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Cisco Securing Networks with Cisco Firewalls (300-710 SNCF, CCNP Security) (300-710 SNCF) (300-710 SNCF) — Questions 226300

478 questions total · 7pages · All types, answers revealed

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226
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE types of events can be streamed natively from Cisco Secure Firewall using the eStreamer API to a third-party SIEM or custom application? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Connection events
B.FMC hardware temperature sensor telemetry logs
C.File events
D.CLI administrator command audit logs
E.Intrusion events
AnswersA, C, E

Connection events detailing traffic flows can be streamed via eStreamer.

Why this answer

eStreamer supports streaming connection events, intrusion events, and file events (along with malware events).

227
MCQhard

An administrator configures pxGrid integration between Cisco ISE and Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense. During the certificate enrollment process, the firewall fails to trust the ISE pxGrid node. What is the most likely root cause of this failure in a standalone FMC deployment?

A.The SXP secret password does not match between ISE and the firewall.
B.The pxGrid subscriber profile on ISE was not approved within 24 hours.
C.The ISE pxGrid root CA certificate is not imported into the FMC trusted certificates store.
D.RADIUS shared secrets are mismatched on the Policy Service Nodes.
AnswerC

Mutual TLS authentication requires the root CA of the peer to be present in the trusted certificate store of the validating device.

Why this answer

For pxGrid communication to establish successfully, the ISE pxGrid node certificate and FMC/Firewall pxGrid certificate must be signed by a mutually trusted Certificate Authority (CA), and the CA root certificate must be imported into the FMC trusted certificates store.

228
MCQmedium

Which component in an FTD cluster handles the 'Health Check' process to determine if a node is still active?

A.Primary management IP.
B.The standby unit's data interface.
C.Cluster control link.
D.FMC communication channel.
AnswerC

The control link is specifically for cluster health and synchronization.

Why this answer

The cluster control link is used to exchange heartbeats and health information between cluster members to verify node status.

229
MCQmedium

An FTD device managed by FMC is experiencing high CPU utilization attributed to the Snort inspection engine. The administrator wants to identify which specific intrusion rules or access control rules are consuming the most resources. Which tool or report should the administrator use?

A.Run a packet capture on the management interface (eth0) with a BPF filter for CPU interrupts.
B.Access the FTD CLI and run 'system support diagnostic-cli' followed by 'show perfstats' or review the Intrusion Performance dashboard in FMC.
C.Navigate to Analysis > Datastores > Packet Trace and export the raw CPU register dump.
D.Check the Interfaces > Counters page in the Cisco Integrated Management Controller (CIMC).
AnswerB

FMC Intrusion Performance dashboards and CLI perfstats provide granular details on rule processing overhead.

Why this answer

The Performance Statistics feature and Intrusion Event analysis in FMC help identify resource-heavy traffic and rules. Additionally, the 'Show Snort Statistics' or 'Perfstats' command via the FTD diagnostic CLI provides real-time rule processing metrics.

230
MCQmedium

Which of the following must be identical on both units of an FTD high availability pair to ensure successful synchronization?

A.Software versions.
B.The management IP addresses.
C.The number of configured VLANs.
D.Physical serial numbers.
AnswerA

Version mismatch is a blocking condition for HA synchronization.

Why this answer

Both units must have the same model, software version, and license capabilities for the HA configuration to function correctly.

231
MCQhard

An administrator is troubleshooting a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense high availability deployment where MAC address persistence is causing intermittent packet drops after a failover event. What is the role of MAC address persistence in an HA setup?

A.It ensures that the active unit retains the virtual MAC addresses of the interfaces, preventing the need for downstream switches to relearn MAC-to-port mappings.
B.It encrypts the MAC header of all packets crossing the stateful failover control link.
C.It forces downstream Layer 2 switches to continuously flood broadcast traffic to both firewall nodes simultaneously.
D.It locks the management IP address to a static MAC address to prevent ARP spoofing attacks.
AnswerA

MAC persistence keeps virtual MAC addresses associated with the active unit, allowing seamless Layer 2 forwarding post-failover.

Why this answer

MAC persistence ensures that the active firewall unit takes over the virtual MAC addresses of the HA pair, ensuring downstream switches immediately update their MAC forwarding tables without waiting for aging timers.

232
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE criteria can be used to match traffic in an Access Control Policy rule?

Select 3 answers
A.Application
B.SSL Certificate Name
C.QoS Priority
D.Source/Destination Network
E.URL Category
AnswersA, D, E

L7 matching for specific apps.

Why this answer

Access control rules can match based on Source/Destination Network, Applications, and URL categories.

233
MCQmedium

A security engineer is creating an Access Control Policy (ACP) in FMC. The policy must block all traffic matching specific URL categories while allowing standard web browsing. However, the administrator wants users to receive a warning page before continuing to pages categorized as "Potentially Damaging Content" rather than a hard block. Which action should the engineer assign to the URL category in the ACP Rules tab?

A.Block
B.Allow
C.Monitor
D.Interactive Block
AnswerD

Interactive Block displays a warning page allowing the user to click through to the destination.

Why this answer

The Interactive Block action presents the user with a warning page and an option to bypass the warning and proceed to the site, whereas Block simply drops the connection or presents a block page with no bypass option.

234
MCQmedium

In an FTD high availability pair, what happens to the standby unit if it loses the heartbeat signal on the failover link?

A.It reboots.
B.It remains standby.
C.It promotes itself to Active.
D.It enters a 'Failed' state.
AnswerC

Loss of heartbeat triggers the promotion process.

Why this answer

If the standby unit loses heartbeat signals from the active unit, it assumes the active unit has failed and initiates a failover transition to become the new active unit.

235
MCQmedium

An engineer needs to troubleshoot intermittent packet loss between an FTD inside interface and a destination server. The engineer runs the 'packet-tracer' command on the FTD CLI. What limitation must the engineer keep in mind regarding packet-tracer?

A.Packet-tracer actually transmits physical packets out of the egress interface to test real network latency.
B.Packet-tracer bypasses the Snort inspection engine entirely.
C.Packet-tracer simulates packet processing through the firewall and Snort engine without transmitting physical packets.
D.Packet-tracer only works for encrypted IPsec VPN traffic.
AnswerC

Packet-tracer is a simulation utility that traces virtual packets through the access control and inspection engines.

Why this answer

Packet-tracer simulates packet processing through the firewall engine and Snort, but it does not actually transmit a real packet onto the physical wire, meaning it is a simulation tool.

236
MCQmedium

An administrator sets up Cisco ISE and Secure Firewall integration. The firewall successfully learns user identities from ISE pxGrid, but when users roam to a new IP address, the firewall continues to apply the old IP-to-user mapping for several minutes. What is the best way to resolve this synchronization lag?

A.Ensure real-time pxGrid session notifications are enabled and check the Active Directory agent timeouts if applicable.
B.Reboot the FMC daily via a cron job.
C.Increase the NetFlow export interval to 1 minute.
D.Change the syslog facility to emergency.
AnswerA

pxGrid relies on real-time event notifications; verifying pxGrid subscription ensures immediate notification of session attribute changes or roaming.

Why this answer

Tuning the pxGrid session refresh and timeout settings or verifying the pxGrid subscription status ensures prompt updates of session changes.

237
MCQmedium

An administrator is troubleshooting a scenario where configuration deployment from FMC to an FTD device fails with a 'Deployment Validation Error'. Where can the administrator view the detailed validation messages and deployment task history?

A.Objects > Object Management > History
B.System > Monitoring > Task Manager
C.Analysis > Intrusions > Events
D.Devices > Platform Settings > Deployment Log
AnswerB

Task Manager tracks all FMC operations, including detailed logs of configuration deployments and error causes.

Why this answer

Deployment status, task history, and detailed error logs are available under Message Center or System > Monitoring > Task Manager in the FMC.

238
MCQmedium

An enterprise is deploying a high-availability cluster of Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense devices to scale performance. Which requirement must be met regarding the physical switch infrastructure connecting the cluster nodes?

A.Switches must be configured with Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) disabled globally to prevent cluster split-brain.
B.The switches must run Cisco StackWise Virtual and be managed by the firewall cluster master node.
C.Routing protocols must be disabled on all switch interfaces connected to the cluster control link (CCL).
D.Connections between the switches and cluster nodes must use Port Channels (EtherChannels) to aggregate bandwidth and ensure proper traffic distribution.
AnswerD

Cluster control and data interfaces rely on Port Channels connected to upstream/downstream switches to aggregate links and load balance sessions.

Why this answer

Firewall clustering requires specific switch features such as EtherChannel (Port Channels) and often requires specific load-balancing algorithms to distribute traffic across cluster members evenly.

239
MCQhard

An administrator configures pxGrid integration between Cisco ISE and Secure Firewall Management Center. During the pxGrid certificate generation on ISE, the administrator must export the client certificate and keystore. What format must the client keystore be in when importing it into the FMC to establish the pxGrid trust relationship?

A.Plaintext DER binary format without private keys.
B.PKCS#12 (.pfx/.p12) bundle containing the client certificate, private key, and CA certificate.
C.Microsoft Exchange Web Services (EWS) XML format.
D.Java KeyStore (.jks) format exclusively.
AnswerB

The PKCS#12 format securely bundles the private key, public certificate, and certificate authority chain required for mutual TLS authentication in pxGrid.

Why this answer

When establishing pxGrid integration between FMC and ISE, the administrator imports the ISE root CA certificate and the client certificate/key bundle (typically in PKCS#12 or PEM format depending on the FMC version requirements) into the FMC Identity Services configuration.

240
MCQmedium

An enterprise environment uses Cisco SecureX (now Cisco Security Cloud Control / Cisco XDR) integrated with Cisco Secure Firewall. An incident responder wants to use SecureX threat intelligence to automatically quarantine a compromised host whose IP address was identified by the firewall. Which component acts as the secure relay for API requests between SecureX and an on-premises FMC?

A.Cisco ISE pxGrid Node
B.Cisco Secure Network Analytics Manager
C.eStreamer Event Relay Service
D.SecureX Device Connector
AnswerD

The SecureX Device Connector establishes an outbound-only connection to the cloud, allowing orchestration and pivoting to on-premises FMC APIs.

Why this answer

The SecureX Threat Response (or Cisco XDR) on-premises deployment relies on the SecureX Device Connector (or Secure Client/Cloud Connector framework embedded in FMC) to proxy API requests securely without requiring inbound firewall holes.

241
MCQhard

What is the consequence of configuring an FTD interface with 'Non-Promiscuous' mode in a virtualized deployment?

A.The FTD performance will increase.
B.The FTD may fail to inspect traffic that is not destined for its interface MAC address.
C.The FTD will only process broadcast traffic.
D.It forces the FTD into routed mode.
AnswerB

The vSwitch blocks non-destined traffic unless promiscuous mode is enabled.

Why this answer

In virtualized environments (like ESXi), 'Promiscuous mode' is often required on the vSwitch to allow the FTD to see traffic not destined for its own MAC address, which is essential for transparent or passive modes.

242
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO items must be defined to create a fully functional Network Object group in FMC?

Select 2 answers
A.Member Objects
B.Object Description
C.SNMP Traps
D.Routing Table
E.Object Name
AnswersA, E

The group must contain items to be useful.

Why this answer

A group needs a name and at least one member (object) assigned to it.

243
Multi-Selectmedium

When troubleshooting FTD high memory or CPU usage, an administrator can gather diagnostic data directly from the appliance. Which THREE commands can be executed on the FTD CLI to analyze resource utilization? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.show running-config memory
B.show memory
C.debug memory leaks
D.show cpu detail
E.top
AnswersB, D, E

'show memory' provides overall and per-process memory consumption details on the FTD appliance.

Why this answer

Useful FTD CLI commands for resource troubleshooting include 'top', 'show cpu detail', and 'show memory', which display process-level utilization and system resource consumption.

244
MCQhard

An engineer has deployed a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense in transparent firewall mode. Users on the inside segment report they cannot reach a server on the outside segment. The engineer verifies that the BVI (Bridge Virtual Interface) has an IP address in the same subnet as the internal hosts and default gateway. What is a likely reason for traffic being dropped?

A.An EtherType access list is blocking the encapsulated traffic or ARP requests between the bridge groups.
B.An explicit Access Control Policy rule is blocking the traffic, because transparent mode inspections still require standard ACP rules.
C.The security zones for the inside and outside interfaces are identical, causing an implicit intra-zone drop.
D.Dynamic routing protocols must be enabled on the BVI to advertise the transparent subnet upstream.
AnswerA

Transparent firewalls pass IP traffic by default, but non-IP traffic or specific Layer 2 control protocols require EtherType rules, and proper ARP inspection/learning is necessary.

Why this answer

In transparent mode, non-IP traffic is dropped by default unless EtherType rules are explicitly configured to allow protocols like BPDUs, MPLS, or IPX through the firewall bridge groups.

245
MCQeasy

An administrator needs to verify the license status and active feature subscriptions (such as URL Filtering, Malware, and IPS) on an FMC. Where should the administrator check this information in the FMC GUI?

A.Policies > Access Control > Subscriptions
B.System > Licenses > Smart Licenses
C.Objects > Object Management > Licensing
D.Devices > Device Management > Licenses
AnswerB

Smart Licensing status, feature tokens, and authorization states are managed under System > Licenses.

Why this answer

License management and feature activations on the FMC are located under System > Licenses > Smart Licenses.

246
MCQeasy

When deploying a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense device, what is the purpose of configuring Security Zones?

A.To establish High Availability stateful synchronization between primary and secondary nodes.
B.To assign VLAN IDs to physical switch ports connected to the firewall.
C.To logically group one or more interfaces together for simplified Access Control Policy application.
D.To encrypt traffic passing between interfaces belonging to different zones using IPsec.
AnswerC

Security zones group interfaces so that access control rules can be applied across multiple interfaces collectively.

Why this answer

Security zones logically group one or more interfaces together, simplifying access control policy enforcement by allowing rules to apply to a zone rather than individual interfaces.

247
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is preparing to troubleshoot a complex routing and NAT issue on an FTD device using packet tracer. Which TWO statements regarding the FTD packet tracer tool are correct? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Packet tracer captures live packets traversing the wire in real-time.
B.Packet tracer can be executed from both the FTD CLI and the FMC GUI under Device > Packet Trace.
C.Packet tracer requires Smart Licensing to be in an out-of-compliance state to function.
D.Packet tracer simulates the path of a packet through the security engine, showing match results for access control lists, NAT, and routing.
E.Packet tracer permanently alters the firewall state table to allow future return traffic.
AnswersB, D

Administrators can run packet traces directly from the FMC troubleshooting tools menu or via the FTD CLI 'packet-tracer' command.

Why this answer

Packet tracer simulates traffic flow through the FTD, allowing administrators to test policies, NAT, and routing without sending live packets, and can be executed via both FMC and FTD CLI.

248
MCQmedium

You are analyzing connection events and notice a block action. Which field in the connection event details best explains why the connection was dropped by the policy?

A.Reason
B.Policy Enforcement
C.Connection Policy
D.Traffic Log
E.Drop Description
AnswerA

The Reason field indicates the specific cause, such as 'Security Intelligence' or 'Access Control Rule'.

Why this answer

The 'Reason' or 'Action' field in the connection event details provides the specific policy or inspection rule that caused the drop.

249
Multi-Selecthard

An enterprise is deploying Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense virtual appliances on-premises using VMware ESXi. Which THREE prerequisites or hypervisor configurations are required for proper operation? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Allocate sufficient vCPU, RAM, and disk storage in accordance with Cisco FTDv sizing guidelines for the targeted throughput.
B.Map vNICs correctly to dedicated port groups, ensuring eth0 is assigned to the management network and subsequent vNICs handle data planes.
C.Configure ESXi vSwitch or vDistributed Switch (vDS) security policies (such as Promiscuous Mode or MAC Address Changes) if bridging or transparent mode is utilized.
D.Configure the ESXi management kernel port to run Cisco ASA clustering over a WAN circuit.
E.Install physical line cards directly into the ESXi server motherboard PCIe slots for FTDv interface expansion.
AnswersA, B, C

Proper hardware resource allocation is critical for virtual firewall performance.

Why this answer

VMware ESXi deployments require correct vSwitch/vDS port group configurations (promiscuous mode where needed, or specific VLAN policies), appropriate vCPU/RAM allocation according to sizing guides, and correct dedicated vNIC mapping.

250
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is configuring Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense to send syslog messages to a remote SIEM. Which TWO fields or parameters can be included in the syslog output to facilitate incident investigation and event parsing by the SIEM? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Full memory core dump binary attachments
B.Precise timestamp formatting (UTC or local time) configured in Platform Settings
C.FMC administrator SSH private keys
D.Firewall device name or identifier in the syslog header
E.Raw packet captures (PCAP) of dropped connections embedded in syslog text
AnswersB, D

Timestamps allow SIEMs to accurately order events chronologically.

Why this answer

Syslog messages can include device identifiers and explicit timestamps to aid SIEM log parsing and correlation.

251
MCQhard

An engineer configures Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense to ingest context from Cisco ISE using pxGrid. The integration status on the FMC shows 'Connected', but when inspecting user identities via the FTD CLI using 'show user-identity user', no active users appear. Which CLI command should the engineer use to troubleshoot the pxGrid session feed specifically at the FTD process level?

A.Run 'clear pxgrid cache' from the FTD privileged EXEC mode.
B.Access the expert mode shell and check the identity daemon logs or execute 'show idedb statistics'.
C.Run 'debug crypto pxgrid' from the FMC CLI.
D.Execute 'show threat-response status' on the FTD.
AnswerB

The 'idedb' commands and identity daemon logs on the FTD expert shell provide deep visibility into whether user mappings are being received and stored in the database.

Why this answer

To troubleshoot low-level pxGrid and identity agent behavior on Secure Firewall Threat Defense, engineers use diagnostic shell commands such as 'pmtool' or checking the identity daemon logs located in /var/log/Cisco/identity or running 'show idedb' commands.

252
Multi-Selectmedium

When planning an FTD high availability deployment, which TWO requirements are critical for the link between the two firewalls?

Select 2 answers
A.The link must be configured with OSPF.
B.The link must be on the same subnet as the management interface.
C.The link must be at least 1Gbps.
D.The link must have low latency for heartbeat messages.
E.The link should be a dedicated physical connection.
AnswersD, E

Latency can cause false failover triggers.

Why this answer

The failover link must be dedicated, low-latency, and support sufficient bandwidth for the synchronization of the state table.

253
MCQmedium

An administrator is setting up Cisco SecureX threat intelligence integration with Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center. The test connection fails with a 'Token Expired or Invalid' error. What is the correct procedure to re-establish trust and authentication between the FMC and SecureX?

A.Log into the FTD CLI and execute the 'clear securex-token' command.
B.Generate a new client ID and API key from the Cisco SecureX (Security Cloud Control) console and update the integration credentials in FMC System > Integration > SecureX.
C.Reinstall the Snort rule updates package on the FMC.
D.Reboot the FMC appliance to regenerate the internal device certificate.
AnswerB

Cloud integration tokens expire or become invalid if revoked, requiring new credentials to be generated and entered into the FMC.

Why this answer

To resolve API token or cloud registration expirations for SecureX, the administrator must re-register the FMC with SecureX by generating a new API key / integration credential from the SecureX/Security Cloud Control portal and pasting it into the FMC System > Integration > SecureX settings.

254
MCQeasy

An administrator is configuring a Network Address Translation (NAT) rule on a Cisco FMC managed Threat Defense device. The requirement is to translate the source IP address of traffic coming from the inside zone going to the outside zone, but only for a specific internal subnet. Which NAT type must the administrator select in the FMC NAT rule configuration?

A.Twice NAT (Destination NAT)
B.Prefilter NAT
C.Auto NAT (Object NAT)
D.Manual NAT (Identity NAT)
AnswerC

Auto NAT is tied directly to a network or host object and is commonly used to translate a specific internal subnet to an outside interface address.

Why this answer

Manual NAT or Auto NAT can be used, but for granular control over source and destination zones and interfaces, an Auto NAT rule or a Manual NAT rule configured as Source NAT (Dynamic NAT or PAT) from inside to outside is required. Specifically, for translating source IP addresses of an internal subnet going out, Auto NAT (Network Object NAT) using a network object for the source is the most direct method.

255
Multi-Selectmedium

An engineer is setting up a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense cluster. Which TWO statements accurately describe the architecture and behavior of FTD clustering? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.One unit is elected as the control node, while the other units function as data nodes sharing the processing load.
B.All cluster members share a common configuration and synchronized connection state table across the Cluster Control Link.
C.Clustering is exclusively supported on virtual machine instances and cannot be used on physical appliances.
D.Data nodes do not process any traffic; they remain idle until the control node fails.
E.Clustering can be established across different cities over high-latency WAN connections.
AnswersA, B

Clustering assigns a control role to one module and data roles to the others.

Why this answer

Clustering combines multiple devices into a single logical entity with a control node and data nodes, sharing configuration and connection tables.

256
MCQeasy

An administrator needs to troubleshoot a routing issue on an FTD device managed by FMC. Where in the FMC GUI should the administrator navigate to view and modify static and dynamic routing configurations for the device?

A.Objects > Object Management > Network > Routes
B.Devices > Device Management > Edit Device > Routing tab
C.System > Configuration > Network Settings
D.Policies > Access Control > Routing
AnswerB

Device-specific settings like static routes, OSPF, and BGP are configured under the Routing tab of the device settings.

Why this answer

Routing configurations for FTD are managed under Devices > Device Management, selecting the specific device, and clicking the Routing tab.

257
MCQeasy

An administrator wants to create a Prefilter policy to fast-path (bypass Snort inspection for) a trusted backup stream between two data centers. Which action type should be selected in the Prefilter rule?

A.FastPath
B.Monitor
C.Block
D.Inspect
E.Trust
AnswerA

FastPath instructs the FTD to bypass deep packet inspection (Snort) for the matched traffic flow.

Why this answer

The FastPath action in a Prefilter policy allows matching traffic to bypass Snort inspection for performance optimization.

258
MCQhard

When configuring an FTD cluster, what is the maximum number of nodes supported in a single cluster?

A.4
B.16
C.8
D.2
AnswerB

16 nodes is the supported maximum.

Why this answer

The FTD clustering architecture supports up to 16 nodes in a single cluster.

259
MCQhard

An administrator integrates Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center with Cisco ISE via pxGrid. After successful registration, the administrator wants to create an Access Control policy rule that blocks traffic from users in the 'Contractors' Security Group Tag. Where in the FMC rule creation wizard should the administrator configure this condition?

A.In the Access Control Rule, navigate to the Users tab and select the desired Security Group Tag.
B.In Objects > Object Management > Access Control > SGT Objects.
C.In the Platform Settings policy under Identity Sources.
D.In the Access Control Rule, navigate to the Networks tab and select Security Groups.
AnswerA

The Users tab in FMC Access Control rules allows administrators to filter traffic based on users, user groups, and Security Group Tags (SGTs).

Why this answer

In FMC Access Control policies, user and tag-based criteria are added under the 'Users' tab of the rule configuration, where Security Group Tags learned via pxGrid can be selected.

260
MCQmedium

You are deploying a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense cluster in a data center environment. Which deployment requirement must be strictly followed regarding the control link and data interfaces?

A.All cluster members must reside in different Layer 2 broadcast domains to prevent spanning-tree loops.
B.Cluster units can share data interfaces for control synchronization as long as Jumbo frames are enabled on the switch.
C.The control link must be a dedicated, low-latency interface completely separated from data traffic handling.
D.Clustering is supported only in transparent firewall mode; routed mode disables clustering capabilities.
AnswerC

The cluster control link must be dedicated to cluster communication and state synchronization with strict latency requirements.

Why this answer

Clustered FTD units require a dedicated control plane network (control link) with low latency and high bandwidth, separate from data interfaces, to synchronize state and management data.

261
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO benefits are gained by integrating Cisco Secure Firewall with Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) using TrustSec SGTs? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Propagation of security tags across network boundaries via SXP for consistent enforcement
B.Policy creation based on user roles and group membership rather than dynamic IP addresses
C.Automatic remediation of endpoint malware infections via direct quarantine commands sent from the firewall to Active Directory
D.Replacement of traditional routing protocols with TrustSec matrix routing
E.Elimination of the need for access control rules on the firewall
AnswersA, B

SXP propagates tags to devices that do not support inline tagging, maintaining consistent policy.

Why this answer

TrustSec SGT integration allows creating scalable firewall access control policies based on security groups rather than changing IP addresses, and enforcing segmentation across the network.

262
Multi-Selecthard

An engineer is troubleshooting a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense virtual appliance deployed in Microsoft Azure. Connectivity tests show intermittent packet drops. Which THREE troubleshooting steps or configurations should be verified in Azure and FTDv? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Check Azure User Defined Routes (UDRs) to ensure packet steering to the correct firewall internal/external ENIs is accurate.
B.Verify that physical fiber optic bypass modules are firmly clicked into the Azure hypervisor chassis.
C.Verify that Azure Network Security Groups (NSGs) permit traffic to and from the firewall data and management ENIs.
D.Ensure the FTDv is running in transparent mode with BVI clustering enabled across multiple Azure regions.
E.Ensure Source NAT (SNAT) is properly configured on the FTDv when dealing with Azure Load Balancer return traffic paths.
AnswersA, C, E

UDRs manage routing within Azure subnets.

Why this answer

Azure deployments require checking User Defined Routes (UDRs), Source NAT (SNAT) configurations for load balancers, and Azure NSG (Network Security Group) rules.

263
MCQmedium

When utilizing static route tracking, what value represents the frequency of the tracking probe?

A.Threshold value.
B.Timeout interval.
C.TTL value.
D.Frequency interval.
AnswerD

Frequency defines how often the probe is sent.

Why this answer

The SLA Monitor configuration allows you to define the frequency (in seconds) at which the probe is sent to the target.

264
MCQhard

Which protocol is used by the FTD to communicate with the FMC for management traffic?

A.SSH
B.HTTPS/TLS (sftunnel).
C.SNMPv3
D.ICMP
AnswerB

The sftunnel uses encrypted TLS for management.

Why this answer

The FTD communicates with the FMC using a secure, proprietary channel over HTTPS/TLS.

265
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is deploying Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense Virtual (FTDv) in an enterprise cloud environment (such as AWS or Azure). Which THREE considerations are unique to cloud-based firewall deployments compared to physical hardware deployments? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Physical hardware bypass network interface modules must be manually installed into the virtual hypervisor slot.
B.The administrator must manage cloud provider route tables (e.g., AWS Route Tables or Azure UDRs) to steer traffic through the firewall ENIs.
C.The virtual machine instance type dictates the maximum supported throughput, interface count, and CPU/memory allocation.
D.Licensing can utilize either Bring Your Own License (BYOL) or Pay-As-You-Go (PAYG) models through marketplace integrations.
E.FTDv in the cloud requires transparent mode with BVI grouping for all data interfaces.
AnswersB, C, D

Cloud route tables are mandatory for steering traffic through cloud firewall instances.

Why this answer

Cloud deployments involve managing cloud routing tables (UDRs), utilizing specific licensing models (BYOL or Pay-As-You-Go), and managing network interface limits per VM instance.

266
MCQhard

An administrator is configuring Equal-Cost Multi-Path (ECMP) routing on a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense deployment to balance traffic across two upstream next-hop routers. How does the firewall select the specific path for a given TCP flow?

A.A hashing algorithm based on the flow's 5-tuple to maintain session consistency.
B.Strict priority-based path selection where the primary route is exhausted before secondary routing begins.
C.Dynamic bandwidth utilization monitoring where packets are instantly dynamically switched to the lowest latency link.
D.Round-robin packet scheduling across all available paths for every individual packet.
AnswerA

Flow-based ECMP hashing uses the 5-tuple to keep all packets of a single session traversing the same next-hop router.

Why this answer

ECMP on Cisco Secure Firewall uses a hashing algorithm based on the 5-tuple (source IP, destination IP, source port, destination port, and protocol) to ensure packets belonging to the same flow take the same path.

267
MCQmedium

You are deploying a Cisco Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) device in transparent mode. Which requirement must be met to allow traffic flow through the firewall?

A.Define a default gateway on the upstream router pointing to the FTD MAC address.
B.Configure a Bridge Group Virtual Interface (BVI) with an IP address for management.
C.Assign a unique IP address to each physical interface in the bridge group.
D.Enable dynamic routing protocols on all physical interfaces.
AnswerB

The BVI acts as the L3 interface for the transparent firewall, allowing management traffic.

Why this answer

In transparent mode, FTD acts as a Layer 2 device. It uses bridge groups, and traffic is bridged between interfaces. Since it is L2, the interfaces do not require IP addresses for routing, but the bridge group interface (BVI) needs an IP address for management purposes.

268
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are supported methods for FTD failover mechanism?

Select 3 answers
A.Stateful failover.
B.Transparent proxy failover.
C.Clustering.
D.Manual interface switching.
E.Redundant interfaces.
AnswersA, C, E

Synchronizes session tables.

Why this answer

FTD supports stateful failover, redundant interfaces, and clustering for high availability.

269
MCQmedium

When deploying FTD in a virtual environment on AWS, which feature allows the firewall to handle high-bandwidth traffic by distributing it across multiple interfaces using ECMP?

A.Static Route Tracking
B.Port Channels
C.Clustering
D.ECMP Routing
AnswerD

ECMP enables the use of multiple paths to reach the same destination, load-balancing traffic.

Why this answer

ECMP (Equal-Cost Multi-Path) allows routing traffic across multiple equal-cost paths, which is essential for scaling performance in virtual deployments.

270
Multi-Selecteasy

An administrator needs to define network objects in the FMC Object Management menu. Which THREE object types are natively supported for network definition? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Port Object
B.Host Object
C.Network Object (Subnet)
D.Application Filter Object
E.Range Object
AnswersB, C, E

Host objects represent single IP addresses.

Why this answer

FMC supports Host, Range, Network (subnet), FQDN, and Network Group objects for network definitions.

271
MCQhard

An administrator configures an SSL Decryption Policy on the FMC to decrypt inbound HTTPS traffic destined for an internal web server. The administrator imports the private key and server certificate into the FMC. Which decryption action must be selected to allow the FTD to decrypt this traffic using the server's private key?

A.Do Not Decrypt
B.Decrypt - Resign
C.Block
D.Decrypt - Known Key
AnswerD

Decrypt - Known Key requires the private key of the server to be imported, allowing the FTD to passively decrypt inbound TLS sessions destined for that server.

Why this answer

Decrypt - Resign is used for outbound, while Decrypt - Known Key is used when you own the server and supply its private key to decrypt inbound traffic.

272
MCQmedium

You are deploying FTD in a cloud environment. What is the primary purpose of the 'Management Interface' when launching the virtual instance?

A.To communicate with the FMC.
B.To provide high availability heartbeats.
C.To perform stateful inspection of internal traffic.
D.To handle internet-bound traffic.
AnswerA

The management interface provides the control plane connectivity.

Why this answer

The management interface is used exclusively for the FMC or FDM to configure and manage the FTD appliance. Data traffic is kept separate to maintain security and throughput.

273
MCQeasy

An administrator wants to configure automated email notifications from the FMC whenever a critical health monitor alert occurs on any managed device. Where should this be configured in the FMC GUI?

A.Objects > Object Management > Alerting
B.Policies > Access Control > Logging
C.System > Health > Monitor > Alert Responses
D.Devices > Device Management > Alerts
AnswerC

Alert Responses under Health Monitor allow administrators to define email and SNMP notifications for health events.

Why this answer

Alert responses, SNMP traps, and email notifications for health monitoring are configured under System > Health > Monitor > Alert Responses.

274
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is configuring a Manual NAT rule in the FMC for an internal server that needs to be accessed from the outside zone. The internal IP is 192.168.1.50, and it must be translated to a public IP 203.0.113.10. Which TWO configuration parameters must be specified when defining this Manual NAT rule? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Interface PAT (PAT Pool)
B.Original Source
C.ARP Inspection Profile
D.Translated Source
E.DNS Resolution Option
AnswersB, D

The Original Source must be defined as the internal server object (192.168.1.50).

Why this answer

Manual NAT rules require defining the Source Interface (original source zone/interface), Destination Interface (translated destination zone/interface), Original Source IP, and Translated Source IP.

275
MCQhard

You are deploying a Cisco FTD High Availability pair. During the synchronization process, what occurs when the standby unit fails to receive three consecutive heartbeat hellos from the primary?

A.The standby unit transitions to the Active state.
B.The standby unit initiates a full configuration overwrite from the secondary flash.
C.The standby unit enters a suspended state to wait for administrative intervention.
D.The primary unit is rebooted automatically by the standby unit.
AnswerA

Three missed hellos trigger a failover event, promoting the standby to active.

Why this answer

In FTD HA, three consecutive missed hellos trigger a state change, and the standby unit initiates a failover because it assumes the primary has failed.

276
Multi-Selecthard

An organization integrates Cisco Secure Firewall with Cisco SecureX. Which THREE actions or capabilities can be executed as part of this integration? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Automated blocking of malicious file hashes or IP indicators across managed FTD devices via FMC API orchestration.
B.Configuring Layer 2 switchport access VLAN assignments via SecureX cloud agents.
C.Visualizing threat incidence and pivoting from SecureX ribbon investigations directly to FMC event logs.
D.Replacing the FMC as the primary device management and policy deployment GUI for FTD.
E.Synchronizing global threat intelligence feeds and security intelligence blacklists with the FMC.
AnswersA, C, E

SecureX can orchestrate block actions across firewalls via FMC APIs.

Why this answer

SecureX integration allows threat intelligence synchronization, pivoting for incident investigation, and automated threat response actions like blocking indicators across devices.

277
MCQmedium

An administrator needs to send Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense audit logs and security logs to an external syslog server. Which configuration object in the FMC Platform Settings must be modified to define the destination IP address, transport protocol, and port?

A.System > Integration > Syslog
B.Devices > Platform Settings > Syslog > Syslog Servers
C.Access Control Policy > Logging
D.Objects > Object Management > Syslog Destination
AnswerB

Syslog server IP addresses, ports, and protocols are configured under Platform Settings -> Syslog.

Why this answer

Syslog server destinations are configured under Platform Settings via the Syslog server object configuration within the FMC.

278
MCQmedium

You are deploying an FTD in AWS. What is the correct way to handle the internal IP addresses of the FTD instances in an HA pair?

A.Configure VRRP on the interfaces.
B.Use a virtual IP via API calls to the VPC route table.
C.Use physical interface MAC pinning.
D.Configure a cluster control link.
AnswerB

This is the standard approach for cloud HA.

Why this answer

In AWS, you assign virtual secondary IPs or use Elastic IPs to ensure that traffic is routed correctly even after a failover event.

279
MCQhard

An administrator is configuring a Prefilter Policy in FMC to optimize performance on a Cisco Firepower Threat Defense device. The requirement is to completely bypass inspection for a trusted high-speed data backup tunnel between two datacenters using GRE encapsulation. Which prefilter rule action should be selected?

A.Monitor
B.Block
C.Analyze
D.Fast Path
AnswerD

Fast Path skips the Snort inspection engine entirely, accelerating packet processing for trusted traffic.

Why this answer

To completely bypass Snort inspection and fast-path the traffic at the hardware/driver level for performance, the Fast Path action is used within a Prefilter policy.

280
MCQmedium

When configuring a Port Channel on an FTD, what is the primary benefit of using LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol)?

A.It increases the throughput limit.
B.It bypasses the need for an IP address.
C.It converts the port to a virtual switch.
D.It provides automated link negotiation and failure detection.
AnswerD

LACP adds intelligence to the port channel interface.

Why this answer

LACP ensures link integrity by performing negotiation and error checking, preventing misconfiguration in the bundle.

281
MCQmedium

A security analyst configures syslog integration on Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense to forward critical security events to a Splunk SIEM. Which configuration step must be performed within the Firepower Management Center (FMC) to ensure these logs include the user identity and SGT mapping?

A.Enable SNMP polling on the FMC for user IP mappings.
B.Deploy an eStreamer client directly on the Splunk indexer.
C.Configure NetFlow export templates to include SGT fields.
D.Configure syslog alerts within the Access Control Policy rules and ensure user identity inclusion is enabled.
AnswerD

Access Control rules dictate event logging behavior, and syslog settings must be configured to append user data.

Why this answer

To include identity and user metadata in syslog messages generated by Threat Defense, the administrator must ensure that Extended Syslog formats or appropriate logging destinations containing user activity are enabled within the Platform Settings or Access Control Policy syslog settings.

282
MCQmedium

An FTD device is failing to register with the FMC. The administrator confirms connectivity via ping. Which CLI command should the administrator run on the FTD to verify the registration status and the shared secret handshake?

A.show manager
B.show registration status
C.show fmc connection
D.show interface management
E.show network manager
AnswerA

This command displays the FMC registration state and connection details.

Why this answer

The 'show manager' command displays the registration status, the FMC IP, and whether the connection is currently established or pending.

283
MCQmedium

An administrator needs to configure Active Authentication using a captive portal on an FTD device. Which firewall feature must be properly configured and running to present the authentication prompt to users?

A.Prefilter Bypass rule with SSL Resign
B.HTTP/HTTPS Response Page and Authentication Certificate configuration
C.SNMPv3 trap notification server
D.Platform Settings AAA server group for SSH/Telnet
AnswerB

Captive portal relies on an HTTP response server certificate and settings to present the login page.

Why this answer

Captive portal active authentication requires an HTTP/HTTPS response server configuration on the FTD to intercept unauthenticated HTTP sessions and prompt for credentials.

284
MCQmedium

You need to implement static route tracking on an FTD to ensure traffic fails over to a secondary ISP. Which object is used to define the reachability check?

A.Route map
B.Failover group
C.Interface tracking group
D.SLA Monitor object
AnswerD

SLA Monitors ping a target to determine route viability.

Why this answer

SLA Monitor objects are used to track reachability to a target IP, and the static route is then associated with this monitor.

285
MCQmedium

You are configuring a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense deployment in an AWS environment. Which specific component is required to handle automated failover and route table updates when deploying a clustered or high-availability pair across multiple Availability Zones?

A.Cisco Secure Firewall AWS Lambda scripts
B.Cisco Adaptive Security Virtual Appliance (ASAv) state synchronization protocol
C.BGP peering directly with the AWS Internet Gateway
D.Gratuitous ARP via the transit gateway
AnswerA

AWS Lambda scripts are officially provided by Cisco to automate route table updates during failover in AWS.

Why this answer

AWS deployments of Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense rely on AWS Lambda functions triggered by cloud watch events or API calls to automatically update route tables during a failover event.

286
MCQhard

An administrator wants to decrypt inbound HTTPS traffic destined for a public web server behind a Firepower Threat Defense device. Which type of SSL/TLS decryption policy must be configured on the FMC?

A.SSL Decryption - Do Not Decrypt
B.Decrypt - Resign
C.Decrypt - Inbound
D.SSL Inspection Policy - Outbound
AnswerC

Decrypt - Inbound is specifically designed for decrypting incoming traffic to protected servers using the server's private key.

Why this answer

Decrypt - Inbound is used when the FTD device holds the private key of the server to decrypt inbound traffic destined for internal protected servers.

287
MCQmedium

An administrator is integrating Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense with Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) using pxGrid. During the initial connection phase, the Secure Firewall is stuck in a 'Connecting' state and fails to download user-to-IP mapping. Where should the administrator check the pxGrid client status and troubleshoot the registration certificate handshake on the Secure Firewall CLI?

A.Run the command 'show pxgrid status' and 'show crypto ca certificates' in the FTD expert mode or CLI.
B.Inspect the 'estreamer.log' file on the FMC to view ISE pxGrid heartbeat failures.
C.Run 'show ise identity source' on the FMC CLI to confirm active pxGrid threads.
D.Check the Platform Settings policy under 'Cisco Identity Services Engine' and review the 'show sgt-mapping' command.
AnswerA

These commands verify the operational status of the pxGrid agent and the validity of the certificates exchanged between the firewall and ISE.

Why this answer

On Secure Firewall Threat Defense (managed via FMC), the pxGrid client runs as part of the FTD platform services. Troubleshooting pxGrid connection issues requires checking the fxos/platform or system logs, specifically using the command 'show pxgrid status' and verifying the PKI certificates issued by ISE under the security-client framework.

288
MCQeasy

Which tool in the FMC allows you to view the real-time flow of packets being processed by the Snort engine for troubleshooting purposes?

A.Event Viewer
B.Health Monitor
C.Packet Tracer
D.Connection Events
E.Traffic Logger
AnswerC

Packet Tracer provides a visual trace of policy and inspection hits.

Why this answer

Packet Tracer is the primary GUI tool for simulating and tracing traffic through the FTD inspection pipeline.

289
MCQmedium

An administrator configures an Identity Policy on the FMC to authenticate users via Active Directory using captive portal. Where is the Identity Policy applied within the Firepower configuration hierarchy?

A.Directly under Devices > Device Management > Platform Settings
B.Within the Access Control Policy settings on the FMC
C.Inside the SSL/TLS Decryption Policy
D.As a standalone rule inside a Prefilter Policy
AnswerB

Identity policies are invoked and associated directly within the Access Control Policy.

Why this answer

Identity policies are associated directly with an Access Control Policy under the Advanced tab or specific settings, which links the user mapping to traffic inspection.

290
MCQmedium

An administrator is configuring an inline interface pair on a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense device using Cisco FMC. The business requires that if the firewall experiences a power failure or kernel panic, traffic must continue to flow uninterrupted through the network segment. Which action should the administrator take?

A.Set up a redundant EtherChannel with LACP fast-rate timers.
B.Deploy the interfaces in a Bridge Virtual Interface (BVI) group with spanning tree disabled.
C.Configure the inline set with the 'Fail Close' setting and enable STP root guard.
D.Configure the inline set with the 'Fail Open' setting and ensure hardware bypass is supported and enabled on the network module.
AnswerD

Fail Open configuration ensures that if the hardware fails or loses power, the bypass capability physically connects the ports together to keep traffic flowing.

Why this answer

Hardware bypass capability (fail-open) on supported Network Interface Modules (NIMs/SMs) allows physical optical or copper paths to bridge automatically when power is lost or the Snort engine crashes.

291
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator integrates Cisco Secure Firewall with Cisco SecureX. Which TWO components or settings are required on the FMC to establish and maintain this cloud integration? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Valid API integration keys / credentials generated from the Cisco SecureX cloud management console and pasted into the FMC.
B.An active eStreamer daemon listening on TCP port 8302 for SecureX incoming connection polls.
C.A direct SSH tunnel between the FTD data plane and the SecureX cloud.
D.An active pxGrid session client on every managed FTD device.
E.Outbound HTTPS (TCP port 443) connectivity from the FMC management interface to the SecureX cloud endpoints.
AnswersA, E

API credentials authenticate the FMC to the SecureX cloud services.

Why this answer

SecureX integration on FMC requires outbound internet connectivity over HTTPS (port 443) and valid API integration credentials generated from the SecureX/Security Cloud Control portal.

292
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is configuring third-party SIEM integration using eStreamer. Which TWO actions must be completed on the FMC to generate the necessary client integration files? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Enable the pxGrid service persona on the FMC management interface.
B.Generate a SecureX API token from FMC System Preferences.
C.Generate the PKCS#12 certificate bundle and download the CA certificate for the client.
D.Specify the IP address of the external eStreamer client host in the FMC eStreamer configuration menu.
E.Configure a syslog server IP address under FTD Platform Settings.
AnswersC, D

The PKCS#12 bundle and CA certificate are required for mutual TLS authentication.

Why this answer

Generating eStreamer client integration files on FMC requires specifying the client IP address and creating the client certificate bundle.

293
MCQmedium

Which feature in FMC allows you to group multiple physical interfaces into a single logical zone for policy assignment?

A.Security Zone
B.VLAN Group
C.Port Channel
D.Bridge Group
AnswerA

Security Zones are the FMC construct for this purpose.

Why this answer

Security Zones allow logical grouping of interfaces for easier policy management.

294
MCQhard

An enterprise integrates Cisco Secure Firewall with Cisco SecureX. The security team wants to leverage SecureX Threat Intelligence to automatically quarantine endpoints that exhibit malicious behavior. How does the integration coordinate this mitigation action across SecureX, FMC, and ISE?

A.SecureX directly accesses the FTD data plane via SSH to shut down the physical switchport.
B.SecureX instructs Cisco ISE via API/pxGrid to apply an Adaptive Network Control (ANC) quarantine policy to the endpoint, while FMC blocks associated traffic flows.
C.The FTD continuously polls SecureX and reconfigures its VLAN database using VTP.
D.ISE sends a DHCP release packet to the endpoint through the FTD inspection engine.
AnswerB

SecureX coordinates across security products, leveraging ISE's ANC to quarantine endpoints at the network access layer and FMC/FTD for traffic blocking.

Why this answer

SecureX orchestrates threat response by triggering an API call to ISE (via pxGrid/ANC) to dynamically apply an Adaptive Network Control (ANC) quarantine policy or to FMC to block the IP, isolating the compromised endpoint.

295
Multi-Selecthard

When configuring an FQDN object, which THREE options are valid for the FQDN field?

Select 3 answers
A.IP address
B.Subdomain
C.Wildcard domain
D.Protocol name
E.Single domain name
AnswersB, C, E

Matches specific subdomains.

Why this answer

FQDN objects can be a single domain, a wildcard domain, or a domain with specific subdomains.

296
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO components must be configured to manage an FTD via the FMC?

Select 2 answers
A.Registration key.
B.Management interface IP address.
C.Default gateway on the data interface.
D.A valid license on the FMC.
E.SNMP community string.
AnswersA, B

Required for security/pairing.

Why this answer

Management requires configuring the management IP on the FTD and registering it with the FMC using a registration key.

297
Multi-Selecteasy

An administrator is setting up health monitoring alerts on the FMC. Which TWO notification methods can be configured when a health alert is triggered? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Automated SMS text message directly via built-in cellular SIM
B.Email notification
C.SNMP Trap
D.Direct Bluetooth broadcast
E.Automated phone call via SIP trunking
AnswersB, C

Health alerts can be sent via email to administrators.

Why this answer

FMC health monitor alert responses support sending email notifications and generating SNMP traps.

298
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is performing a backup and restore operation on an FMC appliance. Which THREE statements are correct regarding the FMC restore process? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Backups can be restored across major software version differences (e.g., restoring a v6.2 backup directly onto v7.4).
B.Restoring a backup overwrites the existing configuration and database on the target FMC.
C.Restoring an FMC backup automatically restores all connected FTD local flash images.
D.After restoring a backup to a new appliance, managed FTD devices may require re-registration or trust re-establishment due to changed CA keys.
E.The target FMC appliance must be running the exact same software version as the appliance where the backup was generated.
AnswersB, D, E

A restore operation replaces current database entries with the backup archive's contents.

Why this answer

When restoring an FMC backup, the target appliance must generally be running the exact same software version, the restore process overwrites existing configurations, and it requires proper system initialization.

299
MCQhard

An administrator is troubleshooting a Stateful High Availability (HA) pair of Cisco Secure Firewall 4100 series devices managed by FMC. The units are failing to form an HA state, and logs indicate a state mismatch on the control link. Which underlying cause is most likely preventing the HA synchronization?

A.The MTU on the data interfaces differs by 4 bytes.
B.The stateful HA control link is configured across a routed switch interface instead of a direct cross-over cable.
C.The management IP addresses on the active and standby units are identical.
D.One unit is running a slightly different maintenance patch release of FTD than its peer.
AnswerD

FMC enforces strict version matching; even a minor patch level mismatch between primary and secondary units will cause HA initialization to fail.

Why this answer

Firewall High Availability requires identical hardware models, identical interface counts/types, matching deployment modes (routed/transparent), and identical software/patch versions.

300
Multi-Selecthard

An engineer is deploying Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense in a complex multi-zone routed environment. Which THREE design considerations apply when implementing routed mode interfaces? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.NAT configuration is strictly prohibited on routed mode interfaces.
B.Each routed interface must belong to a distinct IP subnet and act as a Layer 3 gateway for connected segments.
C.All physical interfaces must be combined into a single Bridge Virtual Interface (BVI).
D.The firewall rewrites source and destination MAC addresses as traffic passes between routed interfaces.
E.Dynamic routing protocols such as OSPF and BGP can be configured on these interfaces.
AnswersB, D, E

Routed interfaces operate at Layer 3 with IP addresses.

Why this answer

Routed mode interfaces require IP addresses, participate in routing protocols or static routes, and handle MAC address rewriting as Layer 3 gateways.

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