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Juniper Networks Enterprise Routing and Switching, Specialist (JNCIS-ENT, JN0-352) (JNCIS-ENT) (JNCIS-ENT) — Questions 76–150

320 questions total · 5 pages · All types, answers revealed

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76
MCQmedium

You have configured an IP-IP tunnel, but traffic fails to pass through. You run 'show interfaces ip-0/0/0' and see that the output displays 'Input drops' incrementing rapidly. What is the most likely reason?

A.The security policies are blocking the return traffic.
B.Packets exceeding the interface MTU with the Don't Fragment (DF) bit set are being dropped.
C.OSPF hello packets are malformed.
D.The tunnel destination IP address is unreachable via the routing table.
AnswerB

IP-IP tunnels add an outer header, reducing effective MTU. Packets with the DF bit set that exceed this reduced MTU cannot be fragmented and are dropped, incrementing input drops. This matches the observed symptom on the tunnel interface.

Why this answer

Input drops incrementing rapidly on an IP-IP tunnel interface typically indicate that packets are being dropped due to MTU issues. When a packet exceeds the tunnel interface MTU and has the Don't Fragment (DF) bit set, the router cannot fragment it and must drop it, often sending an ICMP 'fragmentation needed' message. This is a common cause of input drops on tunnel interfaces.

Exam trap

The trap is overlooking MTU and DF-bit issues — candidates may blame routing or security policies, but input drops on a tunnel interface often point to fragmentation problems.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because security policies blocking return traffic would cause output drops or session failures, not input drops on the tunnel interface. Option C is wrong because malformed OSPF hello packets would not cause input drops; they would be ignored or cause adjacency issues. Option D is wrong because an unreachable tunnel destination would prevent the tunnel interface from being up, and you would see no traffic, not input drops.

77
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO OSPF packet types are used for reliable flooding and direct acknowledgment of Link State Advertisements? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Database Description (DBD) packets
B.Hello packets
C.Link State Request (LSR) packets
D.Link State Update (LSU) packets
E.Link State Acknowledgment (LSAck) packets
AnswersD, E

Link State Update packets carry the actual LSAs during flooding, delivering them to neighbours so their link-state databases converge. The stem's requirement for reliable flooding is satisfied because LSUs transport the advertisements themselves, while reliability comes from the Link State Acknowledgment packets sent in response.

Why this answer

Option D (Link State Update (LSU) packets) is correct because LSU packets carry the actual LSAs during OSPF flooding; a router sends LSUs to neighbors to reliably propagate link-state information throughout an area. Option E (Link State Acknowledgment (LSAck) packets) is correct because LSAcks provide the explicit, direct acknowledgment of received LSAs, which is the mechanism that makes OSPF flooding reliable. Together, LSU and LSAck implement reliable flooding: LSU delivers LSAs and LSAck confirms receipt.

Option A (DBD packets) is used during database exchange to summarize the link-state database and establish master/slave sequencing, not for flooding LSAs or acknowledging them. Option B (Hello packets) discovers and maintains neighbors and elects DR/BDR, but does not carry LSAs or acknowledge them. Option C (LSR packets) requests specific LSAs that a router is missing after comparing databases, so it is not part of reliable flooding or direct acknowledgment.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the distinction between OSPF packet types and their specific roles, causing candidates to confuse the functions of DBD, LSR, and LSU/LSAck in the reliable flooding process.

78
MCQhard

Which BGP message type is responsible for negotiating session parameters, including autonomous system numbers, hold times, and BGP identifiers during session establishment?

A.Notification
B.Open
C.Update
D.Keepalive
AnswerB

The Open message carries the version, my autonomous system number, hold time and BGP identifier, letting both peers agree on session parameters before any routing data flows. It is the first message exchanged after the TCP three-way handshake, directly satisfying the stem's requirement for negotiating session parameters during establishment.

Why this answer

The BGP Open message is the first message sent after a TCP connection is established. It contains parameters such as the BGP version, local AS number, hold time, BGP identifier, and optional parameters (capabilities).

79
MCQeasy

You are configuring a virtual router routing instance on a Juniper device to isolate traffic for a specific department. Which routing-instance type should you select?

A.l2vpn
B.forwarding
C.no-forwarding
D.virtual-router
AnswerD

A virtual-router instance maintains its own independent routing table and protocol instances, giving the department full Layer 3 isolation from the master instance. This satisfies the requirement to separate that department's traffic without the overlapping-address limitations of other instance types.

Why this answer

A virtual-router routing instance creates a separate routing table (RIBs) and forwarding table (FIBs) for the instance, effectively giving the department its own logical router with independent interfaces, routing protocols, and policies. This is the correct type when you need full Layer 3 isolation with separate routing domains on the same physical device.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing 'virtual-router' with 'vrf' — both provide Layer 3 isolation, but virtual-router is used for non-MPLS logical router separation while vrf is tied to MPLS L3VPN with route distinguishers and route targets.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because l2vpn is used for Layer 2 VPN services (VPLS, VPWS) that bridge Ethernet frames across MPLS, not for isolating a department's Layer 3 traffic. Option B is wrong because a forwarding routing instance only creates a separate forwarding table for filter-based forwarding (FBF) — it does not run its own routing protocols or create a full routing table. Option C is wrong because no-forwarding is used for management-only instances that don't forward traffic at all, such as for out-of-band management or route reflection.

80
MCQeasy

What type of LSA is generated by an OSPF Area Border Router (ABR) to advertise networks from one area to another area?

A.Type 2 (Network LSA)
B.Type 1 (Router LSA)
C.Type 3 (Summary LSA)
D.Type 5 (AS-external LSA)
AnswerC

Type 3 summary LSAs are originated by the ABR to describe inter-area destinations, flooding them into the adjacent area to advertise networks learned from one area into another. This directly satisfies the stem's requirement for the LSA an ABR generates when propagating routes between areas, rather than intra-area Type 1 or Type 2 LSAs.

Why this answer

Type 3 Summary LSAs are generated by ABRs to advertise inter-area routes — networks from one area injected into another. The ABR originates a Type 3 LSA for each prefix it knows from a different area, allowing routers in the receiving area to reach those destinations without running SPF for the source area's topology.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Type 3 Summary LSAs (inter-area) with Type 5 AS-external LSAs (redistributed external routes); candidates must remember that ABRs use Type 3, while ASBRs use Type 5.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Type 2 Network LSAs are generated by the DR on a multi-access segment to describe the subnet and attached routers, not to summarize between areas. Option B is wrong because Type 1 Router LSAs are flooded within a single area to describe a router's links and are not used for inter-area advertisement. Option D is wrong because Type 5 AS-external LSAs are generated by ASBRs to advertise routes redistributed from outside the OSPF domain, not inter-area prefixes.

81
MCQhard

An administrator enables Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) on a VLAN that uses DHCP snooping for IP binding verification. A static client on the same VLAN cannot communicate with the default gateway. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A.The static client is using an IP address outside the DHCP pool range.
B.The client's MAC address violates the port security maximum limit.
C.DAI requires all interfaces to be trusted on the VLAN.
D.The static client's IP-to-MAC binding is missing from the DHCP snooping database, causing DAI drops.
AnswerD

Static clients lack DHCP-assigned bindings, so the DHCP snooping database holds no IP-to-MAC entry for them. DAI validates ARP packets against that database and drops any ARP lacking a matching binding, blocking the static client's gateway resolution. A static ARP access-list entry is required to permit it.

Why this answer

Static clients do not participate in DHCP exchanges, so they are missing from the DHCP snooping binding database, causing DAI to drop their ARP packets unless static ARP entries are added.

82
MCQmedium

An engineer wants to configure Nonstop Active Routing (NSR) alongside GRES on an MX204 router running OSPF. What is the primary operational benefit of enabling NSR compared to running GRES alone?

A.NSR automatically configures VRRP tracking on all local VLAN interfaces.
B.NSR allows software upgrades to be performed without ever rebooting either Routing Engine.
C.NSR synchronizes protocol daemon states between Routing Engines, preventing neighbors from detecting a control plane switchover.
D.NSR replaces LACP negotiation with static member pinning during link failures.
AnswerC

NSR synchronises OSPF protocol daemon state between Routing Engines, so the standby is already current and neighbours see no adjacency reset during switchover. GRES alone relies on neighbour helper mode, so NSR removes that dependency, satisfying the stem's control plane switchover constraint.

Why this answer

GRES preserves forwarding state during a switchover, but routing protocols must restart and re-converge unless NSR is running, which synchronizes routing protocol states between REs.

83
MCQmedium

What happens if you have an LSP with an expired lifetime?

A.The router immediately crashes.
B.The LSP is flooded to all neighbors.
C.The LSP is removed from the LSDB.
D.The router re-elects a new DIS.
AnswerC

When an LSP's remaining lifetime reaches zero, the router purges it: the LSP is removed from the link-state database rather than retained. This satisfies the stem's scenario of an expired lifetime, distinguishing purge from refresh or re-origination.

Why this answer

When an LSP's remaining lifetime reaches zero, it is purged from the database after a short period.

84
MCQmedium

You are configuring an IP-IP tunnel on a Junos routing platform. Which statement correctly identifies how IP-IP encapsulation differs from GRE encapsulation?

A.IP-IP encapsulation includes a 4-byte protocol header while GRE includes routing and key fields.
B.IP-IP requires a logical tunnel (lt-) interface to function properly.
C.IP-IP encapsulates an IP packet inside another IP packet with an outer IP header and no extra transport header, whereas GRE includes a GRE header.
D.GRE supports only IPv4 payloads while IP-IP supports both IPv4 and IPv6.
AnswerC

IP-IP prepends only an outer IP header, using protocol number 4, with no transport or GRE header between outer and inner packets. GRE inserts its own GRE header, adding fields such as protocol type and optional keys, making it the axis of difference.

Why this answer

IP-IP tunneling (RFC 2003) prepends only an outer IPv4 header to the original packet, with protocol number 4 indicating IP-in-IP. GRE (RFC 2784/2890) inserts a GRE header between the outer IP header and the payload, adding fields like protocol type, checksum, key, and sequence number. This makes GRE more feature-rich but with more overhead (typically 24 bytes vs 20 for IP-IP).

Exam trap

The trap is assuming IP-IP has some extra header (option A) or that GRE is more limited than IP-IP (option D); candidates must remember IP-IP is the minimal encapsulation and GRE is the feature-rich one.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because IP-IP has no extra protocol header beyond the outer IP header — the '4-byte protocol header' description actually resembles GRE's base header, not IP-IP's. Option B is wrong because IP-IP tunnels on Junos use gr- or ip- interfaces depending on configuration; the lt- (logical tunnel) interface is used for other tunnel types like PIM or DVMRP, not standard IP-IP. Option D is wrong because GRE can carry IPv4, IPv6, and even non-IP protocols (via EtherType), while IP-IP is limited to IP payloads — the statement reverses the actual capabilities.

85
Multi-Selecthard

Which actions occur during an IS-IS SPF calculation? (Choose THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Generating new IIH packets.
B.Calculating the shortest path to each destination.
C.Updating the IP routing table (RIB).
D.Building a Shortest Path Tree from the LSDB.
E.Re-electing the DIS.
AnswersB, C, D

SPF runs Dijkstra's algorithm over the link-state database to compute the lowest-cost path from the local router to every reachable node and prefix, producing the loop-free topology used for forwarding. This directly satisfies the question's requirement that shortest-path computation occurs during the IS-IS SPF calculation.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because the core purpose of the IS-IS SPF (Dijkstra) computation is to determine the shortest path from the calculating router to every reachable destination in the topology. Option D is correct because SPF operates on the Link State Database, using it to build a Shortest Path Tree rooted at the local router before deriving routes. Option C is correct because once the SPT is built and best paths are selected, the results are installed into the IP routing table (RIB), making the routes usable for forwarding.

Option A is not part of SPF: IIH (IS-IS Hello) packets are generated by the Hello protocol to form and maintain adjacencies, which happens independently of the SPF calculation. Option E is also not part of SPF: DIS election on broadcast networks is driven by Hello packet exchanges and priority values, not by the SPF algorithm.

86
MCQmedium

You are configuring Filter-Based Forwarding (FBF) on an interface. You apply a firewall filter that matches specific source addresses and uses 'then routing-instance' as an action. What must be configured in that target routing instance to ensure return traffic is handled correctly?

A.A default route pointing back to the core gateway within that routing instance's routing table.
B.A static ARP entry for every device on the network.
C.An RSVP LSP bridging the source and destination instances.
D.A BGP peering session with the loopback address.
AnswerA

Filter-based forwarding steers matched traffic into a separate routing instance, which by default has no path back to the core. Installing a default route (0.0.0.0/0) inside that instance's table ensures return traffic reaches the core gateway rather than being dropped.

Why this answer

When using Filter-Based Forwarding (FBF) to direct traffic to a specific routing instance, the target routing instance must have a route back to the source to handle return traffic. Typically, a default route pointing back to the core gateway within that routing instance's routing table ensures that return traffic is sent back correctly. Without such a route, return traffic may be dropped or misrouted.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests FBF and routing instances, and candidates may overlook the need for a return path in the target routing instance, assuming that the default instance handles it automatically.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because static ARP entries are not necessary for return traffic handling; ARP resolves IP to MAC, but routing is needed to direct traffic. Option C is wrong because RSVP LSPs are for MPLS traffic engineering, not for basic return traffic in a routing instance. Option D is wrong because a BGP peering session is not required unless dynamic routing is used; a static default route is sufficient and simpler.

87
MCQhard

An administrator has configured a GRE tunnel between two SRX Series devices. Traffic originating from behind the local security zone destined for the tunnel interface is being dropped by default security policies. Which action must be taken to ensure transit traffic can enter the GRE tunnel?

A.Disable flow-based mode globally on the SRX Series device.
B.Enable proxy-arp on the physical interface.
C.Configure a security policy from the internal zone to the zone containing the gr- interface allowing all traffic.
D.Add the gr- interface to the junos-default security zone.
AnswerC

SRX Series devices evaluate transit traffic against security policies between zones. Because the gr- interface sits in its own zone, a policy from the internal zone to that tunnel zone permitting all traffic is required for transit packets to enter.

Why this answer

On SRX Series devices in flow mode, all transit traffic — including traffic destined to a tunnel interface — is subject to security policy evaluation. The gr- interface belongs to a security zone, and traffic from the internal zone to that tunnel zone must be explicitly permitted by a security policy. Without this policy, the default deny-all policy drops the traffic before it can be encapsulated and sent through the GRE tunnel.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the assumption that tunnel interfaces bypass security policy — candidates forget that on SRX flow mode, gr- interfaces are zone-bound and require explicit policies just like any other interface.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because disabling flow-based mode globally would convert the SRX to packet mode, which removes stateful inspection and is not a valid or desirable fix for a policy issue — it also breaks most SRX security features. Option B is wrong because proxy-arp on the physical interface is unrelated to security policy evaluation for tunnel transit traffic; it only affects ARP resolution behavior. Option D is wrong because adding the gr- interface to the junos-default security zone is not a supported or recommended practice — the junos-default zone is reserved for management-plane traffic and does not bypass policy evaluation for transit traffic.

88
MCQeasy

Which protocol number is used in the outer IP header for an IP-IP tunnel?

A.47
B.6
C.4
D.17
AnswerC

IP-in-IP encapsulation carries the inner packet as payload of an outer IPv4 header whose Protocol field is set to 4, the assigned value for IPv4 encapsulation. This identifies the tunnel payload to the receiving endpoint.

Why this answer

IP-IP tunneling (RFC 2003) encapsulates an inner IP packet inside an outer IP header with the protocol field set to 4, which is the IANA-assigned protocol number for IP-in-IP encapsulation. This is distinct from GRE (protocol 47), TCP (6), and UDP (17), making 4 the correct answer for IP-IP tunnels.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests memorization of IP protocol numbers — candidates confuse GRE (47) with IP-IP (4) or pick TCP/UDP numbers, so precise recall of the IANA protocol registry is required.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because protocol 47 is GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation), not IP-IP — GRE adds its own header between the outer IP header and the payload. Option B is wrong because protocol 6 is TCP, a transport-layer protocol, not a tunneling encapsulation protocol. Option D is wrong because protocol 17 is UDP, also a transport-layer protocol and unrelated to IP-IP encapsulation.

89
MCQmedium

You are configuring a GRE tunnel and want to ensure that integrity checks are performed on the transmitted packets to detect corruption. Which parameter should you add to the tunnel configuration?

A.set interfaces gr-0/0/0 unit 0 tunnel verify-integrity
B.set protocols gre checksum-validation enable
C.set interfaces gr-0/0/0 unit 0 tunnel checksum
D.set interfaces gr-0/0/0 unit 0 family inet encryption aes256
AnswerC

The `tunnel checksum` parameter enables GRE header and payload checksumming, satisfying the requirement to detect packet corruption in transit. Unlike `tunnel key`, which only provides weak sender identification, checksums verify data integrity end-to-end. This directly addresses the stem's integrity-check constraint for the gr-0/0/0 tunnel interface.

Why this answer

The tunnel checksum parameter enables GRE header checksumming, which adds a checksum to the GRE header so the receiving endpoint can detect corruption in the encapsulated packet. On Junos, this is configured with 'set interfaces gr-0/0/0 unit 0 tunnel checksum'. It is the only option that maps to a real Junos GRE integrity feature.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing GRE's optional checksum feature with IPsec integrity or with non-existent global 'protocols gre' knobs, leading candidates to pick plausible-sounding but invalid Junos commands.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'tunnel verify-integrity' is not a valid Junos GRE configuration statement — there is no such parameter. Option B is wrong because 'protocols gre checksum-validation' does not exist in Junos; GRE checksum is an interface-level tunnel parameter, not a global protocol setting. Option D is wrong because 'family inet encryption aes256' is not valid syntax and encryption is not a GRE integrity mechanism — IPsec would be used for confidentiality, not GRE checksums.

90
MCQmedium

An engineer needs to configure a Link Aggregation Group (LAG) between two Juniper EX4300 switches to provide redundant uplinks to a core router. Which statements regarding the LACP configuration requirements on the EX4300 switch must be met?

A.LAG interfaces do not require explicit definition under the chassis stanza.
B.LACP multi-chassis mode must be enabled for a single switch LAG.
C.LACP heartbeat intervals are strictly hardcoded to 1 second and cannot be modified.
D.The member interfaces must have matching speed, duplex, and LACP mode configuration.
AnswerD

LACP requires member links to share identical speed, duplex and LACP mode settings; mismatched parameters prevent the bundle forming or cause member suspension. This satisfies the stem's requirement for a configuration condition on the EX4300 LAG.

Why this answer

On Juniper EX switches, all physical member links of an aggregated Ethernet (ae) interface must be configured identically in terms of speed, duplex, and LACP mode (active/passive) for the bundle to come up. If any member link negotiates a different speed/duplex or is placed in a mismatched LACP mode, that link is excluded from the LAG and may remain in a down or standby state. This consistency requirement ensures the LACP state machine can form a single logical link with a stable operational key across all member ports.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that LACP timers are fixed or that MC-LAG is needed for any LAG, when in fact single-switch LAGs only require matching speed, duplex, and LACP mode on members.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because on Juniper EX platforms the aggregated Ethernet interface must be explicitly defined under the chassis stanza (e.g., set chassis aggregated-devices ethernet device-count N) before ae interfaces can be configured. Option B is wrong because multi-chassis LACP (MC-LAG) is only required when forming a LAG across two or more separate chassis (e.g., MC-LAG between two EX switches), not for a standard single-switch LAG to a core router. Option C is wrong because LACP periodic timer intervals are configurable on Juniper devices via the lacp periodic {fast|slow} setting (fast = 1 second, slow = 30 seconds), so they are not hardcoded to 1 second.

91
MCQmedium

You have enabled DHCP snooping on an EX Series switch. What must be configured on the interface connecting to the legitimate corporate DHCP server to prevent rogue DHCP server replies?

A.Configure the interface as a trusted interface for DHCP snooping.
B.Configure the interface as a trunk port.
C.Apply an ingress firewall filter blocking UDP port 67.
D.Enable IP Source Guard on the uplink interface.
AnswerA

DHCP snooping drops server replies arriving on untrusted ports, so the port facing the legitimate corporate server must be marked trusted to permit its offers through. This satisfies the stem's requirement to allow only that server's replies.

Why this answer

DHCP snooping classifies switch ports as trusted or untrusted. Only trusted ports are permitted to forward DHCP server messages (OFFER, ACK); untrusted ports drop them. Therefore the uplink toward the legitimate DHCP server must be marked trusted so its replies are allowed, while user-facing ports remain untrusted and block rogue servers.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that enabling DHCP snooping alone is sufficient; candidates forget that the legitimate server-facing port must be explicitly marked trusted or all DHCP replies will be dropped.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because making the port a trunk does not affect DHCP snooping trust state — trust is a separate configuration. Option C is wrong because an ingress filter blocking UDP 67 would also block legitimate client DHCP requests (clients send to UDP 67), breaking DHCP entirely. Option D is wrong because IP Source Guard validates source IP/MAC bindings from the snooping table; it does not designate a port as trusted for DHCP server replies.

92
Multi-Selectmedium

You are configuring a Private VLAN (PVLAN) on an EX Series switch to isolate hosts within a DMZ segment while allowing them to reach a shared gateway. Which TWO statements correctly describe the behavior of PVLAN port types in this scenario? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Isolated ports can communicate with promiscuous ports and with other isolated ports on the same switch.
B.Promiscuous ports can only communicate with isolated ports and not with community ports.
C.Isolated ports can communicate with each other and with community ports within the same PVLAN.
D.Promiscuous ports can communicate with all isolated and community ports, and they typically connect to the gateway or router.
E.Community ports can communicate with other ports in the same community and with promiscuous ports, but not with isolated ports.
AnswersD, E

Promiscuous ports are designed to communicate with all ports in the PVLAN, including isolated and community ports. In a DMZ, the router or gateway connects to a promiscuous port so that isolated hosts can reach the gateway while remaining unable to communicate directly with each other. This behavior is fundamental to PVLAN operation and satisfies the requirement of shared gateway access.

Why this answer

In a PVLAN, promiscuous ports communicate with all isolated and community ports, making them suitable for gateway connections, while community ports communicate with each other and with promiscuous ports but not with isolated ports. Isolated ports communicate only with promiscuous ports. These rules provide granular isolation within a single VLAN, which is ideal for DMZ segments where hosts must reach a shared gateway but not each other.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that isolated ports can talk to each other simply because they share the same VLAN, when PVLAN isolation explicitly prevents that communication.

93
MCQeasy

Which Junos command displays detailed information about OSPF neighbor states, including dead timer countdowns and address bindings?

A.show ospf neighbor detail
B.show ospf statistics
C.show route table inet.0
D.show ospf database detail
AnswerA

The detail keyword expands each neighbour entry beyond the summary view, exposing dead timer countdowns, router IDs, interface addresses and area bindings. This satisfies the requirement for neighbour state plus timer and address information in a single command.

Why this answer

The command 'show ospf neighbor detail' displays comprehensive information about each OSPF neighbor, including neighbor state (Full, 2-Way, etc.), neighbor ID, interface address, dead timer countdown, and area. This is the go-to command for verifying adjacency health and troubleshooting OSPF neighbor issues on Junos devices.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing 'show ospf neighbor detail' with 'show ospf database detail' — candidates often pick the database command when the question asks about neighbor state and dead timers.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'show ospf statistics' displays packet counters and protocol statistics, not per-neighbor state or dead timers. Option C is wrong because 'show route table inet.0' displays the routing table, not OSPF neighbor details. Option D is wrong because 'show ospf database detail' displays the link-state database contents (LSAs), not neighbor state or dead timer information.

94
Multi-Selecthard

When configuring Private VLANs (PVLANs) on Juniper EX Series switches, which TWO types of ports are defined within the architecture? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Root bridge port
B.Promiscuous port
C.Host port (Isolated or Community)
D.Core uplink port
E.Trunk access port
AnswersB, C

A promiscuous port carries the primary VLAN and communicates with every isolated and community port, plus external networks such as the router or firewall. This satisfies the stem's requirement for one of the two defined PVLAN port types on Juniper EX Series switches, alongside isolated and community ports.

Why this answer

In Juniper EX Series PVLAN architecture, a promiscuous port (option B) is the port that connects to a router or gateway and can communicate with all isolated and community VLAN ports, serving as the shared upstream exit point for the secondary VLANs. Option C, the host port (Isolated or Community), is also correct because PVLANs define host-facing ports as either isolated (which can only talk to the promiscuous port) or community (which can talk to the promiscuous port and other members of the same community). These two port roles are the fundamental building blocks of PVLANs on EX switches, alongside the primary/secondary VLAN constructs.

The remaining options are not PVLAN port types: a root bridge port (A) is an STP concept, a core uplink port (D) is a generic topology term, and a trunk access port (E) is not a defined PVLAN port role.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the distinction between promiscuous, isolated, and community ports — candidates frequently forget that 'isolated' and 'community' are both host port subtypes, not separate top-level categories.

95
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE parameters must match across all switches for them to successfully form a single MST region? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.VLAN-to-instance mapping table
B.Configuration name
C.Revision number
D.Bridge priority value
E.Hello timer interval
AnswersA, B, C

The VLAN-to-instance mapping table must be identical on every switch, since MSTP computes separate topologies per instance. Mismatched mappings mean switches disagree about which VLANs share a spanning-tree instance, so they cannot form one common region.

Why this answer

For switches to form a single MST region, the MST configuration must be identical across all of them, and this is verified by three specific parameters. Option A, the VLAN-to-instance mapping table, must match because it defines which VLANs are mapped to which MST instances (MSTIs), and any difference causes the switches to be in different regions. Option B, the configuration name, is a 32-character alphanumeric string that identifies the MST region and must be identical on all switches.

Option C, the revision number, is a 16-bit value that must also match, as it is used together with the configuration name and mapping table to determine region membership. Options D and E are incorrect because bridge priority and hello timer are per-instance or per-port STP parameters that affect root election and BPDU timing, but they are not part of the MST region identifier and do not need to match for region formation.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the distinction between MST region identity parameters (name, revision, VLAN mapping) and per-instance tunables (bridge priority, timers) — candidates frequently include bridge priority because it feels like a global STP setting.

96
MCQmedium

You need to ensure that a core switch retains its position as the root bridge even if a new switch with a manually lowered bridge priority is added to the network. Which feature should you configure on the core switch's ports facing the downstream switches?

A.Loop protection
B.BPDU guard
C.Root protection
D.Edge port configuration
AnswerC

Root protection forces a port into a root-inconsistent blocking state if it receives superior BPDUs, preventing a downstream switch with a lowered priority from becoming root. This preserves the core switch's root bridge role, satisfying the requirement to retain its position.

Why this answer

Root protection is configured on ports that should not receive superior BPDUs. When enabled on the core switch's downstream ports, it ensures that if a superior BPDU (indicating a new root bridge) is received, the port enters a root-inconsistent state, effectively preventing the core switch from losing its root bridge status. This feature is designed to enforce the root bridge location.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the differences between root protection, BPDU guard, and loop protection, and candidates may confuse their specific use cases and behaviors.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because loop protection is used to prevent loops by disabling a port if no BPDUs are received, not to enforce root bridge status. Option B is wrong because BPDU guard disables a port upon receiving any BPDU, typically used on edge ports to prevent loops, not to protect the root bridge. Option D is wrong because edge port configuration is used to speed up convergence on ports connected to end devices, not to prevent root bridge takeover.

97
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE factors should be considered when planning MTU size for traffic traversing a GRE tunnel? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Adjusting TCP MSS or tunnel interface MTU helps prevent packet fragmentation and drop issues.
B.The GRE header adds additional byte overhead to every encapsulated packet.
C.GRE tunnels automatically expand physical interface MTU sizes to accommodate overhead.
D.IP-IP headers are larger than GRE headers, requiring larger MTU adjustments.
E.If the Don't Fragment (DF) bit is set and the packet exceeds the path MTU, it will be dropped if fragmentation cannot occur.
AnswersA, B, E

Adjusting TCP MSS or the tunnel interface MTU directly addresses GRE's 24-byte overhead, which reduces the usable payload and causes fragmentation when the underlying path MTU is exceeded. Lowering MSS on tunnel traffic prevents oversized segments from being encapsulated, satisfying the requirement to avoid fragmentation and drops across the GRE tunnel.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because lowering the tunnel interface MTU or clamping TCP MSS (e.g., ip tcp adjust-mss) prevents encapsulated packets from exceeding the physical path MTU, avoiding fragmentation and drops. Option B is correct because GRE adds a 4-byte GRE header plus a new 20-byte outer IP header (24 bytes total, more with options), which reduces the effective payload MTU inside the tunnel. Option E is correct because when the DF bit is set and a packet exceeds the path MTU, routers cannot fragment it and will drop it, typically returning an ICMP 'fragmentation needed' message.

Option C is wrong because GRE does not automatically enlarge the physical interface MTU; MTU must be manually adjusted on the tunnel interface. Option D is wrong because IP-IP (IP-in-IP) headers are 20 bytes, which is smaller than GRE's 24-byte overhead, not larger.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that tunnels automatically adjust MTU or that IP-IP overhead exceeds GRE overhead — candidates who do not memorize the exact byte counts (24 for GRE, 20 for IP-IP) pick the wrong option.

98
MCQeasy

An administrator configures a new VLAN ID 300 on an EX Series switch but forgets to assign any interfaces to it. What is the operational status of this VLAN?

A.The switch assigns all unused ports to VLAN 300 by default.
B.The VLAN remains inactive in the switching table until an interface or IRB is associated with it.
C.The switch generates a critical alarm preventing further configuration.
D.The switch automatically deletes the VLAN after 5 minutes if no ports are assigned.
AnswerB

A VLAN with no member interfaces or IRB retains its configuration but stays inactive, so it never enters the active switching table. Junos activates a VLAN only once at least one access, trunk, or IRB interface is bound to it, satisfying the stem's forgotten-assignment constraint.

Why this answer

In Junos on EX Series switches, a VLAN that is configured but has no interfaces or IRB associated with it remains inactive in the switching table. The VLAN exists in the configuration but does not become operational until at least one interface or IRB is assigned to it.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the operational state of unassigned VLANs — candidates assume that a configured VLAN is immediately active or that it causes an error, but the correct behavior is that it remains inactive until an interface or IRB is associated with it.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because EX switches do not automatically assign unused ports to a newly created VLAN — VLAN membership must be explicitly configured on each interface. Option C is wrong because an unassigned VLAN does not generate a critical alarm; it is a normal configuration state and does not prevent further configuration. Option D is wrong because Junos does not automatically delete VLANs after a timeout — VLANs persist in the configuration until explicitly removed by an administrator.

99
MCQmedium

You are configuring OSPF on a Juniper router. The router must not generate any OSPF packets or form adjacencies on interface ge-0/0/1, but the interface must remain in the OSPF configuration for future use. Which configuration statement accomplishes this?

A.set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 interface ge-0/0/1.0 passive
B.set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 interface ge-0/0/1.0 priority 0
C.set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 interface ge-0/0/1.0 no-hello
D.set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 interface ge-0/0/1.0 disable
AnswerA

Marking the OSPF interface as passive stops the router from sending Hello packets and forming adjacencies on that interface, but the network is still advertised into OSPF as a stub network. This matches the requirement exactly: no OSPF packets are generated on the interface, and the interface remains in the OSPF configuration.

Why this answer

A passive OSPF interface remains in the OSPF configuration but does not send or receive OSPF control packets, so it cannot form adjacencies. The connected network is still advertised as a stub network into the area. This is the standard Junos approach when an interface must be included in OSPF for reachability but must not participate in adjacency formation.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing priority 0, which only prevents DR/BDR election, with passive, which suppresses all OSPF packet generation and adjacency formation on the interface.

100
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO BGP message types are responsible for maintaining session state or reporting errors without carrying routing information? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.OPEN
B.KEEPALIVE
C.UPDATE
D.QUERY
E.NOTIFICATION
AnswersB, E

KEEPALIVE messages carry only the 19-byte BGP header with no path attributes, and their sole function is refreshing the hold timer to confirm the peer session remains active. This satisfies the requirement for a message type that maintains session state without transporting routing information.

Why this answer

B. KEEPALIVE is correct because BGP peers exchange KEEPALIVE messages periodically (default 60 seconds, hold time 180 seconds) to confirm the session is still alive and to maintain the established state without carrying any NLRI routing information. E.

NOTIFICATION is correct because it is sent when an error condition is detected (for example a hold-timer expiry, bad message header, or unsupported capability), causing the session to be torn down; it reports the error and carries no routing information. A. OPEN is not correct here because, although it establishes the session and negotiates capabilities, it is a session-initiation message rather than a state-maintenance or error-reporting message.

C. UPDATE is not correct because UPDATE is precisely the message that carries routing information (NLRI and path attributes). D.

QUERY is not correct because QUERY is not a BGP message type; the four BGP message types are OPEN, UPDATE, KEEPALIVE, and NOTIFICATION.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the distinction between BGP message types that carry routing information (UPDATE) and those that manage session state (KEEPALIVE, NOTIFICATION). Candidates may mistakenly include OPEN as a session maintenance message, but OPEN is only for initial negotiation.

101
MCQeasy

Which command is used to clear the Dynamic ARP Inspection violation counters on an EX Series switch?

A.reset interface security-violations
B.clear bridge security-counters
C.clear ethernet-switching security-violation
D.clear arp-inspection statistics
AnswerC

`clear ethernet-switching security-violation` resets the DAI violation counters, satisfying the requirement to clear them without disturbing the DHCP snooping database. Unlike `clear arp` or interface-level commands, it targets the ethernet-switching security subsystem where DAI violations are recorded, so counters return to zero while inspection remains active.

Why this answer

Violation counters and security states are cleared using 'clear ethernet-switching security-violation'.

102
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO mechanisms are utilized by RSTP to achieve rapid convergence compared to legacy 802.1D STP? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Proposal-agreement handshake mechanism
B.Mandatory 15-second listening timer enforcement
C.Centralized root bridge polling
D.Support for point-to-point link synchronization
E.Periodic topology change broadcasting by root bridges
AnswersA, D

The proposal-agreement handshake lets a designated port bypass the 802.1D listening and learning timers, synchronising the downstream bridge immediately. This satisfies the stem's rapid-convergence constraint by replacing timer-based waiting with explicit negotiation, so edge-facing topology changes propagate in seconds rather than the legacy 30–50 second convergence delay.

Why this answer

Option A (Proposal-agreement handshake mechanism) is correct because RSTP uses a proposal/agreement exchange on designated ports to rapidly move a port to Forwarding without waiting for the legacy STP timers, allowing quick synchronization between neighboring switches. Option D (Support for point-to-point link synchronization) is correct because RSTP explicitly distinguishes edge, point-to-point, and shared link types; on point-to-point links it can immediately transition ports via the sync process, which is fundamental to its rapid convergence. Option B is incorrect because RSTP does not enforce the legacy 15-second listening timer; it replaces timer-based transitions with handshake-based ones.

Option C is incorrect because RSTP does not use centralized root bridge polling; the root bridge is elected via BPDUs as in STP, and convergence is distributed. Option E is incorrect because RSTP does not rely on periodic topology change broadcasts from the root; topology changes are signaled via TC-flag BPDUs and propagated hop-by-hop.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that RSTP still uses the 15-second listening timer — candidates carry over 802.1D knowledge and miss that RSTP replaces timers with the proposal-agreement handshake.

103
MCQeasy

Which command is used on a Junos device to clear the OSPF database and force a re-synchronization with neighbors?

A.restart ospf-protocol
B.clear ospf neighbor
C.clear ospf database
D.reset routing-protocol ospf
AnswerC

`clear ospf database` flushes the local link-state database and triggers the device to re-request LSAs from its OSPF neighbours, forcing adjacency re-synchronisation. This directly satisfies the stem's requirement to clear the database and force re-synchronisation, unlike neighbour-specific or protocol-wide reset commands.

Why this answer

The 'clear ospf database' command clears the OSPF link-state database and forces the router to re-synchronize with its neighbors by re-exchanging LSAs. This is used to recover from database corruption or to force a refresh. It does not reset the OSPF process itself.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing commands that clear neighbors versus those that clear the database; candidates may pick 'clear ospf neighbor' thinking it resets the database, but it only drops adjacencies.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'restart ospf-protocol' is not a valid Junos command; OSPF is restarted via 'restart routing' or 'restart ospf'. Option B is wrong because 'clear ospf neighbor' clears neighbor adjacencies but does not specifically clear the database. Option D is wrong because 'reset routing-protocol ospf' is not a valid Junos command.

104
MCQmedium

You are configuring VRRP between two EX4600 switches to provide a default gateway for a VLAN. To ensure that the switch with the higher physical interface capacity assumes the master role, what parameter should you adjust?

A.Decrease the VRRP advertisement interval on the backup switch.
B.Set the virtual router identifier (VRID) to a lower integer value on the preferred switch.
C.Disable the VRRP preempt feature on both routers.
D.Increase the VRRP priority value on the preferred switch's interface.
AnswerD

VRRP priority determines which router becomes master; the highest priority wins. Raising the priority on the preferred switch's interface ensures it assumes the master role, satisfying the stem's requirement for the higher-capacity switch to lead.

Why this answer

VRRP elects the master based on the highest priority value (default 100, range 1–254, with 255 reserved for the address owner). To ensure the switch with greater capacity becomes master, you increase its VRRP priority above the other switch's. The master then owns the virtual IP and forwards traffic for the VLAN, while the backup monitors advertisements and takes over if the master fails.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing VRRP priority (higher wins, controls master election) with VRID (just an identifier) or advertisement interval (controls failover timing) — candidates sometimes pick VRID thinking a lower number means higher precedence.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because decreasing the advertisement interval on the backup does not affect master election — priority determines the master, and changing the interval only affects failover detection speed (and must match on both peers). Option B is wrong because the VRID is just an identifier (1–255) that must match on both peers to form the same virtual router; a lower VRID does not confer any election advantage. Option C is wrong because disabling preempt prevents a higher-priority router from taking over after a failure — it does the opposite of ensuring the preferred switch becomes master.

105
MCQmedium

When a topology change occurs in an RSTP network, how are MAC address forwarding table entries affected across the switches?

A.MAC addresses are relearned only after the root bridge sends a direct clearing command.
B.MAC address entries are retained until the standard 300-second aging timer expires.
C.MAC address tables are completely cleared for all ports, including edge ports.
D.MAC address table entries associated with non-edge ports are flushed immediately.
AnswerD

RSTP flushes MAC entries learned on non-edge ports immediately upon topology change, rather than ageing them out. This satisfies the stem's requirement for rapid reconvergence: stale forwarding entries are purged at once, preventing misdirected traffic, while edge ports retain their entries since they cannot create loops.

Why this answer

When a topology change occurs in RSTP, MAC address table entries associated with non-edge ports are flushed immediately. This allows the switches to relearn MAC addresses on the new topology, preventing forwarding to stale locations. Edge ports are not flushed because they connect to end devices and are not affected by topology changes.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the difference between STP and RSTP topology change handling; candidates may incorrectly think MAC entries age out over 300 seconds instead of being flushed immediately.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because MAC addresses are not relearned only after a direct clearing command from the root bridge; RSTP uses a topology change notification mechanism that triggers immediate flushing. Option B is wrong because MAC entries are not retained for 300 seconds; that is the default aging time in classic STP, but RSTP flushes immediately on topology change. Option C is wrong because MAC address tables are not completely cleared for all ports; only non-edge ports are flushed, while edge ports retain their entries.

106
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO states are valid OSPF operational adjacency states seen in Junos operational outputs? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.2-Way
B.Listen
C.Connected
D.Full
E.Active
AnswersA, D

2-Way appears in Junos OSPF neighbour output once bidirectional communication is confirmed via hello packets, before database synchronisation. It is a genuine operational adjacency state, satisfying the stem, whereas states such as Init, Down or Attempt reflect pre-adjacency conditions rather than formed adjacencies.

Why this answer

Option A (2-Way) is correct because in OSPF, 2-Way is a valid adjacency state where bidirectional communication between two routers is confirmed; on broadcast and NBMA networks, routers remain in 2-Way with non-DR/BDR neighbors, and it appears in Junos outputs such as 'show ospf neighbor'. Option D (Full) is correct because Full is the final OSPF adjacency state, indicating that the link-state databases of the two routers are fully synchronized, and it is likewise displayed in Junos operational output. The unmarked options do not belong: Listen is an OSPF interface state (not an adjacency/neighbor state), Connected is not an OSPF state at all, and Active is not a valid OSPF neighbor state (it is associated with other protocols such as EIGRP or PIM).

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests whether candidates confuse OSPF neighbor states with states from other protocols (EIGRP Active, HSRP Listen) or with routing table states like Connected.

107
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of the Hello timer in RSTP?

A.It sets the interval between topology change notifications.
B.It determines the maximum time a switch waits before declaring a neighbor dead.
C.It defines the duration of the listening and learning states during convergence.
D.It dictates how often configuration BPDUs are generated and sent by the root bridge.
AnswerD

RSTP Hello timer sets the interval at which the root bridge generates and transmits configuration BPDUs, defaulting to two seconds; downstream bridges relay these, so it governs topology information freshness rather than port state timers.

Why this answer

In RSTP (IEEE 802.1w), the Hello timer defines the interval at which the root bridge generates and transmits configuration BPDUs. Non-root bridges do not originate BPDUs; they relay the root's BPDUs downstream after updating them. The default Hello time is 2 seconds, and this timer is configured only on the root bridge (or the intended root) and propagated throughout the spanning tree via the BPDU fields.

Thus, the Hello timer directly controls the frequency of configuration BPDU generation and transmission by the root bridge.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the confusion between the Hello timer and other STP timers, such as Max Age, Forward Delay, and the topology change mechanism, leading candidates to incorrectly associate the Hello timer with failure detection or state durations.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because topology change notifications in RSTP are not sent at a fixed interval; they are triggered immediately by a topology change and propagated via the TC flag in BPDUs, not governed by the Hello timer. Option B is wrong because the maximum time a switch waits before declaring a neighbor dead is determined by the 3× Hello timer rule (or the Message Age and Max Age in classic STP), not by the Hello timer alone; in RSTP, a neighbor is considered lost after three consecutive missed Hellos (default 6 seconds), but the Hello timer itself does not define that maximum wait. Option C is wrong because the duration of the listening and learning states is not defined by the Hello timer; in RSTP, these states are replaced by the learning and forwarding states with rapid transition, and any timing is governed by the Forward Delay timer in legacy STP, not the Hello timer.

108
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE conditions must be met to successfully execute an In-Service Software Upgrade (ISSU) on a dual-RE Juniper routing platform? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Both Routing Engines must be fully populated with identical hardware models and supported Junos images.
B.Graceful Routing Engine Switchover (GRES) must be enabled and synchronized.
C.All physical interfaces must be manually placed in a disabled state prior to upgrade.
D.VRRP preemption must be disabled on all routing interfaces.
E.Nonstop Active Routing (NSR) or Graceful Restart must be configured for active routing protocols.
AnswersA, B, E

ISSU requires both Routing Engines to run compatible Junos releases and matching hardware, since the upgrade proceeds by failing over between them while each RE runs a different software version. Identical models and supported images satisfy the dual-RE synchronisation constraint, allowing traffic to continue during the upgrade.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because ISSU requires both Routing Engines to be the same hardware model and to run compatible, supported Junos images so that the upgraded RE can take over cleanly. Option B is correct because Graceful Routing Engine Switchover (GRES) must be enabled and synchronized, allowing the backup RE to assume control without resetting the data plane or losing forwarding state. Option E is correct because Nonstop Active Routing (NSR) or Graceful Restart must be configured for the active routing protocols so that routing adjacencies and protocol state survive the RE switchover during the upgrade.

Option C is incorrect because ISSU is designed to avoid taking down all physical interfaces; interfaces remain forwarding during the upgrade. Option D is incorrect because VRRP preemption settings are not a prerequisite for ISSU and do not need to be disabled.

109
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of the OSPF Designated Router (DR) on a broadcast network segment?

A.To translate Type 7 LSAs into Type 5 LSAs for the backbone
B.To authenticate OSPF hello packets across interfaces
C.To act as the sole exit gateway for all external traffic in the AS
D.To minimize the number of adjacencies and LSA flooding traffic on a multi-access segment
AnswerD

On a multi-access segment the DR reduces adjacencies to a full mesh by having all other routers form adjacencies only with it and the BDR. This minimises LSA flooding traffic, satisfying the stem's requirement on broadcast segments.

Why this answer

The DR reduces network traffic and LSA flooding overhead by acting as a central focal point for exchanging routing information and generating the Network LSA (Type 2) on multi-access segments.

110
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO commands are valid Junos configuration hierarchy paths for setting up RSTP? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.set bridge rstp mode rapid-pvst
B.set protocols stp rstp-version true
C.set protocols rstp bridge-priority 4096
D.set protocols rstp interface ge-0/0/1.0 edge
E.set spanning-tree rstp enable
AnswersC, D

RSTP bridge priority is configured under the protocols rstp hierarchy, so 'set protocols rstp bridge-priority 4096' is a valid path. The value is a multiple of 4096, making it a legal priority that influences root bridge election.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because under the Junos RSTP hierarchy, the bridge priority is configured with 'set protocols rstp bridge-priority 4096', which sets the bridge priority value used in RSTP root election. Option D is correct because 'set protocols rstp interface ge-0/0/1.0 edge' is a valid Junos RSTP interface-level command that marks the specified interface as an edge port, allowing it to transition immediately to forwarding. Option A is not valid because 'bridge rstp mode rapid-pvst' is not a Junos configuration path and mixes Cisco-style syntax.

Option B is not valid because 'set protocols stp rstp-version true' is not a Junos command; RSTP is enabled under 'protocols rstp', not via an 'rstp-version' boolean under 'protocols stp'. Option E is not valid because 'set spanning-tree rstp enable' is not Junos syntax; Junos uses the 'protocols rstp' hierarchy rather than a 'spanning-tree' stanza.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests Junos vs. Cisco syntax confusion — candidates pick Cisco-style commands like 'rapid-pvst' or 'spanning-tree rstp enable' that look familiar but are invalid in Junos.

111
Multi-Selecthard

When configuring Layer 2 firewall filters on an EX Series switch, which THREE statements are correct regarding filter structure and application? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.They are configured under the 'family ethernet-switching' match criteria context.
B.They are applied to logical Layer 3 routing interfaces (irb or vlan interfaces) using family inet.
C.They can match on source and destination MAC addresses as well as EtherType fields.
D.They can be applied to physical switch ports or entire VLANs.
E.They execute routing lookups prior to evaluating packet match conditions.
AnswersA, C, D

Layer 2 filters on EX Series switches require the family ethernet-switching match condition, which tells Junos to inspect Ethernet header fields rather than IP or IPv6 headers. Without this family context, MAC-based terms cannot be parsed, so the filter must be defined under this hierarchy.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because Layer 2 firewall filters on EX Series switches are configured within the 'family ethernet-switching' context, which provides the match conditions for Layer 2 fields such as MAC addresses and EtherType. Option C is correct because these filters can match on source and destination MAC addresses and EtherType values, which are fundamental Layer 2 header fields. Option D is correct because Layer 2 filters can be applied to physical switch ports (interfaces) or to VLANs, allowing filtering at the ingress port or across a VLAN.

Option B is incorrect because applying filters to logical Layer 3 interfaces (irb or vlan interfaces) using 'family inet' is for Layer 3 filters, not Layer 2. Option E is incorrect because firewall filters evaluate match conditions before any routing lookup occurs; routing lookups happen after a packet is permitted and forwarded.

112
MCQhard

An administrator notices that CPU utilization on the Routing Engine spikes when a high volume of transit traffic is directed through a locally terminated GRE tunnel on an MX router without inline services configured. What is the cause?

A.GRE keepalives are transmitting every 1 millisecond.
B.IP-IP tunnels require software processing, whereas GRE is always hardware-switched.
C.The firewall filter logging feature is active on all tunnel interfaces.
D.Tunnel encapsulation/decapsulation is falling back to Routing Engine CPU processing due to missing inline services PIC configuration.
AnswerD

Without an inline services PIC or MPC-based inline processing, GRE encapsulation and decapsulation for locally terminated tunnels is handled in software by the Routing Engine, so high transit volume drives RE CPU utilisation upward, matching the observed spike.

Why this answer

On MX routers, GRE tunnel encapsulation and decapsulation are normally handled by inline services (such as the MS-MPC or MS-DPC) in hardware. Without inline services configured, the RE (Routing Engine) must perform the encapsulation/decapsulation in software, which drives up CPU utilization when transit traffic is tunneled.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the assumption that GRE is always hardware-accelerated — candidates must recognize that on MX without inline services, GRE/IP-IP tunnels fall back to RE software processing, causing CPU spikes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because GRE keepalives are not transmitted every 1 millisecond by default — the default keepalive interval is 10 seconds, and even if configured aggressively, it would not cause CPU spikes from high-volume transit traffic. Option B is wrong because the statement is factually inverted: IP-IP tunnels are typically software-processed on many platforms, while GRE can be hardware-switched only when inline services are available; the claim that GRE is 'always hardware-switched' is false. Option C is wrong because firewall filter logging is not enabled by default on tunnel interfaces and would not be the cause of CPU spikes from transit traffic unless explicitly configured.

113
MCQhard

An administrator configures filter-based forwarding. The firewall filter uses the action 'then routing-instance custom-vr'. Where must the custom-vr routing instance be defined for the filter to accept this configuration without committing errors?

A.Under the [edit system FBF] hierarchy.
B.Under the [edit interfaces interface-name unit 0 family inet] hierarchy.
C.Under the [edit routing-instances] hierarchy.
D.Under the [edit firewall family inet filter] hierarchy.
AnswerC

Filter-based forwarding requires the target routing instance to exist within the routing-instances hierarchy, so the filter action resolves against a valid instance at commit. Defining custom-vr under [edit routing-instances] satisfies this constraint, allowing the filter term to direct matching traffic into that virtual router without commit errors.

Why this answer

Filter-based forwarding (FBF) requires the target routing instance to exist under the [edit routing-instances] hierarchy before a firewall filter can reference it with the 'then routing-instance' action. Junos validates this reference at commit time, so if custom-vr is not defined as a routing instance, the commit fails with an error. The routing instance is typically of type 'forwarding' or 'virtual-router', and the filter action simply directs matching packets into that instance's forwarding table.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming the routing instance can be defined inline within the filter or interface hierarchy; Junos requires it under [edit routing-instances] and validates the reference at commit, causing a hard failure if missing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because [edit system FBF] is not a valid Junos hierarchy — there is no system-level FBF configuration stanza. Option B is wrong because the interface unit family inet hierarchy configures addressing and filters applied to the interface, not the definition of a routing instance; the routing instance must exist separately. Option D is wrong because [edit firewall family inet filter] is where the filter itself (terms and actions) is defined, not where the routing instance is declared — the filter only references the instance by name.

114
MCQeasy

Which CLI command is used to manually initiate a Routing Engine switchover on an MX series router configured with GRES?

A.restart routing-engine backup
B.request chassis routing-engine master switch
C.request system reboot backup
D.set chassis routing-engine switchover
AnswerB

The `request chassis routing-engine master switch` command triggers a manual Routing Engine failover, satisfying the stem's requirement to initiate switchover on an MX router with GRES enabled. It forces the backup RE to assume the master role, preserving forwarding state through graceful switchover rather than relying on automatic failover.

Why this answer

The 'request chassis routing-engine master switch' command forces a manual switchover from the primary to the backup Routing Engine.

115
MCQmedium

You are configuring a new eBGP session between two Juniper routers in different autonomous systems. The physical link is up and you can ping the remote interface, but the BGP session remains in the Active state. Reviewing the configuration, you notice that the neighbor statement on both routers specifies the loopback address of the peer, but no additional configuration is present. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A.The BGP session is not configured with authentication, which is required for eBGP.
B.The BGP session is not configured with multihop because the peers are using loopback addresses.
C.The BGP router ID is not configured and defaults to the loopback address.
D.The autonomous system numbers are mismatched on the two routers.
AnswerB

eBGP peers using loopback addresses are not on the same subnet, so the default TTL of 1 causes the TCP connection to fail. The session remains in Active state because the router cannot establish a TCP session to a non-directly connected peer. Configuring multihop with an appropriate TTL allows the BGP session to be established over multiple hops.

Why this answer

The session remains in Active because the routers cannot establish a TCP connection to each other's loopback addresses. By default, eBGP uses a TTL of 1, so packets to a non-directly connected address are dropped. Configuring multihop with a TTL greater than 1 allows the BGP session to be established over multiple hops, resolving the Active state.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that because the physical link is up and you can ping the remote interface, BGP should automatically work without considering that the loopback address requires multihop configuration.

116
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator configures a Layer 2 firewall filter to drop broadcast packets while permitting unicast traffic on an access VLAN. Which THREE configuration elements are required to implement this filter properly? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Enable active router-advertisement snooping to support the filter.
B.Apply the filter under the 'family inet' routing protocol hierarchy.
C.Configure the filter action as 'discard' for the broadcast term.
D.Define the filter under 'family ethernet-switching'.
E.Use a match condition for destination MAC address broadcast 'ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff'.
AnswersC, D, E

The broadcast term needs a terminating action, and 'discard' silently drops matching frames without generating ICMP messages. This satisfies the requirement to drop broadcast packets while the implicit default permits unicast traffic on the access VLAN.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because a Layer 2 firewall filter term that should silently drop broadcast traffic must use the 'discard' action, which drops the matching frames without sending any ICMP or TCP reset response. Option D is correct because Layer 2 firewall filters on switches are defined and applied under the 'family ethernet-switching' hierarchy, not under 'family inet', which is for Layer 3 IPv4 filters. Option E is correct because broadcast Ethernet frames are identified by the destination MAC address ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff, so a match condition on that address is required to select broadcast packets while leaving unicast frames unmatched and permitted.

Option A is incorrect because router-advertisement snooping is an IPv6/ND feature unrelated to matching and dropping Layer 2 broadcast frames. Option B is incorrect because applying the filter under 'family inet' would make it an IPv4 Layer 3 filter, which cannot match Ethernet MAC addresses or operate on an access VLAN's Layer 2 traffic.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Layer 2 and Layer 3 filter hierarchies — candidates may choose 'family inet' because they are used to IP filters, but Ethernet broadcast filtering requires 'family ethernet-switching'.

117
MCQmedium

You are deploying a new access switch in a campus network. The security policy requires that all ARP packets received on untrusted access ports be validated against the DHCP snooping database, and that any ARP packet with an invalid IP-to-MAC binding be dropped and logged. You configure DHCP snooping on VLAN 100 and enable the appropriate feature on the untrusted ports. Which Junos OS feature must you enable to meet the policy requirement?

A.IP Source Guard
B.Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI)
C.MAC limiting
D.Storm control
AnswerB

Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) intercepts ARP packets on untrusted access ports and validates the sender's IP-to-MAC binding against the DHCP snooping database. If the binding is invalid, DAI drops the ARP packet and generates a log entry, satisfying the security policy requirement.

Why this answer

Dynamic ARP Inspection is the Junos OS feature designed to validate ARP packets on untrusted access ports by comparing the sender's IP and MAC addresses against the DHCP snooping binding database. When a mismatch occurs, the packet is dropped and logged, directly enforcing the security policy described.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that IP Source Guard also validates ARP packets, when it actually only inspects IP packet source addresses.

118
MCQhard

An enterprise network uses private VLANs. A server connected to an isolated port needs to send traffic out of the primary VLAN. Which statement accurately describes how traffic forwarding operates for an isolated port in Junos?

A.Traffic from an isolated port can reach other isolated ports within the same secondary VLAN.
B.Isolated ports can communicate freely with community ports, but not other isolated ports.
C.Traffic from an isolated port can only be forwarded to the designated promiscuous port.
D.Traffic from an isolated port is dropped unless a Layer 3 firewall filter explicitly permits it.
AnswerC

Isolated ports have no Layer 2 connectivity to each other or to community ports; their only permitted destination is the promiscuous port, which forwards traffic out of the primary VLAN. This satisfies the isolation constraint while still allowing server traffic to reach the gateway.

Why this answer

In a private VLAN (PVLAN) configuration, an isolated port can only communicate with the promiscuous port. Traffic from an isolated port is forwarded to the promiscuous port, which then routes or bridges it to the primary VLAN. Isolated ports cannot communicate with each other or with community ports, ensuring strict Layer 2 isolation.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing isolated ports with community ports; candidates often think isolated ports can talk to each other or to community ports, but they can only talk to the promiscuous port.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because isolated ports cannot communicate with other isolated ports within the same secondary VLAN; that would defeat the purpose of isolation. Option B is wrong because isolated ports cannot communicate with community ports either; only promiscuous ports can communicate with all ports. Option D is wrong because traffic from an isolated port is not dropped by default; it is forwarded to the promiscuous port, and firewall filters are not required for basic PVLAN operation.

119
MCQhard

While examining a BGP routing table, you notice a route with an ORIGIN attribute set to 'Incomplete'. What does this indicate about the origin of the route?

A.The route was learned via eBGP from an unknown AS.
B.The BGP update packet was corrupted in transit.
C.The route is an aggregate route without specific components.
D.The route was injected into BGP via redistribution (e.g., from static or IGP).
AnswerD

BGP ORIGIN codes are IGP, EGP and Incomplete. Incomplete signals the prefix was not learned natively via a BGP network statement but injected through redistribution from a static route or IGP, so its path origin cannot be fully verified.

Why this answer

BGP origin types are IGP (0), EGP (1), and Incomplete (2). Incomplete means the route origin is unknown, typically redistributed from an IGP or static route.

120
MCQeasy

What is the default bridge priority value assigned to Juniper EX Series switches when RSTP is enabled?

A.61440
B.0
C.32768
D.4096
AnswerC

Juniper EX Series switches use 32768 as the default bridge priority for RSTP, satisfying the stem's request for the out-of-the-box value. This 16-bit field, combined with the switch's MAC address, forms the 8-byte bridge identifier that determines root bridge election; lower values win, so 32768 is the midpoint default.

Why this answer

Juniper EX Series switches use the IEEE 802.1D/802.1w default bridge priority of 32768 when RSTP is enabled. Bridge priority is a 16-bit value expressed in increments of 4096, and 32768 is the midpoint of the range, making it the standard default across vendors. The bridge with the lowest priority (and then lowest MAC) becomes root.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests whether candidates remember the exact default bridge priority (32768) versus other valid values like 4096 or 61440 — the trap is confusing a commonly configured value with the actual default.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 61440 is a valid bridge priority value (15 × 4096) but is not the default — it is a high value often used to make a switch unlikely to become root. Option B is wrong because 0 is the lowest possible priority and is typically configured deliberately to force a switch to become root, not a default. Option D is wrong because 4096 is a low priority value (1 × 4096) used to influence root election, not the default.

121
MCQhard

When configuring MSTP, how is the regional maximum hop count enforced across switches within the same MST region?

A.The regional root periodically floods drop-commands if the network diameter exceeds the limit.
B.BPDUs carry a hop count that is decremented by each bridge; when it reaches zero, the BPDU is dropped.
C.Switches drop any incoming BPDUs that exceed the statically configured Max Age timer.
D.Ports exceeding the hop count are automatically placed into the error-disabled state.
AnswerB

MSTP enforces the regional hop count through the BPDU's remaining-hops field, which each bridge decrements on receipt. Once the value hits zero the BPDU is discarded, preventing stale topology information from looping indefinitely across the region.

Why this answer

In MSTP, the regional maximum hop count is enforced by the hop count field in BPDUs. The regional root sends BPDUs with a hop count equal to the maximum hop count (default 20). Each bridge that receives the BPDU decrements the hop count by one before forwarding it.

When the hop count reaches zero, the BPDU is dropped, preventing loops and limiting the network diameter within the MST region.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that MSTP uses a static Max Age timer or error-disabled ports to enforce hop count, when in reality it uses a decrementing hop count in BPDUs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because MSTP does not use drop-commands; it uses BPDU hop count decrementing. Option C is wrong because Max Age timer is used for BPDU aging, not hop count enforcement. Option D is wrong because ports are not error-disabled due to hop count; the BPDU is simply dropped when hop count expires.

122
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE statements describe the behavior and requirements of DHCP snooping? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.It requires IP Source Guard to be enabled before the binding table can be populated.
B.It inspects DHCP messages to record client MAC addresses, IP addresses, VLANs, and interface bindings.
C.Ports facing DHCP servers must be explicitly configured as trusted.
D.Untrusted ports drop DHCP server response messages (Offer and ACK).
E.It operates exclusively by analyzing static ARP entries configured by administrators.
AnswersB, C, D

DHCP snooping builds a binding table by inspecting DHCP traffic, mapping each client's MAC address, leased IP address, VLAN and ingress interface. This recorded binding is what later enables dynamic ARP inspection and IP source guard to filter spoofed traffic on untrusted access ports.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because DHCP snooping builds and maintains a binding table by snooping DHCP DISCOVER/REQUEST and OFFER/ACK exchanges, recording the client MAC address, leased IP address, VLAN, and the ingress switch port (interface) for each binding. Option C is correct because switch ports that connect toward legitimate DHCP servers (or uplinks toward them) must be manually configured as trusted; otherwise their server messages would be filtered. Option D is correct because on untrusted ports DHCP snooping drops server-to-client messages such as DHCPOFFER and DHCPACK (and NAK), preventing rogue DHCP servers from handing out addresses to clients.

Option A is not correct because IP Source Guard depends on the DHCP snooping binding table, not the reverse — snooping populates the table independently, and IP Source Guard is not a prerequisite. Option E is not correct because DHCP snooping works by inspecting live DHCP packet flows, not by analyzing static ARP entries.

123
MCQeasy

Which routing-instance type is specifically designed to support Layer 3 VPNs (L3VPNs) utilizing BGP as the-peering protocol and MP-BGP for VPN route distribution?

A.virtual-router
B.forwarding
C.VPLS
D.vrf
AnswerD

The vrf routing-instance type is purpose-built for L3VPNs, holding a separate routing table populated by MP-BGP VPN routes and supporting BGP peering between provider edge devices. Other instance types serve different services, so vrf satisfies the L3VPN requirement.

Why this answer

The vrf routing-instance type is specifically designed for Layer 3 VPNs (L3VPNs) that use BGP for peering and MP-BGP for VPN route distribution. It maintains a separate routing table (RIB) and forwarding table (FIB) per instance, enabling overlapping IP addresses across customers. VRF instances support BGP, OSPF, and other routing protocols, and they are the Junos equivalent of a VRF-lite or MPLS L3VPN VRF.

The other types serve different purposes: virtual-router is for logical routers with separate routing tables but no VPN route-target support, forwarding is for filter-based forwarding, and VPLS is for Layer 2 VPNs.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the distinction between routing-instance types, and candidates frequently confuse virtual-router with vrf because both create separate routing tables; however, only vrf supports the route distinguisher and route target attributes required for BGP/MP-BGP L3VPNs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a virtual-router routing-instance creates a separate routing table but does not support VPN route targets or MP-BGP-based L3VPN signaling; it is used for logical router separation, not L3VPNs. Option B is wrong because a forwarding routing-instance is used for filter-based forwarding (FBF) to direct traffic based on firewall filters, not for BGP/MP-BGP L3VPNs. Option C is wrong because VPLS is a Layer 2 VPN technology that emulates a LAN segment, not a Layer 3 VPN; it uses BGP for auto-discovery but does not provide IP routing separation with VRFs.

124
MCQhard

An administrator has configured a forwarding-type routing instance to perform filter-based forwarding. Which configuration statement is mandatory under the routing-instances hierarchy to properly define this instance type?

A.set routing-instances dept-fwd routing-options interface ge-0/0/0.0
B.set routing-instances dept-fwd instance-type virtual-router
C.set routing-instances dept-fwd instance-type l3vpn
D.set routing-instances dept-fwd instance-type forwarding
AnswerD

Filter-based forwarding requires the routing instance to be declared with instance-type forwarding, which activates the forwarding table used by firewall filter actions to steer traffic into that instance. Without this statement, the instance cannot perform filter-based forwarding.

Why this answer

Filter-based forwarding (FBF) on Junos requires a routing instance of type 'forwarding'. This instance type creates a Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) table that is populated only by firewall filter 'then routing-instance' actions, not by a routing protocol. The mandatory statement is therefore 'set routing-instances <name> instance-type forwarding'.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the confusion between 'virtual-router' (full VRF with protocols) and 'forwarding' (FBF-only, no protocols); candidates pick virtual-router thinking it is the generic VRF type, but FBF specifically requires 'forwarding'.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'routing-options interface' is not a valid statement under routing-instances for defining the instance type; interfaces are assigned via 'interface' under the routing-instance itself, and this does not set the instance type. Option B is wrong because 'instance-type virtual-router' creates a full VRF with its own routing protocol processes and RIB, which is used for VRF-lite, not for filter-based forwarding. Option C is wrong because 'instance-type l3vpn' is used for Layer 3 VPN (BGP/MPLS VPN) configurations with route distinguishers and route targets, not for FBF.

125
MCQeasy

An engineer is troubleshooting a BGP session between two routers and notices that the connection is stuck in the Active state. What does the Active state indicate about the BGP finite state machine?

A.The TCP connection attempt is ongoing or has failed, and the router is actively trying to establish a TCP session with the peer.
B.The local router has successfully completed the TCP handshake and is waiting for an Open message.
C.BGP has exchanged Open messages and is currently negotiating capability parameters.
D.The BGP session is fully operational and exchanging Keepalive messages.
AnswerA

The Active state means the router has sent a TCP connection request to the peer but has not received a response, so it keeps retrying. The session is not established; the router is actively attempting to open TCP port 179, which distinguishes it from Idle or Connect states.

Why this answer

In the Active state, the local router has initiated a TCP connection to the peer, but the TCP handshake has not yet completed successfully or has failed. This usually points to routing, firewall, or port 179 issues.

126
MCQeasy

Which Junos operational mode command is used to verify the operational status and packet statistics of configured GRE tunnel interfaces?

A.show interfaces gr-0/0/0
B.show protocols tunnel status
C.show chassis tunnels
D.show gre tunnel summary
AnswerA

The 'show interfaces gr-0/0/0' command displays link state, traffic counters and error statistics for the GRE tunnel interface. It directly satisfies the stem's requirement to verify operational status and packet statistics on the configured gr- interface.

Why this answer

The 'show interfaces' command in Junos operational mode displays detailed status, counters, and statistics for any interface, including GRE tunnel interfaces named gr-0/0/0. It shows operational state (up/down), traffic counters, errors, and protocol family information. This is the standard way to verify GRE tunnel health and packet flow on Junos devices.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the specific Junos command syntax for verifying tunnel interfaces; candidates may confuse generic tunnel commands from other vendors with Junos-specific 'show interfaces' syntax.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'show protocols tunnel status' is not a valid Junos command; tunnel status is viewed via interface commands. Option C is wrong because 'show chassis tunnels' does not exist in Junos; chassis commands relate to hardware, not tunnel interfaces. Option D is wrong because 'show gre tunnel summary' is not a Junos command; GRE tunnels are monitored through the generic interface command.

127
MCQeasy

An administrator needs to configure a basic GRE tunnel between two Junos devices across a routed IP network. Which interface family must be enabled on the physical transit interface to allow the GRE encapsulated packets to traverse the network?

A.family mpls
B.family iso
C.family ccc
D.family inet
AnswerD

GRE encapsulation requires the transit interface to forward the outer IPv4 header, so enabling family inet satisfies the routed IP network constraint. The tunnel interface itself carries family inet or inet6 for payload traffic, but the physical path only needs IPv4 forwarding to deliver encapsulated packets between the Junos peers.

Why this answer

GRE encapsulated packets are IP packets with protocol number 47, so the physical transit interface must have 'family inet' enabled to forward them across the routed IP network. Without family inet, the interface cannot process IPv4 packets, and the GRE tunnel will not come up. This is the fundamental requirement for GRE over an IP-routed underlay.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the confusion between the tunnel interface family (inner payload) and the physical interface family (outer transport), leading candidates to pick family mpls or family ccc incorrectly.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because family mpls is for MPLS label switching, not for carrying GRE-encapsulated IP packets. Option B is wrong because family iso is for IS-IS routing (OSI protocol), which is unrelated to GRE transport. Option C is wrong because family ccc is for circuit cross-connect (Layer 2 VPN), not for IP-routed GRE transport.

128
MCQeasy

An administrator runs 'show vlans' and notices that a particular VLAN has the status 'Active' but no interfaces listed under it. What does this indicate?

A.The VLAN is defined in the configuration and has an active IRB interface or routing instance, but no physical switch ports assigned.
B.The VLAN has been disabled by Spanning Tree Protocol.
C.The switch memory is full and cannot display interface memberships.
D.The VLAN configuration has a syntax error.
AnswerA

A VLAN shows Active when it exists in configuration and is bound to an active Layer 3 interface, such as an IRB or routing instance, even without member ports. The absence of listed interfaces confirms no access or trunk ports are assigned, satisfying the stem's condition of an active VLAN with zero member ports.

Why this answer

An active VLAN without interfaces means the VLAN is defined in the database and associated with an IRB (Layer 3 interface) or routing instance, but no physical switch ports are members.

129
MCQhard

An organization runs MSTP with multiple instances. A packet belonging to a VLAN that is not explicitly mapped to any MST instance is processed in which manner?

A.It is processed by the default RSTP instance running outside MSTP.
B.It is dropped by the switch because unmapped VLANs are considered invalid in MSTP.
C.It is automatically mapped to Instance 0 (the CIST).
D.It floods to all ports regardless of spanning tree port states.
AnswerC

MSTP maps every VLAN not explicitly assigned to an instance into the Common and Internal Spanning Tree, Instance 0. That instance carries the CIST topology, so unmapped VLAN traffic follows Instance 0 forwarding rather than being dropped or creating a separate instance.

Why this answer

In MSTP (Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol, IEEE 802.1s), VLANs that are not explicitly mapped to a specific MST instance are automatically assigned to the Common and Internal Spanning Tree (CIST), which is MST instance 0. The CIST provides connectivity for all VLANs that are not mapped to other instances and also interconnects MST regions. Therefore, the packet is processed by Instance 0, not dropped or flooded indiscriminately.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that unmapped VLANs are dropped or handled by a separate RSTP instance, when in fact they are automatically mapped to the CIST (Instance 0).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because MSTP does not run a separate 'default RSTP instance' outside of MSTP; the CIST is an integral part of MSTP and operates as instance 0. Option B is wrong because unmapped VLANs are not invalid; they are automatically mapped to the CIST. Option D is wrong because flooding to all ports regardless of spanning tree state would create loops and violate STP operation; MSTP still enforces port states for the CIST.

130
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of a Junos routing instance of type 'forwarding'?

A.To terminate BGP sessions from multiple external peers
B.To run multiple independent OSPF instances
C.To provide transparent bridging across WAN circuits
D.To support filter-based forwarding without running routing protocols
AnswerD

A forwarding routing instance holds only forwarding tables, with no routing protocol process, and is used with firewall filters to direct traffic into specific next-hop or VRF paths. This satisfies filter-based forwarding without protocol adjacencies.

Why this answer

A Junos routing instance of type 'forwarding' is used to support filter-based forwarding (FBF) without running routing protocols. It allows traffic to be directed to specific next-hops based on firewall filter match conditions, using a separate routing table (the forwarding instance's table) that contains only static routes or interface routes. This is ideal for policy-based routing scenarios where you don't need a full routing protocol.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the distinction between forwarding, virtual-router, and VRF instances — candidates may pick virtual-router for FBF, but forwarding is the correct type when no routing protocols are needed.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because terminating BGP sessions from multiple external peers is done with a VRF or a virtual-router routing instance, not a forwarding instance — forwarding instances don't run BGP. Option B is wrong because running multiple independent OSPF instances requires a virtual-router routing instance, which has its own protocol processes; forwarding instances do not support routing protocols. Option C is wrong because transparent bridging across WAN circuits is a Layer 2 function, typically handled by a bridge domain or VPLS, not a forwarding routing instance.

131
MCQhard

A Junos router is configured as a BGP route reflector. It learns a route from a client and reflects it to a non-client and another client. Which attribute does the route reflector modify or add to prevent routing loops?

A.MED and NEXT_HOP
B.AS_PATH and LOCAL_PREF
C.COMMUNITY and ATOMIC_AGGREGATE
D.ORIGINATOR_ID and CLUSTER_LIST
AnswerD

The route reflector adds ORIGINATOR_ID, carrying the originating client's router ID, and CLUSTER_LIST, recording the reflection path. A client receiving a route containing its own router ID or cluster ID detects the loop and discards it.

Why this answer

When a route reflector reflects a route, it adds the ORIGINATOR_ID (the router ID of the route's originator) and CLUSTER_LIST (a list of cluster IDs the route has traversed) to prevent routing loops. If a route reflector receives a route with its own router ID in ORIGINATOR_ID or its cluster ID in CLUSTER_LIST, it discards the route.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming AS_PATH is used for loop prevention in iBGP route reflection — AS_PATH is not modified within an AS; ORIGINATOR_ID and CLUSTER_LIST are the correct attributes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because MED and NEXT_HOP are not used for loop prevention by route reflectors; NEXT_HOP is typically unchanged (unless next-hop-self is configured), and MED is an optional attribute for path selection. Option B is wrong because AS_PATH and LOCAL_PREF are not modified by route reflectors for loop prevention — AS_PATH is used for inter-AS loop prevention, and LOCAL_PREF is for outbound path selection. Option C is wrong because COMMUNITY and ATOMIC_AGGREGATE are not used for route reflector loop prevention; communities are for tagging, and ATOMIC_AGGREGATE indicates aggregation.

132
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO statements are true regarding Junos tunnel interface naming conventions? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.GRE tunnel interfaces begin with the prefix 'gr-'.
B.Secure tunnel interfaces (IPsec) begin with the prefix 'gr-'.
C.Logical tunnel interfaces begin with the prefix 'ip-'.
D.IP-IP tunnel interfaces begin with the prefix 'ip-'.
E.All tunnel interfaces must start with the prefix 'xe-'.
AnswersA, D

GRE tunnel interfaces in Junos use the 'gr-' prefix, satisfying the question's requirement for a true naming-convention statement. This distinguishes them from IP-IP tunnels, which use 'ip-', and from logical tunnel interfaces, which use 'lt-'. The prefix directly reflects the encapsulation type configured on the physical interface.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because Junos names GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation) tunnel interfaces with the 'gr-' prefix, for example gr-0/0/0, which is the standard convention for GRE tunnels. Option D is correct because IP-IP (IP-in-IP) tunnel interfaces use the 'ip-' prefix, such as ip-0/0/0, distinguishing them from GRE tunnels. Option B is incorrect because IPsec secure tunnel interfaces are not named with 'gr-'; they are configured as st0 (secure tunnel) interfaces.

Option C is incorrect because logical tunnel (lt-) interfaces use the 'lt-' prefix, not 'ip-'. Option E is incorrect because 'xe-' is the prefix for 10-Gigabit Ethernet physical interfaces, not tunnel interfaces.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests interface naming prefixes; candidates may confuse 'st-' with 'gr-' or 'lt-' with 'ip-', leading to incorrect answers.

133
Multi-Selectmedium

You are configuring a BGP session between two Juniper routers. You want to ensure that the session can be established and that routes are exchanged correctly. Which two statements are true about BGP message types? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.ROUTE-REFRESH messages are mandatory for all BGP sessions.
B.UPDATE messages are used to advertise and withdraw routes.
C.OPEN messages are used to establish the BGP session and negotiate capabilities.
D.KEEPALIVE messages are used to request retransmission of lost UPDATE messages.
E.NOTIFICATION messages are used to advertise new routes.
AnswersB, C

UPDATE messages carry Network Layer Reachability Information (NLRI) for advertised routes and path attributes, as well as withdrawn routes. They are the primary messages for exchanging routing information. This is a correct description of the UPDATE message's purpose.

Why this answer

In BGP, OPEN messages initiate the session and negotiate parameters, while UPDATE messages carry routing information, including advertisements and withdrawals. KEEPALIVE messages maintain the session, NOTIFICATION messages report errors, and ROUTE-REFRESH messages are optional for requesting route updates. Thus, the OPEN and UPDATE message descriptions are correct.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the roles of KEEPALIVE and NOTIFICATION messages, or assuming that ROUTE-REFRESH is mandatory, when in fact it is optional and must be negotiated.

134
MCQhard

An OSPF area contains routers running Junos OS where external routes must be imported into the OSPF domain from a BGP core. However, the area must not accept external AS-external LSAs (Type 5) from other areas, but must allow routers within this area to originate external routes themselves. Which area type fulfills this requirement?

A.Backbone Area (Area 0)
B.Totally Stubby Area
C.Standard Stub Area
D.Not-So-Stubby Area (NSSA)
AnswerD

An NSSA blocks Type 5 AS-external LSAs from other areas while permitting its own routers to originate external routes as Type 7 LSAs, later translated to Type 5 at the ABR. This exactly matches the stem's dual constraint.

Why this answer

A Not-So-Stubby Area (NSSA) is designed to allow external routes to be imported into the OSPF domain from a non-OSPF protocol (like BGP) while preventing Type 5 AS-external LSAs from other areas. NSSAs use Type 7 LSAs for external routes originated within the area, which are translated to Type 5 at the NSSA ABR. This fulfills the requirement: the area does not accept Type 5 LSAs from other areas, but routers within can originate external routes.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the differences between stub, totally stubby, and NSSA areas, and candidates may incorrectly choose stub area when external route origination is required, forgetting that stub areas do not allow external LSAs to be originated.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Backbone Area (Area 0) accepts all LSA types, including Type 5, and does not restrict external LSAs. Option B is wrong because a Totally Stubby Area blocks all external LSAs (Type 5) and also summary LSAs (Type 3), and routers within cannot originate external routes. Option C is wrong because a Standard Stub Area blocks Type 5 LSAs but also does not allow routers within to originate external routes; it only allows a default route from the ABR.

135
MCQmedium

An administrator is configuring VRRP on an EX4300 switch and wants to ensure that when the primary router recovers from a failure, it immediately reclaims the master role from the backup router. Which VRRP configuration parameter controls this behavior?

A.The tracking decrement value set to zero.
B.The preemption parameter (enabled by default), which allows a higher-priority router to preempt the current master.
C.The virtual-mac-address configuration statement.
D.The advertisement interval timer set to 1 millisecond.
AnswerB

Preemption directly satisfies the requirement that the recovered router immediately reclaims the master role. Enabled by default, it lets a router with higher priority seize mastership from the current backup, rather than waiting for the backup's advertisement timer to expire. Without preemption, the recovered higher-priority router would remain backup indefinitely.

Why this answer

Preemption is enabled by default in Junos VRRP, allowing a higher-priority router to take over when it comes back online.

136
MCQmedium

What is the effect of changing the reference bandwidth in IS-IS?

A.It has no effect on IS-IS.
B.It automatically recalculates all interface metrics.
C.It increases the hello interval.
D.It forces all links to use narrow metrics.
AnswerA

IS-IS does not use a reference bandwidth to calculate interface metrics; metric values are configured manually per interface. Unlike OSPF, changing the reference bandwidth has no effect on IS-IS metric calculation, so wide or narrow metric values remain unchanged.

Why this answer

Changing the reference bandwidth in IS-IS has no effect because IS-IS does not use a reference bandwidth to calculate metrics. Unlike OSPF, where the reference bandwidth is used to compute interface cost, IS-IS uses narrow metrics (default) or wide metrics, and the metric values are configured manually or derived from interface types. The reference bandwidth concept is specific to OSPF.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the difference between OSPF and IS-IS metric calculation; candidates may incorrectly assume IS-IS uses a reference bandwidth like OSPF, leading them to choose an option that implies automatic recalculation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because IS-IS does not automatically recalculate metrics based on a reference bandwidth; metrics are either manually set or use default values based on interface type. Option C is wrong because the hello interval is a separate timer configuration and is not affected by reference bandwidth. Option D is wrong because forcing all links to use narrow metrics is not a result of changing reference bandwidth; narrow vs. wide metrics is a separate configuration under 'protocols isis level' or interface.

137
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator needs to configure an OSPF stub area on a Juniper router. Which THREE characteristics apply to a standard OSPF stub area? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Type 3 summary LSAs are blocked from entering the area
B.The ABR injects a default route (0.0.0.0/0) into the area
C.Type 5 AS-external LSAs are blocked from entering the area
D.Virtual links are not permitted to transit through a stub area
E.ASBRs are permitted to reside directly inside the stub area
AnswersB, C, D

The area border router generates a default route into the stub area, letting internal routers reach external destinations without carrying external LSAs. This satisfies the stem's stub-area requirement, since Type 5 LSAs are blocked and the default route replaces them.

Why this answer

In a standard OSPF stub area, the ABR blocks Type 5 AS-external LSAs from being flooded into the area (option C), which is the defining restriction that keeps external routing information out of the stub. To still provide reachability to external destinations, the ABR injects a default route (0.0.0.0/0) into the stub area via a Type 3 summary LSA (option B), so internal routers can forward traffic toward the ABR. Because Type 5 LSAs are blocked and external connectivity depends on that default route, ASBRs cannot reside inside a stub area, and virtual links cannot transit a stub area (option D) since a virtual link requires the transit area to carry Type 5 LSAs and cannot be configured through a stub.

Option A is incorrect because Type 3 summary LSAs are still permitted in a standard stub area (only totally stubby areas block Type 3 LSAs, except the default route). Option E is incorrect because an ASBR inside the area would generate Type 5 LSAs, which are not allowed in a stub area.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the differences between stub, totally stubby, and NSSA areas, and candidates may incorrectly assume that Type 3 LSAs are blocked in a standard stub area.

138
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO attributes distinguish direct routes from static routes in Junos OS? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Static routes are created automatically when an interface comes up.
B.Direct routes represent subnets attached to active local interfaces.
C.Direct routes require manual IP address configuration under routing-options.
D.Static routes cannot be used with recursive next-hops.
E.Direct routes have a default preference of 0, whereas static routes have a default preference of 5.
AnswersB, E

Direct routes are derived from the subnets configured on active local interfaces, so they appear only while the interface is up. Static routes are manually configured and remain regardless of interface state, which is the distinguishing axis.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because direct routes in Junos OS are automatically installed in the routing table for the subnets configured on active local interfaces, representing directly connected networks. Option E is correct because Junos assigns direct routes a default preference of 0, while static routes carry a default preference of 5, making direct routes more preferred when both exist for the same prefix. Option A is wrong because static routes are manually configured, not automatically created when an interface comes up; that behavior describes direct/interface routes.

Option C is wrong because direct routes do not require manual configuration under routing-options; they are derived from interface addresses, whereas static routes are configured under routing-options. Option D is wrong because static routes can use recursive next-hops, resolving the next-hop through another route in the routing table.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the default preferences of route types; candidates may confuse direct routes (preference 0) with static routes (preference 5) or assume static routes are automatically created.

139
MCQmedium

An EX4300 Virtual Chassis has GRES enabled. During a primary Routing Engine failure, what happens to the backup Routing Engine?

A.The backup Routing Engine reboots both engines to synchronize firmware versions.
B.The Virtual Chassis splits into independent standalone switches.
C.The backup Routing Engine assumes the primary role without disrupting the forwarding plane or resetting packet forwarding tables.
D.All switch members in the Virtual Chassis are forced into factory default mode.
AnswerC

With GRES enabled, the backup Routing Engine takes over the primary role while the Packet Forwarding Engine continues forwarding using existing state. Forwarding tables are not reset, so traffic keeps flowing through the switchover without disruption to the forwarding plane.

Why this answer

With GRES enabled, the backup Routing Engine assumes the primary role seamlessly without resetting the forwarding plane or dropping data traffic.

140
MCQeasy

Which traffic rate-limiting mechanism is primarily used by storm control to protect switch CPU and interfaces from broadcast and multicast storms?

A.Traffic policing by dropping packets exceeding the configured bandwidth threshold
B.Input queue buffering and tail-drop avoidance
C.Rate limiting via TCP window size adjustments
D.Traffic shaping with weighted random early detection (WRED)
AnswerA

Storm control enforces its bandwidth threshold through traffic policing: packets exceeding the configured rate are dropped rather than queued or shaped. This directly satisfies the stem's requirement to protect switch CPU and interfaces from broadcast and multicast storms, since policing caps the flooded traffic before it overwhelms control-plane resources.

Why this answer

Storm control utilizes traffic policing to measure traffic rates and drop excess packets.

141
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency issue on a Junos router. The neighbor state is stuck in 'ExStart'. You have verified that the interfaces are up and IP connectivity exists. Which configuration mismatch is most likely causing this problem?

A.MTU mismatch on the interfaces.
B.Mismatched OSPF area IDs.
C.Mismatched OSPF hello intervals.
D.Mismatched OSPF authentication passwords.
AnswerA

In OSPF, during the ExStart state, routers exchange Database Description (DBD) packets to negotiate the master/slave relationship and determine the initial sequence number. If the MTU sizes on the interfaces do not match, the routers cannot successfully exchange DBD packets because the MTU is included in the DBD packet and must match. This causes the adjacency to remain in ExStart. The issue is resolved by configuring matching MTU values or using the mtu-ignore option.

Why this answer

The ExStart state is part of the OSPF database exchange process. During this state, routers negotiate who will be the master and the initial DD sequence number. A common cause of getting stuck in ExStart is an MTU mismatch, because the MTU is carried in DBD packets and must match for successful negotiation.

Other mismatches like hello interval, area ID, or authentication would prevent the adjacency from reaching ExStart. In Junos, you can use the mtu-ignore option under the OSPF interface to bypass MTU checking.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any OSPF parameter mismatch causes ExStart, when actually only MTU mismatch typically causes a stuck ExStart state.

142
MCQmedium

You are troubleshooting an aggregate route that is not being advertised to BGP peers. You verify that contributing routes are active in the routing table. What command should you use to check if the aggregate route itself is successfully generated and active in the local routing table?

A.show route summary aggregate
B.show bgp aggregate-routes
C.show route protocol aggregate
D.show routing-options aggregate detail
AnswerC

Aggregate routes appear in the routing table under the aggregate protocol. 'show route protocol aggregate' filters the table to those entries, confirming whether the aggregate was generated and is active before investigating why BGP is not advertising it.

Why this answer

The command 'show route protocol aggregate' displays all routes in the routing table that were learned via the aggregate protocol. This allows you to verify if the aggregate route is active and installed. If the aggregate is not shown, it means it is not active, likely due to no contributing routes.

The other commands are either invalid or do not show the aggregate route in the local routing table.

Exam trap

The trap is using a configuration show command instead of a routing table show command; candidates might pick 'show routing-options aggregate' which shows config, not active routes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'show route summary aggregate' is not a valid command; 'show route summary' gives a summary but does not filter by protocol. Option B is wrong because 'show bgp aggregate-routes' is not a valid command; BGP does not have a specific aggregate-routes show command. Option D is wrong because 'show routing-options aggregate detail' displays the configuration, not the active routing table entries.

143
MCQhard

An administrator configures root protection on a designated port. If that port subsequently receives a superior BPDU from another switch, what exact state does the port transition into?

A.Alternate port state
B.Error-disabled state
C.Root-inconsistent (discarding) state
D.Listening state
AnswerC

Root protection on a designated port places the port into the root-inconsistent discarding state when a superior BPDU arrives, blocking that interface to prevent a rogue switch becoming root. The port recovers automatically once superior BPDUs cease.

Why this answer

When root protection is configured on a designated port and that port receives a superior BPDU, the port is placed into the root-inconsistent (discarding) state rather than being error-disabled. This prevents the port from becoming a root port and preserves the intended root bridge placement.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the distinction between Root Guard (root-inconsistent, auto-recovering) and BPDU Guard (error-disabled, manual recovery) — candidates conflate the two penalty states.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because alternate port state is a normal RSTP role for a port that provides a backup path to the root, not the penalty state for root protection violations. Option B is wrong because error-disabled state is used by BPDU Guard (which shuts the port on any BPDU), not by Root Guard, which uses the root-inconsistent state. Option D is wrong because listening state is a legacy 802.1D transitional state, not the specific penalty applied by root protection.

144
MCQmedium

Why would you set an interface to 'passive' in IS-IS?

A.To speed up the DIS election process.
B.To force the interface to be a point-to-point link.
C.To enable authentication on that interface.
D.To include the network in the LSP without forming an adjacency.
AnswerD

Passive mode advertises the interface's prefix into the IS-IS link-state PDU so remote routers can reach the network, yet suppresses Hello PDUs, preventing adjacency formation. This satisfies the requirement of including the network in the LSP without forming an adjacency.

Why this answer

Setting an interface to passive in IS-IS instructs the router to advertise the interface's connected subnet into its LSP (Link State PDU) without sending or processing IIH (IS-IS Hello) packets on that interface. This means no adjacency is formed over the link, but the prefix is still reachable via the router's own LSP. It is commonly used on interfaces facing stub networks or hosts where forming an adjacency is unnecessary or undesirable.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that passive interfaces still form adjacencies or affect DIS election; candidates may confuse passive with point-to-point or authentication settings.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because passive mode does not affect DIS election; DIS election only occurs on broadcast interfaces where IIH packets are exchanged, and passive interfaces do not participate in that process. Option B is wrong because forcing a point-to-point link is done with the 'point-to-point' interface configuration, not passive mode; passive interfaces do not form any adjacency regardless of link type. Option C is wrong because authentication is enabled separately via hello authentication or LSP authentication commands, not by setting the interface passive.

145
MCQeasy

Which statement best describes the behavior of a local route in Junos OS?

A.They represent IP addresses assigned directly to the router's local interfaces.
B.They are static routes learned from neighbor routers via CDP.
C.They are manual loopback routes configured by network administrators.
D.They are generated automatically whenever a BGP session drops.
AnswerA

Local routes in Junos OS are host routes (/32 for IPv4, /128 for IPv6) installed for each address configured on the router's own interfaces, pointing to the loopback or discard next-hop. They satisfy the stem's requirement by describing addresses assigned directly to local interfaces, distinguishing them from routes learned via routing protocols.

Why this answer

A local route in Junos OS represents the IP addresses assigned directly to the router's local interfaces. These routes are automatically installed in the routing table with a next-hop of the local interface and are used for traffic destined to the router itself. They are not learned from neighbors or manually configured as static routes.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the distinction between direct and local routes, and candidates may confuse local routes with static or loopback routes, or think they are learned dynamically.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because local routes are not learned from neighbor routers via CDP; CDP is a Cisco protocol and not used for routing. Option C is wrong because local routes are not manual loopback routes; loopback routes are typically static or interface routes, but local routes specifically refer to directly connected interface addresses. Option D is wrong because local routes are not generated when BGP sessions drop; they are always present for configured interface addresses.

146
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO features help protect an RSTP topology from unauthorized switches or misconfigurations on access ports? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Bridge priority adjustment
B.Hello timer scaling
C.Root protection
D.Forward delay timer optimization
E.BPDU guard
AnswersC, E

Root protection on a designated access port blocks superior BPDUs that would otherwise let an unauthorised switch become root, preserving the existing topology. It directly counters misconfiguration or rogue devices attempting to hijack the root role on access ports.

Why this answer

Root protection (Option C) is correct because when enabled on a port, it forces that port into a root-inconsistent blocking state if it receives a superior BPDU, preventing an unauthorized or misconfigured switch on an access port from becoming the root bridge and hijacking the spanning-tree topology. BPDU guard (Option E) is correct because it err-disables a port immediately upon receiving any BPDU, which stops rogue switches or misconfigured devices from participating in RSTP on access ports that should only connect to end hosts. Bridge priority adjustment (Option A) only influences which switch becomes root and does not defend against unauthorized switches on access ports.

Hello timer scaling (Option B) merely changes how often BPDUs are sent and does not provide protection. Forward delay timer optimization (Option D) tunes STP convergence timing and likewise offers no security against rogue or misconfigured access-port devices.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the distinction between STP tuning parameters (priority, timers) and STP security features (BPDU guard, root protection) — candidates pick tuning knobs thinking they provide protection.

147
MCQeasy

Which TCP port is used by BGP to establish communication between peers?

A.UDP 520
B.TCP 179
C.TCP 80
D.TCP 500
AnswerB

BGP peers establish sessions over TCP port 179, using it for the initial three-way handshake and all subsequent UPDATE, KEEPALIVE and NOTIFICATION messages. This satisfies the stem's requirement, distinguishing BGP from protocols such as RIP that operate over UDP.

Why this answer

BGP operates over TCP port 179.

148
MCQeasy

During the establishment of an OSPF adjacency, two routers exchange Database Description (DBD) packets. What is the primary purpose of the DBD packet exchange in the OSPF protocol sequence?

A.To synchronize link-state database summaries between neighbors
B.To discover directly connected neighbors on a shared segment
C.To request specific missing LSAs from a neighbor's database
D.To explicitly acknowledge the receipt of specific LSA updates
AnswerA

DBD packets carry link-state advertisement headers only, not full LSAs. Neighbours compare these summaries to determine which LSAs each lacks, then request missing entries via Link State Request packets, achieving database synchronisation before the adjacency reaches Full state.

Why this answer

The DBD (Database Description) packet exchange is the second stage of OSPF adjacency formation, after Hello packets establish bidirectional communication. Its purpose is to exchange summary headers of each router's link-state database so both routers can determine which LSAs they are missing and need to request via Link-State Request packets. This synchronization ensures both neighbors have an identical view of the topology before entering the Full state.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the confusion between DBD, LSR, LSU, and LSAck packet roles — candidates frequently pick 'request missing LSAs' for DBD when that is actually the LSR function.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because neighbor discovery on a shared segment is performed by Hello packets (multicast to 224.0.0.5), not DBDs. Option C is wrong because requesting specific missing LSAs is the job of Link-State Request (LSR) packets, which follow the DBD exchange. Option D is wrong because explicit acknowledgment of LSA receipt is handled by Link-State Acknowledgment (LSAck) packets, not DBDs.

149
MCQeasy

Which CLI command displays the operational status and roles of all members in a Juniper EX Series Virtual Chassis?

A.show chassis vcp
B.show lacp virtual-chassis
C.show virtual-chassis
D.show vrrp chassis
AnswerC

The show virtual-chassis command outputs member IDs, roles (master, backup, linecard) and status for every switch in the EX Series Virtual Chassis. It directly satisfies the stem's requirement to display operational status and roles of all members.

Why this answer

The 'show virtual-chassis' command displays the role (Master, Backup, Linecard) of each member.

150
MCQeasy

An administrator wants to prevent a malicious user from flooding an EX Series switch with a high volume of broadcast traffic from an untrusted end-user device. Which feature should be configured?

A.MACsec
B.Dynamic ARP Inspection
C.Port security
D.Storm control
AnswerD

Storm control meters broadcast, multicast and unknown unicast traffic per interface, dropping frames once a configured bandwidth threshold is exceeded. This directly satisfies the stem's constraint of preventing an untrusted end-user device from flooding the switch with excessive broadcast traffic.

Why this answer

Storm control is designed to prevent traffic types such as broadcast, multicast, and unknown unicast from overwhelming the switch and network resources.

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