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Systems Security Certified Practitioner SSCP (SSCP) — Questions 676750

920 questions total · 13pages · All types, answers revealed

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676
Multi-Selecteasy

During the containment phase of incident response, a security analyst identifies malware on a critical server. Which TWO actions should be taken FIRST to contain the threat and preserve evidence? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Capture a forensic image of the hard drive.
B.Reboot the server to clear the malware from memory.
C.Disconnect the network cable from the server.
D.Run a full antivirus scan on the server.
E.Capture the contents of RAM using a tool like WinPmem.
AnswersC, E

This prevents the malware from communicating with command-and-control servers and spreading to other systems.

Why this answer

The immediate priority is to isolate the affected server from the network to prevent lateral movement and to capture volatile evidence (RAM) before it is lost. Disconnecting the network cable stops network-level spread, and capturing RAM preserves critical volatile data for forensic analysis.

677
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is investigating a network incident. Which TWO of the following are indicators of a man-in-the-middle attack using ARP spoofing? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.High number of TCP retransmissions from a single host.
B.An ARP entry for the default gateway points to an unknown MAC address.
C.The ARP cache shows two different MAC addresses for the same IP address (e.g., gateway IP).
D.The switch's CAM table has multiple MAC entries on the same port.
E.Multiple IP addresses resolve to the same MAC address in the ARP cache.
AnswersB, C

The attacker's MAC is associated with the gateway IP.

Why this answer

Duplicate MAC addresses for the same IP (since attacker claims the IP) and an entry matching the attacker's MAC with the gateway IP indicate ARP spoofing.

678
MCQhard

A helpdesk ticket reports that users can browse internal web servers but cannot access external websites. The IT team checks firewall logs and sees dropped packets with the DF flag set. What is the most likely cause?

A.The firewall is blocking outbound TCP port 80 and 443.
B.A firewall is blocking ICMP 'fragmentation needed' messages, preventing Path MTU Discovery.
C.The DNS server is not resolving external domain names.
D.The switch port connecting the firewall is set to the wrong VLAN.
AnswerB

This is a classic problem where DF packets are dropped because the firewall blocks ICMP type 3 code 4 messages.

Why this answer

The DF (Don't Fragment) flag being set in dropped packets indicates that packets are too large to traverse a network path without fragmentation, but the firewall is blocking the ICMP 'fragmentation needed' (Type 3, Code 4) messages. Without these ICMP messages, Path MTU Discovery (PMTUD) fails, causing the sending host to believe the packet was delivered when it was actually dropped. This prevents external websites from loading while internal servers (likely on the same MTU-friendly network) remain accessible.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume the DF flag indicates a firewall rule explicitly blocking fragmented packets, rather than recognizing it as a symptom of missing ICMP feedback in the PMTUD process.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because blocking outbound TCP ports 80 and 443 would prevent all HTTP/HTTPS traffic, not just external websites, and the DF flag behavior is unrelated to port blocking. Option C is wrong because DNS resolution failure would prevent name resolution for both internal and external sites, but users can browse internal web servers, indicating DNS is working. Option D is wrong because a wrong VLAN on the switch port would cause complete connectivity loss to the firewall, not selective dropping of packets with the DF flag.

679
MCQeasy

A web application is vulnerable to SQL injection. Which security control would be MOST effective at detecting and blocking such attacks at the network perimeter?

A.Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
B.Web Application Firewall (WAF)
C.Application whitelisting
D.Host-based firewall
AnswerB

WAF specifically inspects HTTP/HTTPS traffic and blocks OWASP Top 10 attacks.

Why this answer

A Web Application Firewall (WAF) inspects HTTP traffic and can block injection attacks.

680
MCQmedium

Which UDP port is used by the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) for receiving traps?

A.UDP 161
B.UDP 162
C.UDP 123
D.UDP 514
AnswerB

UDP 162 is used for SNMP traps.

Why this answer

SNMP traps are sent from agents to managers on UDP port 162, while SNMP queries typically use port 161.

681
MCQmedium

A security analyst receives a user report about a workstation exhibiting unusual behavior, such as unexpected pop-ups and slow performance. The analyst first checks the antivirus logs and finds no alerts. What is the NEXT step in the detection and analysis phase?

A.Escalate the incident to senior management
B.Isolate the workstation from the network immediately
C.Perform a forensic memory capture
D.Classify the severity of the potential incident
AnswerD

Severity classification helps determine the appropriate response priority.

Why this answer

According to incident response best practices, after initial detection, the next step is to classify the severity of the potential incident to prioritize response efforts.

682
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are common methods for implementing multifactor authentication (MFA)?

Select 3 answers
A.Retina scan and facial recognition
B.Password and SMS code
C.Smart card and PIN
D.Password and security question
E.Fingerprint and smart card
AnswersB, C, E

Something you know (password) + something you have (phone for SMS).

Why this answer

It combines something you know (password) with something you have (SMS code sent to a registered device). This satisfies the MFA requirement of using at least two distinct authentication factors, making it significantly more secure than single-factor password-only authentication.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between using multiple instances of the same factor (e.g., two biometrics or two passwords) versus using factors from different categories, which is the core requirement for true MFA.

683
MCQmedium

During a full interruption test of the disaster recovery plan, which of the following is the PRIMARY risk?

A.Vendor unavailability during the test
B.Employee confusion about their roles
C.Extended downtime or data loss if the plan fails
D.Cost overruns due to overtime pay
AnswerC

The realistic nature of the test can lead to actual outages if not carefully managed.

Why this answer

Full interruption tests involve actually failing over to the DR site, which may cause extended downtime or data loss if the plan has flaws or if the DR site fails.

684
MCQmedium

A company has a Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of 4 hours for its critical database. Which backup strategy best supports this RTO?

A.Daily full backups to disk
B.Weekly full backups to tape
C.Hourly incremental backups to disk
D.Monthly full backups with daily differentials to tape
AnswerC

Frequent backups reduce data loss and disk allows fast recovery.

Why this answer

To meet a short RTO, backup frequency should be high and restoration quick, so frequent backups to fast media are needed.

685
MCQmedium

You work for a hospital that has recently transitioned to an electronic health record (EHR) system. The system stores protected health information (PHI) and must comply with HIPAA. The hospital's security policy requires that all access to PHI be logged and that any unauthorized access be detected promptly. The IT department has implemented logging on the EHR system, but the security team is overwhelmed by the volume of logs and cannot review them in a timely manner. Additionally, there have been incidents where employees accessed patient records without a legitimate need, but these were only discovered months later during random audits. The hospital needs to improve its detection capabilities. Which of the following is the most effective solution?

A.Deploy a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system with automated alerting.
B.Retain logs for a longer period to allow more thorough audits.
C.Assign additional staff to manually review logs on a daily basis.
D.Increase the verbosity of logging to capture more details.
AnswerA

SIEM aggregates logs, detects anomalies, and alerts in real time, improving detection.

Why this answer

A SIEM system aggregates logs from the EHR system and applies correlation rules to detect patterns indicative of unauthorized access, such as an employee viewing records outside their department or during off-hours. It generates real-time alerts, enabling the security team to respond promptly rather than relying on manual log review. This directly addresses the problem of being overwhelmed by log volume and delayed detection.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think increasing log verbosity or retention improves detection, but without automated analysis, more data only worsens the signal-to-noise ratio and delays incident discovery.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because retaining logs for a longer period does not improve detection speed; it only preserves evidence for later audits, which still occur months after the incident. Option C is wrong because assigning additional staff to manually review logs is not scalable and would still be overwhelmed by the high volume of logs, leading to delayed or missed detections. Option D is wrong because increasing log verbosity would generate even more log data, exacerbating the existing problem of log overload without providing automated analysis or alerting.

686
MCQeasy

A security analyst is reviewing logs and finds multiple failed login attempts from an external IP address followed by a successful login. Which type of attack is most likely occurring?

A.Password spraying
B.Brute force attack
C.Credential stuffing
D.Social engineering
AnswerB

Multiple attempts from a single source indicate brute force.

Why this answer

A brute force attack involves systematically trying all possible password combinations until the correct one is found. The log pattern of multiple failed attempts from a single external IP followed by a success is the classic signature of a brute force attack, as the attacker iterates through a password list or character space against the same username.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'brute force' with 'credential stuffing' because both involve multiple login attempts, but credential stuffing uses known breached credentials (often from different IPs) and shows a higher initial success rate, whereas brute force targets a single account with many guesses from one IP.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because password spraying involves trying a small set of common passwords against many usernames, not multiple failed attempts from a single IP against one account. Option C is wrong because credential stuffing uses previously breached username/password pairs from other services, which would typically show a high success rate or rapid failures, not a long sequence of failures from one IP. Option D is wrong because social engineering relies on manipulating users (e.g., phishing or pretexting) to reveal credentials, not on automated login attempts visible in logs.

687
MCQeasy

A security analyst is reviewing the access control policy and notices that some users have been granted 'write' access to a directory that contains sensitive financial reports. Which principle of information security is being violated?

A.Non-repudiation
B.Least privilege
C.Availability
D.Confidentiality
AnswerB

Granting more access than needed violates least privilege.

Why this answer

The principle of least privilege dictates that users should be granted only the minimum permissions necessary to perform their job functions. Granting 'write' access to a directory containing sensitive financial reports to users who do not require that level of access violates this principle, as it introduces unnecessary risk of unauthorized modification or data leakage.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse the violation of least privilege with a breach of confidentiality, but the question specifically highlights the granting of unnecessary write permissions, which is a direct violation of the least privilege principle, not merely a confidentiality issue.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because non-repudiation ensures that a party cannot deny having performed an action, typically achieved through digital signatures or audit logs, and is not directly related to the level of access granted. Option C is wrong because availability ensures that systems and data are accessible when needed, often addressed through redundancy and fault tolerance, not by restricting write permissions. Option D is wrong because confidentiality protects data from unauthorized disclosure, which is a concern here, but the specific violation described is the granting of excessive permissions (write access) rather than the exposure of data itself; the core principle being violated is least privilege, not confidentiality.

688
MCQeasy

An organization uses role-based access control (RBAC). An employee transfers from the Sales department to the Marketing department. What is the most secure way to update the employee's access?

A.Remove the Sales role and then add the Marketing role
B.Add the Marketing role and remove the Sales role after 30 days
C.Modify the Sales role to include Marketing permissions
D.Create a new custom role with combined permissions
AnswerA

This ensures no overlapping permissions.

Why this answer

In RBAC, access is determined by the roles assigned to a user. The most secure method is to remove the old role (Sales) first to eliminate any residual permissions, then add the new role (Marketing). This ensures the employee does not retain access to Sales resources during the transition, adhering to the principle of least privilege.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think adding the new role first ensures continuity of access, but the most secure approach is to remove the old role first to prevent any period of dual access.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because adding the Marketing role before removing the Sales role creates a 30-day window where the employee has permissions from both departments, violating least privilege and increasing the risk of unauthorized access. Option C is wrong because modifying the Sales role to include Marketing permissions would grant those permissions to all Sales users, not just the transferring employee, leading to privilege creep and potential data leakage. Option D is wrong because creating a new custom role with combined permissions is unnecessary and inefficient; it complicates role management and may inadvertently grant the employee access to both departments' resources if the Sales role is not removed.

689
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are essential elements of an effective incident response plan? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Containment, eradication, and recovery
B.Detection and analysis
C.Public relations and media notification
D.Cyber insurance purchasing
E.Preparation and training
AnswersA, B, E

These steps limit damage, remove threats, and restore operations.

Why this answer

The incident response plan lifecycle, as defined by NIST SP 800-61, includes four core phases: Preparation; Detection and Analysis; Containment, Eradication, and Recovery; and Post-Incident Activity. Options A, B, and E directly map to these essential phases, ensuring the organization can detect an incident, contain it to prevent spread, eradicate the root cause, recover normal operations, and continuously improve through training and preparation.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse supporting activities (like PR or insurance) with the mandatory operational phases defined in the NIST incident response lifecycle, leading them to select non-essential business functions instead of the core technical steps.

690
MCQmedium

A company uses role-based access control (RBAC). A user is assigned to the 'Sales' role, which grants access to CRM and reporting, and also to the 'Sales Manager' role, which grants additional access to team reports. However, the user cannot access team reports. What is the most likely cause?

A.An access control list on the report folder explicitly denies the 'Sales' role
B.The user account has been disabled
C.RBAC role hierarchy is not configured
D.The user's session is not properly managed
AnswerD

Correct. In RBAC, a user's effective permissions are determined by the roles activated in the current session. If the 'Sales Manager' role is not activated, its permissions are not available.

Why this answer

In an RBAC system, users are assigned roles, and they establish a session during which they select which authorized roles to activate. If the user's session is not properly managed—for example, they activated only the 'Sales' role and not the 'Sales Manager' role—they would not have the permissions from the 'Sales Manager' role, thus preventing access to team reports. Even though both roles are assigned, the active role set determines effective permissions.

Exam trap

A common trap is assuming that all assigned roles are automatically active. In practice, session management controls which roles are currently active, and thus which permissions are available.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an explicit deny on the report folder would block access regardless of role membership, but the scenario states the user cannot access team reports despite being assigned the 'Sales Manager' role, which suggests the issue is with permission inheritance, not an explicit deny. Option B is wrong because if the user account were disabled, the user would not be able to access any resources, not just team reports, and the question implies the user can access CRM and reporting. Option D is wrong because session management issues would typically cause authentication or authorization failures across all resources, not a specific permission problem with team reports, and RBAC permissions are evaluated at the time of access request, not tied to session state.

691
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are functions of a network firewall?

Select 2 answers
A.Resolving domain names to IP addresses
B.Filtering traffic based on IP addresses and ports
C.Performing Network Address Translation (NAT)
D.Encrypting data at rest
E.Assigning IP addresses to hosts
AnswersB, C

Core function of a firewall.

Why this answer

A network firewall's primary function is to enforce access control policies by filtering traffic based on Layer 3 (IP addresses) and Layer 4 (ports) information. This stateless or stateful inspection allows the firewall to permit or deny packets according to rules, such as allowing HTTP traffic (TCP port 80) from a specific source IP. This is a core security mechanism to segment networks and block unauthorized access.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse optional features (like NAT or DHCP) with core firewall functions, or they mistake DNS resolution for a firewall capability, when the SSCP exam expects you to know that filtering based on IP/port is the fundamental purpose.

692
MCQmedium

After a ransomware attack, the recovery team must restore encrypted files from backups. The backups are stored on a separate network segment and were last verified three days ago. What should the team do FIRST?

A.Disconnect the infected systems from the network.
B.Verify the integrity and cleanliness of the backup.
C.Contact law enforcement.
D.Restore all files from the most recent backup.
AnswerB

Ensuring backup is clean prevents re-infection.

Why this answer

Before restoring, ensure the backup system is not compromised. Option B is correct. Option A may restore malware; Option C is premature; Option D is not a first step.

693
MCQmedium

A company's VPN logs show that a user's account authenticated from two different geographic locations within a span of 10 minutes. The distances between locations make physical travel impossible. The security team investigates and finds that the user's password is complex and not shared. What is the MOST likely explanation?

A.The VPN server has a configuration error causing incorrect location logging.
B.The user's session token was stolen and used by an attacker.
C.The user's account is being used by multiple people with permission.
D.The user is using a VPN service to mask their true location.
AnswerB

Correct: The stolen session token allows an attacker to reuse the authenticated session from a different location without needing the password, explaining the impossible travel.

Why this answer

The session token could have been stolen and reused from a different location, allowing an attacker to authenticate without the password. Option A is incorrect; a configuration error would affect multiple users. Option C is incorrect; multiple people using the account would imply password sharing, which is denied.

Option D is incorrect; using a VPN service would show the same VPN IP, not two different geographic locations.

694
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are considered secure cryptographic hash functions as of current standards? (Select TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.SHA-3
B.RC4
C.SHA-1
D.MD5
E.SHA-256
AnswersA, E

SHA-3 is the latest standard.

Why this answer

SHA-256 and SHA-3 are currently secure. MD5 and SHA-1 are broken or deprecated.

695
Matchingmedium

Match each cryptography term to its definition.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Same key for encryption and decryption

Key pair: public and private

One-way function producing fixed output

Ensures authenticity and non-repudiation

Why these pairings

Correct matches: Symmetric encryption uses one key; asymmetric uses a key pair; hashing produces fixed-size digests; digital signatures ensure non-repudiation. Common confusions include swapping symmetric/asymmetric definitions or treating hashing as encryption.

696
MCQhard

A network analyst reviews firewall logs and sees multiple SYN packets to various ports from the same external IP in a short time, with no subsequent ACK. What is the most likely cause?

A.Brute force password attack on SSH
B.Distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack
C.ICMP ping sweep
D.Port scan using SYN scan technique
AnswerD

SYN scan is a common reconnaissance method.

Why this answer

A SYN scan sends SYN packets to multiple ports; if a port is open, the target responds with SYN-ACK, but the scanner never completes the handshake (no ACK). The absence of ACK packets after the SYN packets indicates the scanner is not establishing connections, which is characteristic of a SYN scan, not a brute force or DDoS attack.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between a SYN scan and a DDoS attack; the trap is that candidates see 'multiple SYN packets' and immediately think 'SYN flood DDoS,' but a SYN flood typically uses spoofed IPs and aims to exhaust resources, whereas a single IP scanning various ports without ACKs indicates reconnaissance.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a brute force password attack on SSH would involve repeated SSH connection attempts (complete TCP handshakes) to port 22, not just SYN packets to various ports without ACKs. Option B is wrong because a DDoS attack typically floods with traffic from many sources (distributed) to overwhelm a target, not just a single external IP sending SYN packets to various ports without completing connections. Option C is wrong because an ICMP ping sweep uses ICMP Echo Request packets, not TCP SYN packets, to discover live hosts.

697
MCQhard

An incident responder is tasked with collecting forensic evidence from a compromised Linux server. Which command would the responder use to capture the contents of volatile memory (RAM) for analysis?

A.lime-forensics --dump /tmp/mem.lime
B.cat /proc/kcore > /tmp/mem.dump
C.memdump -o /tmp/mem.dump
D.dd if=/dev/mem of=/tmp/mem.dump bs=1M
AnswerA

LiME is the correct tool for Linux memory acquisition, outputting a .lime file.

Why this answer

LiME (Linux Memory Extractor) is specifically designed to capture volatile memory from Linux systems with minimal footprint, outputting a raw memory dump that can be analyzed with tools like Volatility. The `--dump` flag directs the acquisition to a specified file, ensuring the capture is forensically sound by avoiding writes to the compromised filesystem where possible.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume `dd if=/dev/mem` is a valid method for full RAM capture on Linux, but modern kernels restrict access to `/dev/mem` to only the first megabyte, making it useless for forensic memory acquisition. Tools like LiME or fmem are required for proper memory dumping.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because `/proc/kcore` is a pseudo-file representing the kernel's view of memory, but it is not a complete or forensically reliable capture of physical RAM; it may omit certain memory regions and can change during read, leading to an inconsistent snapshot. Option C is wrong because `memdump` is not a standard Linux command; it is a tool from the `memdump` package that captures memory from `/dev/mem`, but it is less reliable than LiME for volatile memory acquisition and may not handle modern kernel protections. Option D is wrong because `dd if=/dev/mem` attempts to read physical memory via the `/dev/mem` device, which on modern Linux kernels is restricted to the first 1 MB of RAM by default (due to the `CONFIG_STRICT_DEVMEM` kernel option), making it incapable of capturing the full RAM contents.

698
MCQmedium

A company uses virtual machines for development. To ensure isolation between VMs on the same host, which control is most important?

A.Antivirus on each VM
B.Hypervisor patching
C.Strong passwords for VM consoles
D.Virtual network segmentation
AnswerD

Network segmentation isolates traffic between VMs.

Why this answer

Virtual network segmentation prevents VM-to-VM attacks by isolating traffic. Hypervisor patching is important for security but does not directly provide isolation. Strong passwords protect console access but not network traffic.

Antivirus protects within each VM but not between them.

699
MCQhard

An organization is migrating from on-premises servers to a cloud IaaS model. The security team must ensure that virtual machine (VM) images are hardened before deployment. Which of the following is the MOST effective control to ensure consistency and compliance with security baselines?

A.Perform vulnerability scans on each VM after deployment
B.Apply the latest OS patches to each VM immediately after deployment
C.Create a golden image that is hardened and approved for use, and deploy VMs from that image
D.Train administrators on hardening procedures and rely on manual configuration
AnswerC

A golden image enforces a consistent secure baseline from the start.

Why this answer

Creating a golden image that is hardened and approved for use ensures that every VM deployed from it inherits a consistent, pre-configured security baseline. This approach eliminates configuration drift and manual errors by baking security controls into the image before deployment, making it the most effective control for consistency and compliance.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose vulnerability scanning or patching because they focus on security after deployment, missing the core principle that proactive, immutable infrastructure via golden images is the most reliable way to enforce consistent baselines at scale.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because performing vulnerability scans after deployment is a detective control, not a preventive one; it identifies issues but does not ensure consistent hardening across all VMs. Option B is wrong because applying patches after deployment is reactive and does not guarantee that other hardening configurations (e.g., registry settings, service disabling, group policies) are consistently applied. Option D is wrong because relying on manual configuration by administrators introduces human error and inconsistency, making it impossible to maintain a uniform security baseline across multiple VMs.

700
MCQmedium

A security analyst notices that an employee's account has been sending large amounts of data to an external IP address during non-business hours. The analyst suspects the employee's credentials have been compromised. What is the FIRST step the analyst should take according to incident response procedures?

A.Block the external IP address at the firewall.
B.Disable the employee's user account.
C.Contact law enforcement.
D.Inform the employee's manager.
AnswerB

Disabling the employee's user account stops the unauthorized access and data exfiltration immediately, aligning with incident response containment procedures.

Why this answer

Disabling the employee's user account immediately stops the unauthorized activity and prevents further data exfiltration, as per incident response procedures. Option A is wrong; blocking the external IP address may not stop the attacker if they have other methods or can change IPs. Option C is wrong; informing the manager is important but not the first action, as containment is the priority.

Option D is wrong; contacting law enforcement is premature before containing the incident and gathering evidence.

701
MCQhard

A security analyst is investigating a network where an attacker successfully redirected traffic from a legitimate web server to a malicious server by corrupting the target domain's DNS records in a local resolver cache. Which attack technique was used?

A.SYN flood
B.DNS poisoning
C.ARP spoofing
D.Smurf attack
AnswerB

DNS poisoning corrupts DNS cache to redirect traffic.

Why this answer

DNS poisoning injects false DNS records into a resolver's cache, redirecting traffic to malicious sites.

702
MCQhard

During a vulnerability scan, a tool reports a critical vulnerability on a web server. The system owner claims it is a false positive because the server is not accessible from the internet. However, the server is accessible from the internal network. What is the best course of action?

A.Accept the risk and close the finding
B.Ignore the finding as the vulnerability scanner is known for false positives
C.Remove the server from the network to eliminate the risk
D.Verify the vulnerability manually and if confirmed, remediate according to internal risk
AnswerD

Manual verification confirms whether it's a true positive; if so, remediation should be prioritized based on internal risk.

Why this answer

A vulnerability that is exploitable from the internal network still poses a significant risk, as internal threats (e.g., compromised endpoints, malicious insiders) can leverage it. The system owner’s claim that the server is not internet-facing does not negate the need for verification and remediation; internal attack surfaces must be managed according to the organization’s risk appetite. Manual verification ensures the scanner’s report is accurate, and if confirmed, remediation should follow internal risk-based prioritization.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume a server not accessible from the internet is automatically low-risk, ignoring the reality that internal network threats are a primary attack vector in many breaches, and that risk must be evaluated based on the asset’s exposure and criticality within the internal environment.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because accepting the risk without verification ignores the fact that internal network access can lead to exploitation, and risk acceptance requires formal approval and justification, not a simple dismissal. Option B is wrong because dismissing a finding solely because the scanner is known for false positives is negligent; each finding must be manually verified, as scanners can produce both false positives and false negatives, and internal threats are real. Option C is wrong because removing the server from the network is an extreme, unnecessary measure that disrupts business operations; the correct approach is to verify and remediate the vulnerability, not isolate the asset without analysis.

703
MCQmedium

A security analyst is reviewing logs and notices multiple failed login attempts from a single IP address against an administrative account. The SIEM has not generated an alert. Which configuration change would best detect this scenario?

A.Enable signature-based detection on the IDS
B.Implement a host-based IDS on the server
C.Create a SIEM correlation rule to alert on multiple failed logins from the same source
D.Increase log retention to 1 year
AnswerC

A SIEM correlation rule can aggregate failed login events and trigger an alert when a threshold is met, which directly addresses the scenario.

Why this answer

A SIEM correlation rule can specifically detect multiple failed login attempts from the same source IP address by aggregating and analyzing log events in real time. Unlike signature-based or host-based IDS solutions, a SIEM correlation rule can be tuned to match this exact behavioral pattern, triggering an alert when the configured threshold (e.g., 5 failures within 10 minutes) is exceeded. This directly addresses the gap where the SIEM failed to generate an alert due to the absence of such a rule.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the roles of IDS/IPS and SIEM, mistakenly thinking signature-based or host-based IDS can natively correlate login failures from a single source, when in fact SIEM correlation rules are specifically designed for this multi-event behavioral detection.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because signature-based detection on an IDS relies on known attack patterns (e.g., SQL injection signatures) and cannot detect behavioral anomalies like multiple failed logins from a single IP unless a specific signature is written for that pattern, which is inefficient and not the standard approach. Option B is wrong because a host-based IDS (HIDS) monitors local system calls and file integrity on the server, but it does not natively correlate login attempts across multiple log sources or aggregate events from a single source IP; it would only see individual login failures without context. Option D is wrong because increasing log retention to 1 year does not enable detection of ongoing attacks; it only preserves historical data for forensic analysis after an incident has occurred, failing to provide real-time alerting.

704
MCQmedium

A security administrator receives an alert about a potential SYN flood attack on a web server. At which OSI layer does this attack occur?

A.Layer 7 (Application)
B.Layer 3 (Network)
C.Layer 2 (Data Link)
D.Layer 4 (Transport)
AnswerD

SYN flood exploits TCP's connection establishment process at the transport layer.

Why this answer

A SYN flood attack exploits the TCP three-way handshake by sending a barrage of SYN packets without completing the handshake, exhausting server resources. This attack targets the Transport Layer (Layer 4), where TCP operates, as defined in RFC 793. The security administrator's alert specifically involves TCP SYN segments, which are Layer 4 protocol data units.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the attack's effect on the application (e.g., web server unavailability) with the layer being attacked, incorrectly selecting Layer 7 instead of recognizing the TCP handshake at Layer 4.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Layer 7 (Application) deals with application protocols like HTTP, FTP, and SMTP, not the TCP handshake mechanics exploited in a SYN flood. Option B is wrong because Layer 3 (Network) handles IP addressing and routing, not the stateful connection establishment that SYN floods abuse. Option C is wrong because Layer 2 (Data Link) covers MAC addresses and frame delivery on a local network segment, with no involvement in TCP's connection-oriented behavior.

705
MCQmedium

A company uses a SOAR platform for incident response. Which factor is most critical for effective automation?

A.High-quality playbooks
B.Integration with all security tools
C.Low false positive rate
D.Real-time threat intelligence feeds
AnswerA

Playbooks define the automated response actions; without quality playbooks, automation is ineffective.

Why this answer

High-quality playbooks are the most critical factor because SOAR automation relies on predefined, tested, and context-rich workflows to orchestrate response actions. Without accurate playbooks that map to specific incident types, automated actions can misidentify threats, execute incorrect containment steps, or fail to adapt to evolving attack patterns, rendering integrations and feeds ineffective.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that more integrations or real-time data automatically improve automation, but the trap here is that without high-quality playbooks, even perfect integrations and feeds lead to chaotic or harmful automated responses.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because integration with all security tools is not the most critical factor; while broad integration enables data collection and action execution, it is useless without well-defined playbooks to orchestrate those tools effectively. Option C is wrong because a low false positive rate is a prerequisite for any detection system, but SOAR automation specifically depends on playbook logic to handle alerts correctly, not just on alert quality. Option D is wrong because real-time threat intelligence feeds enrich context but do not drive automation; playbooks must incorporate that intelligence into decision trees and response steps for it to be actionable.

706
MCQeasy

When using CBC mode encryption, what is the purpose of the initialization vector (IV)?

A.To provide authentication
B.To increase the key length
C.To add randomness and prevent identical ciphertext for repeated plaintext
D.To enable parallel encryption
AnswerC

IV randomizes the first block, causing different ciphertexts.

Why this answer

The initialization vector (IV) in CBC mode ensures that each encryption of the same plaintext with the same key produces a different ciphertext. The IV is XORed with the first plaintext block before encryption, introducing randomness that prevents patterns from being exposed in the ciphertext, which is critical for semantic security.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the IV's role in adding randomness with authentication or key extension, or they mistakenly think CBC supports parallel encryption because they overlook the sequential dependency of ciphertext blocks.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because CBC mode provides no inherent authentication; it is a confidentiality-only mode, and authentication requires a separate MAC or an authenticated encryption mode like GCM or CCM. Option B is wrong because the IV does not increase the effective key length; the key length remains fixed, and the IV is a non-secret, random value used per message. Option D is wrong because CBC mode is inherently sequential—each ciphertext block depends on the previous one—so it cannot be parallelized during encryption; only decryption can be parallelized.

707
MCQmedium

An Identity Provider (IdP) sends an XML-based assertion to a Service Provider (SP) to grant access. Which federated identity standard is being used?

A.OAuth 2.0
B.Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)
C.OpenID Connect (OIDC)
D.Kerberos
AnswerB

SAML uses XML-based assertions for federated identity.

Why this answer

SAML uses XML assertions to exchange authentication and authorization data between an IdP and an SP.

708
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are appropriate actions when preserving digital evidence at a crime/incident scene?

Select 2 answers
A.Document all actions taken
B.Take photographs of the scene
C.Connect to the internet to check online resources
D.Use the system to check files
E.Power off the system immediately
AnswersA, B

Documentation ensures chain of custody and reproducibility.

Why this answer

Documenting all actions taken (Option A) is a fundamental principle of digital forensics, as it creates a verifiable chain of custody and ensures the integrity of evidence. This documentation includes timestamps, tools used, and any changes made to the system, which is critical for admissibility in legal proceedings. Without proper documentation, the evidence may be challenged as tampered or unreliable.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that immediately powering off a system is always the safest action, but in digital forensics, this can destroy volatile evidence and trigger data loss or corruption.

709
MCQeasy

An employee receives an email with an attachment claiming to be an invoice but contains a macro virus. What control would have blocked this?

A.User awareness training
B.Email attachment scanning
C.Spam filter
D.Macro security settings in Office
AnswerD

Macro settings can disable or restrict macro execution.

Why this answer

Macro security settings in Office can disable macros or require signed macros, preventing execution. Spam filter may not detect targeted phishing. Attachment scanning may miss zero-day variants.

User training reduces risk but does not technically block.

710
MCQmedium

A security analyst detects a workstation communicating with a known command-and-control server. The workstation is running critical applications. What should be the analyst's first step according to the NIST incident response lifecycle?

A.Power off the workstation immediately to stop the communication.
B.Isolate the workstation from the network while preserving volatile data.
C.Run a full antivirus scan on the workstation.
D.Notify management and wait for instructions.
AnswerB

Correct. Network isolation stops communication while preserving evidence.

Why this answer

According to the NIST incident response lifecycle, the first priority is containment. Isolating the workstation from the network stops communication with the command-and-control server while preserving volatile data (e.g., memory, running processes, network connections) for forensic analysis. Powering off would destroy this critical evidence, and running a scan or waiting for instructions delays containment and risks further compromise.

Exam trap

A common misconception in incident response is that immediate power-off is the safest containment action, but the trap is that it destroys volatile evidence required for forensic analysis, as emphasized in the NIST incident response lifecycle and SSCP exam objectives.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because powering off the workstation destroys volatile data (e.g., RAM contents, active network connections, process lists) that are essential for forensic analysis and identifying the scope of the compromise. Option C is wrong because running a full antivirus scan on a live, compromised system can alter evidence, trigger destructive malware behaviors, and does not immediately stop the command-and-control communication. Option D is wrong because notifying management and waiting for instructions violates the NIST principle of immediate containment; delaying action allows the attacker to continue exfiltration or lateral movement.

711
MCQeasy

A financial services company has recently deployed a new customer-facing web application on port 443. The application is essential for client transactions. Within the first week, the security team's monitoring system detected thousands of failed login attempts originating from a wide range of IP addresses across multiple countries. The attempts are using common usernames and passwords, indicating a coordinated brute-force attack. The company's perimeter firewall is configured with a default allow rule for inbound TCP traffic on port 443 to the web server's public IP address. The company operates with a small IT team and has a limited security budget. The web application is custom-developed and cannot be modified quickly. The security analyst must recommend a solution to mitigate the attack while maintaining availability for legitimate users. Which of the following is the most effective first step?

A.Implement IP blacklisting by manually adding offending IP addresses to the firewall's deny list
B.Change the web server port from 443 to a non-standard high port
C.Deploy a Web Application Firewall (WAF) configured with rate limiting and CAPTCHA challenges
D.Enable SSH access to the web server for administrative purposes
AnswerC

A WAF can automatically detect and mitigate brute-force patterns by rate-limiting requests from suspicious IPs, presenting CAPTCHAs to verify human users, and applying other application-layer controls without modifying the application.

Why this answer

Deploying a Web Application Firewall (WAF) with rate limiting and CAPTCHA is the most effective solution because it can identify and block malicious traffic patterns without requiring application changes. It operates at the application layer and can enforce policies such as rate limiting per IP, geolocation blocking, and CAPTCHA challenges, which directly mitigate brute-force attacks while minimizing impact on legitimate users. Other options are less effective: IP blacklisting is reactive and cannot handle distributed attacks; changing ports only provides obscurity; enabling SSH does not address the web application attack.

712
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are essential steps in a security incident response process according to the SSCP common body of knowledge? (Select the two best answers.)

Select 2 answers
A.Vulnerability scanning
B.Penetration testing
C.Eradication
D.Identification
E.Risk assessment
AnswersC, D

Eradication involves removing the incident artifacts and is a key phase.

713
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are best practices for password management?

Select 2 answers
A.Implement account lockout after a few failed attempts
B.Allow reuse of the last 5 passwords
C.Store passwords in plaintext for quick recovery
D.Share passwords via email for convenience
E.Enforce password complexity requirements
AnswersA, E

Lockout mitigates brute-force attacks.

Why this answer

Password complexity and account lockout are standard best practices. Storing passwords in plaintext and reusing passwords are poor practices.

714
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE characteristics are important for a password hashing algorithm?

Select 3 answers
A.Fixed output length
B.Salt usage
C.Reversible
D.Slow computation
E.Constant time comparison
AnswersB, D, E

Salt prevents rainbow table attacks.

Why this answer

B is correct because salting ensures that each password hash is unique even if two users have the same password, preventing precomputed rainbow table attacks. A salt is a random value concatenated with the password before hashing, and it must be stored alongside the hash for verification.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that fixed output length is a key requirement for password hashing, when in fact it is a generic property of all hash functions and not specific to password storage security.

715
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are methods to defend against SYN flood attacks? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Enabling IP routing
B.Using UDP instead of TCP
C.Increasing the SYN backlog queue size
D.SYN cookies
E.Disabling TCP timestamps
AnswersC, D

A larger backlog allows more pending connections, mitigating exhaustion.

Why this answer

SYN cookies avoid resource exhaustion by not allocating memory until the handshake completes, and increasing the backlog queue allows more half-open connections before reaching capacity.

716
MCQmedium

A user reports they can now access files in a shared drive that were previously denied. Upon investigation, the IT team discovers the user was added to a new group that has read/write permissions to the drive. This situation is best described as:

A.Separation of duties violation
B.Inconsistent access control list
C.Role explosion
D.Privilege creep
AnswerD

The user gained additional permissions through group membership, which is a classic example of privilege creep.

Why this answer

Privilege creep occurs when users accumulate more permissions over time than they need for their current role, often through group memberships. In this scenario, the user was added to a new group that granted read/write access to a shared drive, resulting in unintended elevated access. This is a classic example of privilege creep because the user's access rights expanded beyond what was originally authorized, violating the principle of least privilege.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing privilege creep with role explosion, but privilege creep focuses on individual permission accumulation over time, while role explosion is about an excessive number of roles in the system design.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because separation of duties is a control designed to prevent fraud or error by requiring multiple individuals to complete a sensitive task, not a situation where a user gains unintended access. Option B is wrong because an inconsistent access control list would imply conflicting or erroneous permissions on the resource itself, whereas here the permissions are consistent but the user was added to a group that legitimately has those permissions. Option C is wrong because role explosion refers to the proliferation of too many roles in an RBAC system, making management complex, not the gradual accumulation of permissions by a single user.

717
MCQhard

A patch management process is being audited. Which finding indicates a critical gap in the process?

A.Exception requests for unpatched systems are documented
B.Patches are not tested in a staging environment before production deployment
C.Critical systems are patched monthly
D.Patches are deployed within 30 days of release
AnswerB

Missing testing can cause production issues.

Why this answer

Failure to test patches in a staging environment can lead to instability when deployed to production.

718
MCQhard

An organization's risk register lists a vulnerability with an annualized loss expectancy (ALE) of $50,000. The cost of implementing a mitigation control is $40,000 with an expected lifespan of 5 years. The control is expected to reduce the ALE by 80%. What is the net present value (NPV) of implementing this control over 5 years, assuming a discount rate of 5%? (Ignore residual risk for simplicity.)

A.$120,000
B.$133,180
C.$200,000
D.$160,000
AnswerB

Correctly calculated NPV.

Why this answer

The net present value (NPV) is calculated by subtracting the initial control cost from the present value of the annual savings over 5 years. The control reduces the ALE by 80%, saving $40,000 per year ($50,000 × 0.8). Using a 5% discount rate, the present value of these savings is $40,000 × 4.3295 (PV annuity factor for 5 years at 5%) = $173,180.

Subtracting the $40,000 implementation cost gives an NPV of $133,180.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often forget to discount future savings to present value, leading them to pick the undiscounted total savings ($200,000) or a simple subtraction ($160,000), rather than applying the 5% discount rate correctly.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because $120,000 represents the total undiscounted savings ($40,000 × 5 = $200,000) minus the control cost ($40,000) but ignores the time value of money (discount rate). Option C is wrong because $200,000 is the total undiscounted savings over 5 years without subtracting the control cost or applying the discount rate. Option D is wrong because $160,000 might come from incorrectly using a 4-year savings calculation or misapplying the discount factor (e.g., $40,000 × 4 = $160,000), failing to account for the 5% discount rate.

719
MCQmedium

An organization is planning to deploy a remote access VPN for employees. The solution must support strong encryption, mutual authentication, and work through firewalls without requiring additional ports. Which technology is most suitable?

A.L2TP/IPsec
B.PPTP
C.IPsec tunnel mode
D.SSL/TLS VPN
AnswerD

SSL VPN uses port 443, widely allowed, and provides strong security.

Why this answer

SSL/TLS VPNs (e.g., Cisco AnyConnect) operate over port 443 (HTTPS), which is commonly allowed through firewalls, and provide strong encryption and authentication.

720
MCQmedium

A security analyst receives an alert from the EDR system indicating that a workstation has been communicating with a known malicious IP address. The analyst confirms the alert and notes that the user is still logged in. Which immediate containment action should the analyst take FIRST?

A.Isolate the workstation using the EDR agent's network isolation capability
B.Create a full forensic image of the hard drive
C.Disable the user's Active Directory account
D.Block the malicious IP address at the firewall
AnswerA

Isolating the endpoint stops all network traffic, preventing data exfiltration or lateral movement.

Why this answer

The first priority is to contain the incident by isolating the endpoint to prevent further communication. EDR agents often have a feature to isolate the host from the network immediately.

721
MCQeasy

A small business has 50 employees and uses a cloud-based email service. The IT manager receives a report that several employees have been receiving phishing emails that appear to come from the company's CEO. The emails request that employees purchase gift cards and send the codes urgently. Two employees have already complied, losing $500 total. The manager wants to prevent this from recurring. The company has a limited budget and no dedicated security staff. Which of the following actions should the manager take FIRST?

A.Create a policy prohibiting gift card purchases
B.Enable multi-factor authentication (MFA) on the CEO's email account
C.Conduct security awareness training for all employees
D.Set up email filtering rules to block emails with the CEO's name
AnswerB

MFA significantly reduces the risk of account takeover, which is the source of these phishing emails.

Why this answer

The most immediate action is to secure the compromised account by enabling multi-factor authentication (MFA) on the CEO's email account. This stops attackers from using stolen credentials to send fraudulent emails, directly addressing the root cause. While other options may help long-term, they do not prevent the current attack vector: Option A (creating a policy) is reactive and does not stop the ongoing threat; Option C (security awareness training) is important but does not prevent the CEO's account from being used; Option D (email filtering) may not catch all spoofed emails and does not address the compromised account.

722
Multi-Selecthard

A company is migrating to a cloud-based SaaS application and wants to implement federated identity. Users will authenticate using their existing corporate Active Directory credentials. Which THREE components are essential for a SAML-based federation? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Identity Provider (IdP)
B.Trust relationship between IdP and SP
C.Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT)
D.Attribute Authority (AA)
E.Service Provider (SP)
AnswersA, B, E

IdP authenticates users and issues SAML assertions.

Why this answer

SAML federation requires an Identity Provider (IdP), a Service Provider (SP), and trust between them. The IdP authenticates the user and sends an assertion to the SP via an HTTP redirect.

723
MCQeasy

A company's backup strategy includes weekly full backups and daily differential backups. A ransomware attack occurred on Wednesday, corrupting data. The last full backup was Sunday. Which backup set should be restored first?

A.Wednesday differential backup
B.Sunday full backup
C.Monday differential backup
D.Tuesday differential backup
AnswerB

Full backup must be restored first as it contains the baseline data.

Why this answer

The correct restoration order is to first restore the Sunday full backup, because differential backups contain all changes since the last full backup. Without the full backup as a base, the differential backups cannot be applied. After restoring the full backup, you would then apply the most recent differential backup (Wednesday) to bring the data to the point just before the attack.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse differential backups with incremental backups, mistakenly thinking they need to restore all differentials in order, or they try to restore the most recent differential without the full backup first.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Wednesday differential backup cannot be restored first; it must be applied after the full backup to provide the incremental changes. Option C is wrong because the Monday differential backup is not the most recent differential backup, and restoring it alone would miss changes made on Tuesday and Wednesday. Option D is wrong because the Tuesday differential backup, while more recent than Monday, still requires the full backup first and is not the final differential needed to reach Wednesday's state.

724
MCQmedium

A security administrator is configuring a Linux server to enforce mandatory access control (MAC). Which of the following tools provides MAC on Linux?

A.PAM
B.iptables
C.chmod
D.SELinux
AnswerD

SELinux provides mandatory access control.

Why this answer

SELinux and AppArmor are Linux security modules that implement mandatory access control policies beyond traditional discretionary access control.

725
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are valid steps in the change management process? (Select THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Post-implementation review
B.Vulnerability scanning
C.Baseline configuration update
D.Impact assessment
E.Change request submission
AnswersA, D, E

After implementation, a review ensures the change was successful and lessons are learned.

Why this answer

A post-implementation review is a valid step in the change management process because it evaluates whether the change met its objectives, identifies any issues, and captures lessons learned. This review typically occurs after the change has been implemented and verified, ensuring that the change was successful and that any unintended consequences are documented.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse operational security activities like vulnerability scanning or configuration updates with formal change management process steps, which are specifically about the lifecycle of a change request from submission through review.

726
MCQhard

A network engineer is designing a secure WAN link between two offices using IPsec VPN. The company requires encryption of all traffic, authentication of both endpoints, and protection against replay attacks. Which combination of IPsec protocols and modes should be used?

A.AH in tunnel mode
B.AH in transport mode
C.ESP in tunnel mode
D.ESP in transport mode
AnswerC

ESP in tunnel mode encrypts and authenticates the entire packet, suitable for site-to-site VPNs.

Why this answer

ESP in tunnel mode encrypts and authenticates the entire original IP packet, providing confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for the entire payload. It also includes sequence numbers to protect against replay attacks, making it the correct choice for a secure WAN link between two offices.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse AH with ESP, assuming AH provides encryption, or they incorrectly choose transport mode for site-to-site VPNs because they focus on endpoint authentication rather than the need to encapsulate the entire original packet for network-to-network communication.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AH (Authentication Header) provides integrity and authentication but does not encrypt traffic, failing the encryption requirement. Option B is wrong because AH in transport mode also lacks encryption and only protects the payload, not the original IP header, which is insufficient for a VPN tunnel between networks. Option D is wrong because ESP in transport mode encrypts only the payload, not the original IP header, and is typically used for end-to-end communication between hosts, not for site-to-site VPNs where tunnel mode is required to encapsulate the entire original packet.

727
MCQmedium

During a security audit, it is discovered that a legacy system uses SNMPv1 for network monitoring. Which of the following is the primary security concern?

A.Weak hashing
B.Community strings transmitted in cleartext
C.No access control
D.Lack of encryption
AnswerB

The community string serves as a password and is sent in plaintext, allowing interception and unauthorized access.

Why this answer

SNMPv1 transmits community strings (effectively passwords) in cleartext over the network. An attacker capturing network traffic can directly read the community string and gain unauthorized access to SNMP-managed devices. This lack of confidentiality is the primary security concern because it exposes the entire monitoring infrastructure to compromise.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'no access control' (Option C) with the lack of authentication, but SNMPv1 does have community strings as a form of access control; the real issue is that these strings are transmitted in cleartext, making them easily intercepted.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SNMPv1 does not use hashing for authentication; it relies on plaintext community strings, so 'weak hashing' is not a relevant concern. Option C is wrong because SNMPv1 does have a basic form of access control via read-only (RO) and read-write (RW) community strings, though it is rudimentary and easily bypassed once the community string is known. Option D is wrong because while SNMPv1 indeed lacks encryption, the question asks for the 'primary' security concern; the immediate exposure of community strings in cleartext is the most direct and exploitable vulnerability, making lack of encryption a secondary consequence.

728
Multi-Selecthard

A company is selecting a cryptographic algorithm for digital signatures. Which THREE of the following algorithms can be used for digital signatures? (Select THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.SHA-256
B.DSA
C.AES
D.RSA
E.ECDSA
AnswersB, D, E

DSA is a digital signature algorithm.

Why this answer

RSA, ECDSA, and DSA are all capable of digital signatures. AES is symmetric and not for signatures; SHA-256 is a hash function.

729
MCQhard

In a federated identity scenario, a user authenticates to their home domain and accesses a resource in a partner domain. The partner domain trusts the authentication performed by the home domain. What is the home domain's role in this trust relationship?

A.Relying Party
B.Identity Provider (IdP)
C.Service Provider (SP)
D.Kerberos Distribution Center (KDC)
AnswerB

The IdP authenticates users and provides identity information.

Why this answer

In federated identity, the Identity Provider (IdP) is the home domain that authenticates the user and issues assertions. The Service Provider (SP) trusts the IdP's authentication.

730
MCQmedium

An organization uses Kerberos for single sign-on (SSO) within its Windows domain. Which component issues ticket-granting tickets (TGTs) after verifying user credentials?

A.Ticket Granting Service (TGS)
B.Key Distribution Center (KDC)
C.Authentication Service (AS)
D.Domain Controller
AnswerC

AS authenticates and issues TGTs.

Why this answer

In Kerberos, the Authentication Service (AS) within the Key Distribution Center (KDC) authenticates users and issues TGTs. The Ticket Granting Service (TGS) issues service tickets later.

731
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are examples of biometric authentication? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Smart card
B.Retina scan
C.PIN
D.Fingerprint
E.Password
AnswersB, D

Retina scan is a biometric trait.

Why this answer

Retina scan is a biometric authentication method because it uses unique physiological characteristics of the eye's retinal blood vessel pattern to verify identity. Biometric authentication relies on measurable biological traits, and the retina's pattern is highly distinctive and difficult to replicate, making it a strong form of authentication.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between authentication factors (something you know, have, or are) and tricks candidates into selecting smart cards or PINs as biometrics because they are commonly associated with security, but they are not based on biological traits.

732
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are key components of the 3-2-1 backup rule?

Select 2 answers
A.One copy stored in a different geographic location
B.Daily full backups
C.All backups must be encrypted
D.At least three copies of the data
E.At least two different media types
AnswersD, E

Three copies include the original and two backups.

Why this answer

The 3-2-1 backup rule mandates at least three copies of the data (one primary and two backups) to ensure redundancy against failures. Option D directly states this requirement, which is the '3' in the rule.

Exam trap

ISC2 SSCP often tests the exact wording of the 3-2-1 rule, and candidates mistakenly think 'different geographic location' is a separate numbered component, but it is actually the '1' (one offsite copy) and not a distinct key component like the number of copies or media types.

733
MCQeasy

Which transport layer protocol is used by DNS for its queries and responses, and why is it appropriate?

A.UDP, because it guarantees packet ordering.
B.TCP, because it provides error checking and retransmission.
C.TCP, because reliability is critical for DNS resolution.
D.UDP, because it is connectionless and fast, suitable for short exchanges.
AnswerD

DNS queries are typically small and benefit from UDP's low overhead.

Why this answer

DNS primarily uses UDP for its fast, low-overhead queries. TCP is used for zone transfers or when responses exceed 512 bytes.

734
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps for configuring a Windows Firewall rule to allow inbound RDP traffic into the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

Windows Firewall: create inbound rule for port 3389, allow connection, select profiles, name it.

735
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. Which of the following is most likely a web browsing session?

A.192.168.1.100:49152 to 203.0.113.10:80
B.192.168.1.100:49154 to 74.125.224.72:443
C.192.168.1.100:49153 to 192.168.1.1:53
D.Both A and C
AnswerB

This is an HTTPS session, which is a secure web browsing session and the most likely type of web browsing.

Why this answer

It shows an HTTPS session to port 443, which is the most common web browsing protocol. Option A also shows an HTTP session (port 80), which is a web browsing session, but HTTPS is more prevalent. Option C shows a DNS query (port 53), which is not a web browsing session; it is a name resolution protocol.

Therefore, only B is a web browsing session, and option D is incorrect because it includes C.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the misconception that web browsing only involves HTTP (port 80) and ignores the essential DNS resolution step. Candidates may incorrectly rule out option C because DNS is not a web protocol, but it is an integral part of the browsing process.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because it is actually a valid web browsing session (HTTP on port 80), so it is not incorrect; the question asks for the most likely web browsing session, and A is correct. Option B is wrong because it uses HTTPS on port 443, which is also a valid web browsing session (secure web traffic), so it is not incorrect; the trap is that candidates might think only HTTP is web browsing, but HTTPS is equally valid. Option C is wrong because it is a DNS query (port 53) to a local router (192.168.1.1), which is a supporting service for web browsing but not the web browsing session itself; DNS resolution occurs before the actual HTTP/HTTPS request.

736
MCQmedium

An organization has implemented a PAM solution for managing privileged accounts. Which feature allows administrators to request temporary elevated access for a specific task?

A.Session recording
B.Just-in-time provisioning
C.Password vaulting
D.Role-based access control
AnswerB

JIT grants temporary privileges as needed.

Why this answer

Just-in-time (JIT) provisioning grants temporary privileges as needed, reducing the risk of standing privileges.

737
MCQmedium

Based on the exhibit, which type of attack is most likely being attempted?

A.Cross-site scripting (XSS)
B.SQL injection
C.Directory traversal
D.Buffer overflow
AnswerB

The parameter contains SQL syntax designed to drop a table, which is characteristic of a SQL injection attack.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows a URL parameter containing SQL injection syntax (DROP TABLE users;). The %22%3B%20 sequence decodes to "; " which is used to break out of a SQL query. The destination is an internal host (10.0.0.100), likely a web application server.

A status code of 500 indicates a server error, possibly due to the malicious input. Thus, SQL injection (Option D) is correct. The other options do not match the pattern.

738
MCQhard

An organization is implementing a federated identity system to allow employees to access a partner's cloud application using their corporate credentials. The solution must support single sign-on and use XML-based assertions. Which technology should be used?

A.Kerberos
B.SAML
C.OAuth 2.0
D.OpenID Connect
AnswerB

SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) uses XML assertions for federated SSO.

Why this answer

SAML uses XML-based assertions to exchange authentication and authorization data between an identity provider and a service provider.

739
MCQhard

A company is implementing a risk monitoring program. Which of the following is the best key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the vulnerability management process?

A.Mean time to remediate (MTTR) critical vulnerabilities
B.Percentage of systems with up-to-date patches
C.Number of vulnerability scans performed per month
D.Number of vulnerabilities discovered per scan
AnswerA

MTTR directly measures how quickly critical risks are addressed.

Why this answer

Mean time to remediate (MTTR) critical vulnerabilities directly measures how quickly the organization closes the window of exposure for the highest-risk flaws. This KPI reflects the efficiency of the remediation workflow—from detection through patching or compensating control deployment—and is a standard metric in frameworks like NIST SP 800-40 and the CVSS scoring system. A lower MTTR indicates a more effective vulnerability management process because it reduces the time attackers have to exploit known weaknesses.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse activity metrics (like scan frequency or patch coverage) with outcome metrics (like remediation speed), leading them to choose a KPI that sounds operational but does not directly measure the effectiveness of the vulnerability management process.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the percentage of systems with up-to-date patches is a compliance-oriented metric that does not account for the severity or criticality of vulnerabilities; a system could be fully patched against low-severity issues while still harboring an unpatched critical vulnerability. Option C is wrong because the number of vulnerability scans performed per month measures activity volume, not process effectiveness; frequent scans are useless if findings are not remediated promptly. Option D is wrong because the number of vulnerabilities discovered per scan is a measure of the attack surface or scan coverage, not the effectiveness of remediation; a high discovery count could indicate a thorough scan but says nothing about how quickly or completely those vulnerabilities are fixed.

740
MCQhard

An administrator notices that a certificate used for code signing is about to expire. The certificate is signed by a trusted root CA. What is the correct procedure to ensure continued trust?

A.Continue using the expired certificate until a new one is obtained
B.Extend the validity period of the existing certificate by modifying the certificate
C.Switch to a self-signed certificate
D.Request a new certificate from the same CA before expiration
AnswerD

This ensures continuity and trust from the same root.

Why this answer

The correct procedure is to request a new certificate from the same trusted root CA before the current certificate expires. This ensures that the new certificate is signed by the same trusted root, maintaining the chain of trust without interruption. Continuing to use an expired certificate would break trust validation, as clients and operating systems reject expired code-signing certificates to prevent execution of untrusted code.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think extending the validity period or using a self-signed certificate is acceptable, but ISC2 tests the understanding that only a certificate from the same trusted CA preserves the existing chain of trust without requiring manual trust configuration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because using an expired certificate violates trust models; code-signing certificates are validated for expiration, and expired certificates cause signature verification failures, leading to warnings or blocked execution. Option B is wrong because certificate validity periods cannot be extended by modifying the certificate; the validity is cryptographically bound by the CA's signature, and any alteration invalidates the signature. Option C is wrong because switching to a self-signed certificate breaks the chain of trust; self-signed certificates are not trusted by default and require manual installation on every client, which is impractical for code signing.

741
Multi-Selectmedium

An organization is planning to implement a Single Sign-On (SSO) solution. Which THREE of the following are commonly associated with SSO technologies?

Select 3 answers
A.Kerberos
B.Biometrics
C.Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
D.OAuth 2.0
E.SAML
AnswersA, D, E

Kerberos is a ticket-based SSO protocol.

Why this answer

Kerberos uses tickets for SSO, SAML provides federated SSO with XML assertions, and OAuth 2.0 is an authorization framework often used for SSO. Biometrics and PKI are not SSO technologies themselves.

742
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are key objectives of data classification?

Select 3 answers
A.Identify and protect sensitive information
B.Reduce storage costs by identifying duplicate data
C.Establish a foundation for risk management decisions
D.Determine the encryption algorithm to use
E.Comply with legal and regulatory requirements
AnswersA, C, E

Classification determines sensitivity and required protections.

Why this answer

Data classification is a foundational security control that directly supports the identification and protection of sensitive information. By categorizing data based on its sensitivity and criticality, organizations can apply appropriate security controls, such as access controls and encryption, to safeguard confidential data from unauthorized disclosure or modification.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests the distinction between the objectives of data classification and the subsequent actions or technologies that classification enables, leading candidates to mistakenly select options like 'determine encryption algorithm' as a direct objective.

743
MCQmedium

A security awareness training program aims to reduce successful phishing attacks. Which metric is most appropriate for measuring the effectiveness of this training?

A.Percentage of employees who click simulated phishing links
B.Training completion rate
C.Number of reported phishing emails
D.Number of security incidents caused by phishing
AnswerA

Correct. This directly measures the effectiveness of training in reducing risky behavior.

Why this answer

The primary goal is to reduce user susceptibility, so tracking the number of employees who click on simulated phishing links directly measures behavior change.

744
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is investigating a phishing incident that led to credential theft. Which TWO actions are appropriate during the containment phase? (Select TWO)

Select 2 answers
A.Reset the compromised user's password
B.Update the incident response plan
C.Conduct a lessons learned meeting
D.Restore the user's machine from backup
E.Block the phishing domain at the email gateway
AnswersA, E

Correct. Prevents further unauthorized access with stolen credentials.

Why this answer

Resetting the compromised user's password (A) immediately invalidates the stolen credentials, preventing the attacker from using them for further unauthorized access. This is a critical containment step because it cuts off the attacker's authenticated session and access to resources like email, VPN, or cloud services. Blocking the phishing domain at the email gateway (E) prevents additional users from receiving the phishing email, reducing the attack surface and stopping the spread of the incident.

Both actions directly limit the impact and scope of the breach during the containment phase.

Exam trap

In the SSCP exam, candidates often confuse the containment phase with recovery or other phases. A common mistake is selecting actions like restoring from backup (recovery) or conducting lessons learned (post-incident), instead of immediate containment steps such as password resets or blocking malicious infrastructure.

745
Multi-Selectmedium

A cloud security architect is designing a solution to protect workloads running in a public cloud. Which THREE of the following are key security controls that should be implemented?

Select 3 answers
A.Store encryption keys in the same cloud region as the data
B.Deploy a Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) tool
C.Disable multi-factor authentication for service accounts
D.Use a Cloud Workload Protection Platform (CWPP)
E.Implement IAM roles with least privilege
AnswersB, D, E

CSPM identifies and remediates misconfigurations.

Why this answer

IAM roles control permissions for cloud resources. CSPM detects misconfigurations. CWPP provides runtime protection for workloads.

746
MCQmedium

A company wants to track all hardware assets including serial numbers and locations. What is the primary repository for this information?

A.CMDB
B.Patch management tool
C.Vulnerability database
D.SIEM
AnswerA

Central repository for configuration items including hardware.

Why this answer

A Configuration Management Database (CMDB) stores details about hardware assets and their relationships.

747
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are valid methods for enforcing separation of duties in an IT environment? (Select the three best answers.)

Select 3 answers
A.Sharing administrative passwords among team members
B.Having the same person approve and implement a change
C.Implementing a two-person rule for critical changes
D.Monitoring and logging all privileged actions
E.Using role-based access control (RBAC) to assign permissions
AnswersC, D, E

The two-person rule requires approval from a second person, enforcing separation.

Why this answer

The two-person rule requires two authorized individuals to perform a critical change, ensuring that no single person has both the authority and the ability to execute a high-risk action. This directly enforces separation of duties by dividing the task into two distinct roles, such as one person approving and another implementing the change, which prevents fraud or errors from a single compromised account.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse monitoring and logging (Option D) as a direct enforcement method rather than a detective control, or think that RBAC (Option E) alone enforces separation of duties without considering that RBAC must be combined with workflow rules to prevent role conflicts.

748
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE of the following are standard phases of the incident response lifecycle?

Select 3 answers
A.Preparation
B.Containment, Eradication, and Recovery
C.Auditing
D.Budgeting
E.Detection and Analysis
AnswersA, B, E

Preparation is the first phase, involving planning and training.

Why this answer

Preparation is the foundational phase of the incident response lifecycle, as defined by NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2. This phase involves establishing policies, creating incident response plans, forming a CSIRT, and provisioning tools (e.g., SIEM, forensic workstations) before any incident occurs. Without proper preparation, all subsequent phases are significantly less effective.

Exam trap

ISC2 often tests candidates by including plausible-sounding business or audit terms (like Auditing or Budgeting) as distractors, expecting test-takers to confuse supporting activities with formal lifecycle phases defined in NIST or SANS frameworks.

749
Matchingmedium

Match each security control type to its example.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Firewall

IDS

Backup restoration

Warning signs

Why these pairings

Common security control categories: Preventive controls stop incidents (e.g., firewall), Detective controls identify incidents (e.g., camera), Corrective controls remediate (e.g., backup restore), Deterrent controls discourage (e.g., warning sign). Distractors mix these roles.

750
Multi-Selecteasy

An organization is planning to implement multi-factor authentication. Which TWO of the following are valid authentication factors?

Select 2 answers
A.Security question
B.Fingerprint
C.Password
D.Smart card
E.IP address
AnswersB, D

Biometric is something you are.

Why this answer

The three categories are something you know, something you have, and something you are. Fingerprint (something you are) and smart card (something you have) are valid factors.

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