-shared keys (PSK)? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Connectivity Association Key (CAK)
B.Connectivity Key Name (CKN)
C.Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) size set to exactly 1500 bytes
D.Cipher suite configuration
E.IP address subnet allocation on the physical transit ports
AnswersA, B, D

Both peers must be configured with the identical Connectivity Association Key, the secret used to derive MACsec session keys. A mismatch causes the secure association to fail, so the CAK is a mandatory matching parameter for PSK-based MACsec.

Why this answer

To establish a MACsec secure session using pre-shared keys, both peers must share the same Connectivity Association Key (CAK), which is the secret used to derive the session keys — so option A is correct. They must also agree on the Connectivity Key Name (CKN), the identifier that tells each peer which CAK to use when multiple keys exist, making option B correct. The cipher suite configuration must match as well, because both peers must negotiate the same encryption and integrity algorithms (for example GCM-AES-128 or GCM-AES-256) to interoperate — so option D is correct.

Option C is wrong because MACsec does not require an MTU of exactly 1500 bytes; MTU is a general interface parameter and can vary as long as the link supports the encapsulated frame size. Option E is wrong because MACsec operates at Layer 2 and does not depend on IP subnet allocation on the physical transit ports.

246
MCQeasy

You are configuring OSPF on a Juniper EX Series switch. You want to change the OSPF hello interval and dead interval on a specific interface to improve convergence. Which configuration hierarchy should you use?

A.set interfaces ge-0/0/0.0 family inet ospf hello-interval 5 dead-interval 20
B.set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 interface ge-0/0/0.0 hello-interval 5 dead-interval 20
C.set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 interface ge-0/0/0.0 timers hello-interval 5 dead-interval 20
D.set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 interface ge-0/0/0.0 hello-time 5 dead-time 20
AnswerB

This command correctly modifies the hello and dead intervals for OSPF on the specified interface. The hello-interval and dead-interval statements are valid under the interface hierarchy in OSPF. This allows per-interface tuning, which is essential for convergence. The dead interval is typically four times the hello interval, so 5 and 20 are consistent.

Why this answer

In Junos, OSPF interface parameters such as hello-interval and dead-interval are configured under the [edit protocols ospf area area-id interface interface-name] hierarchy. This allows per-interface tuning. The hello interval determines how often hello packets are sent, and the dead interval determines how long to wait before declaring a neighbor down.

Both must match on neighboring routers for an adjacency to form. The correct syntax uses hello-interval and dead-interval directly under the interface.

Exam trap

The trap here is misplacing the timer configuration under a timers sub-hierarchy or under the interface family, rather than directly under the OSPF interface.

247
MCQmedium

A network engineer wants to verify IS-IS link-state database entries, specifically checking for TLVs that carry extended IP reachability information with wide metrics. Which Junos operational command should be used?

A.show isis adjacency extensive
B.show isis database detail
C.show ospf database
D.show route protocols isis
AnswerB

The detail keyword expands each LSP, displaying its TLVs, including extended IP reachability entries carrying wide metrics. The summary form omits TLV contents, so only the detailed database output satisfies the requirement to inspect those specific TLVs.

Why this answer

To view the IS-IS link-state database with detailed TLV and metric information on Junos devices, the command 'show isis database detail' is used.

248
MCQeasy

Which statement is true regarding the behavior of storm control when the traffic rate exceeds the configured threshold?

A.Excess traffic exceeding the threshold is dropped by the switch hardware.
B.Traffic is rate-shaped and buffered in the output queue until congestion clears.
C.The interface is immediately shut down and placed in an error-disabled state.
D.The switch sends SNMP traps and forwards the traffic with a low-priority CoS marking.
AnswerA

Storm control enforces the configured threshold directly in switch hardware, so frames exceeding the limit are discarded at line rate rather than punted to the control plane. This satisfies the stem's requirement for true behaviour on threshold breach: excess traffic is dropped, not merely logged or rate-limited in software.

Why this answer

When storm control thresholds are exceeded, Junos drops the excess traffic matching the storm control criteria until the rate drops below the threshold.

249
MCQhard

An administrator implements OSPF on a Junos router with virtual links to span a disconnected non-backbone area across a non-backbone transit area to reach Area 0. What is a key design best practice regarding OSPF virtual links in enterprise networks?

A.They must be configured with a metric of 1 to ensure primary path selection.
B.They should be avoided in permanent designs due to troubleshooting complexity and lack of stability.
C.They automatically convert the transit area into an extension of the backbone.
D.They require the transit area to be configured as a totally stubby area.
AnswerB

Virtual links traverse a non-backbone transit area, creating a topology dependent on that area's stability and complicating fault isolation. Juniper documentation therefore recommends them only as temporary fixes for migration or repair, not as permanent design elements.

Why this answer

OSPF virtual links are a temporary solution to connect a disconnected area to the backbone. Best practice is to avoid them in permanent designs because they add complexity, are difficult to troubleshoot, and can introduce instability. They should only be used during transitional periods, such as when merging networks or during migration, and then replaced with proper physical or logical links.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that virtual links are a permanent solution or that they alter the transit area's properties. Candidates might think the transit area becomes part of the backbone, but it does not; it remains a separate area.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because virtual links do not require a metric of 1; the metric is used for cost calculation but is not a design best practice. Option C is wrong because virtual links do not convert the transit area into an extension of the backbone; the transit area remains a regular area, and the virtual link simply provides a logical path for LSAs. Option D is wrong because the transit area cannot be a totally stubby area; virtual links require the transit area to have full LSDB synchronization, which is incompatible with stubby area restrictions.

250
MCQmedium

You are troubleshooting a connectivity issue between an EX4300 switch access port and an end-host. The port is configured as an access port for VLAN 100, but the host cannot communicate. You run 'show ethernet-switching interface ge-0/0/1' and notice the port status is down/down. Which underlying reason most likely explains this state?

A.The native VLAN ID does not match the upstream trunk switch.
B.BPDU protection has disabled the port due to a loop.
C.The VLAN 100 has not been created under the [edit vlans] hierarchy.
D.The physical cable is disconnected or the transceiver is faulty.
AnswerD

down/down means the physical link is not established: the switch sees no signal from the host. The usual causes are a disconnected or damaged cable, a faulty or incompatible SFP transceiver, or a host network interface that is disabled or broken. Check the port and host LEDs, try a known-good cable or optic, and use 'show interfaces ge-0/0/1 extensive' or the optics diagnostics command to inspect link details.

Why this answer

A port status of down/down in Junos means the physical layer is not operational — the link itself has no signal. This is distinct from a logical or configuration problem, which would typically show up/down or down/up. A disconnected cable, faulty transceiver, or bad port are the classic causes of down/down.

VLAN or BPDU issues would not produce a down/down state because they operate above the physical layer.

Exam trap

The trap here is conflating logical misconfiguration (VLAN not created, native VLAN mismatch) with a physical-layer failure — candidates often assume a config error causes down/down, but down/down is almost always a Layer 1 problem.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a native VLAN mismatch on a trunk would cause VLAN hopping or traffic leakage, not a down/down physical state — the link would still be up. Option B is wrong because BPDU protection (bpdu-block-on-edge) places the port in a blocking or disabled state but the interface itself remains physically up, showing up/down or err-disabled, not down/down. Option C is wrong because a missing VLAN under [edit vlans] causes the port to be unable to forward traffic in that VLAN, but the physical link stays up — the symptom would be up/down or traffic not passing, not down/down.

251
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions occur when a Junos BGP routing policy includes the 'next policy' action? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Evaluation of the current policy terminates immediately.
B.Evaluation proceeds to the next independent policy defined in the chain.
C.The route is immediately accepted and installed in the routing table.
D.The route is rejected and dropped.
E.Evaluation jumps to the next term within the same policy block.
AnswersA, B

The 'next policy' action halts evaluation of the current policy immediately, so no further terms within it are assessed. The route then passes to the next policy in the chain, satisfying the stem's requirement for this terminating behaviour rather than accepting or rejecting the route.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because the 'next policy' action terminates evaluation of the current policy immediately, so no further terms within that policy are processed. Option B is correct because, after stopping the current policy, Junos proceeds to evaluate the next independent policy in the chain (the next policy referenced in the import/export chain), allowing subsequent policies to make the final accept/reject decision. Option C is incorrect because 'next policy' does not itself accept or install a route; acceptance requires an explicit 'accept' action or a default policy decision.

Option D is incorrect because 'next policy' does not reject or drop the route; rejection is performed by a 'reject' action. Option E is incorrect because jumping to the next term within the same policy block is not what 'next policy' does; that would be the behavior of 'next term'.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the difference between 'next policy' and 'next term'. Candidates may confuse the two, thinking 'next policy' jumps to the next term within the same policy, but it actually moves to the next policy in the chain.

252
Multi-Selectmedium

An engineer is troubleshooting IS-IS adjacency formation failures on a Junos device. Which THREE parameters must match or be compatible between neighboring routers to successfully establish an IS-IS adjacency? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Link-level MTU size, as oversized IIH packets may be dropped if they exceed the interface MTU.
B.Area addresses (at least one shared area address for Level 1 adjacencies)
C.Identical system IDs configured on both neighboring nodes
D.Authentication type and password (if authentication is enabled)
E.Identical DIS priority values on multi-access networks
AnswersA, B, D

IS-IS hello packets are padded to the interface MTU by default, so if link MTU sizes differ, oversized IIHs are silently dropped and adjacency never forms. Matching MTU satisfies the link-level constraint required for reliable IIH exchange between neighbours.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because IS-IS IIH (Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System Hello) PDUs are sent at Layer 2 and must fit within the link MTU; if the MTU is mismatched or too small, oversized IIH packets are dropped and the adjacency never forms. Option B is correct because Level 1 routers must share at least one common area address in their area address list to form a Level 1 adjacency, while Level 2 adjacencies are formed between routers in the same routing domain regardless of area. Option D is correct because when authentication is enabled, the authentication type (cleartext, MD5, or HMAC-MD5) and the password/key must match on both neighbors, otherwise the IIH PDUs fail authentication and the adjacency is rejected.

Option C is not required because IS-IS system IDs must be unique, not identical — duplicate system IDs actually cause adjacency and routing problems. Option E is not required because DIS priority only influences which router becomes the Designated Intermediate System on a multi-access network; mismatched priorities do not prevent adjacency formation.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that IS-IS system IDs must match between neighbors, when in fact they must be unique — confusing system ID with area address or NET.

253
MCQmedium

You configure port security on a switch interface and set the violation action to 'restrict'. What happens when a port security violation occurs under this setting?

A.Packets from violating MAC addresses are dropped, and a syslog message/counter is generated while valid traffic continues.
B.The interface immediately shuts down and generates an SNMP trap.
C.The violating MAC address is automatically added to a static ARP inspection deny list.
D.The switch drops all traffic on the interface until the violation timer expires.
AnswerA

With restrict, frames sourced from violating MAC addresses are discarded, while traffic from permitted addresses continues forwarding. The switch also increments a violation counter and emits a syslog message, giving visibility without shutting the interface down as shutdown mode would.

Why this answer

The 'restrict' action causes the switch to drop packets from unauthorized source MAC addresses and increment violation counters, but the port remains up and forwarding for valid MACs.

254
MCQmedium

An administrator is setting up VRRP tracking on an EX4300 switch interface. If the uplink interface monitoring the core network fails, what should happen to the VRRP priority on the gateway interface?

A.The VRRP priority is increased to maximum to force immediate forwarding.
B.The interface shuts down all LACP bundles connected to the switch.
C.The switch initiates an immediate In-Service Software Upgrade.
D.The VRRP priority is decremented by a configured value so that the backup router can assume the master role.
AnswerD

VRRP interface tracking decrements the gateway's priority by the configured value when the monitored uplink fails, allowing the backup to preempt and become master. This satisfies the stem's requirement that the backup router assumes the master role after core connectivity loss.

Why this answer

VRRP interface tracking automatically decrements the local router's priority when a monitored tracking interface goes down, allowing a backup router with higher priority to take over as master.

255
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO options represent valid benefits of configuring Link Aggregation Groups (LAG)? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Increased aggregate bandwidth between connected networking devices.
B.Synchronization of BGP routing daemon state between separate routers.
C.Automatic upgrade of Junos OS across peer devices.
D.Redundancy and automatic failover if a physical member link fails.
E.Elimination of the need for Spanning Tree Protocol across all VLANs.
AnswersA, D

Aggregating multiple physical links into one logical LAG sums their individual capacities, so the bundle carries more traffic than any single member. This satisfies the stem's bandwidth benefit: aggregate throughput between connected devices increases, and traffic is load-balanced across active member links.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because a Link Aggregation Group bundles multiple physical interfaces into a single logical link, so the combined throughput of the member links provides increased aggregate bandwidth between the connected devices. Option D is correct because LAG monitors member link health and, if one physical member link fails, traffic is automatically redistributed across the remaining active links, providing redundancy and failover without losing the logical interface. Option B is incorrect because BGP peer state synchronization is handled by BGP itself (e.g., via TCP sessions and route reflectors), not by LAG.

Option C is incorrect because Junos OS upgrades are performed through software management procedures, not through link aggregation. Option E is incorrect because LAG does not eliminate the need for Spanning Tree Protocol in all cases; STP may still be required to prevent loops in topologies with redundant paths outside the LAG.

256
MCQhard

A Juniper EX4300 Virtual Chassis has four members. You want to ensure that if the master Routing Engine fails, the backup takes over and the new master is reachable through the same management IP address without any manual intervention. Which statement describes the correct behavior?

A.The management IP remains on the failed master, and you must use the console port on the new master.
B.Each member must be configured with a unique management IP, and you must reconnect to the new master manually.
C.The backup member keeps the management IP only if graceful Routing Engine switchover (GRES) is enabled.
D.The Virtual Chassis management IP address is tied to the master role and moves automatically to the new master.
AnswerD

In a Virtual Chassis, the management IP address is a virtual address associated with the master role. When a switchover occurs, the backup becomes master and the virtual management IP is reassigned to the new master, so management connectivity is preserved without manual reconfiguration. This is a core high-availability behavior of the Virtual Chassis architecture.

Why this answer

A Virtual Chassis presents a single virtual management IP address that is owned by the master. When the master fails and the backup takes over, the virtual address is reassigned to the new master, so administrators retain management access without manual reconfiguration. This automatic movement of the management address is fundamental to the high-availability behavior of the Virtual Chassis.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing GRES, which preserves forwarding state during switchover, with the mechanism that moves the virtual management IP, which is tied to the master role itself.

257
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE statements are true regarding IP-IP encapsulation in Junos OS? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.IP-IP tunnels encapsulate an IP packet directly inside another IP packet without adding a GRE header.
B.IP-IP encapsulation introduces less header overhead compared to GRE encapsulation.
C.IP-IP tunnels natively support multi-protocol payloads such as AppleTalk and IPX.
D.IP-IP tunnels require a specialized physical line card with built-in hardware cryptographic engines.
E.IP-IP tunnels utilize interface names starting with the ip- prefix.
AnswersA, B, E

IP-IP encapsulation adds only an outer IP header, so no GRE header is inserted between the payload and the tunnel header. This satisfies the stem's requirement for a true statement about IP-IP behaviour in Junos OS, distinguishing it from GRE tunnels, which do add that extra header.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because IP-IP (IP-in-IP) tunneling, as defined in RFC 2003, simply wraps an original IP packet inside a new outer IP header with protocol number 4, without inserting a GRE header. Option B is correct because GRE adds at least 4 bytes of GRE header (plus optional fields) on top of the outer IP header, whereas IP-IP adds only the outer IP header, resulting in lower overhead. Option E is correct because in Junos OS, IP-IP tunnel interfaces are configured with names beginning with the ip- prefix (for example, ip-0/0/0), distinguishing them from gr- (GRE) and other tunnel interface types.

Option C is not correct because IP-IP encapsulation only carries IP payloads; multi-protocol payloads like AppleTalk or IPX require GRE, which supports a protocol type field. Option D is not correct because IP-IP tunnels are software-based logical interfaces and do not require any specialized physical line card with hardware cryptographic engines.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the difference between IP-IP and GRE, so candidates may incorrectly assume IP-IP supports multi-protocol payloads or requires special hardware, when it is actually a simple IP-only tunnel.

258
MCQhard

When using authentication in IS-IS, where can you apply the password?

A.At both the interface and global levels.
B.Only on the loopback interface.
C.Only at the global level.
D.Only at the interface level.
AnswerA

IS-IS authentication passwords can be configured at both the interface level, controlling hello PDUs on a specific link, and the global level, securing link-state PDUs across the routing domain. This dual placement satisfies the stem's requirement by allowing authentication at either scope, matching how Junos applies IS-IS authentication.

Why this answer

IS-IS authentication can be applied to the interface level or the global level (area/domain).

259
MCQmedium

You are configuring a static route to a destination and want to ensure that the route is not redistributed into OSPF. Which configuration statement should you use?

A.reject
B.passive
C.no-readvertise
D.no-install
AnswerC

The 'no-readvertise' statement prevents the static route from being redistributed into dynamic routing protocols, including OSPF. It is configured under the static route. This is useful when you want the route to be used locally but not advertised to other routers, maintaining control over routing information propagation.

Why this answer

The 'no-readvertise' statement is specifically designed to prevent a static route from being redistributed into dynamic routing protocols. It ensures the route is used locally but not advertised, which is exactly what is needed to keep the route out of OSPF.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing 'no-readvertise' with other static route options like 'reject' or 'no-install', which serve different purposes.

260
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of a Junos tunnel interface when used in conjunction with routing protocols?

A.To provide a virtual point-to-point layer 3 link for routing protocol adjacencies across an untrusted or disjointed transport network.
B.To act as a physical layer 2 bridge for VLAN extension without IP addresses.
C.To encrypt all transit traffic by default using hardware-based AES-256.
D.To replace physical interfaces for standard local area network connections.
AnswerA

A tunnel interface presents a virtual point-to-point Layer 3 link, allowing routing protocol adjacencies to form across transport networks that lack direct connectivity or are untrusted. It satisfies the need to run protocols such as OSPF or BGP over disjointed or insecure paths.

Why this answer

A Junos tunnel interface provides a virtual point-to-point Layer 3 link that can carry routing protocol adjacencies across a transport network that may not support multicast or is disjointed. This allows routing protocols like OSPF or BGP to form neighbors over the tunnel, treating it as a direct connection.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming tunnels provide encryption or Layer 2 bridging; candidates may confuse tunnel interfaces with IPsec or bridge interfaces.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because tunnel interfaces operate at Layer 3, not Layer 2, and do not provide bridging. Option C is wrong because tunnel interfaces do not encrypt traffic by default; encryption requires IPsec. Option D is wrong because tunnel interfaces are not replacements for physical LAN interfaces; they are used for overlay connectivity.

261
MCQeasy

Which OSPF packet type is responsible for discovering neighbors and maintaining adjacencies on a Junos device?

A.Link-State Update (Type 4)
B.Hello (Type 1)
C.Link-State Request (Type 3)
D.Database Description (Type 2)
AnswerB

Hello packets (Type 1) are exchanged periodically on OSPF-enabled interfaces to discover neighbours and maintain adjacencies. They carry parameters such as hello and dead intervals, area ID and router priority, which must match before an adjacency forms.

Why this answer

OSPF Hello packets (Type 1) are responsible for neighbor discovery and maintaining adjacencies. They are sent periodically on OSPF-enabled interfaces, and they carry parameters like router ID, area ID, hello/dead intervals, and neighbor lists. If Hellos stop arriving within the dead interval, the adjacency is torn down.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Hello (Type 1) with Database Description (Type 2) — both are involved in adjacency formation, but Hello is specifically for discovery and keepalive.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Link-State Update (Type 4) is used to flood link-state advertisements (LSAs) after adjacencies are formed, not to discover neighbors. Option C is wrong because Link-State Request (Type 3) is used to request specific LSAs from a neighbor during database synchronization. Option D is wrong because Database Description (Type 2) packets are used to exchange database summaries during adjacency formation, but they don't discover neighbors — Hellos do that first.

262
MCQeasy

Which Junos configuration hierarchy is used to configure secure access port features such as DHCP snooping and Dynamic ARP Inspection?

A.set ethernet-switching-options secure-access-port
B.set protocols l2-security
C.set system security layer2
D.set switch-options port-security
AnswerA

DHCP snooping and Dynamic ARP Inspection are Layer 2 security features configured under the `secure-access-port` stanza within the `ethernet-switching-options` hierarchy on EX Series switches. This satisfies the stem's requirement for the Junos hierarchy dedicated to secure access port features, binding trusted interfaces and VLANs to those protections.

Why this answer

In Junos, secure access port features like DHCP snooping, Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI), and IP source guard are configured under the [edit ethernet-switching-options secure-access-port] hierarchy. This is the correct location for these Layer 2 security features on EX Series switches. The command 'set ethernet-switching-options secure-access-port' enables the configuration stanza where you can then specify VLANs, interfaces, and other parameters for DHCP snooping and DAI.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the exact hierarchy for Layer 2 security features, and candidates may confuse 'secure-access-port' with 'port-security' or assume it's under 'protocols' or 'system'.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'protocols l2-security' is not a valid Junos hierarchy; L2 security features are not configured under protocols. Option C is wrong because 'system security layer2' does not exist; system security is for management access, not Layer 2 features. Option D is wrong because 'switch-options port-security' is not the correct hierarchy; port security (MAC limiting) is configured under 'ethernet-switching-options secure-access-port' as well, but the specific hierarchy for DHCP snooping and DAI is 'secure-access-port', not 'port-security'.

263
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO statements are correct regarding the operation of MSTP instance 0 (CIST)? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.It handles any VLANs that are not explicitly mapped to another user-defined MST instance.
B.It operates independently without any interaction with external RSTP switches.
C.It is limited strictly to a maximum hop count of 1.
D.It acts as the Common and Internal Spanning Tree (CIST).
E.It prohibits the use of root protection on instance 0 ports.
AnswersA, D

MSTP instance 0, the CIST, carries all VLANs not explicitly mapped to another user-defined MST instance. This default mapping ensures every VLAN has a spanning-tree topology even when administrators define additional instances for load balancing.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because MSTP instance 0, the CIST, carries all VLANs that are not explicitly mapped to a user-defined MST instance (MSTI); these unmapped VLANs default to the CIST and are forwarded along the CIST topology. Option D is correct because instance 0 is by definition the Common and Internal Spanning Tree (CIST), which provides the single spanning-tree topology that interconnects all MST regions and also interoperates with external SST/RSTP regions. The unmarked options are wrong: B is false because the CIST does interact with external RSTP switches by treating each external region as a virtual bridge and running RSTP-based interoperation at region boundaries; C is false because MSTP uses the standard 802.1D hop-count limit of 20 (not 1) for the CIST; and E is false because root protection (root guard) can be configured on CIST/instance-0 ports to prevent them from becoming root ports.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that instance 0 is isolated from external switches or that it has special limitations, when it is actually the CIST that ensures interoperability.

264
MCQhard

While reviewing BGP updates, you notice an attribute type code of 3 with a value representing an IP address. Which well-known mandatory path attribute is this?

A.AS_PATH
B.ORIGIN
C.NEXT_HOP
D.LOCAL_PREF
AnswerC

NEXT_HOP carries attribute type code 3 and holds an IP address, exactly matching the observed BGP update. As a well-known mandatory attribute, it specifies the next-hop IP for the advertised prefix, satisfying the stem's requirement to identify the attribute by its type code and IP-address value.

Why this answer

Attribute type code 3 corresponds to NEXT_HOP, which is a well-known mandatory attribute indicating the IP address of the router used to reach the destination.

265
MCQhard

You are configuring Multi-Chassis Link Aggregation (MC-LAG) across two Juniper switches acting as separate control plane devices. Which protocol is used between the peer switches to synchronize state and ensure MAC address table consistency across the MC-LAG domain?

A.Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
B.Graceful Routing Engine Switchover (GRES)
C.Inter-Chassis Control Protocol (ICCP)
D.Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
AnswerC

ICCP runs between the two MC-LAG peer switches over the inter-chassis link, exchanging state and synchronising MAC address information so both control planes present consistent forwarding. This satisfies the requirement for MAC table consistency across separate control plane devices.

Why this answer

MC-LAG uses Inter-Chassis Control Protocol (ICCP) to coordinate state, consistency, and status between the two peer switches.

266
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements accurately describe the behavior of the BGP AS_PATH attribute? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.It is automatically stripped when crossing a confederation boundary.
B.It is a well-known mandatory attribute.
C.It is prepended with the local AS number when sent to an eBGP peer.
D.It is modified when an update is sent to an iBGP peer.
E.It is an optional non-transitive attribute used for internal metrics.
AnswersB, C

AS_PATH is a well-known mandatory attribute, meaning every BGP update carrying reachable NLRI must include it, and all BGP implementations must recognise and process it. This mandatory classification distinguishes it from optional or discretionary attributes.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because AS_PATH is classified as a well-known mandatory BGP attribute, meaning every BGP UPDATE that carries reachable NLRI must include it, and all BGP-speaking routers must recognize and process it. Option C is correct because when a router advertises a route to an external BGP (eBGP) peer, it prepends its own local AS number to the AS_PATH, which is the core loop-prevention and path-length mechanism of BGP. Option A is wrong because AS_PATH is not stripped at confederation boundaries; confederation sub-AS numbers are carried in a separate AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE/AS_CONFED_SET segment, and the attribute itself is preserved.

Option D is wrong because updates sent to internal BGP (iBGP) peers do not modify AS_PATH — the local AS is only prepended on eBGP advertisements. Option E is wrong because AS_PATH is not an optional non-transitive attribute; that description fits attributes like MED, and AS_PATH is well-known mandatory rather than used for internal metrics.

267
Multi-Selectmedium

An engineer is configuring a trunk port on an EX Series switch and needs to ensure that untagged and priority-tagged frames are handled correctly. Which TWO configuration actions are required? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Set the interface mode to trunk under the ethernet-switching family hierarchy.
B.Enable Layer 3 routing directly on the physical trunk interface unit 0.
C.Configure the interface encapsulation as CCC or VPLS.
D.Disable MAC learning on the trunk interface to prevent native VLAN loops.
E.Configure the native-vlan-id statement to specify which VLAN receives untagged frames.
AnswersA, E

Setting the interface mode to trunk under the ethernet-switching family enables 802.1Q encapsulation, which is what allows the port to carry multiple VLANs and correctly process untagged and priority-tagged frames. Without this mode, the interface defaults to access behaviour and cannot satisfy the trunking requirement.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because on EX Series switches the port must be placed into trunk mode under the ethernet-switching family hierarchy (set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family ethernet-switching interface-mode trunk) so that it can carry multiple VLANs and process tagged frames. Option E is correct because the native-vlan-id statement defines which VLAN handles untagged and priority-tagged frames arriving on the trunk, ensuring those frames are mapped to the intended VLAN. Option B is incorrect because a Layer 2 trunk port does not require Layer 3 routing on unit 0; routing would be configured on an IRB (VLAN) interface instead.

Option C is incorrect because CCC and VPLS encapsulations are used for circuit cross-connect and VPLS Layer 2 VPN services, not for standard 802.1Q trunking. Option D is incorrect because disabling MAC learning is not required or recommended for a trunk port and would not prevent native VLAN loops.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests trunk port configuration, and candidates may forget that the native VLAN must be explicitly configured to handle untagged frames, or they may confuse trunk mode with access mode.

268
MCQhard

An EX4300 switch is configured with a trunk port that carries VLAN 10 and VLAN 20. The trunk is connected to a third-party switch that uses a native VLAN of 1 for untagged traffic. You notice that untagged frames from the third-party switch are being dropped on the EX4300. Which configuration change resolves this issue?

A.Configure 'vlan members 1' on the EX4300 trunk port in addition to VLAN 10 and VLAN 20.
B.Configure 'native-vlan-id 1' on the EX4300 trunk port and ensure VLAN 1 is created.
C.Configure 'native-vlan-id 10' on the EX4300 trunk port to match the first VLAN in the trunk.
D.Configure 'interface-mode access' on the EX4300 trunk port and assign it to VLAN 1.
AnswerB

The third-party switch sends untagged frames on its native VLAN 1. The EX4300 trunk port must be configured with 'native-vlan-id 1' so that untagged frames are classified into VLAN 1. Without this, untagged frames are dropped because the trunk port expects tagged frames for VLAN 10 and 20. Creating VLAN 1 on the EX4300 is also necessary for the frames to be bridged, making this the correct fix.

Why this answer

Untagged frames on a trunk are assigned to the native VLAN. The third-party switch uses native VLAN 1, so the EX4300 trunk must be configured with 'native-vlan-id 1' and VLAN 1 must exist. This allows the EX4300 to classify untagged frames into VLAN 1 instead of dropping them.

Matching native VLAN IDs on both ends is essential for untagged traffic to traverse the trunk.

Exam trap

The trap here is adding the native VLAN as a tagged member instead of configuring 'native-vlan-id', which is what actually classifies untagged frames.

269
MCQmedium

What is the function of the DIS in an IS-IS broadcast network?

A.To authenticate all neighbors.
B.To generate pseudonode LSPs.
C.To perform path calculation for all routers.
D.To act as the routing controller for the area.
AnswerB

On broadcast networks the DIS advertises a pseudonode LSP on behalf of the LAN, representing the multi-access segment as a single virtual node. This reduces adjacency and LSP flooding overhead, which is precisely the DIS function the question targets.

Why this answer

The DIS (Designated Intermediate System) is responsible for generating pseudonode LSPs to represent the broadcast network.

270
MCQhard

An administrator configures IP Source Guard on an access switch port. When a client connects, its traffic is dropped even though it acquired an IP via DHCP. Reviewing logs shows no DHCP snooping binding. What is the root cause?

A.IP Source Guard requires static ARP inspection to be enabled simultaneously.
B.The client's MAC address is in the port security violation log.
C.DHCP snooping was not enabled on the corresponding VLAN, preventing binding table creation.
D.IP Source Guard only supports static IP bindings, not DHCP-derived bindings.
AnswerC

IP Source Guard relies on the DHCP snooping binding table to validate source IP and MAC pairs. Without DHCP snooping enabled on the client's VLAN, no binding is created, so all traffic is dropped despite successful DHCP lease acquisition.

Why this answer

IP Source Guard (IPSG) relies on the DHCP snooping binding table to validate source IP and MAC addresses on untrusted ports. If DHCP snooping is not enabled on the VLAN, the binding table is not populated, so IPSG has no entries to permit and drops all traffic. The root cause is that DHCP snooping was not enabled on the corresponding VLAN.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming IPSG works independently of DHCP snooping; candidates must remember that IPSG depends on the DHCP snooping binding table for dynamic entries.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because IPSG does not require static ARP inspection; it can work with DHCP snooping bindings or static bindings. Option B is wrong because port security violations would log MAC addresses, but the issue is that no binding exists, not a violation. Option D is wrong because IPSG supports both static and DHCP-derived bindings; the problem is that DHCP snooping is not enabled to create the bindings.

271
MCQhard

During OSPF database synchronization, two Junos routers exchange Database Description (DBD) packets. One router repeatedly sends DBD packets with the master/slave bit set incorrectly or encounters sequence number mismatches, causing the adjacency to loop in the Exchange state. Which OSPF packet type is immediately sent by a router to request missing link-state information once the ExStart/Exchange transition completes?

A.Link-State Request (Type 3)
B.Hello (Type 1)
C.Database Description (Type 2)
D.Link-State Update (Type 4)
AnswerA

Once ExStart and Exchange complete, the router sends Link-State Request (Type 3) packets to ask neighbours for the specific LSAs missing from its database. This directly resolves the incomplete database that keeps the adjacency looping in Exchange.

Why this answer

Once the ExStart/Exchange transition completes, a router sends Link-State Request (Type 3) packets to request specific link-state advertisements (LSAs) that are missing or outdated. This occurs after the Database Description exchange, where routers identify which LSAs they need. The Link-State Request is used to request the full LSA from the neighbor.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests OSPF packet types and their order; candidates may confuse Link-State Request with Link-State Update or Database Description, especially under adjacency issues.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Hello packets (Type 1) are used for neighbor discovery and maintenance, not for requesting LSAs. Option C is wrong because Database Description packets (Type 2) are used during the Exchange state to summarize the database, not to request specific LSAs. Option D is wrong because Link-State Update packets (Type 4) are used to send the requested LSAs, not to request them.

272
MCQmedium

You need to configure authentication for a BGP peering session on a Junos device to prevent spoofing attacks. Where is the MD5 authentication key configured?

A.firewall family inet filter bgp-auth
B.system authentication-algorithm md5
C.protocols bgp group name authentication-key
D.routing-options md5-key
AnswerC

MD5 authentication is configured at the BGP group level under protocols bgp, using the authentication-key statement, which applies the TCP MD5 signature to every session in that group. This prevents spoofed TCP segments from establishing or hijacking the peering.

Why this answer

BGP MD5 authentication keys are configured under the specific neighbor or group definition using the authentication-key statement.

273
MCQeasy

An administrator needs to verify the exact BGP timers negotiated with an eBGP peer on a Junos device. Which operational command should be used?

A.show ospf neighbor
B.show bgp summary
C.show route advertising-protocol bgp
D.show bgp neighbor
AnswerD

The show bgp neighbor command displays per-peer session details, including the negotiated hold time and keepalive interval exchanged with the eBGP peer. This directly satisfies the requirement to verify the exact timers actually agreed, rather than configured values.

Why this answer

The 'show bgp neighbor' command provides detailed information about a BGP neighbor session, including negotiated hold time, keepalive interval, state, and message statistics.

274
Multi-Selectmedium

An engineer is configuring static routes in Junos OS and wants to ensure high availability. Which TWO features can be implemented with static routes to achieve path redundancy? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Qualified next-hop with varying preference values
B.IGMP snooping on static interfaces
C.OSPF area stubbing
D.Recursive next-hop tracking via RPM or routing table lookups
E.BGP AS-path prepending on static routes
AnswersA, D

A qualified next-hop lists multiple next-hop addresses with different preference values, so Junos installs the preferred path and switches to the alternate when it fails. This provides static route redundancy without dynamic protocols, satisfying the high-availability requirement for path redundancy.

Why this answer

Option A (Qualified next-hop with varying preference values) is correct because Junos static routes support multiple qualified next-hops, each with its own preference; if the primary next-hop fails, the route with the next-lower preference becomes active, providing path redundancy. Option D (Recursive next-hop tracking via RPM or routing table lookups) is correct because a static route can resolve its next-hop recursively, and RPM (Real-time Performance Monitoring) probes or routing-table lookups can detect when the resolved next-hop becomes unreachable, allowing the route to be withdrawn or replaced. Option B (IGMP snooping) is a Layer 2 multicast optimization and does not provide static-route path redundancy.

Option C (OSPF area stubbing) is a dynamic routing design technique for reducing LSAs, not a static-route feature. Option E (BGP AS-path prepending) is a BGP path-manipulation tool and cannot be applied to plain static routes.

Exam trap

The trap is that candidates reach for dynamic-protocol features (OSPF stubbing, BGP prepending) when the question explicitly asks about static route redundancy — the answer must be a static-route-native mechanism.

275
MCQeasy

Which operational command displays the configured member IDs, priorities, and roles in an EX Series Virtual Chassis?

A.show lacp aggregated-devices
B.show virtual-chassis
C.show chassis alarms
D.show vrrp mastership
AnswerB

`show virtual-chassis` queries the Virtual Chassis operational state directly, returning each member's ID, configured priority, and current role (Master, Backup, or Linecard). This satisfies the stem's requirement for a single command exposing all three fields, unlike interface or protocol-specific commands that omit member priority data.

Why this answer

The 'show virtual-chassis' command displays member IDs, roles, priorities, and serial numbers.

276
Multi-Selecthard

You are configuring a GRE tunnel between two Juniper routers to carry OSPF traffic. The tunnel is up, but OSPF adjacencies are not forming. Which two actions would you take to troubleshoot and resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Increase the MTU on the tunnel interface to prevent OSPF hello packets from being fragmented.
B.Verify that the tunnel interfaces on both routers are in the same subnet and have OSPF enabled.
C.Enable OSPF point-to-point network type on the tunnel interface to avoid DR/BDR election.
D.Ensure that the tunnel source and destination addresses are reachable and that the tunnel is not flapping.
E.Configure OSPF to use a different hello interval on the tunnel interface than on the physical interface.
AnswersB, D

OSPF requires that interfaces be in the same subnet to form an adjacency. If the tunnel interfaces have IP addresses in different subnets, OSPF will not establish a neighbor relationship. Also, OSPF must be enabled on the tunnel interface (e.g., by including it in an OSPF area). Checking these ensures that the fundamental OSPF requirements are met over the tunnel.

Why this answer

OSPF over GRE tunnels requires that the tunnel interfaces be in the same subnet and have OSPF enabled on both ends. Additionally, the tunnel must be stable and reachable; if the underlying transport is flapping, OSPF adjacencies will drop. These two checks address the most common reasons for OSPF adjacency failures over tunnels: misconfigured IP subnets and an unstable tunnel.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on OSPF tuning parameters like hello intervals or network type when the root cause is often a basic IP subnet mismatch or an unstable tunnel.

277
MCQeasy

Which command allows you to inspect the active forwarding table entries and verify next-hops on a Junos router?

A.show route forwarding-table
B.show interfaces extensive
C.show pfe traffic
D.show routing-engine status
AnswerA

The forwarding table holds the router's active next-hop and egress interface entries, distinct from the routing table's protocol paths. Running this command displays those installed forwarding entries, letting you confirm which next-hop each destination actually resolves to on the Junos device.

Why this answer

'show route forwarding-table' displays the active forwarding table entries that the Packet Forwarding Engine (PFE) actually uses to forward packets, including next-hop information. This is the command that verifies what the router is really doing at the forwarding plane, not just what the routing protocol advertised.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the distinction between the control-plane routing table ('show route') and the data-plane forwarding table ('show route forwarding-table') — candidates pick the wrong command when asked about active forwarding entries.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'show interfaces extensive' displays detailed interface statistics and errors, not forwarding table entries or next-hops. Option C is wrong because 'show pfe traffic' shows PFE traffic statistics, not the forwarding table contents. Option D is wrong because 'show routing-engine status' shows the state of the Routing Engine (CPU, memory, mastership), which is unrelated to forwarding table inspection.

278
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO traffic conditions will trigger storm control drops on a configured switch interface? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Multicast traffic rate exceeding the configured threshold
B.Unicast traffic destined for known active MAC addresses exceeding average utilization
C.CPU control plane queue utilization exceeding 90%
D.Broadcast traffic rate exceeding the configured threshold
E.BPDU control frames exceeding Spanning Tree hello timers
AnswersA, D

Storm control meters ingress traffic per type against configured thresholds. Multicast frames are one monitored category, so a multicast rate exceeding its configured threshold triggers the interface to drop excess multicast packets until the rate falls back below the limit.

Why this answer

Storm control on a switch interface monitors Layer 2 traffic rates and drops frames when a configured threshold is exceeded, and it applies to broadcast, multicast, and unknown unicast traffic. Option A is correct because multicast traffic exceeding the configured threshold is one of the traffic types storm control polices, so it triggers drops. Option D is correct because broadcast traffic exceeding the configured threshold is the classic storm control trigger, suppressing broadcast storms on the interface.

Option B is wrong because unicast destined for known active MAC addresses is normal, expected forwarding traffic and is not counted by storm control (only unknown unicast is). Option C is wrong because CPU control plane queue utilization is a control-plane policing concern, not an interface storm control action. Option E is wrong because BPDUs are control frames handled by Spanning Tree, not storm-control-monitored data traffic.

279
MCQmedium

You are configuring a GRE tunnel between two Juniper routers. The tunnel interface is gr-0/0/0, and you have configured the tunnel source as ge-0/0/0.0 and the tunnel destination as 192.0.2.2. You notice that the tunnel interface is up, but traffic sent through the tunnel is being dropped. Which action would you take to resolve this issue?

A.Ensure that the tunnel destination is reachable via the tunnel source interface's routing table.
B.Increase the MTU on the tunnel interface to accommodate the GRE overhead.
C.Configure a firewall filter on the tunnel interface to allow GRE traffic.
D.Change the tunnel mode from GRE to IP-IP to reduce overhead.
AnswerA

For a GRE tunnel to pass traffic, the tunnel destination must be reachable through the tunnel source interface. If the route to the destination points elsewhere, the encapsulated packets may be sent out the wrong interface or dropped. Verifying and correcting the route ensures that the outer IP packets reach the remote endpoint, allowing the tunnel to function properly.

Why this answer

The tunnel interface being up indicates that the tunnel configuration is recognized, but traffic drops often occur when the tunnel destination is not reachable through the tunnel source interface. Ensuring that the route to the destination points out the source interface allows the encapsulated packets to be sent correctly. This is a common oversight when the underlying network has multiple paths or when the source interface is not the preferred route.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that an up tunnel interface guarantees end-to-end connectivity, when in fact the tunnel can be up even if the destination is unreachable via the source interface.

280
MCQmedium

You are configuring OSPF on a Junos device and notice that Type 3 LSAs are not being generated or propagated into a specific area. When examining the configuration under protocols ospf, you see that the area is defined with the no-summaries parameter. Which area type has been configured?

A.Not-So-Stubby Area (NSSA)
B.Transit Area
C.Standard OSPF Area
D.Totally Stubby Area
AnswerD

The 'no-summaries' option configures a totally stubby area, blocking Type 3, 4, and 5 LSAs.

Why this answer

In Junos OS, the 'no-summaries' parameter under 'set protocols ospf area' defines a Stub area as a totally stubby area, which suppresses Type 3 summary LSAs from being injected into the area by the ABR.

281
MCQeasy

An administrator needs to create a VLAN named 'voice' with a VLAN ID of 50 on a Junos EX Series switch. Which configuration path achieves this?

A.set vlans voice vlan-id 50
B.set ethernet-switching-options vlans voice id 50
C.set bridge-domains voice vlan-id 50
D.set interfaces vlan unit 50 name voice
AnswerA

Junos stores VLAN membership under the [vlans] hierarchy, where the VLAN name is the identifier and vlan-id assigns the 802.1Q tag. Setting 'voice' with vlan-id 50 creates the required VLAN and binds it to tag 50, satisfying the named-VLAN-with-ID-50 constraint.

Why this answer

On Junos EX Series switches, VLANs are configured under the [edit vlans] hierarchy with the syntax 'set vlans <name> vlan-id <id>'. This creates a VLAN named 'voice' with VLAN ID 50, which can then be associated with access or trunk interfaces.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the exact Junos hierarchy for VLAN creation, and candidates confuse it with bridge-domains (MX), ethernet-switching-options (non-ELS legacy), or interface-level VLAN configuration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'ethernet-switching-options vlans' is not a valid configuration path for creating VLANs — ethernet-switching-options handles storm control, port security, and similar features, not VLAN definitions. Option C is wrong because 'bridge-domains' is used for Layer 2 bridging on MX series routers, not for EX Series switch VLANs. Option D is wrong because 'interfaces vlan unit 50 name voice' is not valid syntax — VLAN interfaces are configured as 'set interfaces vlan unit 50 family inet address ...' and the VLAN itself must be defined under [edit vlans].

282
MCQhard

You have an EX Series switch running RSTP. You notice that a port connected to a server is flapping between forwarding and discarding states. The server NIC is configured for teaming but is not sending BPDUs. You have configured the port as an edge port using 'set protocols rstp interface ge-0/0/5 edge'. However, the port still flaps. What is the most likely cause?

A.The edge port configuration is not supported on EX Series switches running RSTP.
B.The physical link is flapping, causing RSTP to transition the port.
C.The server is sending BPDUs, causing the edge port to revert to a non-edge port.
D.The port is configured as an edge port but is receiving BPDUs from another switch on the same segment.
AnswerB

If the physical link is flapping (e.g., due to a bad cable or NIC), RSTP will detect link up/down events and transition the port accordingly. Even with edge port configured, link flapping causes the port to go down and up, leading to state changes. This is the most likely cause given the server is not sending BPDUs and edge is configured.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is a flapping physical link. Edge port configuration prevents RSTP from expecting BPDUs, but it does not prevent state changes due to link up/down events. If the link is unstable, the port will transition between discarding and forwarding.

Checking interface statistics for link flaps would confirm. Other options are less likely because edge is supported, and the server is not sending BPDUs.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on spanning-tree protocol behavior and overlooking Layer 1 physical link instability as the root cause of state changes.

283
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting an RSTP network. You notice that a port on an EX Series switch is flapping between Discarding and Forwarding states. You suspect a BPDU inconsistency. Which command would you use to check for BPDU inconsistencies on the switch?

A.show spanning-tree interface detail
B.show spanning-tree statistics
C.show spanning-tree bridge
D.show spanning-tree interface
AnswerA

On Juniper EX Series switches, the 'show spanning-tree interface detail' command provides detailed information for each interface, including any BPDU inconsistencies detected, such as type or version mismatches. This is the correct command to identify why a port might be flapping due to inconsistent BPDUs.

Why this answer

The 'show spanning-tree interface detail' command gives comprehensive per-interface information, including BPDU inconsistencies that can cause port state flapping. Other commands provide statistics or general status but lack the specific inconsistency details needed for this troubleshooting scenario.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that 'show spanning-tree statistics' will reveal BPDU inconsistencies, when it only shows counts.

284
MCQhard

An administrator configures MACsec on a point-to-point link between two EX switches. Encrypted frames are received by the remote switch, but decryption fails, and packets are dropped. What is the most likely reason for this decryption failure?

A.The cipher suite defaults to GCM-AES-128 on one end and AES-CBC-128 on the other.
B.The MTU on the physical interface is set too small to accommodate MACsec ICV overhead.
C.A mismatch in pre-shared keys (CAK/CKN) or security association parameters between the peers.
D.DHCP snooping is blocking the MACsec control frames on the transit link.
AnswerC

MACsec decryption requires both peers to share identical connectivity association key material and matching security association parameters. A mismatch in CAK/CKN or SA settings causes received encrypted frames to fail integrity and decryption checks, so they are discarded.

Why this answer

Decryption failure in MACsec typically stems from a mismatch in connectivity association keys (CAK) or connectivity key names (CKN) configured on the peers.

285
MCQeasy

What is the role of the Root Port in an RSTP topology?

A.It forwards traffic between two different MST regions.
B.It connects the root bridge to all downstream non-root switches.
C.It provides the lowest-cost path from a non-root switch to the root bridge.
D.It serves as the backup forwarding path when the designated port fails.
AnswerC

RSTP elects one Root Port per non-root bridge: the port advertising the lowest cumulative root path cost toward the root bridge. This satisfies the stem's requirement, giving that switch its single best path to the root, with Designated Ports forwarding downstream.

Why this answer

The Root Port in RSTP is the port on a non-root switch that provides the lowest-cost path to the root bridge. It is the port through which the switch sends traffic toward the root and receives traffic from the root. Each non-root switch has exactly one root port, which is elected based on path cost, sender bridge ID, sender port ID, and local port ID.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the distinction between root port, designated port, and alternate port; candidates may confuse the root port with the port on the root bridge.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because forwarding traffic between MST regions is the role of a boundary port, not the root port. Option B is wrong because the root port does not connect the root bridge to downstream switches; that is the role of designated ports on the root bridge. Option D is wrong because the backup forwarding path when a designated port fails is provided by an alternate port, not the root port.

286
MCQeasy

When configuring a routing instance of type 'virtual-router', what is required to allow communication between the virtual router instance and the default routing instance?

A.Connect a physical cable between two ports on the router (cable-patch).
B.Configure static routes with identical preferences in both instances.
C.Disable firewall filters on all loopback interfaces.
D.Configure leaking routes between instances using rib-groups or routing policies.
AnswerD

Virtual routers maintain separate routing tables, so no route sharing occurs by default. Leaking routes via rib-groups or routing policies imports prefixes between the virtual router and the default instance, which is what enables communication between them.

Why this answer

To allow communication between a virtual-router routing instance and the default routing instance, you must configure route leaking using rib-groups or routing policies. Virtual routers have separate routing tables, so routes are not shared by default. Rib-groups can copy routes from one table to another, or routing policies can export/import routes between instances.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the isolation of routing instances, and candidates may assume that virtual routers can communicate by default or that static routes are sufficient, overlooking the need for explicit route leaking.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because connecting a physical cable is not required; virtual routers can communicate logically via route leaking. Option B is wrong because static routes with identical preferences do not automatically share routes between instances; they must be explicitly configured in each instance, and without leaking, they won't be known. Option C is wrong because disabling firewall filters on loopback interfaces is irrelevant to inter-instance communication.

287
MCQmedium

You are troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency issue between two Juniper EX Series switches. One switch logs an error stating 'OSPF packet received with mismatched area ID'. Where in the Junos CLI should you check and correct this parameter?

A.[edit protocols ospf area <area-id> interface <interface-name>]
B.[edit system services ospf]
C.[edit protocols ospf area <area-id> stub]
D.[edit routing-options router-id <ip-address>]
AnswerA

The area ID is configured under the OSPF area hierarchy, so mismatches are corrected at [edit protocols ospf area <area-id>]. Both switches must share an identical area ID on the connecting interface for the adjacency to form; editing this stanza resolves the logged mismatch error directly.

Why this answer

The OSPF area ID is configured per interface under '[edit protocols ospf area <area-id> interface <interface-name>]'. If two routers have mismatched area IDs on the same link, the adjacency will not form and the 'mismatched area ID' error is logged. Correcting the area ID on the interface under the correct area hierarchy resolves the issue.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the exact Junos hierarchy for OSPF area assignment; candidates confuse area-level parameters (stub, nssa) with interface-level area membership, or pick router-id thinking it controls area adjacency.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because '[edit system services ospf]' is not a valid Junos hierarchy for OSPF configuration; OSPF is configured under '[edit protocols ospf]'. Option C is wrong because '[edit protocols ospf area <area-id> stub]' configures the area as a stub area, which is a different parameter and does not set the area ID itself. Option D is wrong because '[edit routing-options router-id <ip-address>]' sets the router ID, not the area ID; a router ID mismatch would cause a different error (e.g., duplicate router ID).

288
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE attributes are optional transitive BGP path attributes? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.AS4_PATH
B.AGGREGATOR
C.MED
D.COMMUNITY
E.LOCAL_PREF
AnswersA, B, D

AS4_PATH is an optional transitive attribute, carrying 4-byte AS path information when older 2-byte speakers are involved, satisfying the "optional transitive" classification. Its transitive nature ensures it propagates across autonomous systems that lack native 4-byte AS support, unlike well-known mandatory attributes such as AS_PATH, which every BGP speaker must recognise and include.

Why this answer

AS4_PATH (A) is an optional transitive attribute defined in RFC 6793 that carries 4-byte AS path information for backward compatibility with 2-byte AS speakers, and it is propagated to other ASes. AGGREGATOR (B) is an optional transitive attribute (type code 7) that records the AS and router ID of the device that performed route aggregation, and it is passed along to BGP peers. COMMUNITY (D) is an optional transitive attribute (type code 8) used to tag routes with community values that are propagated across AS boundaries.

MED (C) is an optional nontransitive attribute, so it is not propagated beyond the neighboring AS, and LOCAL_PREF (E) is a well-known discretionary attribute used only within a single AS, so neither qualifies as optional transitive.

289
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is configuring Selective QinQ on an EX Series switch using VLAN translation. Which THREE components are required to successfully rewrite inner and outer VLAN tags? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Disabling all Layer 2 learning on the translation interface.
B.Enabling OSPFv3 routing directly on the customer edge interface unit 0.
C.Ensuring upstream transit ports are configured as trunks carrying the outer service VLAN.
D.Configuring input-vlan-map and output-vlan-map rules to push/pop or swap tags.
E.Enabling flexible-vlan-tagging on the edge interface.
AnswersC, D, E

Selective QinQ pushes an outer service VLAN tag, so every upstream transit port must be a trunk permitting that outer VLAN or the tagged frames are dropped. This satisfies the question's requirement that transit ports carry the outer service VLAN.

Why this answer

Selective QinQ with VLAN translation on EX Series requires the edge interface to be placed in flexible-vlan-tagging mode (E), which allows the interface to transmit and receive frames with two VLAN tags (inner customer tag plus outer service tag) rather than the default single-tag behavior. The actual tag rewrite is performed by the input-vlan-map and output-vlan-map statements (D), which define the push, pop, or swap operations that add or remove the outer service VLAN tag on ingress and egress. For the rewritten frames to reach their destination, the upstream transit ports must be configured as trunks that carry the outer service VLAN (C), so the QinQ-encapsulated traffic is forwarded across the provider network.

Option A is incorrect because disabling all Layer 2 learning is not a requirement for VLAN translation and would break normal bridging behavior. Option B is incorrect because OSPFv3 is an IPv6 routing protocol and has nothing to do with Layer 2 QinQ tag rewriting on a customer edge interface.

290
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO features rely on the DHCP snooping binding database to function properly? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.IP Source Guard
B.Storm Control rate-limiting
C.Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI)
D.Port Security MAC-Limit
E.MACsec Key Agreement (MKA)
AnswersA, C

IP Source Guard validates each ingress packet's source address against the DHCP snooping binding database, dropping frames whose IP-MAC pair is absent. Without that binding table, the feature cannot verify legitimate clients, so it depends on snooping.

Why this answer

IP Source Guard (A) is correct because it uses the DHCP snooping binding database to build its IP-to-MAC-to-port-to-VLAN binding table, then filters traffic on untrusted ports by dropping any packet whose source IP/MAC does not match an entry in that database (or a statically configured binding). Dynamic ARP Inspection (C) is also correct because DAI validates ARP packets on untrusted ports by comparing the sender IP and sender MAC against the DHCP snooping binding database, dropping ARP packets that do not match a valid binding (with static ARP ACLs as an optional supplement). Storm Control (B) is not correct because it is a hardware-based traffic rate limiter that monitors broadcast, multicast, or unknown unicast frames per port and does not consult any DHCP snooping bindings.

Port Security MAC-Limit (D) is not correct because it restricts the number of source MAC addresses learned on a port using the MAC address table, independent of DHCP snooping bindings. MACsec Key Agreement (E) is not correct because MKA is part of IEEE 802.1X-2010 MACsec and negotiates session keys between link peers using EAPOL-MKA frames, with no dependency on the DHCP snooping binding database.

291
MCQeasy

Which configuration command enables Graceful Routing Engine Switchover (GRES) globally on a Juniper routing platform?

A.set routing-options gres enable
B.set interfaces redundancy gres
C.set chassis redundancy graceful-switchover
D.set system graceful-restart
AnswerC

The command 'set chassis redundancy graceful-switchover' enables GRES globally at the chassis level, allowing the backup Routing Engine to assume control without restarting the Packet Forwarding Engine. This matches the stem's requirement for a global GRES configuration command.

Why this answer

GRES is enabled under the [edit chassis redundancy graceful-switchover] hierarchy in Junos.

292
MCQmedium

An engineer configures a LAG between an EX4300 switch and a server. The server uses static LAG mode (no LACP). How must the Junos switch interface be configured to successfully form the bundle?

A.Omit the LACP protocol configuration under the aggregated-ether-options stanza, operating in static mode.
B.Configure VRRP on the ae0 interface to manage the static bundle.
C.Configure LACP passive mode on the EX4300 switch.
D.Enable Graceful Restart on the physical ports.
AnswerA

Static LAG requires no LACP negotiation, so omitting the lacp stanza under aggregated-ether-options lets the Junos bundle form without protocol handshakes. The server's static mode cannot respond to LACPDUs, so enabling LACP would keep links down. Matching the server's non-negotiated mode satisfies the stem's constraint.

Why this answer

When connecting to a device that does not support LACP, you must configure the Junos aggregated interface without LACP (manual/static mode).

293
MCQeasy

Which Junos configuration statement defines the destination address of a GRE tunnel?

A.destination <ip-address>
B.remote-endpoint <ip-address>
C.peer-address <ip-address>
D.tunnel-destination <ip-address>
AnswerA

Under the `gr-` interface, the `destination` statement specifies the tunnel's remote endpoint, which becomes the outer IPv4 header's destination address for encapsulated traffic. This satisfies the stem's requirement to define the GRE tunnel's destination address, unlike source or routing statements that serve different purposes.

Why this answer

On Junos, the GRE tunnel destination is configured with the 'destination <ip-address>' statement under the tunnel interface unit hierarchy, for example 'set interfaces gr-0/0/0 unit 0 tunnel destination 203.0.113.2'. This statement specifies the remote endpoint IP address to which the GRE-encapsulated packets are sent.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests exact Junos CLI keyword recall — candidates who have used other vendors' syntax pick 'remote-endpoint' or 'tunnel-destination', but Junos uses the simple 'destination' keyword under the tunnel stanza.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'remote-endpoint' is not a valid Junos statement for GRE tunnel configuration — it is not part of the tunnel interface hierarchy. Option C is wrong because 'peer-address' is not a Junos GRE tunnel keyword; it is not recognized under the tunnel stanza. Option D is wrong because 'tunnel-destination' is not valid Junos syntax — the correct keyword is simply 'destination' under the 'tunnel' stanza.

294
MCQeasy

An administrator wants to gracefully restart a BGP routing daemon without dropping the underlying TCP session or causing traffic loss. Which Junos feature should be enabled?

A.Nonstop Active Routing (NAR)
B.TCP MD5 Signature bypass
C.BGP Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD)
D.BGP Graceful Restart
AnswerD

BGP Graceful Restart preserves forwarding state during a routing daemon restart by having the helper router retain previously learned routes, avoiding traffic loss. The restarting router's peers keep the TCP session alive, satisfying the requirement to restart BGP without dropping the underlying session or disrupting forwarding.

Why this answer

Graceful Restart allows a BGP speaker to express its ability to preserve forwarding state while restarting the control plane.

295
MCQmedium

You configure a GRE tunnel between two routers. Router A can ping Router B's tunnel IP address successfully, but devices behind Router A cannot ping devices behind Router B across the tunnel. What is the most likely cause?

A.The GRE tunnel source IP address is configured incorrectly.
B.Missing static routes or dynamic routing protocol entries for the remote subnets pointing across the GRE tunnel interface.
C.The physical interface MTU is set too high.
D.The gr- interface family inet address is missing.
AnswerB

Tunnel IP connectivity confirms GRE encapsulation works, but the routers lack routes for the remote private subnets via the tunnel interface. Without static routes or a dynamic routing protocol advertising those prefixes across the tunnel, transit traffic is dropped.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is missing static routes or dynamic routing protocol entries for the remote subnets pointing across the GRE tunnel interface. The tunnel itself is up (since Router A can ping Router B's tunnel IP), but traffic from behind Router A to behind Router B requires routes to the remote subnets via the tunnel. Without these routes, packets are dropped or sent elsewhere.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the distinction between tunnel reachability and end-to-end host reachability; candidates may overlook the need for routing entries for remote subnets.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the tunnel source IP were incorrect, the tunnel would not come up and pings to the tunnel IP would fail. Option C is wrong because a high MTU would cause fragmentation issues, but pings of small packets would still work; it would not completely block all traffic. Option D is wrong because if the gr- interface family inet address were missing, the tunnel IP ping would fail.

296
MCQhard

What is the purpose of the 'lsp-lifetime' command?

A.To define how often the DIS sends Hellos.
B.To set the duration for which an LSP is valid.
C.To limit the number of LSPs in the database.
D.To set how long the adjacency stays up.
AnswerB

The 'lsp-lifetime' command defines how long a router's own IS-IS link-state PDUs remain valid before expiring from the link-state database. This satisfies the stem's requirement by setting the LSP's remaining lifetime field, which the originating router refreshes before expiry to prevent neighbours discarding the LSP.

Why this answer

The 'lsp-lifetime' command sets the duration after which an LSP is considered invalid if not refreshed.

297
MCQhard

An enterprise network uses a GRE tunnel to connect two sites running OSPF. OSPF neighbor adjacencies fail to form over the GRE tunnel even though unicast pings between the tunnel endpoints succeed. Upon inspecting interface configurations, you notice that OSPF hellos are not being received by the peer. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The tunnel source address must match the loopback address exactly on both ends for OSPF to initialize.
B.OSPF hello packets are being sent as multicast, and the underlying network or tunnel configuration does not properly forward multicast traffic or protocol 89 is blocked.
C.Junos requires explicit enabling of dynamic routing inside gr- interfaces using the command set protocols gre ospf enable.
D.GRE tunnels do not support routing protocols such as OSPF under any circumstances.
AnswerB

OSPF hellos use multicast destination 224.0.0.5, and GRE alone does not guarantee multicast forwarding across the transit network. If the underlay drops multicast or filters IP protocol 89, hellos never reach the peer, so adjacencies stall despite unicast pings succeeding.

Why this answer

OSPF sends hello packets to the multicast address 224.0.0.5 (AllSPFRouters) using IP protocol 89. For OSPF to form an adjacency over a GRE tunnel, the tunnel must properly forward multicast traffic and not filter protocol 89. If the underlying network or tunnel configuration blocks multicast or protocol 89, hellos are not received, and the adjacency fails.

Unicast pings succeed because they are unicast IP packets, not multicast, and may use a different protocol (ICMP), so they do not test the multicast forwarding path or protocol 89 filtering. Thus, the most likely cause is that multicast hellos are not being delivered.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that if unicast pings work, all traffic including multicast routing protocols should work, but OSPF relies on multicast and protocol 89, which may be blocked independently.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because OSPF does not require tunnel source addresses to match loopback addresses exactly; OSPF forms adjacencies based on interface IP addresses and network reachability, not on source address matching. Option C is wrong because Junos does not require a special command to enable OSPF on GRE interfaces; OSPF is configured under the tunnel interface like any other interface, and there is no 'set protocols gre ospf enable' command. Option D is wrong because GRE tunnels do support routing protocols such as OSPF; GRE is designed to carry multiprotocol traffic, including multicast, and OSPF over GRE is a common deployment.

298
MCQhard

When configuring MSTP, what purpose does the regional configuration digest serve?

A.It encrypts the BPDU payload to prevent tampering by unauthorized access switches.
B.It allows neighboring switches to verify if they belong to the same MST region.
C.It acts as a dynamic bridge priority modifier for internal instance root selection.
D.It determines the Designated Master Bridge within the CIST instance.
AnswerB

The configuration digest is an MD5 hash computed from the region name, revision level and VLAN-to-instance mapping. Neighbours compare digests in BPDUs, so mismatched values prove the switches sit in different MST regions rather than merely different revisions.

Why this answer

The MSTP regional configuration digest is a hash value computed from the MST region's configuration (name, revision level, and VLAN-to-instance mapping). It is included in BPDUs so that neighboring switches can verify whether they are in the same MST region. If the digest does not match, the switches consider themselves in different regions, and the boundary ports operate as if connecting to different MST regions.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the components of MSTP region configuration and the role of the digest, and candidates may incorrectly assume it provides security or affects root election.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the digest does not encrypt BPDUs; it is a checksum for configuration verification, not a security mechanism. Option C is wrong because the digest does not modify bridge priority; it is used for region identification. Option D is wrong because the Designated Master Bridge is elected based on bridge priority and MAC address, not the digest.

299
MCQeasy

What is the official protocol number assigned in the outer IP header for GRE encapsulation?

A.50
B.4
C.47
D.89
AnswerC

GRE-encapsulated packets carry IP protocol number 47 in the outer IP header's Protocol field, identifying the payload as GRE. This value is assigned by IANA and distinguishes GRE from protocols such as TCP (6), UDP (17) and ESP (50).

Why this answer

The official protocol number assigned to GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation) in the outer IP header is 47, as defined by IANA. This number is used in the IP protocol field to indicate that the payload is a GRE packet. Therefore, option C is correct.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing GRE with other tunneling protocols like IP-in-IP (protocol 4) or IPsec ESP (protocol 50); candidates might recall that GRE is '47' but second-guess under pressure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because protocol number 50 is assigned to ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) for IPsec. Option B is wrong because protocol number 4 is assigned to IP-in-IP encapsulation. Option D is wrong because protocol number 89 is assigned to OSPF.

None of these correspond to GRE.

300
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO commands are used to verify link aggregation and LACP operational status on a Juniper switch? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.show virtual-chassis
B.show vrrp detail
C.show interfaces ae0
D.show lacp interface
E.show chassis routing-engine
AnswersC, D

`show interfaces ae0` displays the aggregated Ethernet interface's operational state, including its LACP bundle status and member link roles, directly satisfying the stem's requirement to verify link aggregation and LACP operation. It confirms whether member interfaces are actively bundled or detached, which is the precise operational evidence the question demands.

Why this answer

Option C, 'show interfaces ae0', is correct because the aggregated Ethernet (ae) interface is the logical bundle created by link aggregation, and this command displays its operational status, member links, and whether the bundle is up. Option D, 'show lacp interface', is correct because it directly reports LACP protocol state per member interface, including actor/partner state flags (such as whether the link is collecting and distributing) and LACP operational status. Option A, 'show virtual-chassis', is unrelated since it displays Virtual Chassis topology and member roles, not link aggregation.

Option B, 'show vrrp detail', concerns VRRP redundancy state and has nothing to do with LACP or aggregation. Option E, 'show chassis routing-engine', reports Routing Engine status and resources, not link aggregation or LACP.

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