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Juniper Networks Enterprise Routing and Switching, Specialist (JNCIS-ENT, JN0-352) (JNCIS-ENT) (JNCIS-ENT) — Questions 151–225

320 questions total · 5 pages · All types, answers revealed

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151
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO port roles are defined in Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) but did not exist in legacy 802.1D STP? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Master port
B.Root port
C.Backup port
D.Designated port
E.Alternate port
AnswersC, E

RSTP introduces the backup port role, which provides a redundant path to a segment already reached through a designated port on the same bridge. Legacy 802.1D STP defined only root, designated and blocked roles, so backup did not exist.

Why this answer

RSTP (IEEE 802.1w) introduced two new port roles that did not exist in legacy 802.1D STP: the Alternate port (option E) and the Backup port (option C). An Alternate port is a discarding port that receives superior BPDUs from another bridge and serves as an immediate replacement for the Root port if it fails, while a Backup port is a discarding port that receives superior BPDUs from its own bridge (a redundant connection to the same shared segment) and can immediately replace a Designated port. Both roles enable RSTP's rapid failover by allowing pre-computed, ready-to-use backup paths instead of waiting for STP timers.

The other options are not new to RSTP: Root port (B) and Designated port (D) are the two forwarding roles already defined in 802.1D STP, and Master port (A) is a role specific to Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP, 802.1s) used on boundary ports toward the Common Spanning Tree region, not a role introduced by RSTP.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing RSTP's new roles (Alternate, Backup) with roles that existed in 802.1D (Root, Designated) or with MSTP-specific roles like Master.

152
Multi-Selectmedium

You are configuring OSPF on a Juniper router and need to control which router becomes the Designated Router (DR) on a broadcast network. Which two statements about OSPF DR election on Junos are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The BDR is elected first, and then the DR is elected from the remaining routers.
B.The DR election occurs every time a Hello packet is received on the segment.
C.A router with interface priority 0 can still become the DR if it has the highest Router ID.
D.If interface priorities are equal, the router with the highest Router ID becomes the DR.
E.The router with the highest OSPF interface priority becomes the DR.
AnswersD, E

When multiple routers have the same interface priority, OSPF uses the highest Router ID as the tiebreaker to determine the DR. This is a standard part of the OSPF DR election process and is accurately described in this statement.

Why this answer

OSPF DR election on a broadcast network is determined first by the highest interface priority, and if priorities are equal, by the highest Router ID. A router with priority 0 is excluded from the election. The election is not repeated on every Hello; it occurs when the network first comes up or when the DR/BDR fail.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a high Router ID can override a priority of 0, when priority 0 actually makes the router ineligible for DR or BDR regardless of Router ID.

153
MCQmedium

You notice that an access switch running RSTP is continually dropping user traffic because a connected end-user device is sending inferior BPDUs that trigger topology changes. Which Juniper feature should you configure on the access ports to protect against this behavior?

A.set protocols rstp interface ge-0/0/1.0 loop-protection
B.set protocols rstp interface ge-0/0/1.0 bpdu-protection
C.set protocols rstp interface ge-0/0/1.0 root-protection
D.set protocols rstp interface ge-0/0/1.0 no-root-port
AnswerB

BPDU protection administratively disables an edge port that receives BPDUs, so inferior BPDUs from the attached device can no longer trigger RSTP topology changes. This directly stops the continual traffic drops described in the stem.

Why this answer

BPDU protection is the Juniper RSTP feature designed to shut down (or disable) an edge/access port if it receives a BPDU. Since end-user devices should never send BPDUs, receiving one indicates a rogue switch or misconfigured device. When bpdu-protection is enabled on the access interface, the port is immediately disabled (error-disabled) upon receiving a BPDU, preventing the inferior BPDU from triggering topology changes and disrupting user traffic.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the distinction between BPDU protection, root protection, and loop protection; candidates frequently confuse root-protection (which prevents a port from becoming root) with BPDU protection (which blocks BPDUs on edge ports).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because loop-protection is used on root ports and alternate ports to prevent unidirectional link loops; it does not block BPDUs from end-user devices. Option C is wrong because root-protection is applied to designated ports to prevent them from becoming root ports; it does not stop BPDU processing on access ports. Option D is wrong because no-root-port is not a valid Juniper RSTP configuration statement; the correct concept is root-protection, not no-root-port.

154
MCQmedium

A network administrator needs to modify the Local Preference path attribute for all routes received from a specific external BGP peer using a routing policy on Junos. Under which configuration hierarchy should the routing policy be applied?

A.policy-options policy-statement term then export
B.protocols bgp group neighbor import
C.routing-options rib inet.0 static
D.protocols ospf area
AnswerB

Import policies applied at the BGP neighbour or group level modify attributes of routes received from that peer before they enter the routing table. Configuring 'import' under protocols bgp group neighbour therefore satisfies the requirement to alter Local Preference for all routes from the specific external peer.

Why this answer

To modify Local Preference for routes received from a specific eBGP peer, the routing policy must be applied as an import policy on that neighbor or group under 'protocols bgp group <name> neighbor <ip> import <policy>'. Import policies are evaluated on inbound updates, which is where Local Preference is typically set for eBGP-learned routes.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing import vs. export policy direction — candidates often apply the policy as export, but Local Preference for received routes must be set on import.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because export policies are applied to outbound updates and cannot set Local Preference for routes received from a peer — Local Preference is a local attribute used for outbound path selection within the AS. Option C is wrong because 'routing-options rib inet.0 static' is for static route configuration, not for applying BGP import policies. Option D is wrong because 'protocols ospf area' is for OSPF configuration and has nothing to do with BGP path attributes.

155
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO commands can be used to view spanning tree information on a Juniper EX Series switch? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.show bridge spanning-tree status
B.show spanning-tree interface
C.show spanning-tree bridge
D.show rstp summary
E.show protocols spanning-tree summary
AnswersB, C

`show spanning-tree interface` displays per-port spanning-tree state, role, cost and edge status on EX Series switches, satisfying the requirement to view spanning tree information. It queries the interface-level STP database directly, confirming which ports forward or block, unlike configuration or non-STP commands.

Why this answer

Option B, 'show spanning-tree interface', is correct because on Juniper EX Series switches running Junos, this operational command displays per-interface spanning-tree information such as role, state, port cost, and edge/point-to-point settings for the specified interface. Option C, 'show spanning-tree bridge', is correct because it displays bridge-level spanning-tree parameters, including the bridge ID, root bridge information, timers, and topology change counters. These two commands are the standard Junos CLI forms for inspecting STP/RSTP/MSTP on EX switches.

Option A is not a valid Junos command; the 'show bridge' hierarchy is not used for spanning tree on EX. Option D is invalid because 'show rstp summary' is not a Junos operational command. Option E is invalid because 'show protocols spanning-tree summary' is not a Junos command; 'show protocols' is used for routing protocol status, not spanning tree.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests command syntax familiarity — candidates pick plausible-sounding but non-existent commands like 'show rstp summary' or 'show protocols spanning-tree' because they mirror Cisco or routing-protocol naming conventions rather than actual Junos hierarchy.

156
MCQmedium

You have configured a static route with a next-hop of 10.0.0.1 and a preference of 10. Another static route to the same destination has a next-hop of 10.0.0.2 and a preference of 5. Both next-hops are reachable. Which route will be active in the routing table?

A.The route with next-hop 10.0.0.2 because it has a lower preference.
B.Both routes will be active and load balancing will occur.
C.Neither route will be active because of conflicting preferences.
D.The route with next-hop 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher preference.
AnswerA

Junos uses lower preference values to indicate more preferred routes. The route with preference 5 is preferred over the one with preference 10. Therefore, the route with next-hop 10.0.0.2 will be installed in the routing table and used for forwarding, assuming both next-hops are reachable.

Why this answer

Junos selects the static route with the lowest preference value. Since the route with next-hop 10.0.0.2 has a preference of 5, which is lower than 10, it becomes the active route. The other route remains in the routing table but is not used for forwarding.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a higher preference value is better, when in Junos, lower preference values are preferred.

157
MCQeasy

Which operational command allows you to view the real-time status of LACP packet exchanges and partner system IDs for an aggregated interface on a Junos switch?

A.show interfaces ae0 statistics
B.show chassis lacp-status
C.show vrrp lacp-summary
D.show lacp interface
AnswerD

The 'show lacp interface' command exposes live LACPDU exchange state and partner system ID per member link, satisfying the requirement for real-time LACP status on the aggregated interface. Other operational commands show aggregate bundle state but not per-link partner identifiers.

Why this answer

The 'show lacp interface' command displays detailed LACP partner information, partner port numbers, and state flags.

158
MCQmedium

What is the primary function of the BGP OPEN message?

A.To advertise reachability and path attributes for network prefixes.
B.To maintain the connection state and verify liveliness at regular intervals.
C.To signal fatal errors and immediately terminate the BGP session.
D.To establish a peering session and negotiate capabilities such as ASNs and timers.
AnswerD

The OPEN message initiates the BGP session after TCP establishment, carrying the version, local AS number, hold time, router ID, and optional capability parameters. This negotiation satisfies the stem's requirement by exchanging ASNs and timers before any UPDATE messages flow.

Why this answer

The OPEN message is the first message sent after a TCP connection is established, used to negotiate BGP parameters such as ASN, hold time, and router ID.

159
MCQeasy

Which level is enabled by default in Junos when configuring IS-IS on an interface?

A.None
B.Level 2 only
C.Level 1 only
D.Level 1 and Level 2
AnswerD

Junos enables both Level 1 and Level 2 by default when IS-IS is configured on an interface, satisfying the stem's default-level question. The interface therefore forms Level 1 adjacencies within its area and Level 2 adjacencies across areas unless the level is explicitly restricted.

Why this answer

By default, interfaces in Junos IS-IS are enabled for both Level 1 and Level 2.

160
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE statements describe the function of the Designated Port in RSTP? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.It provides the lowest cost path from the segment back toward the root bridge.
B.It remains permanently in the discarding state to prevent loops.
C.It forwards BPDUs onto the attached LAN segment.
D.There is exactly one designated port for every active LAN segment.
E.It acts as the primary root port for the local bridge.
AnswersA, C, D

The designated port for a segment advertises the lowest-cost path from that segment toward the root bridge, based on root path cost. It is the forwarding port elected per segment to carry traffic toward the root.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because the designated port is the port on a LAN segment that offers the lowest path cost back toward the root bridge, making it the forwarding port for that segment. Option C is correct because the designated port is responsible for sending (forwarding) BPDUs onto its attached LAN segment, which is how RSTP maintains topology information. Option D is correct because RSTP elects exactly one designated port per active LAN segment to avoid loops and ensure consistent forwarding.

Option B is incorrect because designated ports normally forward frames and BPDUs, not remain permanently discarding; discarding is a temporary or alternate/backup port state. Option E is incorrect because the primary root port is the port on a non-root bridge closest to the root bridge, which is a different role from the designated port.

Exam trap

The trap is conflating the Designated Port with the Root Port — candidates pick 'primary root port for the local bridge' (Option E), but that describes the Root Port, while the Designated Port is elected per segment and forwards BPDUs onto that segment.

161
MCQhard

An EX Series switch running MSTP receives a BPDU from an upstream switch in a different MST region. How does the receiving switch identify the boundary between the two regions?

A.When the incoming BPDU contains an instance count greater than the local switch capacity.
B.When the CIST external path cost exceeds the maximum hop count.
C.By comparing the received MST configuration digest and region parameters with its own.
D.By detecting a mismatch in the system MAC address of the root bridge.
AnswerC

The receiving switch compares the received MST configuration digest and region parameters (name, revision, VLAN-to-instance mapping) against its own. A mismatch in any of these identifies the boundary, so the port becomes a boundary port linking the two distinct MST regions.

Why this answer

MSTP (IEEE 802.1s) identifies region boundaries by comparing the MST Configuration Identifier carried in BPDUs, which consists of the configuration name, revision level, and a 16-byte configuration digest computed via HMAC-MD5 over the VLAN-to-instance mapping. If any of these parameters differ from the local switch's own MST configuration, the receiving switch treats the port as a boundary port and interoperates with the neighbor using CIST (MST instance 0) rather than a shared MSTI. This is why option C is correct — the digest and region parameters are the definitive boundary markers.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that region boundaries are detected via root bridge MAC or instance count, when in fact the MST Configuration Identifier (name, revision, and MD5 digest of the VLAN mapping) is the sole determinant.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the MSTI instance count is not part of the MST Configuration Identifier and has no role in boundary detection — a switch can support up to 64 MSTIs regardless of neighbor configuration. Option B is wrong because CIST external path cost is used for root path selection and topology calculation, not for identifying region boundaries; hop count limits apply to RSTP/MSTP BPDU aging, not region detection. Option D is wrong because the root bridge system MAC address is used for root election tie-breaking, not for determining whether two switches belong to the same MST region.

162
MCQmedium

An EX4300 Virtual Chassis experiences a split-brain condition due to a failure of all stacking cables between members 0/1 and members 2/3. How does Junos handle this scenario by default?

A.Each partition elects its own primary routing engine if dual primary detection is not enabled, leading to potential duplicate IP scenarios.
B.All member switches across both partitions automatically shut down all data interfaces to prevent loops.
C.The backup routing engine instantly shuts down its control plane daemon permanently.
D.The entire Virtual Chassis reboots simultaneously until stacking cables are re-seated.
AnswerA

Without dual primary detection, each Virtual Chassis partition independently elects its own primary Routing Engine, since the split severs the control-plane path used for mastership arbitration. Both partitions then remain active, so identical IP and MAC addresses can appear on the network simultaneously, satisfying the stem's default split-brain behaviour.

Why this answer

By default, when a Virtual Chassis splits into two partitions due to stacking cable failure, each partition elects its own primary Routing Engine if dual primary detection is not enabled. This leads to two active primaries, causing potential duplicate IP addresses and network instability. Junos does not automatically shut down interfaces or reboot the entire VC.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming that Junos automatically prevents split-brain by shutting down interfaces or rebooting. In reality, without explicit configuration, each partition operates independently, leading to duplicate primaries.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Junos does not automatically shut down all data interfaces in a split-brain scenario; that would require additional configuration like dual primary detection or VCP-based split detection. Option C is wrong because the backup RE does not permanently shut down its control plane daemon; it may become primary in its partition. Option D is wrong because the entire VC does not reboot simultaneously; each partition operates independently.

163
MCQmedium

In a multi-access network, which PDU is responsible for the DIS election?

A.CSNP
B.LSP
C.IIH PDU
D.PSNP
AnswerC

IIH PDUs carry the IS-IS hello and DIS election fields, so they are exchanged on multi-access links to elect the Designated Intermediate System. The DIS election is triggered by hello adjacency formation, not by link-state flooding, making the IIH PDU the specific carrier for this process.

Why this answer

The IIH (IS-IS Hello) PDU contains the priority field used for DIS election on broadcast segments.

164
MCQeasy

An administrator is configuring OSPF on a Junos device and notices that two routers on a broadcast segment are stuck in the 2-Way state. What is the most likely cause of this behavior on a broadcast network?

A.There is a mismatch in the OSPF hello interval configuration.
B.The routers are neither the DR nor the BDR on a multi-access network.
C.Authentication keys differ between the neighboring interfaces.
D.The area type is incorrectly configured as a totally stubby area.
AnswerB

On a broadcast multi-access segment, routers that are neither DR nor BDR remain in 2-Way with each other by design, since full adjacency is only formed with the DR and BDR. This is expected, not a fault.

Why this answer

On a broadcast multi-access network, OSPF routers that are neither the DR nor the BDR form Full adjacencies only with the DR and BDR, and remain in 2-Way with each other. This is normal OSPF behavior designed to reduce LSA flooding, so two routers stuck in 2-Way are most likely both DROthers.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests whether candidates recognize that 2-Way between DROthers is normal, not a fault — many assume any non-Full state indicates a configuration mismatch like hello or authentication.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a hello interval mismatch would prevent the routers from forming any adjacency at all — they would stay in Init or Down, not 2-Way. Option C is wrong because an authentication mismatch would also prevent adjacency formation entirely, typically leaving neighbors in Down or Init with authentication failure logs. Option D is wrong because an area type mismatch (e.g., totally stubby vs. standard) would cause LSA exchange failures and prevent Full adjacency, but the symptom would be stuck in ExStart/Exchange or repeated adjacency resets, not a stable 2-Way.

165
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO parameters are included when a Junos switch calculates the MST configuration digest? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Bridge priority of Instance 0
B.Revision number
C.System MAC address
D.Configuration name
E.Hello timer interval
AnswersB, D

The digest is computed from the MSTP configuration name and the revision number, hashed together. The revision number lets administrators version the MST region configuration, so switches sharing a name but differing revisions land in separate regions.

Why this answer

The MST configuration digest is an MD5 hash computed from the MST configuration identifier, which consists of exactly three elements: the configuration name, the revision level (revision number), and the VLAN-to-MSTI mapping table. Option B, the revision number, is correct because it is one of the three components fed into the digest calculation. Option D, the configuration name, is also correct because the 32-character configuration name is likewise part of the MST configuration identifier hashed into the digest.

Options A, C, and E are incorrect: bridge priority of Instance 0, the system MAC address, and the hello timer interval are not part of the MST configuration identifier and therefore are not included in the digest computation.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the components of the MST configuration digest, and candidates may incorrectly include bridge priority or MAC address.

166
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting a Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) deployment on an EX4300 switch. Clients on VLAN 20 are experiencing intermittent loss of connectivity. You run 'show arp inspection statistics' and notice dropped packets due to 'invalid-ip'. What is the most likely cause of these drops?

A.The uplink port connecting to the default gateway is missing the 'set protocols arp-inspection trust' statement.
B.Clients are using statically assigned IP addresses that do not exist in the DHCP snooping binding database.
C.MAC limiting has tripped on the access port, causing ARP packets to be discarded.
D.The ARP inspection rate-limit has been exceeded on the access ports.
AnswerB

Static IP clients bypass DHCP snooping, so no binding entry exists for their addresses. Dynamic ARP Inspection validates every ARP packet against that database, and the 'invalid-ip' counter increments when the sender IP is absent from it. The intermittent loss reflects only those statically addressed hosts on VLAN 20, not DHCP clients.

Why this answer

Dynamic ARP Inspection validates ARP packets against the DHCP snooping binding database. An 'invalid-ip' drop means the source IP in the ARP packet does not match any entry in the binding table for that MAC/VLAN/interface. This occurs when clients use statically assigned IP addresses that were never learned via DHCP snooping, so no binding exists and DAI drops the ARP as untrusted.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the specific DAI drop reason counters; candidates confuse 'invalid-ip' (binding mismatch) with 'untrusted-port' (missing trust) or 'rate-limit' (too many ARPs), leading to wrong root-cause selection.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a missing trust on the uplink would cause drops on the uplink port, but the symptom 'invalid-ip' specifically indicates an IP-to-MAC binding mismatch, not a trust issue; trust issues typically show as 'untrusted-port' drops. Option C is wrong because MAC limiting is a separate port security feature that limits the number of MAC addresses; it would not produce DAI 'invalid-ip' counters. Option D is wrong because exceeding the ARP inspection rate-limit produces 'rate-limit' or 'rate-exceeded' drops, not 'invalid-ip' drops.

167
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE statements accurately describe the behavior and configuration of VRRP tracking on Junos devices? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.If the decremented priority falls below the backup router's priority, mastership transitions to the backup router.
B.Tracking forces the tracked interface to shut down permanently when a failure occurs.
C.Multiple interfaces or reachability paths can be monitored simultaneously within a single VRRP tracking configuration.
D.Tracking automatically disables GRES on the routing engine.
E.Tracking allows a router to automatically decrement its VRRP priority when a monitored interface goes down.
AnswersA, C, E

VRRP tracking reduces the master's priority by the configured decrement when a monitored interface fails. Once that decremented value drops below the backup's priority, the backup preempts and assumes mastership, which is exactly the failover behaviour described.

Why this answer

Option E is correct because VRRP tracking on Junos is designed to decrement the router's VRRP priority by a configured amount when a tracked interface or route becomes unavailable, reflecting degraded forwarding capability. Option A is correct because once the priority is decremented below that of a backup router, the backup with the higher priority takes over as master, triggering a mastership transition. Option C is correct because Junos VRRP tracking supports monitoring multiple interfaces or reachability paths simultaneously within a single tracking configuration, allowing comprehensive failure detection.

Option B is incorrect because tracking only adjusts priority; it does not administratively shut down the tracked interface. Option D is incorrect because tracking has no automatic effect on GRES (Graceful Routing Engine Switchover) and does not disable it.

168
MCQeasy

When configuring VRRP on a Juniper router, what IP address must be assigned as the virtual IP address for the group?

A.An IP address belonging to the same subnet as the physical interface connected to the broadcast domain.
B.A loopback IP address configured on the master Routing Engine.
C.A public IP address provided by your upstream Internet Service Provider.
D.A reserved multicast address in the 224.0.0.18 range.
AnswerA

The VRRP virtual IP must sit in the same subnet as the physical interface on the broadcast domain, so hosts can resolve it via ARP. This satisfies the scenario's requirement for the virtual IP address assigned to the group.

Why this answer

The virtual IP address must belong to the same subnet as the physical interface IP address configured on the participating routers.

169
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE parameters can be tuned under the VRRP hierarchy in Junos to customize failover timing and behavior? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.LACP fast timeout timer to manage aggregated link heartbeats.
B.Track interface priority decrement values to lower priority when upstream links fail.
C.Advertisement interval to control how frequently VRRP heartbeat packets are transmitted.
D.Priority value to determine which router becomes the master.
E.Routing engine mastership priority for Virtual Chassis roles.
AnswersB, C, D

Interface tracking with a priority decrement lowers the VRRP priority when a monitored upstream link fails, forcing mastership to transfer to a healthier router. This directly customises failover behaviour by making the active router step down on link loss, satisfying the stem's requirement for tunable failover parameters.

Why this answer

Under the Junos VRRP hierarchy, option B is correct because the track interface configuration lets you specify a priority decrement (for example, track interface ge-0/0/0 priority-cost 30) so the router lowers its VRRP priority when a monitored upstream link fails, triggering a controlled failover. Option C is correct because the advertise-interval statement sets how often VRRP advertisement packets are sent (default 1 second), directly controlling failover detection timing. Option D is correct because the priority value (0–255, default 100) determines which router becomes master, with the higher priority winning and 255 triggering immediate preemption.

Option A is not part of the VRRP hierarchy; LACP fast timeout is configured under aggregated Ethernet (lacp periodic fast) and concerns link-bundle heartbeats, not VRRP failover. Option E is also unrelated to VRRP; RE mastership priority is a Virtual Chassis setting (set virtual-chassis member 0 mastership-priority) for controlling Routing Engine roles, not VRRP master election.

Exam trap

The trap is mixing up VRRP tuning parameters with unrelated features like LACP or Virtual Chassis; candidates might select options that sound plausible but belong to different technologies.

170
MCQeasy

When implementing Layer 2 firewall filters on an EX Series switch, which packet characteristic can be matched in a filter term?

A.Source MAC address
B.Destination IP address
C.ICMP type code
D.TCP port number
AnswerA

Layer 2 firewall filters on EX Series switches match fields within the Ethernet header, and the source MAC address is one such matchable characteristic. This satisfies the stem's Layer 2 constraint, since matching occurs on frame header data rather than Layer 3 or Layer 4 information.

Why this answer

Layer 2 firewall filters in Junos can match fields such as source MAC address, destination MAC address, VLAN ID, and EtherType.

171
Multi-Selecthard

When troubleshooting a non-functional GRE tunnel on a Junos device, which TWO operational commands or verification steps are most effective for diagnosing the root cause? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Verify that the routing table has an active path to the remote tunnel destination IP address.
B.Execute 'clear gre statistics' to restart the tunnel encapsulation engine.
C.Check that the RSVP bandwidth reservation is set to 100% on the tunnel interface.
D.Run 'show interfaces gr-0/0/0 extensive' to check for error counters, input/output drops, and correct source/destination parameters.
E.Verify that the BGP AS path matches the tunnel ID.
AnswersA, D

GRE encapsulates packets to the remote endpoint, so the tunnel interface stays down unless the underlay can reach that destination. Checking the routing table confirms an active route to the remote tunnel address, directly satisfying the requirement to diagnose why the tunnel is non-functional.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because a GRE tunnel cannot come up unless the transport (underlay) network provides a reachable route to the remote tunnel endpoint; verifying an active path to the remote tunnel destination IP in the routing table (e.g., via 'show route <remote-endpoint>') confirms the tunnel source can reach the tunnel destination, which is a prerequisite for GRE encapsulation to succeed. Option D is correct because 'show interfaces gr-0/0/0 extensive' reveals the tunnel interface's operational state, error counters, input/output drops, and the configured source/destination addresses, allowing you to confirm the tunnel endpoints are correctly configured and whether traffic is being dropped or encapsulated improperly. Option B is incorrect because 'clear gre statistics' merely resets counters and does not restart any encapsulation engine, so it does not diagnose the root cause.

Option C is incorrect because GRE is a stateless, non-resource-reserving protocol and does not use RSVP bandwidth reservations, which apply to MPLS TE tunnels. Option E is incorrect because BGP AS paths are unrelated to GRE tunnel IDs, and no such matching requirement exists for GRE tunnel operation.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests GRE troubleshooting by mixing in unrelated protocols (RSVP, BGP) and non-existent commands, and candidates who do not know Junos GRE specifics may pick them as plausible-sounding steps.

172
MCQmedium

You need to modify the bridge priority of an EX Series switch running RSTP to ensure it becomes the root bridge. Which configuration command correctly sets the bridge priority to 4096?

A.set spanning-tree priority 4096
B.set protocols rstp priority 4096
C.set bridge-priority 4096
D.set protocols rstp bridge-priority 4096
AnswerD

RSTP bridge priority is configured under the rstp hierarchy using the bridge-priority statement, and 4096 is a valid multiple of 4096. This command sets the switch's priority low enough to win root election, satisfying the requirement to become root bridge.

Why this answer

On Juniper EX Series switches, RSTP is configured under the [edit protocols rstp] hierarchy. The bridge priority is set using the 'bridge-priority' command, so the correct full command is 'set protocols rstp bridge-priority 4096'. This value is used in the bridge ID and must be a multiple of 4096 (ranging from 0 to 61440).

Setting it to 4096 makes the switch highly likely to become the root bridge, assuming no other switch has a lower priority.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the exact Junos CLI hierarchy and keywords for RSTP, and candidates frequently confuse 'priority' with 'bridge-priority' or forget the 'protocols rstp' context.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'set spanning-tree priority 4096' is not valid Junos syntax; spanning-tree is not a top-level configuration hierarchy on EX switches, and 'priority' is not the correct keyword under RSTP. Option B is wrong because 'priority' is not the correct keyword; the correct keyword is 'bridge-priority'. Option C is wrong because 'set bridge-priority 4096' is incomplete and missing the required 'protocols rstp' hierarchy, so it would not be accepted by the CLI.

173
MCQmedium

You want to ensure that a static route is only installed in the routing table when a specific tracked object or ping test succeeds. Which Junos feature should you pair with the static route?

A.OSPF sham-links
B.Keepalive timers on static routes
C.RPM (Real-time Performance Monitoring) with static route tracking
D.BFD synchronized static routes
AnswerC

RPM probes send periodic ICMP or TCP checks to a target; pairing the static route with the RPM test means the route is installed only while the probe succeeds. This conditional installation is the tracked-object behaviour the scenario demands.

Why this answer

RPM (Real-time Performance Monitoring) in Junos allows you to configure probes that periodically test reachability of a target (e.g., via ICMP ping) and track the results. When you associate a static route with an RPM probe using the `track` option, the route is only installed in the routing table if the probe succeeds. This provides conditional route installation based on real-time performance monitoring, ensuring the static route is active only when the tracked object is reachable.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the confusion between RPM tracking and BFD for static route failover; candidates may think BFD can track arbitrary objects, but BFD only monitors the next-hop liveness of the route itself, not a separate ping target.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because OSPF sham-links are used in MPLS VPN environments to make a route appear as an inter-area route for OSPF, not for conditional static route installation. Option B is wrong because keepalive timers on static routes are used for failover between primary and secondary static routes based on next-hop reachability, but they do not tie route installation to a specific tracked object or ping test. Option D is wrong because BFD (Bidirectional Forwarding Detection) synchronized static routes are used to quickly detect failures on a static route's next-hop and remove the route, but they do not conditionally install a route based on a separate tracked object or ping test; BFD only monitors the next-hop of the static route itself.

174
MCQhard

When calculating OSPF path costs in a network containing high-speed links (such as 10Gbps and 40Gbps interfaces), what default reference bandwidth does Junos use, and what configuration adjustment is typically required to differentiate costs accurately?

A.100 Mbps default; reference bandwidth must be increased to accurately cost high-speed links.
B.100 Gbps default; reference bandwidth must be decreased for legacy interfaces.
C.10 Gbps default; no adjustment is needed for modern networks.
D.1 Gbps default; interfaces above 1 Gbps are automatically assigned fractional costs.
AnswerA

Junos defaults to a 100 Mbps reference bandwidth, so 10Gbps and 40Gbps interfaces all calculate a cost of 1 and become indistinguishable. Raising the reference bandwidth (for example to 10G or higher) restores meaningful cost differentiation across high-speed links.

Why this answer

Junos OSPF uses a default reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps, so any interface at 100 Mbps or faster gets a cost of 1, making 1G, 10G, and 40G links indistinguishable. To differentiate high-speed links, the reference bandwidth must be increased (e.g., to 10G or higher) using the reference-bandwidth statement under protocols ospf.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the default OSPF reference bandwidth value (100 Mbps) and the fact that all links ≥100 Mbps get cost 1, causing candidates to assume a higher default like 1 Gbps or 10 Gbps.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the default reference bandwidth is 100 Mbps, not 100 Gbps, and decreasing it would worsen cost differentiation for high-speed links. Option C is wrong because the default is 100 Mbps, not 10 Gbps, and without adjustment all links ≥100 Mbps share cost 1. Option D is wrong because the default is 100 Mbps, not 1 Gbps, and Junos does not automatically assign fractional costs — costs are integers, and links faster than the reference bandwidth are clamped to cost 1.

175
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE actions occur when a BGP speaker receives a Notification message from a peer? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.A Keepalive message is immediately sent in response to acknowledge the error.
B.The peer router automatically re-establishes the connection without applying the connect retry timer.
C.The TCP connection associated with the BGP session is closed.
D.The BGP session transitions to the Idle state.
E.All routes learned from that specific peer are removed from the BGP routing table.
AnswersC, D, E

A Notification message signals an unrecoverable error, so the receiving speaker tears down the underlying TCP connection carrying the session. This satisfies the scenario's requirement that the TCP connection associated with the BGP session is closed.

Why this answer

When a BGP speaker receives a Notification message, it treats this as a fatal error condition for the session. Option C is correct because the BGP speaker closes the underlying TCP connection (port 179) that carries the BGP session, since the Notification signals an unrecoverable error. Option D is correct because the BGP Finite State Machine transitions the session to the Idle state after the TCP connection is torn down, where it waits for the ConnectRetry timer before attempting to re-establish.

Option E is correct because all routes previously learned from that specific peer are withdrawn and removed from the BGP routing table (Adj-RIB-In and Loc-RIB), since the peer is no longer considered a valid source. Option A is incorrect because Keepalive messages are only sent periodically (default 60 seconds) to maintain an established session, not to acknowledge errors; Notifications themselves terminate the session. Option B is incorrect because re-establishment does not happen automatically or immediately—the router must wait for the ConnectRetry timer (default 120 seconds) before attempting a new TCP connection.

176
MCQhard

You are running BGP between two routers. One router has a 4-byte ASN (e.g., ASN 65536). The remote router only supports 2-byte ASNs. How does BGP handle this compatibility issue?

A.The session fails to open because 4-byte ASNs are strictly incompatible with 2-byte peers.
B.The router uses the reserved AS 23456 (AS_TRANS) in place of the 4-byte ASN for legacy peers.
C.The session establishes as iBGP instead of eBGP.
D.The 4-byte ASN is truncated to 2 bytes by dropping the most significant bits.
AnswerB

AS_TRANS (AS 23456) is a reserved 2-byte placeholder defined in RFC 6793, allowing a 4-byte-ASN speaker to present a compatible 2-byte value to a legacy peer. The real 4-byte ASN travels in the AS4_PATH attribute, so the constraint of 2-byte-only remote support is satisfied without losing path information.

Why this answer

When a BGP speaker with a 4-byte ASN peers with a legacy 2-byte-only router, BGP uses the reserved AS number 23456 (AS_TRANS) in the AS_PATH for the legacy peer. The 4-byte ASN is carried in a separate AS4_PATH attribute, and the legacy router sees AS_TRANS as a placeholder, preserving compatibility.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the specific reserved ASN value (23456) and the AS4_PATH attribute; candidates may think the session fails or that the ASN is truncated, missing the AS_TRANS mechanism.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 4-byte ASNs are not strictly incompatible; RFC 6793 defines a backward-compatible mechanism using AS_TRANS. Option C is wrong because the session remains eBGP; the ASN size does not change the session type. Option D is wrong because the 4-byte ASN is not truncated; truncation would corrupt routing, and the protocol instead uses AS_TRANS plus AS4_PATH.

177
MCQeasy

An operator executes the command 'show bridge mac-table' on an EX Series switch running Junos OS. Which information is displayed in the output of this command?

A.Learned MAC addresses, associated VLAN names/IDs, and corresponding interface names.
B.Physical transceiver optical power levels and interface error counters.
C.Spanning tree root bridge priorities and designated port roles.
D.The IP addresses corresponding to each dynamic MAC address via ARP resolution.
AnswerA

The bridge MAC table maps each learned layer-2 address to the VLAN it was learned in and the egress interface toward that host, which is exactly the forwarding information needed to trace unknown unicast flooding or stale entries on EX Series switches.

Why this answer

The show bridge mac-table command on EX Series switches displays the Layer 2 MAC address table, including learned MAC addresses, their associated VLANs, and the interfaces on which they were learned. This is the primary command for verifying MAC learning and forwarding behavior.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the distinction between show bridge mac-table (Layer 2 MAC-to-interface mapping) and show arp (Layer 3 IP-to-MAC mapping), causing candidates to select the ARP-related answer when asked about the MAC table.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because transceiver optical power levels and error counters are displayed by commands like show interfaces diagnostics optics and show interfaces extensive, not the MAC table. Option C is wrong because spanning tree root bridge priorities and port roles are shown by show spanning-tree bridge and show spanning-tree interface. Option D is wrong because the MAC table does not include IP addresses; ARP resolution is displayed by show arp, and MAC-to-IP mapping requires correlating separate tables.

178
MCQeasy

When configuring a GRE tunnel on Junos, which two parameters are mandatory under the specific gr- interface hierarchy to establish the tunnel endpoint connectivity?

A.tunnel key and tunnel checksum
B.tunnel source and tunnel destination
C.tunnel metric and tunnel preference
D.tunnel bandwidth and tunnel delay
AnswerB

Under the gr- interface hierarchy, Junos requires both tunnel source and tunnel destination to define the encapsulating endpoints. Without these, the router cannot build the outer IP header, so the GRE tunnel never establishes connectivity.

Why this answer

A GRE tunnel requires at least a source address and a destination address to define the tunnel endpoints.

179
MCQhard

In an OSPF NSSA configuration on a Junos device, which router is specifically responsible for translating Type 7 LSAs into Type 5 LSAs when propagating routes out of the NSSA into the backbone?

A.The OSPF Designated Router (DR) on the NSSA segment
B.The NSSA ABR with the highest router ID
C.The ASBR that originated the external route
D.Any internal NSSA router running Junos OS
AnswerB

Within an NSSA, the ABR with the highest router ID performs Type 7 to Type 5 translation, flooding those external LSAs into the backbone. Other ABRs suppress translation to avoid duplicate Type 5 advertisements, so only one translator is elected.

Why this answer

In an OSPF NSSA, Type 7 LSAs are generated by the ASBR for external routes. The NSSA ABR is responsible for translating Type 7 LSAs into Type 5 LSAs when propagating them into the backbone area. If multiple ABRs exist, the one with the highest router ID is elected as the translator to avoid duplicate translation.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the specific router responsible for Type 7-to-5 translation; candidates incorrectly pick the ASBR (which originates Type 7) or the DR, missing that it is the NSSA ABR with the highest router ID.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the DR on the NSSA segment handles DR/BDR election for the broadcast network, not LSA translation. Option C is wrong because the ASBR originates Type 7 LSAs but does not translate them to Type 5; translation is an ABR function. Option D is wrong because internal NSSA routers do not perform translation; only ABRs connected to both the NSSA and the backbone can translate.

180
MCQmedium

You are troubleshooting an OSPF network and notice that a router's OSPF state is stuck in 'ExStart'. What is the most common reason for this adjacency state issue?

A.Duplicate OSPF router IDs in the network
B.Different authentication passwords on the links
C.An MTU mismatch between the neighboring OSPF interfaces
D.A mismatch in the OSPF area ID configuration
AnswerC

OSPF neighbours exchange DBD packets during ExStart, and a mismatched interface MTU prevents them from agreeing on the master/slave relationship and database description sequence numbers, leaving the adjacency stuck. Matching MTU values on both interfaces resolves the negotiation.

Why this answer

OSPF adjacency stuck in ExStart is almost always caused by an MTU mismatch between the two neighbors. During ExStart, routers exchange DBD packets to elect a master/slave and agree on the initial sequence number; if the interface MTUs differ, the larger DBD packets are dropped, and the routers keep retransmitting without progressing to Exchange. This is the classic ExStart/Exchange hang.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the ExStart vs Exchange distinction — candidates blame authentication or area mismatches, but those fail earlier in the state machine; ExStart specifically points to MTU or DBD sequence issues.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because duplicate router IDs prevent adjacency formation entirely (stuck in Init or Down) or cause instability, not a specific ExStart hang — the neighbor would not reach two-way communication. Option B is wrong because authentication mismatches cause the adjacency to fail at the Init/2-Way stage with authentication failure messages, not ExStart. Option D is wrong because an area ID mismatch prevents the Hello packets from being accepted, so the neighbor never reaches ExStart — it stays in Down or Init.

181
MCQeasy

An administrator wants to protect against MAC flooding attacks on an EX Series switch access port. The port should learn a maximum of 5 MAC addresses and drop frames with unknown source MAC addresses after that limit is reached. Which feature should be configured?

A.Storm control
B.DHCP snooping
C.Port security
D.MACsec
AnswerC

Port security allows you to specify the maximum number of MAC addresses that can be learned on an interface. Once the limit is reached, frames with new source MAC addresses are dropped, preventing MAC flooding attacks. This directly matches the requirement to learn a maximum of 5 MAC addresses and drop subsequent unknown MACs. It is the correct feature for this scenario.

Why this answer

Port security is the Junos OS feature that restricts the number of MAC addresses that can be learned on an interface. By setting a maximum, the switch drops frames with source MAC addresses beyond the limit, mitigating MAC flooding attacks. Storm control, MACsec, and DHCP snooping serve different purposes and do not provide this specific MAC limiting capability.

Port security is configured under the interface with 'mac-limit'.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming storm control limits MAC addresses, when it actually limits traffic rates and does not restrict MAC learning.

182
MCQhard

An enterprise network runs OSPF across multiple areas. A Junos routing device receives an LSA with an aging timer approaching MaxAge (3600 seconds). Under what condition does a router purge or flush an LSA from its link-state database?

A.When the SPF algorithm recalculates the routing table
B.When a hello packet is missed three times consecutively
C.When the LSA reaches 3600 seconds (MaxAge) and is flooded across the area to flush it
D.When the OSPF dead timer expires on the local interface
AnswerC

At MaxAge the LSA is considered invalid; the router floods a MaxAge copy to purge it from every link-state database in the area, then removes it locally. This satisfies the stem's condition for flushing the aged LSA.

Why this answer

An LSA is purged or flushed from the link-state database when it reaches MaxAge (3600 seconds). At that point, the router floods the LSA with the MaxAge timer set across the area to ensure all routers remove it from their databases. This is part of OSPF's aging mechanism to remove stale LSAs.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests OSPF timers and LSA aging, and candidates may confuse the dead timer with the MaxAge timer or think SPF recalculations purge LSAs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SPF recalculation does not purge LSAs; it only recalculates routes based on the current LSDB. Option B is wrong because missing three hello packets results in the dead timer expiring, which tears down the adjacency, but does not directly purge LSAs. Option D is wrong because the OSPF dead timer expiring on the local interface also tears down the adjacency, but LSA purging is based on the LSA's age, not the dead timer.

183
MCQhard

When planning an In-Service Software Upgrade (ISSU) on a Juniper routing platform, what is the behavior of the Routing Engines during the execution of the upgrade command?

A.Both Routing Engines are rebooted simultaneously, relying entirely on OSPF Graceful Restart helper mode.
B.The forwarding plane is restarted first, followed by a simultaneous upgrade of the dual REs.
C.The primary Routing Engine is wiped and reloaded while data traffic is redirected through the console port.
D.The backup Routing Engine is upgraded, a graceful switchover takes place, and then the newly elected backup Routing Engine is upgraded.
AnswerD

ISSU upgrades the backup Routing Engine first, then performs a graceful switchover so the upgraded engine becomes primary, preserving forwarding state. Finally, the newly elected backup is upgraded, maintaining continuous packet forwarding throughout. This satisfies the stem's requirement for non-disruptive upgrade behaviour across both Routing Engines.

Why this answer

During an In-Service Software Upgrade (ISSU) on Juniper routing platforms, the process upgrades the backup Routing Engine first, then performs a graceful switchover to make it the primary, and finally upgrades the new backup (formerly primary) Routing Engine. This ensures that at least one RE is always available to maintain control plane operations and forwarding, minimizing downtime.

Exam trap

The trap is misunderstanding the sequence of ISSU; candidates might think both REs are upgraded simultaneously or that the forwarding plane is restarted, but ISSU specifically upgrades one RE at a time with a switchover in between.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because both REs are not rebooted simultaneously; that would cause a complete outage and defeat the purpose of ISSU. Option B is wrong because the forwarding plane is not restarted first; ISSU focuses on upgrading the control plane REs while the forwarding plane continues to forward traffic. Option C is wrong because the primary RE is not wiped and reloaded while traffic goes through the console port; that is not how ISSU works and would be disruptive.

184
MCQmedium

You are tasked with tuning OSPF convergence times on a Juniper EX Series switch. Which configuration command hierarchy allows you to modify the OSPF Hello and Dead intervals on a specific interface?

A.set routing-options ospf interface <name> interval <seconds>
B.set protocols ospf area <name> interface <name> hello-interval <seconds>
C.set interfaces <name> unit 0 family inet ospf hello-timer <seconds>
D.set system ospf interface <name> timer hello <seconds>
AnswerB

The interface stanza under the OSPF area hierarchy targets a single interface, satisfying the requirement to tune Hello and Dead timers per interface rather than globally. Junos applies these values to that interface's OSPF adjacency, so convergence can be adjusted without affecting other links.

Why this answer

On Junos, OSPF interface timers are configured under the '[edit protocols ospf area <area-id> interface <interface-name>]' hierarchy. The 'hello-interval' and 'dead-interval' commands modify the Hello and Dead timers for that specific interface, allowing per-interface tuning for faster convergence.

Exam trap

The trap is selecting a plausible-sounding but invalid hierarchy like 'routing-options ospf' or 'interfaces ... family inet ospf' — candidates must remember OSPF timers live under 'protocols ospf area ... interface'.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'routing-options ospf' is not a valid hierarchy for OSPF interface timers — OSPF is configured under 'protocols ospf'. Option C is wrong because OSPF timers are not configured under the interface's 'family inet' stanza; that hierarchy is for interface addressing and other protocols. Option D is wrong because 'system ospf' is not a valid configuration hierarchy for OSPF timers.

185
MCQhard

An engineer configures multiple static routes to the same destination with different preference values. When all paths are up, how does Junos select which route is active in the routing table?

A.The route configured last in the candidate configuration file becomes active.
B.The route with the lowest preference value is installed as active.
C.The route with the highest metric value is preferred.
D.All routes are installed into the forwarding table for equal-cost multi-path load balancing.
AnswerB

Junos assigns each static route a preference value, and the route with the lowest preference wins the active-route election, provided its next hop is reachable. Since the stem specifies multiple static routes to one destination with differing preferences, the numerically lowest preference is installed as active in the routing table.

Why this answer

Junos uses route preference (also called administrative distance) to select the active route when multiple routes to the same destination exist. Lower preference values are preferred, so a static route with preference 5 beats one with preference 10. Only the route with the lowest preference is installed as active in the routing table and subsequently into the forwarding table (unless ECMP conditions apply).

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the preference-vs-metric distinction — candidates confuse 'lower is better' for preference with metric comparisons, or assume configuration order matters as it might in some other vendor platforms.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Junos does not use configuration order to break ties — the candidate configuration is a set-based hierarchy, not a sequential script, so 'last configured' has no meaning for route selection. Option C is wrong because metric is used for tie-breaking within the same protocol after preference, and higher metric is generally less preferred, not more — the statement inverts the logic. Option D is wrong because ECMP only occurs when routes have equal preference AND equal metric AND the protocol supports multipath; different preference values explicitly prevent ECMP from installing multiple paths.

186
MCQhard

You are analyzing a core Juniper MX router after an ISSU upgrade procedure completed. You notice that BGP sessions dropped immediately after the final routing engine rebooted. What post-upgrade verification step should have been performed to prevent unexpected protocol drops during ISSU?

A.Confirm that LACP minimum-links is set to zero.
B.Check that the Virtual Chassis cable is connected between the MX Routing Engines.
C.Verify that all external BGP peers negotiated Graceful Restart capability and that helper mode was active on both ends prior to initiating the upgrade.
D.Ensure VRRP preemption is turned off on all core interfaces.
AnswerC

Graceful Restart preserves BGP forwarding state across the routing engine switchover by having peers retain routes and mark them stale, rather than tearing sessions down. Verifying that both ends negotiated the capability and that helper mode was active ensures the restarting router's peers hold prefixes during the ISSU reboot, preventing the drops observed.

Why this answer

Verifying that BGP graceful restart and helper modes were fully operational and peer routers had acknowledged the capability before starting ISSU.

187
Multi-Selecthard

An engineer is deploying Private VLANs on an EX Series switch and needs to verify proper operational status and traffic isolation. Which THREE tasks or verification checks should be performed? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Verify that isolated ports can successfully send traffic to other isolated ports within the same secondary VLAN.
B.Run 'show vlans extensive' to inspect PVLAN port mappings and roles.
C.Verify that the primary VLAN is correctly associated with secondary isolated and community VLANs in the configuration.
D.Test connectivity to ensure isolated ports can only reach the designated promiscuous port.
E.Configure routing instances on all isolated ports to enable inter-isolated communication at Layer 2.
AnswersB, C, D

The 'show vlans extensive' command displays PVLAN port roles and mappings, confirming that promiscuous, isolated and community designations match the intended topology. This directly satisfies the stem's requirement to verify operational status and traffic isolation on the EX Series switch.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because on EX Series switches the 'show vlans extensive' command displays the PVLAN configuration details, including which ports are mapped as promiscuous, isolated, or community members, making it the right verification step for operational status. Option C is correct because a Private VLAN requires the primary VLAN to be explicitly associated with its secondary isolated and community VLANs; without this association, traffic cannot be properly mapped and isolation behavior fails. Option D is correct because the defining behavior of an isolated PVLAN port is that it can communicate only with the promiscuous port (and its uplink), so testing that isolated ports reach only the designated promiscuous port verifies correct traffic isolation.

Option A is incorrect because isolated ports must NOT be able to send traffic to other isolated ports within the same secondary VLAN — that would indicate a misconfiguration. Option E is incorrect because routing instances operate at Layer 3 and would not enable Layer 2 inter-isolated communication; PVLAN isolation is a Layer 2 construct and isolated ports are intentionally prevented from communicating with each other.

Exam trap

The trap is selecting verification steps that would actually break isolation (like enabling inter-isolated communication) — candidates must remember that PVLAN isolation is the goal, not connectivity between isolated ports.

188
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO parameters can be modified within a static route configuration to control path selection and backup behavior? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.MED (Multi-Exit Discriminator)
B.Qualified next-hop with custom preference
C.AS-path length
D.Local preference attribute
E.Preference (administrative distance)
AnswersB, E

Qualified next-hop with custom preference lets a static route track a specific next hop and carry a non-default preference value. Lower preference wins in Junos, so this satisfies the stem's path-selection and backup requirements: the route stays installed only while its qualified next hop resolves, and preference orders it against alternates.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because in a static route you can specify a qualified next-hop and assign it a custom preference, allowing the router to prefer one next-hop over another for the same destination and thereby influence path selection and provide backup behavior. Option E is correct because the preference (administrative distance) value on a static route determines how it competes with routes from other protocols and with other static routes, so modifying it directly controls which route is installed and which serves as backup. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because MED, AS-path length, and local preference are BGP path attributes used in BGP route selection, not parameters that can be configured within a static route.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing BGP attributes (MED, local preference, AS-path) with static route parameters; candidates must remember that static routes only support preference and qualified next-hop for path control.

189
MCQhard

An engineer configures an aggregate route for 172.16.0.0/16 on a Junos device. However, the aggregate route is not active in the routing table. What is the primary requirement for an aggregate route to become active?

A.An explicit static route matching the aggregate prefix must be configured.
B.At least one more-specific contributing route must exist in the routing table.
C.A discard policy must be explicitly defined under the aggregate route definition.
D.The aggregate route must be redistributed using BGP or OSPF.
AnswerB

Junos aggregate routes are inactive until a contributing more-specific route is present in the routing table. Without at least one such route, the aggregate is not installed, so the 172.16.0.0/16 entry remains hidden and cannot be advertised or used for forwarding.

Why this answer

A Junos aggregate route becomes active only when at least one more-specific contributing route exists in the routing table. The aggregate is generated as a discard route (or with a configured next-hop) and is installed only if a longer-prefix route covered by the aggregate is present.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Junos aggregate routes with static summary routes; candidates assume the aggregate is always active once configured, forgetting the more-specific contributor requirement.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an explicit static route matching the aggregate prefix would conflict with the aggregate itself and is not required — the aggregate is defined under '[edit routing-options aggregate]', not as a static route. Option C is wrong because a discard policy is not required; by default the aggregate installs as a discard route, and 'discard' or 'reject' is optional configuration. Option D is wrong because redistribution via BGP or OSPF is not a prerequisite for the aggregate to become active in the local routing table — redistribution affects advertisement, not activation.

190
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements describe characteristics of BGP path attributes? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Local Preference is a well-known discretionary attribute that is exchanged across eBGP peers.
B.MED is a well-known mandatory attribute used for inter-AS route selection.
C.Well-known mandatory attributes must be recognized by all BGP implementations and included in every Update message containing path information.
D.Optional transitive attributes are ignored by BGP speakers that do not recognize them and are never passed along to other peers.
E.AS_PATH is a well-known mandatory attribute.
AnswersC, E

Well-known mandatory attributes, such as AS_PATH and NEXT_HOP, must be understood by every BGP speaker and carried in each Update advertising a route. This universal recognition and mandatory inclusion is precisely what distinguishes them from optional or discretionary attributes.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because well-known mandatory attributes, by definition in BGP (RFC 4271), must be recognized by every BGP implementation and must appear in every UPDATE message that carries reachable NLRI/path information. Option E is correct because AS_PATH is one of the three well-known mandatory attributes (along with NEXT_HOP and ORIGIN), and it is present in every UPDATE advertising a route. Option A is wrong because Local Preference is a well-known discretionary attribute, not one exchanged across eBGP peers — it is typically propagated only within an AS via iBGP.

Option B is wrong because MED is an optional non-transitive attribute, not well-known mandatory, and it influences inter-AS route selection only when explicitly configured. Option D is wrong because optional transitive attributes that are unrecognized are still passed along to other peers (with the partial bit set), not discarded.

191
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO tools or commands can be used on Junos to verify the operational packet flow through a tunnel interface? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.show chassis alarms
B.show interfaces gr-0/0/0 extensive
C.monitor traffic interface gr-0/0/0
D.request system snapshot
E.show route summary
AnswersB, C

The extensive form of show interfaces gr-0/0/0 reports tunnel-specific counters, including input and output packet and byte statistics, plus error and discard counts. These confirm whether traffic is actually traversing the generic routing encapsulation tunnel, satisfying the requirement to verify operational packet flow.

Why this answer

Option B, `show interfaces gr-0/0/0 extensive`, is correct because the extensive output for a tunnel interface includes operational and traffic statistics such as input/output packets, bytes, errors, and tunnel-specific counters, which directly confirm whether packets are flowing through the gr-0/0/0 tunnel. Option C, `monitor traffic interface gr-0/0/0`, is correct because it captures live packets traversing the tunnel interface, providing real-time verification of the operational packet flow. Option A, `show chassis alarms`, only reports hardware and system alarm conditions and does not show tunnel packet flow.

Option D, `request system snapshot`, creates a backup copy of the file system and has nothing to do with verifying traffic. Option E, `show route summary`, displays routing table prefix counts and protocol summaries, not per-interface packet flow through a tunnel.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the difference between commands that show interface statistics versus those that show live traffic; candidates may mistakenly choose commands that display routing or system information instead of packet flow.

192
MCQmedium

You are troubleshooting an OSPF network where an ASBR is injecting external routes. Routers in other areas need to reach this ASBR. Which LSA type provides the reachability information to the ASBR itself?

A.Type 2 (Network LSA)
B.Type 7 (NSSA External LSA)
C.Type 4 (ASBR Summary LSA)
D.Type 5 (AS-external LSA)
AnswerC

Type 4 ASBR Summary LSAs are flooded by the ABR into non-backbone areas, advertising the route to the ASBR itself. Type 1 describes intra-area routers, Type 3 describes networks, and Type 5 carries the external prefixes, so only Type 4 supplies ASBR reachability.

Why this answer

Type 4 (ASBR Summary LSA) is generated by the ABR to advertise the reachability of an ASBR to routers in other areas. Since Type 5 LSAs are flooded throughout the OSPF domain but do not contain the ASBR's router ID reachability information, routers in non-backbone areas need a Type 4 LSA to know how to reach the ASBR that originated the Type 5 LSAs.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Type 4 and Type 5 — Type 5 carries the external prefix, but Type 4 carries the reachability to the ASBR that originated the Type 5, which is required for routers in other areas.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Type 2 (Network LSA) is generated by the DR on a multi-access network to describe the subnet and attached routers — it has nothing to do with ASBR reachability. Option B is wrong because Type 7 (NSSA External LSA) is used within an NSSA to carry external route information, not to provide reachability to the ASBR itself. Option D is wrong because Type 5 (AS-external LSA) carries the external route prefix and metric, but it does not provide the intra-domain reachability to the ASBR — that is the job of Type 4.

193
MCQeasy

An administrator needs to delete an entire VLAN configuration named 'guest' along with its VLAN ID and associated properties. Which configuration command should be executed?

A.clear vlans guest
B.delete vlans guest
C.destroy vlans guest
D.remove vlans guest
AnswerB

`delete vlans guest` removes the named VLAN and its associated properties in a single operation, satisfying the requirement to delete the entire VLAN configuration rather than merely clearing member interfaces. Junos matches the VLAN by name, so the VLAN ID and all bound properties are discarded together.

Why this answer

The correct command to delete an entire VLAN configuration, including its VLAN ID and associated properties, is 'delete vlans guest'. In Junos, the 'delete' command removes the specified configuration hierarchy or identifier from the candidate configuration. When applied to 'vlans guest', it removes the entire VLAN definition named 'guest' from the configuration.

This is the standard way to remove a VLAN in Junos.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the distinction between operational commands (like 'clear') and configuration commands (like 'delete'), as well as the correct syntax for removing configuration objects in Junos.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'clear vlans guest' is not a valid Junos configuration command; 'clear' is used for operational commands to clear statistics or sessions, not for deleting configuration. Option C is wrong because 'destroy vlans guest' is not a Junos command; 'destroy' is not used in Junos configuration mode for deleting VLANs. Option D is wrong because 'remove vlans guest' is not a valid Junos command; 'remove' is used in Junos for removing a statement from a configuration group or applying a 'remove' action in a load merge operation, but not for deleting a VLAN from the configuration.

194
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting a VRRP deployment where two EX4600 switches are acting as redundant gateways for several VLANs. Clients on VLAN 10 report intermittent gateway unreachability. You notice that VRRP mastership frequently flips between Switch A and Switch B. What is the most effective way to stabilize VRRP mastership?

A.Configure all member ports in the LAG to use static mode.
B.Review interface error counters, ensure physical link stability, and increase the VRRP advertisement interval if transient congestion is dropping packets.
C.Disable Virtual Chassis on both switches.
D.Remove GRES from the routing engine configuration.
AnswerB

Mastership flapping stems from missed advertisements, so the physical layer must be verified first. Checking error counters and link stability, then raising the advertisement interval, prevents transient congestion from triggering premature failover to the backup EX4600.

Why this answer

Frequent VRRP mastership flips are almost always caused by missed advertisements due to physical link instability or transient congestion. Reviewing interface error counters and increasing the VRRP advertisement interval (if congestion is dropping packets) stabilizes mastership without altering priority. This addresses the root cause rather than masking it with unrelated features.

Exam trap

The trap is thinking VRRP flapping requires changing VRRP priority or disabling features — the exam expects you to diagnose underlying link errors and timer tuning instead.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because static LAG mode does not affect VRRP advertisement delivery or mastership stability — it only changes link aggregation negotiation. Option C is wrong because disabling Virtual Chassis would disrupt the switch topology and does not fix the underlying packet loss causing VRRP flapping. Option D is wrong because removing GRES affects RE failover, not VRRP advertisement transmission or reception on the wire.

195
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO items are required when configuring VRRP on a Juniper router interface? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.At least one virtual IP address configured to act as the default gateway for clients.
B.A Virtual Router Identifier (VRID) integer.
C.A static BGP peering session to an upstream provider.
D.A pre-configured GRES license on the Routing Engine.
E.An active LACP aggregated Ethernet bundle.
AnswersA, B

A virtual IP address is mandatory because it becomes the shared default gateway that hosts on the subnet point to. Without it, VRRP has no address to assume ownership of during mastership transition, so clients could not reach a redundant next hop.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because VRRP requires at least one virtual IP address on the interface, which serves as the shared default gateway that hosts on the subnet point to; the master router owns this VIP and answers ARP for it. Option B is correct because a Virtual Router Identifier (VRID) is mandatory to identify the VRRP group; it is an integer (1–255) configured under the interface's vrrp-group stanza and must match across all routers participating in the same virtual router. Option C is wrong because VRRP is a first-hop redundancy protocol that operates independently of BGP, so no static BGP peering is needed.

Option D is wrong because GRES (Graceful Routing Engine Switchover) is an optional high-availability feature for dual Routing Engines and is not a VRRP configuration requirement. Option E is wrong because VRRP can run on a physical interface or any logical interface and does not require an LACP aggregated Ethernet bundle.

196
MCQmedium

You need to ensure that BGP sessions fail over within sub-second intervals if a link degrades or goes down. Which protocol should you integrate with BGP on your Junos router?

A.BFD (Bidirectional Forwarding Detection)
B.STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)
C.LDP (Label Distribution Protocol)
D.OSPF
AnswerA

BFD provides sub-second failure detection by sending rapid, lightweight hello packets independently of routing protocols, then signalling BGP immediately when a session degrades. This satisfies the stem's sub-second failover constraint, since BGP's own keepalive timers (seconds to minutes) are far too slow to detect link degradation promptly.

Why this answer

BFD (Bidirectional Forwarding Detection) provides fast failure detection that can trigger BGP session teardown within milliseconds.

197
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE parameters are typically verified when troubleshooting a missing MAC address entry in the bridge table of a Juniper switch? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.BGP AS path settings on core interfaces
B.Configured maximum MAC address limits or port-security restrictions
C.VLAN membership configuration on the ingress port
D.Routing protocol adjacencies in the default VRF
E.Physical interface link and operational status
AnswersB, C, E

Configured MAC limits and port-security restrictions directly govern whether learned addresses persist in the bridge table. When a port exceeds its maximum-MAC or secure-MAC threshold, the switch stops learning or drops frames, so the entry never appears. Verifying these settings satisfies the stem's missing-entry constraint before investigating other causes.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because a MAC address will not be learned or retained in the bridge table if the port has hit its configured MAC limit (e.g., 'mac-limit') or if port security (e.g., 'mac-move-limit' or allowed-MAC restrictions) is blocking or dropping the source MAC. Option C is correct because the ingress port must be a member of the same VLAN as the traffic; if the port is not in the correct VLAN (or is in a different VLAN), the frame is not learned into that VLAN's bridge table entry. Option E is correct because a bridge table entry requires the physical interface to be up and operational; if the link is down or the interface is disabled, no MAC addresses can be learned on that port.

Option A is incorrect because BGP AS path settings are Layer 3 routing attributes and have no bearing on Layer 2 MAC learning in the bridge table. Option D is incorrect because routing protocol adjacencies in the default VRF relate to Layer 3 reachability, not to populating the Layer 2 bridge table.

Exam trap

The trap is including irrelevant Layer 3 options (BGP, routing adjacencies) to distract candidates. The question specifically asks about MAC address entries, which are Layer 2, so options involving routing protocols are incorrect.

198
Multi-Selectmedium

You are configuring BGP on a Juniper SRX Series firewall. You want to influence inbound traffic from an eBGP peer for a specific prefix. You have applied an export policy that prepends your AS multiple times. Which two statements are true about AS path prepending in this scenario? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.It makes the AS path longer, which is less preferred by BGP path selection.
B.It is applied using an import policy on the local router.
C.It affects outbound traffic from your local router.
D.It can be used to influence inbound traffic by making the path less preferred.
E.It requires the 'as-override' statement to function.
AnswersA, D

AS path prepending increases the length of the AS path attribute. BGP prefers shorter AS paths, so a longer path is less likely to be selected by remote routers. This is a common technique to influence inbound traffic by making a particular path appear less attractive.

Why this answer

AS path prepending is a technique used in BGP to influence inbound traffic by artificially lengthening the AS path. A longer AS path is less preferred by BGP's path selection algorithm, so remote routers may choose an alternative path. It is applied via export policy on the local router and does not affect outbound traffic selection.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing inbound and outbound traffic influence; AS path prepending affects how others reach you, not how you reach others.

199
Multi-Selectmedium

You are troubleshooting a Layer 2 connectivity problem where a trunk port is dropping tagged traffic for VLAN 50. Which TWO configuration checks should be performed? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Verify that the physical interface has an IPv4 address assigned in family inet.
B.Verify that VLAN 50 is included in the trunk port's member list (or not excluded via 'except').
C.Verify that spanning-tree bridge priority is set to 0.
D.Verify that the port mode is set to access.
E.Verify that VLAN 50 is created under the [edit vlans] hierarchy with a valid vlan-id.
AnswersB, E

A trunk drops tagged frames for VLAN 50 if that VLAN is absent from the allowed member list or removed by an 'except' clause. Verifying membership confirms the trunk permits the tag, satisfying the stem's Layer 2 connectivity constraint before investigating native VLAN or other causes.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because on a trunk port, tagged traffic for a VLAN is only forwarded if that VLAN is explicitly listed as a member (e.g., under 'vlan members' or 'vlan members all' with 'except' not excluding it); if VLAN 50 is missing from the member list or excluded via 'except', its tagged frames are dropped. Option E is correct because the VLAN must first exist under the [edit vlans] hierarchy with a valid vlan-id (and typically a matching 802.1Q tag) before it can be assigned to a trunk interface; a missing or misconfigured vlan-id means the switch cannot map the tagged frames to VLAN 50. Option A is incorrect because a Layer 2 trunk interface does not require an IPv4 address in family inet to forward tagged traffic, and adding one is irrelevant to VLAN 50 connectivity.

Option C is incorrect because spanning-tree bridge priority affects root bridge election, not whether tagged VLAN 50 traffic is accepted on a trunk. Option D is incorrect because setting the port to access mode would strip tags and place the port in a single VLAN, which is the opposite of what a trunk carrying VLAN 50 requires.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests whether candidates conflate Layer 3 requirements (IP address) with Layer 2 trunk operation, or forget that a VLAN must be both defined and included in the trunk member list — checking only one of the two conditions leads to a wrong answer.

200
MCQhard

You are configuring OSPF route summarization on an ABR in a Junos environment. You want to summarize routes from Area 1 into Area 0. Which Junos configuration hierarchy is used to define this summary?

A.set routing-options static route 192.168.0.0/16 discard
B.set protocols ospf summary-prefix 192.168.0.0/16
C.set protocols ospf export summarize-policy
D.set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.1 range 192.168.0.0/16
AnswerD

Correct. The area range statement under the source area is used on an ABR to summarize prefixes entering the backbone.

Why this answer

To summarize routes from Area 1 into Area 0 on an ABR in Junos, you configure the `range` statement under the OSPF area that contains the routes to be summarized. The correct hierarchy is `set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.1 range 192.168.0.0/16`, where 0.0.0.1 is Area 1. This instructs the ABR to advertise the summary route into other areas.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing inter-area summarization (`range` under area) with external summarization (`summary-prefix` under protocols ospf) or with static routes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because it configures a static discard route, not OSPF summarization. Option B is wrong because `summary-prefix` is used for external route summarization (ASBR), not inter-area summarization. Option C is wrong because export policies are used for route redistribution, not for OSPF area summarization.

201
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO characteristics describe the behavior and properties of Level 1 and Level 2 routing in IS-IS? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Level 1 routers are strictly prohibited from connecting to Level 2 routers under any circumstances.
B.Level 1 routing requires the explicit configuration of a designated Area 0 backbone.
C.Level 2 routers form the backbone and can route traffic between different IS-IS areas.
D.Level 2 routers do not support wide metrics and only operate with narrow metrics.
E.Level 1 areas use intra-area routing and require all routers within the same area to share a common area address.
AnswersC, E

Level 2 routers form the IS-IS backbone and route between areas, using Level 2 link-state databases to reach destinations outside their local area. This satisfies the stem's requirement for a characteristic of Level 2 routing behaviour.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because Level 2 routers form the IS-IS backbone and are responsible for inter-area routing, forwarding traffic between different Level 1 areas via the backbone. Option E is correct because Level 1 routing is intra-area routing, and all routers in the same Level 1 area must share a common area address to form adjacencies and exchange Level 1 LSPs. Option A is wrong because Level 1 and Level 2 routers can coexist on the same device or link, and Level 1-2 routers connect Level 1 areas to the Level 2 backbone.

Option B is wrong because IS-IS does not use an Area 0 backbone concept like OSPF; the Level 2 backbone is formed by Level 2 and Level 1-2 routers, not a designated Area 0. Option D is wrong because IS-IS supports wide metrics (with TLVs 22, 135, etc.) and is not limited to narrow metrics.

Exam trap

The trap is applying OSPF concepts to IS-IS — candidates incorrectly assume an Area 0 backbone is required or that L1 routers cannot connect to L2 routers, when in fact IS-IS uses L1-2 routers and a continuous L2 backbone.

202
MCQmedium

You want to disable spanning tree protocol entirely on a specific access interface (ge-0/0/10.0) of an EX Series switch while keeping RSTP active globally. Which configuration command achieves this?

A.delete protocols rstp
B.set protocols rstp interface ge-0/0/10.0 disable
C.set interfaces ge-0/0/10.0 spanning-tree disable
D.set protocols rstp interface ge-0/0/10.0 mode off
AnswerB

The disable statement under protocols rstp applies to the named interface only, stopping RSTP participation on ge-0/0/10.0 while RSTP remains active on all other ports. This precisely satisfies the stem's requirement to disable spanning tree on one access interface.

Why this answer

Junos supports per-interface RSTP disable via 'set protocols rstp interface <name> disable', which stops BPDU processing and STP participation on that specific interface while leaving RSTP running globally on the rest of the switch. This is the correct way to exempt an access port from spanning tree without affecting other ports.

Exam trap

The trap here is mixing up global RSTP commands with per-interface commands — candidates who don't know Junos hierarchy may pick 'delete protocols rstp' or invent an 'interfaces ... spanning-tree' command that doesn't exist.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'delete protocols rstp' removes RSTP from the entire switch, not just one interface, which is the opposite of the requirement. Option C is wrong because spanning-tree is not configured under the 'interfaces' hierarchy in Junos — it lives under 'protocols rstp', so this command is syntactically invalid. Option D is wrong because 'mode off' is not a valid RSTP interface mode; valid modes are point-to-point and shared, and disabling is done with the 'disable' keyword.

203
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO actions must be performed when configuring a functional GRE tunnel between two Junos devices over an intermediate IP network? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Enable family mpls on the gr- interface.
B.Configure the tunnel source IP address under the gr- interface hierarchy.
C.Configure the tunnel destination IP address under the gr- interface hierarchy.
D.Enable family iso on the physical transit interface.
E.Configure a static route pointing directly to the gr- interface as the next-hop for all internet traffic.
AnswersB, C

The gr- interface requires an explicit source address so Junos knows which local IP the outer GRE header uses. Without it, the tunnel cannot form, since the intermediate network needs a routable source for return traffic and the remote peer must match it.

Why this answer

Options B and C are correct because a GRE tunnel interface on Junos requires both a source and a destination address to define the tunnel endpoints: the source is configured with 'set interfaces gr-0/0/0 tunnel source <ip>' and the destination with 'set interfaces gr-0/0/0 tunnel destination <ip>', which are mandatory for the tunnel to encapsulate and forward traffic. Option A is incorrect because family mpls is only needed if MPLS is being run over the tunnel, not for a basic functional GRE tunnel. Option D is incorrect because family iso is used for IS-IS, which is unrelated to establishing a GRE tunnel.

Option E is incorrect because a static route to the gr- interface as next-hop for all internet traffic is a routing design choice, not a requirement for the tunnel itself to function.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that additional configurations like enabling MPLS or ISO are required for GRE, when in fact only the source and destination addresses are mandatory.

204
MCQeasy

Which Junos command displays the active DHCP snooping binding database entries on an EX Series switch?

A.show ethernet-switching dhcp-snooping binding
B.show dhcp-snooping binding
C.show system dhcp-snooping database
D.show bridge dhcp bindings
AnswerA

The operational command show ethernet-switching dhcp-snooping binding lists the snooping database, showing each learned MAC, IP, lease, VLAN and interface. It directly satisfies the stem's request for active binding entries on the EX Series switch.

Why this answer

The operational command to view DHCP snooping bindings is 'show ethernet-switching dhcp-snooping binding'.

205
MCQhard

How does an IS-IS router identify the DIS in its hello packets?

A.By a special flag in the header.
B.By the area address.
C.By the MAC address only.
D.By the router's System ID followed by a non-zero pseudonode ID.
AnswerD

The DIS is identified in IS-IS hello packets by a 7-byte LAN ID: the 6-byte System ID of the DIS router followed by a non-zero pseudonode ID, distinguishing the broadcast LAN's pseudonode from the router itself.

Why this answer

The DIS is identified by the System ID and a pseudonode number (the 7th byte of the LSP ID).

206
MCQeasy

An engineer must inspect the BGP state and verify the received prefix counts from a specific neighbor on an MX Series router. Which operational command should be used?

A.show bgp neighbor 10.1.1.1
B.show ospf neighbor
C.show route protocol bgp
D.show bgp summary
AnswerA

`show bgp neighbor 10.1.1.1` queries the BGP neighbour session directly, displaying its state and the received prefix count for that specific peer. This satisfies the stem's requirement to inspect state and verify received prefixes from one neighbour on the MX Series, unlike summary or route-table commands that lack per-neighbour detail.

Why this answer

The command 'show bgp neighbor 10.1.1.1' displays detailed BGP session information for the specified neighbor, including state, received prefix counts, and other statistics. It is the correct command to inspect a specific neighbor.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the difference between 'show bgp summary' and 'show bgp neighbor'. Candidates may choose 'show bgp summary' for detailed neighbor information, but it only provides a summary. The correct command for detailed state and prefix counts for a specific neighbor is 'show bgp neighbor <ip>'.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'show ospf neighbor' displays OSPF neighbor information, not BGP. Option C is wrong because 'show route protocol bgp' displays BGP routes in the routing table, not neighbor state or prefix counts. Option D is wrong because 'show bgp summary' provides a summary of all BGP neighbors, not detailed information for a specific neighbor.

207
MCQmedium

You have configured a GRE tunnel, and you want to verify that the tunnel source and destination parameters match what is expected. Which command shows the configured tunnel source and destination addresses?

A.show route protocol gre
B.show interfaces gr-0/0/0 extensive
C.show system tunnel-info
D.show chassis hardware
AnswerB

The `show interfaces gr-0/0/0 extensive` command displays the full configuration detail for the GRE interface, including the configured tunnel source and destination addresses. The extensive keyword exposes parameters that the brief output omits, directly satisfying the requirement to verify the tunnel endpoints match expectations.

Why this answer

The command 'show interfaces gr-0/0/0 extensive' displays detailed information about the GRE tunnel interface, including the configured source and destination addresses. The 'extensive' option provides additional parameters beyond the basic interface status, such as tunnel source, destination, and other GRE-specific settings. This is the standard Junos command to verify tunnel configuration parameters on a specific interface.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the distinction between commands that show operational status versus configuration details; candidates may mistakenly choose a command that displays routes or hardware instead of the specific interface configuration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'show route protocol gre' displays routes learned via GRE, not the tunnel interface configuration. Option C is wrong because 'show system tunnel-info' is not a valid Junos command; there is no such command to display tunnel information. Option D is wrong because 'show chassis hardware' displays hardware inventory and serial numbers, not tunnel configuration.

208
MCQhard

An administrator configures a static route with a next-hop that points to an indirect (recursive) address. What condition must be met for this static route to become active in the inet.0 routing table?

A.A more direct route to the next-hop IP must already exist and be active in inet.0.
B.The static route preference must be set lower than 1.
C.The next-hop IP must be directly connected to a physical interface on the local router.
D.BGP multipath must be enabled under routing-options.
AnswerA

A recursive static next-hop requires the routing table to already resolve that address. If no active, more direct route to the next-hop exists in inet.0, the static route stays hidden. This satisfies the stem's condition for the route becoming active.

Why this answer

For a static route with an indirect (recursive) next-hop to become active in inet.0, the router must already have an active route to that next-hop IP in inet.0. This is the definition of recursive resolution: the next-hop must be reachable via another route in the same routing table. Without this, the static route remains hidden.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing recursive next-hop resolution with directly connected next-hops — candidates often think the next-hop must be directly connected, but Junos allows recursive resolution as long as a route to the next-hop exists.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because static route preference must be a value between 0 and 255, and setting it lower than 1 (i.e., 0) is not a valid condition for activation — preference affects route selection, not next-hop resolution. Option C is wrong because the next-hop does not need to be directly connected; that is the whole point of a recursive next-hop — it can be reachable via another route. Option D is wrong because BGP multipath is unrelated to static route activation and is used for load balancing across multiple BGP paths.

209
MCQhard

An enterprise network uses MSTP. What is the function of the Internal Root in an MST region?

A.It acts as the root switch for a specific MSTI within the local MST region.
B.It translates MST BPDUs into legacy STP BPDUs at the regional boundary.
C.It manages the CIST instance across all connected foreign MST regions.
D.It serves as the sole bridge responsible for generating the MST configuration digest.
AnswerA

Within an MST region, the Internal Root is the bridge elected as root for one specific MSTI, using internal path costs. It governs topology inside the region while the CIST root handles connectivity between regions.

Why this answer

In MSTP (IEEE 802.1Q), each MST instance (MSTI) within a region elects its own root bridge, called the Internal Root (or regional root for that MSTI). The Internal Root is the bridge with the lowest bridge ID for that specific MSTI inside the local region, and it is distinct from the CIST Regional Root, which connects the region to the outside. The Internal Root governs topology within the MSTI's scope inside the region.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the confusion between the Internal Root (per-MSTI root inside a region) and the CIST Regional Root (the bridge connecting the region to the CIST) — candidates conflate the two roles.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because translating MST BPDUs to legacy STP BPDUs at the regional boundary is not the function of the Internal Root — boundary ports handle interoperation with other regions or STP domains. Option C is wrong because the CIST (Common and Internal Spanning Tree) is managed by the CIST Regional Root and the CIST Root, not by an MSTI Internal Root. Option D is wrong because the MST configuration digest is computed identically by every bridge in the region from the configuration name, revision number, and VLAN-to-instance mapping — no single bridge generates it.

210
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting a Link Aggregation Group (LAG) between an EX4300 switch and a third-party switch. Member links are flapping intermittently. Examination of system logs reveals LACP timeout errors. What is the most likely cause?

A.The Virtual Chassis primary routing engine priority is set too low.
B.VRRP preemption is enabled on the aggregated interface.
C.GRES is disabled on the EX4300 switch.
D.A mismatch in LACP timeout settings (e.g., one side configured for fast timeout while the other sends slow intervals) causing dropped sessions.
AnswerD

LACP fast timeout expects partner PDUs every second, while slow expects every 30 seconds. A mismatch means one side ages out the partner and tears down the bundle, producing the intermittent flapping and timeout errors observed.

Why this answer

LACP timeout errors and flapping member links are typically caused by a mismatch in LACP timeout configuration between the two sides. If one side uses fast (short) timeout and the other sends slow (long) intervals, the fast side may declare the LACPDU timeout and drop the session, causing intermittent flapping. Ensuring both sides use matching timeout modes resolves the issue.

Exam trap

The trap is attributing LAG flapping to unrelated features like VRRP, GRES, or VC priority — the exam expects you to recognize LACP timeout mismatch as the classic cause of intermittent member link drops.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Virtual Chassis primary RE priority has no bearing on LACP timeout behavior or member link stability. Option B is wrong because VRRP preemption on an aggregated interface is unrelated to LACP session timeouts — VRRP and LACP are independent protocols. Option C is wrong because GRES (Graceful Routing Engine Switchover) affects RE failover, not LACP keepalive exchanges on member links.

211
MCQhard

An administrator configures a Layer 2 firewall filter to drop all ARP packets with a specific invalid sender hardware address. The filter is applied to a VLAN interface. What special consideration must be taken when applying Layer 2 filters to VLANs in Junos?

A.Layer 2 filters applied to VLANs require family inet to inspect ARP payloads.
B.Layer 2 filters on VLANs evaluate traffic across all member ports belonging to that VLAN instance.
C.Layer 2 filters cannot be applied to VLANs; they must be applied to physical interfaces only.
D.VLAN-based Layer 2 filters only process egress traffic leaving the VLAN trunk ports.
AnswerB

Layer 2 filters applied to a VLAN interface operate on the VLAN's logical instance, inspecting frames from every member port rather than a single physical interface. This satisfies the stem's constraint: the ARP filter must catch the invalid sender hardware address regardless of which access port the offending host connects through.

Why this answer

In Junos, when a Layer 2 firewall filter is applied to a VLAN, it evaluates traffic across all member ports of that VLAN instance, not just a single physical interface. This is because the VLAN is a logical Layer 2 broadcast domain, and the filter operates at the VLAN level, inspecting frames as they traverse the VLAN's forwarding path. This behavior is critical when filtering protocols like ARP, which are broadcast within the VLAN.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming Layer 2 filters must be applied per physical interface, but Junos allows VLAN-level application, which affects all member ports — a key scaling and design consideration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Layer 2 filters inspect Ethernet frames (including ARP payloads) without requiring 'family inet' — that would be a Layer 3 filter requirement. Option C is wrong because Junos does support Layer 2 filters on VLANs (via 'filter' under 'vlan' or 'ethernet-switching' hierarchy); they are not limited to physical interfaces. Option D is wrong because VLAN-based Layer 2 filters can process both ingress and egress traffic depending on where they are applied; they are not restricted to egress on trunk ports.

212
Multi-Selecthard

When configuring load balancing in Junos OS, which THREE header fields can be included in the hashing algorithm to compute the ECMP path? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.MAC address destination
B.Layer 4 TCP/UDP port numbers
C.Source IP address
D.VLAN ID tagging bits
E.Destination IP address
AnswersB, C, E

Junos OS ECMP hashing supports Layer 4 fields, so including TCP/UDP port numbers spreads flows across paths even when source and destination IP addresses match. This satisfies the requirement for a transport-layer header field in the hash, complementing the Layer 3 fields already available.

Why this answer

In Junos OS, the ECMP hashing algorithm used for load balancing can incorporate Layer 3 and Layer 4 header fields to distribute traffic across multiple equal-cost next hops. Option B (Layer 4 TCP/UDP port numbers) is correct because including transport-layer port numbers enables per-flow load balancing, so different sessions between the same hosts can take different paths. Option C (Source IP address) is correct because the source IP is a standard Layer 3 field used in the hash, allowing traffic from different sources to be spread across ECMP paths.

Option E (Destination IP address) is correct because the destination IP is also a standard Layer 3 field in the hash, ensuring flows to different destinations are distributed. Option A (MAC address destination) is not included because ECMP hashing in Junos operates on Layer 3/Layer 4 fields, not on the destination MAC address. Option D (VLAN ID tagging bits) is not included because VLAN ID is a Layer 2 field and is not part of the ECMP hash computation in Junos OS.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests which OSI layers contribute to ECMP hashing — candidates incorrectly include Layer 2 fields like MAC or VLAN, not realizing Junos ECMP is an IP-layer function.

213
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE statements regarding IP-IP tunnels on Junos devices are accurate? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.IP-IP encapsulation uses IP protocol number 4.
B.IP-IP tunnels require a mandatory 4-byte key field in the header.
C.IP-IP tunnels provide built-in hardware encryption by default.
D.IP-IP tunnels do not natively support multicast traffic.
E.IP-IP tunnels add an outer IP header to the original IP packet.
AnswersA, D, E

IP-IP encapsulation is identified by IP protocol number 4 in the outer header, distinguishing it from GRE (protocol 47) and other tunnelling protocols. This protocol number lets Junos and intermediate devices recognise and de-encapsulate the tunnel payload correctly.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because IP-in-IP encapsulation is identified by IP protocol number 4 in the outer IP header, which is the standard assigned value for IP-IP tunneling. Option D is correct because IP-IP tunnels are point-to-point unicast tunnels and do not natively carry multicast or broadcast traffic without additional mechanisms such as GRE or multicast tunneling configurations. Option E is correct because IP-IP tunneling works by prepending a new outer IP header to the original IP packet, encapsulating the entire original packet as the payload.

Option B is incorrect because the 4-byte key field is a feature of GRE headers, not IP-IP headers, which have no key field. Option C is incorrect because IP-IP tunnels provide no encryption or hardware encryption by default; they are plain encapsulation and would require IPsec to secure the traffic.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the differences between IP-IP and GRE, such as the presence of a key field or encryption, causing candidates to incorrectly attribute GRE features to IP-IP.

214
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE criteria are evaluated by Junos when electing the primary Routing Engine in an EX Series Virtual Chassis? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Switch uptime or boot order sequence if priorities are identical.
B.The VRRP router ID configured on VLAN 1.
C.Base MAC address of the switch as a deterministic tie-breaker.
D.Configured routing-engine mastership priority values.
E.The number of active LACP links connected to member 0.
AnswersA, C, D

When configured mastership priorities are equal, Junos falls back to uptime or boot order: the switch that has been up longest, or booted first, becomes primary. This tie-breaking criterion is evaluated alongside priority and member ID.

Why this answer

Junos elects the primary Routing Engine in an EX Series Virtual Chassis using a defined set of criteria, and option D is correct because the configured routing-engine mastership priority (set with 'set virtual-chassis member X mastership-priority') is the first and most significant factor—the member with the highest priority wins. Option A is correct because when mastership priorities are equal, the switch with the longer uptime (earlier boot order) becomes primary, ensuring a stable and deterministic election. Option C is correct because if both priority and uptime are identical, the base MAC address of the switch is used as a final deterministic tie-breaker, with the lower MAC address typically winning.

Option B is incorrect because VRRP router ID on VLAN 1 is a Layer 3 redundancy mechanism unrelated to Virtual Chassis RE election. Option E is incorrect because the number of active LACP links is not a criterion in the Virtual Chassis primary election process.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the confusion between Virtual Chassis RE election criteria and unrelated protocols like VRRP or LACP, tricking candidates into selecting data-plane or first-hop-redundancy parameters that play no role in mastership election.

215
MCQhard

When configuring an IP-IP tunnel on a Junos device, what happens to the source and destination IP addresses of the original packet when it is encapsulated?

A.The original packet is placed inside a new outer IP header, leaving the inner IP header and its source/destination unchanged.
B.The original packet has its source address replaced by the tunnel interface address and destination kept intact.
C.The original source and destination IP addresses are overwritten by the tunnel endpoint addresses.
D.The original packet header is stripped and replaced entirely by a GRE header.
AnswerA

IP-IP encapsulation prepends a new outer IP header whose source and destination are the tunnel endpoints, while the original packet, including its inner IP header and addresses, remains untouched as payload. This preserves end-to-end addressing across the transit network.

Why this answer

IP-IP tunneling (RFC 2003) encapsulates the original IP packet inside a new outer IP header. The inner IP header, including original source and destination addresses, remains unchanged. The outer header uses the tunnel endpoints' addresses.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the difference between IP-IP and GRE encapsulation, causing candidates to think the original addresses are overwritten or that GRE headers are involved in IP-IP.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the original source address is not replaced; the entire original packet is encapsulated, preserving both source and destination. Option C is wrong because the original addresses are not overwritten; they are hidden inside the outer header. Option D is wrong because IP-IP does not use a GRE header; it simply adds an outer IP header, whereas GRE adds a GRE header between the outer IP and inner IP.

216
MCQeasy

An engineer needs to verify which BGP routes are currently installed in the forwarding table (FIB). Which command should be used?

A.show route forwarding-table protocol bgp
B.show bgp forwarding
C.show route table inet.0
D.show route summary
AnswerA

`show route forwarding-table protocol bgp` queries the FIB itself, filtering to BGP-derived entries, so it directly satisfies the requirement to verify which BGP routes are actually installed for forwarding. The alternative `show route protocol bgp` reads only the routing table (RIB), which may hold BGP routes that never reached the FIB.

Why this answer

The forwarding table is viewed using 'show route forwarding-table'.

217
MCQhard

An administrator configures link aggregation (ae0) using LACP between two EX Series switches running RSTP. How does RSTP treat the aggregated interface ae0?

A.RSTP places all member links except the primary active link into a permanent discarding state.
B.RSTP disables itself on aggregated links to prevent conflicts with LACP.
C.RSTP treats the aggregate interface as a single logical port.
D.RSTP runs an independent spanning tree instance on each physical member link of the aggregate.
AnswerC

LACP bundles the physical member links into one IEEE 802.3ad aggregate, and RSTP runs over that aggregate as a single logical port. This satisfies the stem's constraint: RSTP never blocks individual member links, so no member is placed in a discarding state.

Why this answer

RSTP operates on the aggregate interface (ae0) as a single logical port, not on the individual physical member links. This means the entire bundle is either in a forwarding or discarding state based on the spanning tree topology, and LACP handles the distribution of traffic across the active member links. The aggregated interface presents a single MAC address and a single port cost to RSTP, so the spanning tree calculation sees it as one link.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that RSTP runs per physical link in an aggregate, leading candidates to choose options that describe independent spanning tree instances or discarding states for member links.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because RSTP does not place individual member links into a discarding state; all active member links in the aggregate forward traffic, and LACP manages their state. Option B is wrong because RSTP and LACP are complementary protocols that operate at different layers; RSTP does not disable itself on aggregated links. Option D is wrong because RSTP does not run independent instances per physical link; it treats the aggregate as a single logical interface, avoiding multiple spanning tree instances on the same bundle.

218
MCQeasy

Which LSA type is originated by a Designated Router (DR) on a broadcast or NBMA network to describe all the routers attached to that multi-access segment?

A.Type 3 (Summary LSA)
B.Type 4 (ASBR Summary LSA)
C.Type 2 (Network LSA)
D.Type 1 (Router LSA)
AnswerC

Type 2 Network LSAs are generated by the DR to list every router attached to the multi-access segment, identified by the DR's interface IP address. This satisfies the stem's requirement for describing all routers on a broadcast or NBMA network, unlike Type 1 Router LSAs, which each router originates individually.

Why this answer

The Type 2 Network LSA is originated by the Designated Router (DR) on a broadcast or NBMA multi-access segment and lists all routers that are fully adjacent to the DR on that segment, including the DR itself. It describes the multi-access network as a pseudo-node, allowing other routers to compute the topology without needing full-mesh adjacencies. The Network LSA's Link State ID is the DR's interface IP address on that segment.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Type 1 and Type 2 LSAs — candidates know the DR originates something but forget that Type 1 is per-router while Type 2 is specifically the multi-access network description.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Type 3 Summary LSAs are originated by Area Border Routers (ABRs) to advertise inter-area prefixes between areas, not to describe multi-access segments. Option B is wrong because Type 4 ASBR Summary LSAs are also originated by ABRs, but they advertise the location of an Autonomous System Boundary Router (ASBR) to other areas — they have nothing to do with DR function. Option D is wrong because Type 1 Router LSAs are originated by every OSPF router to describe its own links and states; while the DR does originate a Type 1, the LSA that specifically describes the multi-access segment and its attached routers is the Type 2.

219
MCQeasy

Which command is used to display all configured static routes along with their active/inactive status in Junos?

A.show static routes summary
B.show route protocol static
C.show configuration routing-options static
D.show route table inet.0 static
AnswerB

The show route protocol static command filters the routing table to display only static routes, listing each with its active or inactive status. Other show route variants display all protocols or lack the protocol filter needed here.

Why this answer

The command `show route protocol static` queries the routing table (by default inet.0) and filters for routes whose protocol is static. This output includes both active routes (marked with `*`) and inactive routes (marked with `-`), along with next-hop, preference, and metric information. It directly answers the question by showing all configured static routes and their active/inactive status.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the distinction between configuration commands (which show intended configuration) and operational commands (which show actual routing table state), so candidates must remember that `show configuration` does not display active/inactive status.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because `show static routes summary` is not a valid Junos command; Junos does not have a `show static` hierarchy. Option C is wrong because `show configuration routing-options static` displays the static route configuration from the candidate or active configuration, but it does not show active/inactive status or any runtime routing table information. Option D is wrong because `show route table inet.0 static` is syntactically incorrect; the correct syntax is `show route table inet.0 protocol static` or simply `show route protocol static` (which defaults to inet.0).

220
MCQmedium

A network engineer wants to inject external routes into an OSPF domain using Junos OS. The routes originate from an external BGP process. Which OSPF LSA type is generated by the ASBR to describe these external destinations?

A.Type 7 NSSA LSA
B.Type 3 Summary LSA
C.Type 4 Summary LSA
D.Type 5 AS-external LSA
AnswerD

Type 5 AS-external LSAs are flooded domain-wide by the ASBR to describe destinations learned from the external BGP process, satisfying the requirement to inject external routes into the OSPF domain. They carry the forwarding address and external metric, and are the standard mechanism for redistributed routes in a single-area or backbone-connected topology.

Why this answer

When an ASBR redistributes external routes (such as those learned via BGP) into an OSPF domain, it originates a Type 5 AS-external LSA to describe each external destination. Type 5 LSAs are flooded throughout the OSPF area (except stub/NSSA areas) and carry the external metric and forwarding address. This is the standard mechanism for injecting non-OSPF routes into OSPF.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Type 4 (which describes the ASBR's location) with Type 5 (which describes the external destinations themselves) — candidates often pick Type 4 thinking it carries the external route.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Type 7 NSSA LSAs are used only within Not-So-Stubby Areas to carry external routes that are then translated to Type 5 by the NSSA ABR — they are not the general ASBR-to-domain mechanism outside NSSA. Option B is wrong because Type 3 Summary LSAs are generated by ABRs to advertise inter-area routes between areas, not external routes. Option C is wrong because Type 4 Summary LSAs are generated by ABRs to advertise the location of an ASBR to other areas — they describe the ASBR itself, not the external destinations.

221
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator wants to configure load balancing across multiple static routes. Which THREE configuration elements are required to successfully implement ECMP load balancing for static routes in Junos? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.BFD enabled on all static route next-hops.
B.Export of the load-balancing policy under 'routing-options forwarding-table export'.
C.A routing policy containing the 'then load-balance' action.
D.A virtual-router routing instance wrapper.
E.Multiple static routes to the same destination with equal preference and metric.
AnswersB, C, E

Defining the policy alone does nothing; it must be attached via 'routing-options forwarding-table export'. This binding applies the load-balancing policy to the forwarding table, enabling multiple equal-cost next hops to be installed and used, which the ECMP scenario requires.

Why this answer

To implement ECMP for static routes in Junos, you must first have multiple static routes to the same destination with equal preference and metric, because ECMP only installs paths of identical preference/metric into the forwarding table (option E). You then need a routing policy that contains the 'then load-balance' action, which tells Junos to install multiple next-hops for that destination rather than selecting a single best path (option C). Finally, that policy must be applied to the forwarding table via 'routing-options forwarding-table export', which is the mechanism that activates per-prefix load balancing for the routes (option B).

BFD is not required for ECMP; it is an optional failure-detection mechanism (option A). A virtual-router routing instance is unrelated to ECMP and is used for routing-instance separation, not load balancing (option D).

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that simply configuring multiple equal-cost static routes is enough for ECMP — candidates forget the mandatory forwarding-table export policy that actually installs multiple next-hops into the FIB.

222
MCQhard

An administrator needs to configure MSTP on a group of EX Series switches. Which three parameters must be identical across all switches in the same MST region?

A.MAC address, system ID extension, and MSTP version
B.Configuration name, revision number, and VLAN-to-instance mapping
C.Bridge priority, root identifier, and Hello timer
D.Max age, forward delay, and region map digest
AnswerB

MSTP regions require three matching attributes: the configuration name, the revision number, and the VLAN-to-instance mapping table. Switches sharing these identical values join the same region, so the stem's requirement for consistent region membership is satisfied. Mismatched mapping tables would place a switch in a separate region, breaking the intended topology.

Why this answer

Switches belong to the same MST region only if they share the exact same configuration name, revision number, and VLAN-to-instance mapping.

223
MCQeasy

Which OSPF area is mandatory in any multi-area OSPF routing architecture?

A.Area 1
B.Area 0 (Backbone Area)
C.A totally stubby area
D.An NSSA area
AnswerB

Area 0, the backbone area, is mandatory in any multi-area OSPF architecture. All other areas must connect to it, either physically or through a virtual link, because inter-area routing information is distributed through the backbone.

Why this answer

Area 0, also known as the backbone area, is mandatory in multi-area OSPF architectures. All other areas must connect directly or via virtual links to Area 0.

224
MCQeasy

Which of the following is required for two routers to form a Level 2 adjacency?

A.Identical hostname configurations.
B.Matching Level 2 support.
C.Matching Area Addresses.
D.Identical System IDs.
AnswerB

A Level 2 adjacency requires both routers to be configured for Level 2 operation, since the hello PDU's circuit type must match on both sides. If one router only supports Level 1, the Level 2 adjacency cannot form regardless of other parameters.

Why this answer

For two routers to form a Level 2 adjacency in IS-IS, both must be configured to support Level 2 routing. This is achieved by configuring the interfaces with 'level 2' or 'level 1-2' (the default). If one router is configured as Level 1 only, it will not form a Level 2 adjacency with a Level 2-capable router.

The other options are not required: hostnames can differ, area addresses only need to match for Level 1 adjacencies, and System IDs must be unique, not identical.

Exam trap

JNCIS-ENT often tests the misconception that Level 2 adjacencies require matching area addresses, confusing them with Level 1 requirements, or that System IDs must be identical, when they must be unique.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because identical hostnames are not required for any IS-IS adjacency; hostnames are just for management and can be different. Option C is wrong because matching Area Addresses are required for Level 1 adjacencies, not Level 2; Level 2 routers can be in different areas. Option D is wrong because System IDs must be unique within the IS-IS domain; if they were identical, the routers would have the same NET and cause conflicts, preventing adjacency formation.

225
MCQeasy

You are asked to implement a Layer 2 security feature that prevents a user from connecting a small unmanaged switch to an access port and generating traffic from multiple MAC addresses. The solution should limit the number of MAC addresses learned on the port to one. Which Junos OS feature should you configure?

A.DHCP snooping
B.Dynamic ARP Inspection
C.MAC limiting
D.Storm control
AnswerC

MAC limiting allows you to restrict the number of source MAC addresses that can be learned on an interface. Setting the limit to one ensures that only a single MAC address is permitted, effectively blocking additional devices connected through an unmanaged switch.

Why this answer

MAC limiting is the Junos OS feature that restricts the number of source MAC addresses that can be learned on an interface. By setting the limit to one, the switch will only allow one MAC address, preventing a user from connecting a switch and using multiple devices on that port.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that storm control or DHCP snooping can restrict the number of MAC addresses, when they address different security concerns.

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