CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 (220-1201) — Questions 9761020

1020 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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976
MCQeasy

A user reports that their laptop screen flickers intermittently, but the flickering stops when they adjust the screen angle. What is the most likely hardware issue?

A.A failing backlight LED
B.A defective graphics chip
C.A loose or damaged display cable
D.Incorrect display refresh rate setting
AnswerC

Movement of the screen can temporarily reconnect or disconnect the internal ribbon cable, causing intermittent flickering.

Why this answer

Flickering that changes with screen angle is a classic symptom of a damaged or loose display cable (LVDS or eDP ribbon) that connects the screen to the motherboard. This is common in laptops due to hinge wear. The correct answer identifies the cable as the likely culprit.

977
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a new VM for a developer who needs to test software on Windows 10. The host runs Hyper-V on Windows Server 2019. The developer requests that the VM have 8 GB RAM and 4 virtual CPUs. After creating the VM, the technician finds that the VM will not start and displays an error: 'The virtual machine could not be started because the hypervisor is not running.' What is the most likely solution?

A.Install the latest Windows updates and reboot the host.
B.Enable Intel VT-x or AMD-V in the host’s BIOS/UEFI settings.
C.Change the VM’s generation from Generation 2 to Generation 1.
D.Reinstall the Hyper-V role from Server Manager.
AnswerB

Hyper-V requires hardware virtualization extensions to be enabled. If they are disabled, the hypervisor cannot start, and enabling them resolves the issue.

Why this answer

Hyper-V requires the Windows Hyper-V role to be installed and the hardware virtualization features (VT-x/AMD-V) to be enabled in the BIOS. If the hypervisor is not running, it is often because virtualization is disabled in BIOS or the Hyper-V role is not properly configured. The correct answer addresses enabling virtualization in BIOS.

978
MCQeasy

A technician is setting up a new file server with four 4 TB SATA SSDs. The customer requires maximum read performance and fault tolerance for up to two drive failures. Which RAID level should the technician choose?

A.RAID 0
B.RAID 1
C.RAID 5
D.RAID 6
AnswerD

Correct. RAID 6 uses dual parity and can survive two simultaneous drive failures, with excellent read performance.

Why this answer

RAID 6 stripes data and uses dual parity, allowing up to two drive failures while maintaining good read performance. This question tests knowledge of RAID levels and their fault tolerance capabilities.

979
MCQhard

A user complains that their external monitor connected via VGA shows a slightly blurry image with faint horizontal lines. The monitor works perfectly with another computer using the same VGA cable. What is the most likely cause?

A.The monitor's resolution is set too high for VGA
B.There is a ground loop between the computer and monitor
C.The VGA port on the computer has bent pins
D.The graphics driver is corrupt
AnswerB

A ground loop can cause interference in analog VGA signals, resulting in blurriness and horizontal lines.

Why this answer

The faint horizontal lines and blurry image are classic symptoms of a ground loop, where a difference in electrical potential between the computer and monitor causes interference on the analog VGA signal. Since the monitor works perfectly with another computer using the same cable, the cable and monitor are exonerated, isolating the issue to the computer's grounding or power supply.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between analog interference (ground loops) and digital signal issues (bent pins, driver corruption), trapping candidates who assume any display artifact must be a hardware or driver problem rather than an electrical one.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because setting the resolution too high for VGA would typically cause a completely missing or scrambled image, not faint horizontal lines, and VGA can support resolutions like 1920x1080 without such artifacts. Option C is wrong because bent pins would cause missing colors, a complete loss of signal, or a distorted image, not faint horizontal lines, and the cable works fine on another computer. Option D is wrong because a corrupt graphics driver would cause system-wide display issues like artifacts, crashes, or incorrect resolutions, not a stable but blurry image with horizontal lines specific to an external monitor.

980
MCQeasy

A customer reports that their computer beeps three times, pauses, then repeats, and nothing is displayed on the screen. What does this POST code typically indicate?

A.CPU failure
B.Memory error
C.Graphics card failure
D.Power supply failure
AnswerB

Three beeps commonly indicate a memory issue, such as a bad or unseated DIMM.

Why this answer

Three beeps in many BIOS versions (especially AMI and Award) indicate a memory error, such as a faulty or improperly seated RAM module. This is a standard POST diagnostic code. The question tests basic familiarity with beep codes.

981
MCQmedium

A user reports that their monitor displays a distorted image with wavy lines. The monitor uses a VGA connection. The technician checks the cable and finds it is not fully tightened. After securing the thumbscrews, the image is still distorted. What is the most likely cause?

A.The monitor's refresh rate is set too high
B.The VGA cable has a broken pin
C.The graphics driver needs to be updated
D.The monitor's power cable is loose
AnswerB

A broken or bent pin in the VGA connector can cause signal loss or interference, leading to distorted images.

Why this answer

VGA is an analog signal and can suffer from interference. Damaged or loose pins in the VGA connector can cause distortion even if the cable appears secure. The pins may be bent or broken.

982
MCQeasy

A technician needs to install Windows 10 on a new PC with a 2 TB hard drive. The motherboard supports UEFI with GPT. Which partition scheme and boot mode should be used to support the full drive capacity?

A.UEFI with MBR
B.Legacy BIOS with GPT
C.UEFI with GPT
D.Legacy BIOS with MBR
AnswerC

UEFI with GPT supports drives over 2 TB and is the required configuration for modern Windows installations.

Why this answer

UEFI requires GPT partition table to boot, and GPT supports drives larger than 2 TB. Legacy BIOS with MBR cannot address beyond 2 TB. This question reinforces the relationship between UEFI and GPT for large drives.

983
MCQmedium

During a deployment of a new multifunction printer, the technician needs to ensure the device can scan documents directly to a shared network folder on a Windows server. Which protocol must be configured on the printer to support this?

A.FTP
B.SNMP
C.SMB
D.SMTP
AnswerC

SMB is the protocol Windows uses for file and printer sharing; configuring it on the printer allows direct scanning to a shared folder.

Why this answer

This question tests knowledge of network protocols used for scanning to a network folder. SMB (Server Message Block) is the standard protocol for file sharing in Windows environments. FTP or email would require additional services, and SNMP is for management only.

984
MCQmedium

A user reports that their internet connection is extremely slow, and they notice the modem's 'DSL' light is blinking. They have a DSL connection. What does the blinking DSL light indicate?

A.The modem is receiving data.
B.The modem is not connected to the phone line.
C.The modem is trying to establish a DSL sync.
D.The modem has a firmware error.
AnswerC

A blinking DSL light means the modem is in the process of synchronizing with the DSLAM.

Why this answer

A blinking DSL light on a modem indicates that the modem is actively attempting to establish synchronization (sync) with the DSLAM (Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer) at the provider's central office. This process involves training the line to negotiate a stable connection speed and protocol, such as ADSL or VDSL, and typically takes 30–60 seconds. A solid DSL light confirms successful sync, while a blinking light means the handshake is still in progress or has failed.

Exam trap

The CompTIA A+ exam often tests the distinction between a blinking light (indicating an active process like sync negotiation) and a solid light (indicating a stable connection), leading candidates to confuse it with data activity or a simple cable fault.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a blinking DSL light does not indicate data reception; data activity is shown by the 'Internet' or 'Data' LED, not the DSL sync light. Option B is wrong because if the modem were not connected to the phone line, the DSL light would typically be off entirely, not blinking; a blinking light implies the modem is detecting electrical signals on the line but cannot complete the sync process. Option D is wrong because a firmware error would usually cause the modem to fail to boot or show a different pattern (e.g., all lights flashing or no lights), not a specific blinking DSL light during the sync attempt.

985
MCQeasy

A user reports that their wired connection is intermittent. They are using a Cat5e cable connected to a 1000BASE-T switch. The link light on the switch port is blinking rapidly. What is the most likely cause of the intermittent connection?

A.The switch port is set to half-duplex
B.The cable is damaged or has a loose connector
C.The network card is configured for 10 Mbps
D.The switch is overloaded with traffic
AnswerB

A damaged cable or loose connector can cause intermittent connectivity, leading to rapid link light blinking as the link drops and re-establishes.

Why this answer

A rapidly blinking link light typically indicates active data transmission, but when paired with an intermittent connection, it often points to physical-layer issues. A damaged Cat5e cable or loose connector can cause frequent link flaps and CRC errors, leading to the rapid blinking as the switch repeatedly attempts to re-establish the link. This is the most likely cause because the symptom (blinking link light) aligns with physical-layer problems rather than configuration or load issues.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often associate a blinking link light with traffic activity, but in this context, the rapid blinking indicates link flapping due to physical-layer issues, not normal data transmission.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because half-duplex on a 1000BASE-T link would cause excessive collisions and late collisions, not a rapidly blinking link light; the switch would likely show a steady link light with high error counts. Option C is wrong because a network card configured for 10 Mbps would still establish a link at that speed, and the switch port would auto-negotiate down to 10 Mbps, resulting in a steady link light (not rapid blinking) unless there is a duplex mismatch. Option D is wrong because an overloaded switch would cause packet drops and high latency, but the link light would remain solid (not blink rapidly) as the physical link remains stable; rapid blinking specifically indicates link state changes.

986
MCQhard

A technician is configuring a router with two interfaces: WAN (DHCP from ISP) and LAN (static IP 10.0.0.1/24). The technician sets the LAN subnet mask to 255.255.255.0. A workstation is assigned IP 10.0.0.100/24 and can ping the router, but cannot access the internet. The router's WAN interface has IP 203.0.113.5/30. What is the most likely missing configuration?

A.The workstation's default gateway is set to 10.0.0.1.
B.The router lacks a default route pointing to the ISP's gateway.
C.The WAN subnet mask should be 255.255.255.0.
D.The LAN subnet mask should be 255.255.0.0.
AnswerB

Without a default route, the router does not know where to send traffic destined for the internet, even though it has a WAN IP.

Why this answer

The workstation can ping the router's LAN interface (10.0.0.1), confirming Layer 2 and basic IP connectivity on the LAN. However, for the workstation to reach the internet, the router must have a default route (0.0.0.0/0) pointing to the ISP's next-hop gateway (likely 203.0.113.6, the other end of the /30 WAN link). Without this route, the router does not know where to forward packets destined for external networks, even though the WAN interface has a valid IP from DHCP.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a workstation being able to ping the router's LAN interface implies full internet connectivity, when in fact the router itself lacks a route to forward traffic beyond its directly connected networks.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the workstation's default gateway is already correctly set to 10.0.0.1 (the router's LAN IP), which is why the workstation can ping the router; this is not the missing piece. Option C is wrong because the WAN subnet mask of 255.255.255.252 (/30) is correct for a point-to-point link with only two usable addresses (203.0.113.5 and 203.0.113.6), and changing it to 255.255.255.0 would cause routing and broadcast issues. Option D is wrong because the LAN subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 (/24) is appropriate for the 10.0.0.0/24 network; using 255.255.0.0 would expand the broadcast domain unnecessarily and could cause the workstation to ARP for addresses outside the local subnet.

987
MCQmedium

A small office has an all-in-one printer that supports scanning to email, but users report that scanned documents are not being delivered. The printer's network settings show a valid IP address, and the SMTP server address is correct. What should the technician check next to resolve this issue?

A.Verify the printer's DNS settings
B.Check the SMTP authentication credentials configured on the printer
C.Replace the printer's toner cartridge
D.Reboot the network switch
AnswerB

Incorrect SMTP credentials will prevent the printer from authenticating with the mail server, blocking email delivery.

Why this answer

This question tests understanding of multifunction device network configuration, specifically scanning to email. The most likely cause is incorrect authentication credentials for the SMTP server, as the printer must log in to send email. Checking network connectivity or DNS would be secondary if the IP is valid and the server address is correct.

988
MCQeasy

A customer says their external hard drive is not recognized by their laptop. The drive uses a USB-C connector and the laptop has both USB-A and USB-C ports. Which connector type should be used to ensure the fastest possible data transfer?

A.USB-A to USB-B cable
B.USB-C to USB-C cable
C.USB-A to USB-C adapter
D.Micro-USB to USB-C cable
AnswerB

Using a USB-C to USB-C cable connects the drive directly to the laptop's USB-C port, supporting the fastest data transfer speeds.

Why this answer

USB-C supports faster data transfer rates (up to 10 Gbps or more) compared to USB-A's typical 5 Gbps, and it is the correct connector for the drive. Using a USB-A port would require an adapter and may limit speed. This question tests knowledge of USB connector generations and their performance capabilities.

989
MCQhard

A company deploys tablets for inventory management. The tablets need to connect to a Bluetooth barcode scanner and also sync data to a cloud server over Wi-Fi. The Bluetooth connection drops every few minutes. What is the most likely cause?

A.The barcode scanner's battery is low.
B.The tablets are too far from the barcode scanner.
C.Wi-Fi and Bluetooth are interfering because both use the 2.4 GHz band.
D.The cloud server is not responding to sync requests.
AnswerC

Both operate in the same frequency; heavy Wi-Fi traffic can cause Bluetooth packet loss and disconnections.

Why this answer

The most likely cause is that both Wi-Fi and Bluetooth operate in the 2.4 GHz ISM band, and when a tablet is actively using Wi-Fi to sync data to a cloud server, the radio can cause interference with the Bluetooth signal, leading to periodic disconnections. This is a well-known coexistence issue, especially in dense environments where both radios are active simultaneously.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that Bluetooth and Wi-Fi are completely independent radios, when in fact they share the same 2.4 GHz spectrum and can interfere with each other, especially when both are active simultaneously.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a low battery on the barcode scanner would typically cause a gradual degradation of range or a complete shutdown, not a periodic drop every few minutes. Option B is wrong because the tablets are deployed for inventory management and are presumably within the typical 10-meter Class 2 Bluetooth range; the intermittent nature of the drop points to interference rather than a static distance issue. Option D is wrong because the cloud server not responding would affect data sync, not the Bluetooth connection between the tablet and the scanner; the Bluetooth link is independent of cloud server availability.

990
MCQmedium

A user reports that they can send emails but cannot receive any. The email client is configured with SMTP for outgoing and POP3 for incoming. The server is reachable. Which port is most likely blocked on the firewall for the incoming mail protocol?

A.Port 25
B.Port 110
C.Port 443
D.Port 53
AnswerB

Port 110 is the default port for POP3, used for receiving email; if blocked, incoming mail fails.

Why this answer

The user can send emails (SMTP works) but cannot receive them, and the incoming protocol is POP3. POP3 uses port 110 by default. Since the server is reachable, a firewall blocking port 110 would prevent the email client from retrieving incoming messages, while SMTP on port 25 remains unaffected.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between SMTP (port 25) and POP3 (port 110) by describing a scenario where only one direction of email flow is broken, leading candidates to mistakenly focus on the outgoing port.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because port 25 is used for SMTP (outgoing mail), and the user can already send emails, so this port is not blocked. Option C is wrong because port 443 is used for HTTPS (secure web traffic), not for POP3 or email retrieval. Option D is wrong because port 53 is used for DNS (domain name resolution), not for incoming mail protocols.

991
MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a network drop where the link light on the switch port is solid but the computer shows 'Unidentified Network'. The cable run is 80 meters and uses Cat5e. The technician tests the cable and finds that pins 1 and 2 are swapped with pins 3 and 6 at one end. What is the most likely result?

A.The cable will work at 100 Mbps but not at 1000 Mbps.
B.The cable will not work at all because it is a crossover cable.
C.The cable will cause intermittent connectivity.
D.The cable is wired as a crossover, which may cause the 'Unidentified Network' if Auto-MDIX is disabled.
AnswerD

A crossover cable can cause network issues if the switch does not have Auto-MDIX enabled, leading to an 'Unidentified Network' error.

Why this answer

This question tests understanding of Ethernet wiring errors. The correct answer is that a swap of pairs 1-2 and 3-6 creates a crossover cable, which may still work with Auto-MDIX, but if not, it can cause a 'No Link' or 'Unidentified Network' error.

992
MCQhard

A company's file server uses a RAID 5 array with five 4 TB hard drives. One drive fails and is replaced. During the rebuild, the server crashes and the RAID controller reports that the array is 'Failed'. What is the most likely reason for this catastrophic failure?

A.The new drive was not properly formatted before installation.
B.The RAID controller cache battery is dead.
C.A second drive failed during the rebuild process.
D.The rebuild was attempted while the server was under heavy load.
AnswerC

RAID 5 can only tolerate one drive failure. If a second drive fails during rebuild, the array loses redundancy and fails completely, resulting in data loss.

Why this answer

In RAID 5, a single drive failure is survivable, but during rebuild, the remaining drives are under heavy read stress. If another drive fails or has an unrecoverable read error, the array fails. This is known as a 'double fault' during rebuild, a common risk with large-capacity drives.

993
MCQmedium

A user complains that their new laptop only sees 2.4 GHz Wi-Fi networks, not the 5 GHz network that was previously visible on their old phone. The router is dual-band and configured to broadcast both bands. What is the most likely reason the laptop cannot see the 5 GHz network?

A.The router’s 5 GHz radio is set to a channel not supported by the laptop
B.The laptop’s wireless adapter does not support 5 GHz frequencies
C.The 5 GHz SSID is hidden
D.Interference from microwave ovens is blocking the 5 GHz signal
AnswerB

If the adapter only works on 2.4 GHz, it will never see 5 GHz networks, regardless of router settings.

Why this answer

The most likely reason is that the laptop's wireless adapter only supports 2.4 GHz frequencies. Since the old phone could see the 5 GHz network, the router's 5 GHz radio is functioning correctly, but the laptop's hardware lacks the capability to detect or connect to 5 GHz bands, which is a common limitation in budget or older laptops.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that a hidden SSID or channel mismatch causes a network to be completely invisible, but the most likely reason a device cannot see a specific band is lack of hardware support for that frequency.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the router's 5 GHz radio were set to an unsupported channel, the laptop might still see the network but fail to connect; however, the complaint is that the network is not visible at all, which points to a hardware incompatibility rather than a channel mismatch. Option C is wrong because a hidden SSID still broadcasts beacon frames (with the SSID set to null), and the laptop would still detect the network as a hidden or unnamed network; the user would see an 'Other Network' entry, not a complete absence of the 5 GHz band. Option D is wrong because microwave ovens operate at 2.4 GHz, not 5 GHz, and interference from a microwave would affect the 2.4 GHz band, not the 5 GHz band; moreover, interference causes poor performance, not the complete invisibility of the network.

994
MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a smartphone that can send and receive text messages but cannot make or receive phone calls. The device shows full signal bars. Which network setting is most likely misconfigured?

A.The device's data roaming is turned off.
B.The device's preferred network type is set to 'LTE only' and VoLTE is disabled.
C.The device's Bluetooth is enabled.
D.The device's airplane mode is turned on.
AnswerB

On some networks, 'LTE only' without VoLTE prevents voice calls because the network doesn't fall back to 3G/2G for voice.

Why this answer

When a smartphone shows full signal bars but cannot make or receive voice calls while SMS works, the most likely cause is that the device is set to 'LTE only' as its preferred network type and VoLTE (Voice over LTE) is disabled. SMS can be carried over LTE via IMS (IP Multimedia Subsystem) or fallback to circuit-switched networks, but voice calls require either VoLTE or a circuit-switched fallback (CSFB) to 2G/3G. With 'LTE only' selected and VoLTE off, the device cannot initiate or accept voice calls because it lacks a circuit-switched connection and has no fallback path.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the misconception that full signal bars guarantee voice call capability, but the trap here is that signal bars only indicate LTE signal strength, not the availability of a voice-capable network layer (circuit-switched or IMS).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because data roaming controls cellular data usage when outside the home network; it does not affect voice call capability on the home network or when roaming, and SMS/voice are independent of data roaming settings. Option C is wrong because Bluetooth is a short-range wireless technology for peripherals (headsets, speakers) and does not impact the device's ability to make or receive cellular voice calls. Option D is wrong because enabling airplane mode disables all wireless radios (cellular, Wi-Fi, Bluetooth), which would prevent both SMS and calls, contradicting the symptom that SMS works.

995
MCQhard

A large organization uses multiple network printers. One printer consistently prints pages with a faint ghost image of the previous page's content. The printer has been recently serviced with a new toner cartridge and drum. What component is most likely causing this ghosting?

A.The transfer roller is worn
B.The fuser assembly is failing
C.The toner cartridge is low on toner
D.The paper path has a buildup of toner
AnswerB

A failing fuser can leave residual toner on the drum, which then transfers to the next page as a ghost image. This is a common cause of ghosting.

Why this answer

Ghosting—a faint duplicate of a previous image—is often caused by a failing fuser that does not properly clean residual toner from the drum or by a worn cleaning blade. Even with new consumables, the fuser or cleaning assembly may be worn. The fuser's heat and pressure can cause toner to stick and transfer later.

996
MCQmedium

A company is deploying 10 Gigabit Ethernet in a data center and needs cabling that supports this speed over a distance of 50 meters. Which cable type should be selected?

A.Cat5e
B.Cat6
C.Cat6a
D.Cat3
AnswerC

Cat6a supports 10 Gbps up to 100 meters, making it the best choice for 50-meter runs in a data center.

Why this answer

Cat6a (Augmented Category 6) cabling is the correct choice because it supports 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10GBASE-T) over distances up to 100 meters, easily covering the required 50 meters. Cat6a uses thicker insulation and tighter twists to reduce alien crosstalk, which is critical for maintaining signal integrity at 10 Gbps over longer runs.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that Cat6 is sufficient for 10GBASE-T at any distance, but the trap is that Cat6 only supports 10 Gbps up to 55 meters under strict conditions, while Cat6a is the guaranteed standard for 100 meters.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Cat5e is rated only for 1000BASE-T (1 Gbps) up to 100 meters and cannot reliably support 10 Gigabit Ethernet at any distance. Option B is wrong because Cat6 supports 10GBASE-T only up to 55 meters under ideal conditions, but it is not guaranteed at 50 meters due to alien crosstalk issues, making Cat6a the safer and standards-compliant choice. Option D is wrong because Cat3 is an obsolete category designed for 10BASE-T (10 Mbps) and cannot handle any modern Gigabit or 10 Gigabit Ethernet speeds.

997
MCQeasy

A hospital needs to connect multiple buildings across a large campus to share patient records and imaging data. The network must be private, high-speed, and cover the entire campus. Which network type should be implemented?

A.Local Area Network (LAN)
B.Wide Area Network (WAN)
C.Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
D.Personal Area Network (PAN)
AnswerC

A MAN is ideal for connecting multiple buildings within a campus or city, providing high-speed private connectivity.

Why this answer

A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is the correct choice because it is designed to interconnect multiple locations across a city or large campus, providing private, high-speed connectivity. In this scenario, the hospital requires a network that spans beyond a single building but is confined to a campus-sized area, which fits the MAN scope. Technologies like Metro Ethernet or MPLS can deliver the necessary bandwidth for sharing patient records and imaging data securely.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a LAN can cover a campus, but the key distinction is that a LAN is limited to a single broadcast domain within one building, while a MAN is required for multiple buildings across a campus-sized area.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Local Area Network (LAN) covers a single building or a small geographic area, such as one floor or office, and cannot span multiple buildings across a large campus. Option B is wrong because a Wide Area Network (WAN) connects geographically dispersed sites across cities, countries, or continents, which is overkill for a campus environment and typically incurs higher costs and latency. Option D is wrong because a Personal Area Network (PAN) covers only a very short range (e.g., a few meters) for personal devices like Bluetooth headphones or smartphones, making it unsuitable for inter-building connectivity.

998
MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a network where a user cannot access the internet. The user's workstation has an IP of 192.168.1.15, subnet mask 255.255.255.0, and default gateway 192.168.1.1. The technician pings 192.168.1.1 successfully but cannot ping 8.8.8.8. What is the most likely cause?

A.The workstation's subnet mask is incorrect.
B.The router's WAN connection is down or misconfigured.
C.The DNS server is not configured on the workstation.
D.The workstation's IP address is a duplicate.
AnswerB

Correct. Since local connectivity works but external fails, the router likely has no internet connection.

Why this answer

Successful pings to the default gateway (192.168.1.1) confirm that Layer 2 and Layer 3 connectivity within the local subnet is working, and that the workstation's IP, subnet mask, and default gateway are correctly configured. Failure to ping 8.8.8.8 (a public IP) indicates that traffic is not being routed beyond the local network, which points to an issue with the router's WAN connection or its routing configuration to the internet.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between local connectivity (gateway reachable) and external connectivity (WAN/routing issue), leading candidates to incorrectly blame workstation configuration when the problem is upstream.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the subnet mask 255.255.255.0 is correct for the 192.168.1.0/24 network, and a mismatch would prevent pinging the gateway, which succeeded. Option C is wrong because DNS is used for name resolution, not for IP-level connectivity; pinging 8.8.8.8 by IP address bypasses DNS entirely. Option D is wrong because an IP address duplicate would cause intermittent connectivity and ARP conflicts, but the successful ping to the gateway shows no such conflict on the local network.

999
MCQmedium

A technician is configuring a new email server for a small business. Employees need to send and receive email from their desktop clients (Outlook) and also access email via a web browser. Which combination of protocols should the technician configure on the server to support both client types?

A.SMTP, POP3, and HTTP
B.FTP, SMTP, and DNS
C.IMAP, SNMP, and HTTPS
D.DHCP, SMTP, and POP3
AnswerA

SMTP sends email, POP3 receives it on clients, and HTTP provides webmail access.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because SMTP is the standard protocol for sending outgoing email, POP3 allows desktop clients like Outlook to download and store emails locally, and HTTP enables web browser access to the email server (often via a webmail interface). This combination supports both client types: Outlook uses SMTP/POP3, while a browser uses HTTP to access the webmail service.

Exam trap

The exam often tests the misconception that IMAP is required for webmail access, but HTTP alone can serve a webmail interface, and POP3 is sufficient for desktop clients that do not need server-side folder synchronization.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because FTP is used for file transfers, not email delivery or retrieval, and DNS resolves domain names but does not handle email sending or receiving. Option C is wrong because SNMP is a network management protocol for monitoring devices, not for email access; while IMAP is valid for email retrieval, SNMP is irrelevant here. Option D is wrong because DHCP assigns IP addresses dynamically and is not an email protocol; although SMTP and POP3 are correct for email, the inclusion of DHCP makes this combination invalid for the given requirement.

1000
MCQmedium

A technician is installing a new network switch in a server room. The switch has 48 ports and needs to connect to the existing network backbone via fiber optic cable. The technician has a 10GBASE-SR SFP+ module. Which type of fiber optic cable should be used to ensure compatibility?

A.Single-mode fiber (OS2)
B.Multimode fiber (OM3)
C.Cat6a twisted pair
D.Coaxial cable
AnswerB

10GBASE-SR is designed for multimode fiber, and OM3 supports 10 Gbps up to 300 meters.

Why this answer

10GBASE-SR is designed for multimode fiber (MMF) over short distances, typically up to 300 meters. Using single-mode fiber (SMF) would not work because the transceiver is optimized for multimode. The correct answer is multimode fiber (OM3 or OM4).

1001
MCQhard

A technician is repairing a tablet that has a cracked digitizer. The LCD panel is intact and displays correctly. After replacing the digitizer, the touch input is unresponsive. What is the most likely oversight?

A.The digitizer is not compatible with the tablet model.
B.The digitizer flex cable is not fully seated in the connector.
C.The LCD panel was damaged during the repair.
D.The tablet's touch controller needs to be calibrated.
AnswerB

A partially seated cable will prevent touch input while the display works. Reseating the cable usually fixes it.

Why this answer

The digitizer flex cable must be fully seated and locked into its connector on the tablet's mainboard to establish electrical continuity for touch signals. If the cable is loose or not properly inserted, the touch controller cannot communicate with the digitizer, resulting in a completely unresponsive touch input despite the LCD display functioning correctly.

Exam trap

The CompTIA A+ exam often tests the misconception that a cracked digitizer implies LCD damage or that software calibration can fix a hardware connection issue, leading candidates to overlook the simple mechanical step of ensuring the flex cable is fully seated.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the digitizer were incompatible, the tablet would likely not power on or would show other display anomalies, but the LCD panel works fine; compatibility issues usually manifest as incorrect touch mapping or no response at all, but the most common oversight after a successful physical replacement is a loose connection. Option C is wrong because the LCD panel is intact and displays correctly, so damaging it during repair would cause visual defects (e.g., lines, black spots, or no image), not a touch input issue. Option D is wrong because touch controller calibration is a software-level adjustment for accuracy, not a fix for a complete lack of touch response; if the digitizer is properly connected, the touch controller will detect input without calibration, and calibration is only needed for offset or sensitivity tuning.

1002
MCQeasy

A user reports that their Android smartphone's touchscreen is unresponsive after they dropped it. The screen is not cracked, and the device powers on normally. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the touchscreen issue?

A.The LCD panel is damaged
B.The digitizer is damaged
C.The battery is swollen
D.The operating system is corrupted
AnswerB

The digitizer is the touch-sensitive layer; a drop can separate or break it, causing unresponsiveness even if the glass is intact.

Why this answer

A drop can easily damage the digitizer layer, which is responsible for detecting touch input, even if the glass display remains intact. The LCD/OLED panel may still function for display, but without a working digitizer, touch input will not register.

1003
MCQeasy

A user has an iPhone that will not install a new app from the App Store, displaying a message that the app is 'unable to be installed'. The device has plenty of free storage. What should a technician check first?

A.Check if the app is compatible with the iOS version.
B.Verify that the Apple ID is not locked or restricted.
C.Reset the phone's network settings.
D.Perform a factory reset of the device.
AnswerB

Correct. A locked or restricted Apple ID can prevent app installations, even with free space.

Why this answer

When an iPhone has sufficient storage but fails to install an app with an 'unable to be installed' message, the most common cause is an issue with the Apple ID account, such as being locked, restricted, or having payment problems. Apple's App Store installation process requires a valid, unlocked Apple ID to authenticate the download and verify entitlements. Checking the Apple ID status is the first logical step before exploring other potential causes.

Exam trap

The 220-1201 exam often tests the candidate's ability to prioritize account-level checks over device-level troubleshooting when the error message is generic and storage is confirmed available, leading many to incorrectly jump to compatibility or network settings first.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because app compatibility with the iOS version typically results in a 'requires iOS X or later' message, not a generic 'unable to be installed' error, and compatibility checks are secondary to account status. Option C is wrong because resetting network settings addresses connectivity issues like Wi-Fi or cellular data problems, but the error message indicates a failure at the installation authorization stage, not a network reachability problem. Option D is wrong because performing a factory reset is a drastic, last-resort troubleshooting step that erases all data and settings; it is not appropriate as a first check for an installation failure that is likely account-related.

1004
MCQmedium

A company's web server is hosted internally and must be accessible from the internet using the domain name www.company.com. The public IP address of the router is 203.0.113.5. Which two network services must be correctly configured to make this work?

A.DNS and DHCP
B.DNS and NAT
C.NAT and ARP
D.DHCP and NAT
AnswerB

DNS resolves the domain to the public IP, and NAT (with port forwarding) directs traffic to the internal server.

Why this answer

DNS is required to resolve the domain name www.company.com to the public IP address 203.0.113.5, so external users can reach the router. NAT (specifically destination NAT or port forwarding) is needed to translate the public IP and port to the internal private IP address of the web server, allowing inbound traffic to reach the internal host.

Exam trap

A common misconception is that DHCP is required for internet access, but here the internal server already has a static IP; the key missing services are DNS for name resolution and NAT for address translation from public to private.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DHCP assigns IP addresses to internal clients but does not enable external access to an internal web server; DNS alone cannot route traffic into the internal network. Option C is wrong because ARP resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses on a local network segment, but it does not provide name resolution or translate public-to-private addresses for internet access. Option D is wrong because DHCP provides local IP configuration, not inbound translation or name resolution; NAT alone without DNS would not allow users to reach the server by domain name.

1005
MCQeasy

A user complains that text on their new 27-inch 4K monitor appears very small and hard to read. The display is set to its native resolution. What is the most effective way to make text readable without sacrificing image quality?

A.Reduce the screen resolution to 1920x1080
B.Increase the display scaling percentage in OS settings
C.Replace the monitor with a lower-resolution model
D.Adjust the monitor's physical sharpness setting
AnswerB

Scaling enlarges text and UI while keeping native resolution, maintaining clarity.

Why this answer

At the native 4K resolution (3840x2160), pixels are densely packed, making UI elements physically tiny. Increasing the display scaling percentage (e.g., to 150% or 200%) instructs the OS to render text and icons at a larger logical size while keeping the monitor at its native resolution, preserving full sharpness and detail. This is the standard solution for high-DPI displays.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the misconception that reducing resolution is the only way to enlarge text, trapping candidates who overlook the scaling feature designed specifically for high-DPI displays.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because reducing the resolution to 1920x1080 forces the monitor into a non-native mode, causing interpolation (blurring) and loss of image sharpness, which defeats the purpose of a 4K display. Option C is wrong because replacing the monitor is unnecessary and wasteful; scaling solves the readability issue without sacrificing the high-resolution benefits. Option D is wrong because the monitor's physical sharpness setting adjusts edge enhancement or contrast, not the size of UI elements; it cannot make text larger and may introduce artifacts.

1006
MCQeasy

A user reports that their new SSD is not recognized by the system. The drive is properly connected and powered. Which UEFI setting should be checked to ensure the drive is detected?

A.Enable Secure Boot
B.Set SATA mode to AHCI or RAID as appropriate
C.Disable the TPM chip
D.Change boot order to list the SSD first
AnswerB

The SATA controller mode must match the drive's requirements; incorrect mode can cause the drive to be invisible.

Why this answer

The correct answer is to check the SATA configuration mode. If the SATA controller is set to RAID or AHCI when the drive requires the other, or if it's disabled, the drive may not be detected. This tests understanding of how UEFI/BIOS settings affect hardware enumeration.

1007
MCQhard

A server motherboard in a data center fails to boot after a power outage. The system has dual power supplies and ECC RAM. When power is restored, the motherboard's POST beeps continuously in a pattern that does not match any known code for that manufacturer. Which component is most likely causing this issue?

A.One of the power supplies is faulty
B.The motherboard's VRM has been damaged by a power surge
C.The ECC RAM has detected an uncorrectable error
D.The CMOS battery has been depleted
AnswerB

A damaged VRM can cause irregular power delivery to the CPU and other components, resulting in non-standard beep codes and failure to boot.

Why this answer

Continuous beeps that do not match standard codes often indicate a power-related issue, such as a failed voltage regulator module (VRM) on the motherboard. Power surges can damage the VRM circuitry, leading to erratic POST behavior. The dual PSUs may be fine, but the motherboard's power regulation has failed.

1008
MCQmedium

A small office has a desktop PC that will not display any video. The motherboard has an integrated VGA port and a PCIe x16 slot that is empty. The system powers on, fans spin, but the monitor connected to the VGA port shows 'No Signal'. What is the most likely cause?

A.The monitor is faulty
B.The CPU lacks integrated graphics
C.The RAM is not properly seated
D.The motherboard's CMOS battery is dead
AnswerC

Without working RAM, the motherboard cannot complete POST, and no video output is generated, even if the CPU and integrated graphics are functional.

Why this answer

If no dedicated GPU is installed and the integrated graphics are not working, the issue could be that the CPU does not have integrated graphics, or the integrated graphics are disabled in BIOS. However, the most common cause when the system powers on but no video is that the RAM is not properly seated or is faulty, as the system cannot complete POST without working memory.

1009
MCQeasy

A company wants to consolidate five physical servers into one host to reduce power and cooling costs. Each server runs a different operating system. Which virtualization technology should be used to achieve this?

A.Install a Type 2 hypervisor on each physical server
B.Use a Type 1 hypervisor like VMware ESXi on a single host
C.Migrate all applications to a single OS using compatibility layers
D.Use containerization instead of virtualization
AnswerB

A Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on hardware, allowing multiple guest OSes to run efficiently on one physical server.

Why this answer

Server consolidation uses a Type 1 hypervisor (bare-metal) to run multiple VMs directly on hardware, maximizing resource utilization. This is the standard approach for data center virtualization.

1010
MCQmedium

A user reports that their PC boots to a black screen with a blinking cursor after installing a new SSD. The BIOS detects the SSD, but the system does not load the operating system. What is the most likely cause?

A.The SSD is not compatible with the motherboard.
B.The boot order in BIOS is set to the old drive first.
C.The SATA cable is faulty.
D.The SSD needs to be partitioned.
AnswerB

Correct; if the boot order still points to the old drive (which may have been removed or is empty), the system will not boot from the new SSD.

Why this answer

A blinking cursor after POST often indicates the system cannot find a bootable operating system. This commonly happens when the boot order is incorrect or the new SSD is not set as the first boot device.

1011
MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a Samsung Galaxy tablet that has a cracked screen but still responds to touch. The user wants to transfer data to a new tablet. The technician connects the tablet to a PC via USB, but the PC does not recognize the device. What is the most likely reason?

A.The USB cable is defective
B.The tablet is in USB charging-only mode and cannot be changed due to the cracked screen
C.The tablet's USB port is damaged from the drop
D.The PC lacks the proper Samsung USB drivers
AnswerB

Android devices often default to 'Charging only' when connected via USB. Changing to 'File transfer' requires screen interaction, which is difficult with a cracked screen.

Why this answer

When a device's screen is cracked, the digitizer may still work, but the user might not be able to change USB settings from 'Charging only' to 'File transfer' if the touch input is needed for that selection. This is a common scenario where the default USB mode prevents data access.

1012
MCQhard

A technician is upgrading a workstation from a 500 GB HDD to a 1 TB SSD. After installing the SSD, the system boots into the old OS from the HDD instead of the new SSD. The boot order in UEFI shows only the HDD. What is the most likely reason?

A.The SSD is not connected to the fastest SATA port
B.The SSD is not partitioned with GPT or lacks an EFI system partition
C.The HDD has a higher priority in the boot order
D.The SSD needs a firmware update
AnswerB

UEFI requires a GPT disk with an EFI system partition to recognize it as a bootable device.

Why this answer

The SSD may not be initialized with a GPT partition table or may lack an EFI system partition, making it invisible to the UEFI boot manager. The technician should check the partition style and ensure the SSD is properly formatted for UEFI boot. This question tests advanced knowledge of UEFI boot requirements.

1013
MCQmedium

A client reports that their new IoT smart bulb can be controlled from a smartphone app only when the phone is within 10 meters of the bulb. The bulb does not connect to the home Wi-Fi. Which network type is the smart bulb using?

A.Wireless local area network (WLAN)
B.Metropolitan area network (MAN)
C.Personal area network (PAN)
D.Wide area network (WAN)
AnswerC

A PAN uses short-range wireless like Bluetooth, matching the 10-meter range and lack of Wi-Fi.

Why this answer

The smart bulb uses a personal area network (PAN) because it communicates directly with the smartphone over a short-range wireless technology, such as Bluetooth or Zigbee, without connecting to a home Wi-Fi router. The 10-meter range limitation is a key characteristic of PAN technologies, which are designed for device-to-device communication within a few meters to about 10 meters. This contrasts with WLAN, which would require Wi-Fi and a router for broader coverage.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse PAN with WLAN because both are wireless and can use the 2.4 GHz band, but the absence of a Wi-Fi router and the specific 10-meter range clearly indicate a PAN technology like Bluetooth, not a WLAN.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a wireless local area network (WLAN) requires a Wi-Fi access point or router to connect devices over a larger area (typically 30-100 meters indoors), and the bulb does not connect to home Wi-Fi. Option B is wrong because a metropolitan area network (MAN) spans a city or large campus (kilometers), far exceeding the 10-meter range, and is used for interconnecting multiple LANs, not personal devices. Option D is wrong because a wide area network (WAN) covers vast geographic areas (e.g., the internet) and relies on long-haul technologies like leased lines or cellular, which are irrelevant to a short-range, direct-connection IoT device.

1014
MCQmedium

A user reports that their smartphone's wireless charging pad stops charging after a few minutes. The phone charges fine with a cable. The charging pad works with another phone. What is the most likely cause?

A.The charging pad is defective.
B.The phone's battery is faulty.
C.The phone case is too thick or contains metal.
D.The phone's wireless charging coil is damaged.
AnswerC

Thick cases or those with metal components can interfere with wireless charging, causing it to stop after a few minutes due to overheating or misalignment.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because wireless charging relies on inductive coupling between the phone's receiver coil and the pad's transmitter coil. A thick case (especially one containing metal) can physically separate the coils beyond the effective range or cause eddy current losses that trigger thermal protection, causing the pad to shut down after a few minutes. The fact that the pad works with another phone and the phone charges via cable isolates the issue to the case, not the phone's battery or charging coil.

Exam trap

CompTIA often tests the distinction between 'doesn't work at all' vs. 'works then stops' to trap candidates into blaming the charging coil or pad, when the real issue is thermal or FOD-related interference from the case.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the charging pad works with another phone, proving it is not defective. Option B is wrong because a faulty battery would also cause issues with cable charging, but the phone charges fine with a cable. Option D is wrong because if the phone's wireless charging coil were damaged, the phone would not charge wirelessly at all, not just stop after a few minutes.

1015
MCQmedium

A customer calls to say their new smart TV can see the 2.4 GHz network but not the 5 GHz network, even though the router is dual-band. The technician checks the router settings and confirms both bands are enabled and broadcasting. What is the most likely reason the TV cannot see the 5 GHz network?

A.The 5 GHz SSID is hidden
B.The TV’s wireless adapter does not support 5 GHz
C.The 5 GHz channel is set to a DFS channel
D.The router’s 5 GHz radio is faulty
AnswerB

If the TV only has a 2.4 GHz radio, it cannot detect 5 GHz networks at all, explaining the symptom.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because the most common reason a device sees only the 2.4 GHz band is that its wireless adapter lacks 5 GHz support. Many older or budget smart TVs ship with single-band 2.4 GHz Wi-Fi chipsets, so even though the router broadcasts both bands, the TV’s hardware cannot detect or connect to the 5 GHz network.

Exam trap

The trap in this question is that candidates often overthink and look for advanced reasons like hidden SSIDs or DFS channels, when the most straightforward explanation is a hardware compatibility issue: the TV's wireless adapter simply does not support the 5 GHz band.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a hidden SSID still broadcasts beacon frames (with the SSID set to null), so the TV would still see the network as a hidden or unnamed network; the issue is that the TV cannot see the 5 GHz network at all, not that it sees it without a name. Option C is wrong because DFS channels can cause a temporary delay in detecting the 5 GHz network (due to radar avoidance), but the TV would eventually see the network after channel availability check; the TV not seeing the 5 GHz network at all points to a hardware incompatibility, not a DFS issue. Option D is wrong because if the router’s 5 GHz radio were faulty, no device would see the 5 GHz network, but the technician confirmed both bands are enabled and broadcasting; the problem is isolated to the TV, not the router.

1016
MCQmedium

A technician is building a new PC for a video editing workstation. The selected components include an Intel i9-13900K, an NVIDIA RTX 4080, 64GB DDR5 RAM, three NVMe SSDs, and six case fans. What is the minimum recommended power supply wattage for this build?

A.750W
B.850W
C.1000W
D.1200W
AnswerC

1000W provides adequate headroom for the combined power draw of a high-end CPU and GPU, plus peripherals, ensuring stable operation.

Why this answer

High-end CPUs and GPUs like the i9-13900K and RTX 4080 can draw over 300W each under load, plus other components. A 1000W PSU provides sufficient headroom for peak power spikes and ensures stability during intensive tasks.

1017
MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a laptop that will not charge. The battery is removable, and the power adapter works on another laptop. When the battery is inserted, the laptop powers on but shows '0% available (plugged in, not charging)'. What is the most likely cause?

A.The battery is defective and needs replacement.
B.The charging port is loose.
C.The power management driver is outdated.
D.The CMOS battery is dead.
AnswerA

A battery that cannot charge despite being detected is typically failed; replacing it resolves the issue.

Why this answer

The 'plugged in, not charging' message often indicates a failed battery that cannot accept a charge, even though the system detects it. A defective battery cell will prevent charging. The power adapter and charging circuit are likely fine since the laptop powers on.

1018
MCQeasy

A technician is upgrading a server CPU and needs to select a processor that supports ECC memory. Which CPU feature is required for ECC support?

A.Integrated GPU
B.Hyper-Threading
C.Memory controller
D.Overclocking capability
AnswerC

The memory controller must support ECC; many consumer CPUs lack this feature.

Why this answer

ECC memory requires support from the CPU's memory controller. Not all CPUs support ECC; it is typically found in workstation or server-class processors. This question tests knowledge of CPU features beyond just speed and cores.

1019
MCQmedium

A technician is troubleshooting a network where a user cannot access a web server at 10.0.0.50. The user's workstation has an IP of 10.0.0.25 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. The technician pings 10.0.0.50 and gets a reply, but the web page does not load. What should the technician check next?

A.Verify the default gateway on the workstation.
B.Check if the web server's firewall is blocking HTTP/HTTPS traffic.
C.Change the workstation's IP address to a different subnet.
D.Replace the network cable between the workstation and switch.
AnswerB

Correct. A firewall can block specific ports while allowing ICMP (ping), so checking port access is appropriate.

Why this answer

The ping reply confirms Layer 3 connectivity between the workstation and the web server, so the issue is not with IP routing or the default gateway. Since the web page does not load despite successful ICMP echo replies, the problem is likely at Layer 4 or above, such as the web server's firewall blocking HTTP (port 80) or HTTPS (port 443) traffic. The technician should check the server's firewall rules to ensure these ports are open.

Exam trap

The A+ exam often tests the distinction between Layer 3 connectivity (ping) and Layer 4+ application access, trapping candidates who assume a successful ping means the service is fully reachable.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the ping reply proves that the workstation can reach the web server without needing a default gateway (they are on the same subnet, so traffic is sent directly via ARP). Option C is wrong because changing the workstation's IP to a different subnet would break connectivity, as the server is at 10.0.0.50/24 and the workstation would no longer be on the same network. Option D is wrong because a faulty cable would cause Layer 1 or Layer 2 issues, preventing the ping from succeeding; since the ping works, the cable is functional.

1020
MCQeasy

A technician is asked to set up a network for a new branch office that will connect back to the main headquarters using a leased line. The branch has 50 employees who need access to centralized databases and email. Which network type best describes the branch office's internal network?

A.Wide area network (WAN)
B.Metropolitan area network (MAN)
C.Local area network (LAN)
D.Personal area network (PAN)
AnswerC

A LAN connects devices within a limited area like an office, providing high-speed internal connectivity.

Why this answer

The branch office's internal network connects 50 employees within a single physical location, providing shared access to local resources like printers and servers. This fits the definition of a Local Area Network (LAN), which operates over a limited geographic area and uses high-speed technologies such as Ethernet (IEEE 802.3) and Wi-Fi (IEEE 802.11). The leased line to headquarters is a separate WAN connection, but the internal network itself remains a LAN.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates see 'leased line' and 'connect back to main headquarters' and immediately assume the entire setup is a WAN, failing to recognize that the question specifically asks about the branch office's internal network, which is a LAN.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Wide Area Network (WAN) spans large geographic distances (e.g., between cities or countries) and is used for the leased line connecting the branch to headquarters, not for the internal office network. Option B is wrong because a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) covers a city or metropolitan region, typically larger than a single office but smaller than a WAN, and is not appropriate for a single branch office. Option D is wrong because a Personal Area Network (PAN) is limited to a very short range (e.g., Bluetooth within 10 meters) and supports only a few personal devices, not 50 employees.

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