Courseiva

Cisco Securing Networks with Cisco Firewalls (300-710 SNCF, CCNP Security) (300-710 SNCF) (300-710 SNCF) — Questions 301–358

358 questions total · 5 pages · All types, answers revealed

Page 4

Page 5 of 5

301
MCQmedium

An engineer is deploying a pair of Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense appliances managed by a Firewall Management Center. The requirement is that the two appliances share a single management IP address and a single data IP address so that downstream routers only need one next-hop address, and failover must occur automatically when the active unit fails. Which deployment mode should the engineer configure?

A.Transparent mode with bridge groups
B.Active/Standby failover
C.Standalone deployment with equal-cost multipath routing
D.Clustering with spanned EtherChannel
AnswerB

Active/Standby failover gives the pair a shared management IP and a shared data IP, with only one unit actively forwarding traffic at a time. When the active unit fails, the standby takes over both addresses automatically. This exactly matches the stated requirement of a single next-hop address with automatic failover, and it is the standard FTD high-availability option for this design.

Why this answer

The requirement for one shared management IP, one shared data IP, and automatic takeover on failure maps directly to Active/Standby failover. In this mode the standby unit continuously synchronizes configuration and state so it can assume the active role and both addresses without operator intervention, giving downstream devices a stable single next hop.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that any two-device redundancy scheme automatically presents a single shared IP address, when standalone pairs and clustering do not provide the simple shared-address failover described.

302
Multi-Selectmedium

An engineer needs to troubleshoot high CPU usage on an FTD device caused by Snort. Which THREE actions or features can be adjusted or implemented to mitigate Snort CPU load? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Convert all physical interfaces into switchports without IP addresses.
B.Configure SSL Decryption policies to bypass trusted internal traffic or known safe applications.
C.Disable the FTD kernel entirely and run Snort in standalone user-space loopback mode.
D.Tune the Intrusion Policy to disable rules that are not applicable to the network environment.
E.Optimize Access Control rules by placing frequently matched allow rules higher in the rule order with fewer inspection requirements.
AnswersB, D, E

SSL Decryption policies determine which flows Snort must decrypt and inspect. Bypassing trusted internal traffic or known safe applications removes that decryption and inspection workload from the Snort engine, directly lowering CPU consumption without weakening inspection of untrusted sessions.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because SSL Decryption is one of the most CPU-intensive operations Snort performs; bypassing trusted internal traffic or known safe applications in the SSL policy prevents Snort from decrypting and inspecting that traffic, directly reducing CPU load. Option D is correct because the Intrusion Policy determines which Snort rules are evaluated, and disabling rules not applicable to the network environment reduces the number of signatures Snort must process per packet, lowering CPU utilization. Option E is correct because Access Control rules are evaluated top-down, and placing frequently matched allow rules higher with fewer inspection requirements (e.g., no intrusion or file inspection) lets traffic be allowed early with minimal Snort processing, reducing overall CPU demand.

Option A is incorrect because converting physical interfaces to switchports without IP addresses is a Layer 2 deployment consideration and does not by itself reduce Snort CPU load. Option C is incorrect because disabling the FTD kernel and running Snort in standalone user-space loopback mode is not a supported or valid FTD configuration and would not mitigate CPU usage.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests the misconception that disabling kernel components or restructuring interfaces can reduce Snort CPU load, when the real levers are policy tuning, decryption bypass, and rule optimization.

303
MCQhard

An engineer is troubleshooting an integration between Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center and Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) using pxGrid. The FMC shows the pxGrid connection as 'Connected', but user identity information is not being populated in the FMC. Which action should the engineer take first to resolve the issue?

A.Verify that the FTD devices are registered with ISE.
B.Verify that the FMC is subscribed to the correct pxGrid topics in ISE.
C.Check the FMC's certificate expiration date.
D.Restart the pxGrid service on ISE.
AnswerB

For the FMC to receive user identity information, it must be subscribed to the appropriate pxGrid topics, such as the session directory. Even if the connection is 'Connected', without the correct subscriptions, the FMC will not receive identity data. Checking subscriptions is the first logical step.

Why this answer

When the pxGrid connection is 'Connected' but identity data is not populated, the most likely cause is that the FMC is not subscribed to the necessary pxGrid topics in ISE. The FMC must subscribe to topics like session directory to receive user identity updates. Verifying subscriptions is the correct first troubleshooting step.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a 'Connected' status means everything is working, when actually subscriptions must also be configured for data to flow.

304
MCQmedium

You are troubleshooting high availability. The units are connected, but the failover link shows as 'Down'. What is the most likely cause?

A.Mismatched failover link configuration or physical layer issues.
B.The primary unit is in routed mode.
C.The standby unit has an expired license.
D.Mismatched IP addresses on the data interface.
AnswerA

A failover link reporting Down while units remain connected points to a layer 1 or configuration mismatch: differing interface settings, speed, or media between the failover interfaces, or a cabling or transceiver fault, prevents the link from coming up.

Why this answer

The failover link must be a direct cable connection or a dedicated VLAN. Mismatched cable types or misconfigured link settings are common causes for the link to remain down.

305
MCQeasy

An enterprise network design incorporates Equal-Cost Multi-Path (ECMP) routing across two Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense units functioning independently in routed mode. What is the primary benefit of enabling ECMP on the firewalls?

A.It allows passive NGIPS interfaces to share inspection load without SPAN replication.
B.It pools the CPU and memory resources of both firewalls into a single logical cluster.
C.It enables the firewall to balance outbound traffic across multiple next-hop gateways using multiple equal-cost routes.
D.It synchronizes connection state tables across both independent firewalls for zero-loss failover.
AnswerC

ECMP installs multiple equal-cost routes to the same destination, and the firewall hashes flows across those next-hop gateways. This balances outbound traffic over several paths, which is the primary benefit for independently routed Threat Defense units.

Why this answer

ECMP allows the firewall to install multiple equal-cost paths to the same destination in its routing table, distributing traffic across multiple next-hop routers for load balancing and redundancy.

306
MCQhard

An administrator is troubleshooting an FTD device that is failing to register with FMC. The FTD has been configured with the correct FMC IP address, registration key, and NAT ID. Which additional setting must be verified on the FTD to allow successful registration?

A.The FTD must be able to resolve the FMC's hostname via DNS.
B.The FTD must have a default route to reach the FMC.
C.The FTD must be configured with the same NAT ID as the FMC.
D.The FTD must have the same time zone as the FMC.
AnswerB

For the FTD to initiate communication with FMC, it needs a route to the FMC's IP address. If FMC is on a different subnet, a default gateway or specific static route must be configured on the management interface. Without a route, the FTD cannot send registration packets to FMC, and registration will fail even if all other settings are correct.

Why this answer

The FTD requires a route to reach FMC. If FMC is on a different network, a default gateway or static route must be configured on the management interface. Without it, registration packets cannot reach FMC.

DNS, time zone, and NAT ID are either already addressed or not blocking registration in this scenario.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on DNS or NAT ID when the most common oversight is the lack of a default route on the management interface.

307
MCQeasy

Which protocol is natively used by Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center to stream connection and intrusion events to external SIEM systems in real time?

A.HTTP SOAP
B.TFTP
C.NetFlow v9
D.eStreamer
AnswerD

eStreamer is Cisco's native, binary event-streaming protocol; the Management Center pushes connection, intrusion and malware events to a client on the SIEM host in real time, satisfying the low-latency requirement. Unlike syslog, it carries structured records and supports event types syslog cannot, making it the purpose-built mechanism here.

Why this answer

eStreamer is Cisco's proprietary protocol and API used for streaming security events from FMC to SIEMs.

308
MCQeasy

Which FTD command-line tool is primarily used to check interface status and physical link state?

A.show interface
B.show run
C.show service-policy
D.show version
AnswerA

The show interface command reports per-interface operational state, line protocol status and physical link state on the FTD CLI. It is the primary tool for confirming whether an interface is up or down, satisfying the requirement to check interface status and physical link state.

Why this answer

The 'show interface' command provides detailed status on physical link state, speed, and duplex.

309
MCQhard

You have a large number of NAT rules. How does the FTD process them?

A.Bottom-up
B.Specific to General
C.Top-down
D.Alphabetical
AnswerC

First match wins.

Why this answer

NAT rules are processed in a top-down order until the first match is found.

310
MCQmedium

A security team is deploying a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense device in a routed mode at the perimeter. They need to ensure that the device can be managed out-of-band on a dedicated network, separate from the data traffic, and that management traffic does not traverse the data interfaces. Which deployment approach should they use?

A.Assign a management IP address to one of the data interfaces and use policy-based routing
B.Use a subinterface on the data port with a dedicated VLAN for management and a separate default gateway
C.Configure a separate management interface with its own IP address and default gateway
D.Enable the management interface and configure a static route on the data interface for management return traffic
AnswerC

Using a dedicated management interface with its own IP address and gateway keeps management traffic completely separate from data traffic. This out-of-band approach ensures that management access remains available even if data interfaces are saturated or fail, and it prevents management traffic from being inspected or routed through the data path.

Why this answer

Out-of-band management requires a physically separate management interface with its own addressing and gateway. This keeps management traffic independent of the data interfaces, so administrative access remains available even during data-plane failures or heavy load, and management traffic is not routed through the data path.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that a subinterface or policy-based routing on a data port provides out-of-band management, when true separation requires a dedicated physical management interface.

311
MCQeasy

An administrator wants to group multiple existing port objects (e.g., TCP 80, TCP 443, TCP 8080) into a single object for use in Access Control Policy rules. Which object container should be created?

A.Port Object
B.Port Group Object
C.Protocol Object
D.Application Filter Object
AnswerB

A Port Group Object aggregates multiple existing port objects, such as TCP 80, 443 and 8080, into one reusable container. Referencing it in Access Control Policy rules avoids creating separate rules for each port, simplifying administration.

Why this answer

A Port Group Object is a container that groups multiple port objects (e.g., TCP 80, 443, 8080) into a single reusable object. This allows administrators to reference the group in Access Control rules instead of listing each port individually, simplifying policy management. Port Group Objects are specifically designed for this purpose in FMC.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing a Port Object with a Port Group Object; candidates may think a single Port Object can hold multiple ports, but it cannot—only a Port Group can contain multiple port objects.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Port Object represents a single port or a range, not a group of multiple ports. Option C is wrong because a Protocol Object represents IP protocols (e.g., TCP, UDP, ICMP) and is not used to group ports. Option D is wrong because an Application Filter Object is used to match applications based on characteristics like category or risk, not to group ports.

312
MCQeasy

Which type of events can be exported from Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center to a SIEM using the eStreamer protocol?

A.FMC administrator login CLI keystrokes only
B.Raw packet captures (PCAP) of every inspected flow
C.Routing table updates from OSPF and BGP protocols
D.Connection, intrusion, and malware/file events
AnswerD

eStreamer exports connection, intrusion, and malware/file events, giving the SIEM the full correlation set. It does not carry the other event categories, so this trio is precisely what the protocol forwards to satisfy the integration requirement.

Why this answer

eStreamer supports exporting connection events, intrusion events, malware events, and host/identity data from the FMC database.

313
MCQmedium

You are defining an Access Control Policy rule to allow traffic. If you want to log the connection at the end of the flow only if it matches the rule, which Logging setting is appropriate?

A.Log at Beginning
B.Log at End
C.Disable Logging
D.Log Both
AnswerB

Log at End records the connection once it terminates, capturing the final action and bytes transferred rather than generating an entry at session start. This matches the requirement to log only when traffic matches the rule, and it reduces log volume compared with logging at both points.

Why this answer

In Cisco Secure Firewall (Firepower) Access Control Policy, the 'Log at End' setting logs the connection only when the connection is terminated, and only if the connection matched the rule. This is useful for logging allowed traffic without generating a log at the beginning of the connection, which reduces log volume and provides end-of-flow details such as bytes transferred and duration.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests the logging options by presenting scenarios where candidates must distinguish between logging at the beginning, end, or both, and the trap is choosing 'Log Both' when only end-of-flow logging is required.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'Log at Beginning' generates a log when the connection starts, which does not wait until the end of the flow and may not include final connection statistics. Option C is wrong because 'Disable Logging' would not log the connection at all, contradicting the requirement to log at the end. Option D is wrong because 'Log Both' logs at both the beginning and end, which is more than required and generates additional log entries.

314
MCQhard

A security engineer is integrating Cisco Secure Firewall with a third-party SIEM using eStreamer. The SIEM vendor's connector documentation requires the eStreamer event types to be parsed correctly. Which file format or protocol encoding does eStreamer use to transmit event records over TCP port 8305?

A.JSON over HTTPS REST API
B.XML-formatted SOAP messages
C.Syslog-formatted plain text over TLS
D.Compressed binary-encoded records over a custom TCP session
AnswerD

eStreamer transmits events as compressed binary-encoded records over a proprietary TCP session on port 8305, not as syslog, JSON or plain text. The SIEM connector must decode this binary format to parse event types correctly.

Why this answer

eStreamer transmits serialized binary event records over a secured TCP connection.

315
MCQmedium

How do you identify which Access Control Rule triggered a specific connection log?

A.Check the 'Policy Name' field
B.Check the 'Device Name'
C.Check the 'Ingress Zone'
D.Check the 'Rule Name' field in the connection event
AnswerD

The connection event's 'Rule Name' field directly records which Access Control Rule matched the traffic, satisfying the need to attribute a specific connection to its triggering rule. Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center populates this field at evaluation time, so no correlation across separate rule or policy tables is required.

Why this answer

The connection event log contains a field identifying the specific Rule Name that matched.

316
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting a connectivity issue. The traffic is being dropped by a Prefilter rule. What is the characteristic of traffic handled by a Prefilter policy?

A.It performs full IPS inspection
B.It operates at the L7 layer
C.It bypasses the Snort engine
D.It only applies to encrypted traffic
AnswerC

Prefilter policies operate before and separately from the Snort inspection engine, so matching traffic is allowed or blocked without deep packet inspection. This bypass explains why a Prefilter rule drops the connection regardless of Snort configuration.

Why this answer

Prefilter policies provide a fast path to inspect traffic without the overhead of deep packet inspection.

317
MCQhard

In an FTD cluster, what happens if the cluster control link fails?

A.The FMC takes over the cluster.
B.The cluster nodes may disable themselves to avoid split-brain.
C.The cluster continues to operate normally.
D.The entire cluster reboots.
AnswerB

Without the cluster control link, nodes cannot exchange heartbeat and state information, so each may assume the others have failed. To prevent a split-brain condition where both segments actively process traffic, nodes disable their data interfaces, preserving cluster integrity.

Why this answer

If the control link fails, the cluster members cannot synchronize state or status, typically leading to a split-brain scenario or the standby nodes disabling themselves to prevent inconsistency.

318
MCQmedium

When editing an Access Control Rule, which action allows you to drop traffic while simultaneously sending a TCP RST to the client?

A.Block with Reset
B.Interactive Block
C.Block
D.Trust
AnswerA

Block with Reset drops the packet and returns a TCP RST to the sender, immediately terminating the connection rather than silently discarding it. This satisfies the requirement to both deny traffic and notify the client, unlike plain Block, which drops silently and forces the client to time out.

Why this answer

The 'Block with Reset' action drops the connection and sends a reset packet to notify the sender.

319
MCQhard

When a packet capture is running on the FTD, where can you download the resulting .pcap file for analysis in Wireshark?

A.Devices > Device Management > Diagnostics
B.Devices > Device Management > Captures
C.System > Tools > File Transfer
D.Objects > File Lists
E.Analysis > Packet Analysis
AnswerB

Packet captures on the FTD are stored and retrieved via the Devices > Device Management > Captures page in the FMC, satisfying the requirement to download the resulting .pcap for Wireshark analysis. This location lists completed capture files and provides the download action, unlike other monitoring or analysis sections.

Why this answer

Packet capture files (.pcap) generated on the FTD can be downloaded from Devices > Device Management > Captures in the FMC GUI. This page lists active and completed captures and provides a download option for the resulting pcap file, which can then be opened in Wireshark for detailed analysis. It is the designated location for managing and retrieving capture files.

Exam trap

The trap is that candidates confuse the capture download location with other file management areas like File Transfer or File Lists, but the correct path is specifically Devices > Device Management > Captures.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Devices > Device Management > Diagnostics is used for diagnostic tools like troubleshooting wizards and packet tracer, not for downloading capture files. Option C is wrong because System > Tools > File Transfer is used for importing and exporting files such as backups and upgrades, not for retrieving packet captures. Option D is wrong because Objects > File Lists is used to manage file objects for policies, not capture files.

Option E is wrong because Analysis > Packet Analysis is not the correct path for downloading captures from FTD devices.

320
MCQhard

An engineer is troubleshooting a Cisco ISE and Secure Firewall pxGrid integration. The administrator notices that user group memberships are not populating correctly on the FTD, even though IP-to-user mappings are visible. What is the most likely reason user group information is missing?

A.ISE is not configured to include user group attributes in pxGrid publication feeds, or the FMC requires direct LDAP/AD integration to resolve user group hierarchies.
B.The FMC eStreamer service is blocking group attribute propagation.
C.User groups can only be resolved via RADIUS accounting attributes, making pxGrid fundamentally incompatible with user group filtering.
D.The FTD Snort engine must be configured with a local flat file containing all user group names.
AnswerA

pxGrid publishes user-to-IP mappings, but group hierarchy resolution depends on ISE including group attributes in its feeds or FMC querying LDAP/AD directly. Without that, group memberships stay empty even though IP-to-user mappings appear, matching the stem's symptom.

Why this answer

While pxGrid shares IP-to-user mappings, user group attribute resolution often relies on Active Directory integration or LDAP directory configurations mapped within ISE or synchronized via Active Directory Agent / ISE Active Directory attribute retrieval. If ISE is not configured to publish user group attributes over pxGrid or if the FMC lacks AD LDAP integration to resolve the groups, group-based rules will fail.

321
MCQhard

An administrator configures a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense cluster. During normal operations, a data node experiences a critical hardware failure. What happens to the active connections currently processed by that specific failed data node?

A.Active connections are migrated or maintained by surviving cluster nodes because connection state is distributed across the cluster.
B.Traffic destined for the failed node is permanently blackholed until the physical module is replaced.
C.All active connections are immediately dropped, forcing clients to re-establish TCP handshakes from scratch.
D.The entire cluster reboots to elect a new control node and rebuild the data plane.
AnswerA

Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense clustering distributes connection state across all data nodes, so the failed node's flows are not lost. Surviving nodes already hold the state and take over processing, maintaining active connections. This satisfies the scenario's requirement that existing sessions continue despite critical hardware failure.

Why this answer

In a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense cluster, connection state is synchronised across data nodes so that if one data node fails, surviving nodes can maintain or take over the active connections. This state sharing is what allows the cluster to provide high availability without forcing clients to re-establish sessions. The control node handles cluster management, but data plane continuity is preserved by the distributed state.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests the misconception that a data node failure causes all connections to drop or the whole cluster to reboot, when in fact state synchronisation allows surviving nodes to maintain active sessions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because traffic is not permanently blackholed; the cluster is designed to redirect flows to surviving data nodes, and the failed unit can be replaced without permanent loss. Option C is wrong because active connections are not all dropped; state synchronisation allows surviving nodes to continue processing them, which is the core benefit of clustering. Option D is wrong because the entire cluster does not reboot; the control node role is separate from data plane processing, and a single data node failure does not trigger a cluster-wide reboot or control node re-election.

322
MCQhard

You are deploying an FTD in a cloud environment and need to ensure high availability. Which technology is typically used to manage the virtual IP failover?

A.VRRP.
B.Cloud API calls to update route tables.
C.EtherChannel hashing.
D.Gratuitous ARP.
AnswerB

Cloud environments cannot use gratuitous ARP or VRRP-style virtual MAC failover, so the FTD cluster nodes instead signal the cloud fabric through provider API calls that rewrite the route table, redirecting traffic to the surviving node's elastic IP.

Why this answer

In cloud environments, FTD high availability failover is managed by cloud API calls that update route tables to redirect traffic from the failed instance to the standby instance. Because cloud providers like AWS and Azure do not support traditional Layer 2 protocols such as VRRP or gratuitous ARP for floating IPs, the FTD uses cloud-native mechanisms (e.g., AWS API calls to reassign an Elastic IP or update route tables) to achieve failover. This is the standard HA approach for FTDv in public clouds.

Exam trap

The trap is applying on-premises HA knowledge (VRRP, GARP) to cloud deployments — candidates who don't realize cloud networks don't support Layer 2 protocols will pick VRRP or gratuitous ARP, missing that cloud HA relies on API-driven route table updates.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because VRRP is a Layer 2/Layer 3 protocol that relies on multicast and MAC address manipulation, which is not supported in cloud environments like AWS or Azure — cloud networks do not allow VRRP advertisements or virtual MAC addresses. Option C is wrong because EtherChannel hashing is a link aggregation load-balancing mechanism, not an HA failover technology, and it is not used for virtual IP failover in the cloud. Option D is wrong because gratuitous ARP is used in on-premises HA to update ARP caches when a standby takes over, but cloud networks do not support GARP-based failover — the cloud fabric does not honor ARP for IP mobility.

323
MCQmedium

What is the result of assigning a 'Trust' action to a rule in an Access Control Policy?

A.Traffic is inspected by IPS
B.Traffic is blocked
C.Traffic is permitted without inspection
D.Traffic is decrypted
AnswerC

A Trust rule in an Access Control Policy permits matching traffic to pass without any further inspection by the access control policy, bypassing intrusion and file analysis. This satisfies scenarios needing uninspected throughput for trusted flows.

Why this answer

Trust allows traffic through the firewall without any further inspection by the Snort engine.

324
MCQhard

Which of the following is a limitation when deploying an FTD in transparent mode?

A.It does not support NAT.
B.It cannot handle VLAN tags.
C.It requires manual ARP entries for all hosts.
D.It does not support dynamic routing protocols.
AnswerD

Transparent mode forwards frames at Layer 2 without participating in routing, so the FTD cannot form adjacencies or exchange route updates. Dynamic routing protocols such as OSPF and EIGRP therefore cannot run, which is the documented limitation.

Why this answer

Transparent mode does not support dynamic routing protocols (like OSPF or BGP) because it acts as an L2 bridge.

325
MCQmedium

You are configuring an NGIPS mode deployment on an FTD device. You need to ensure that the FTD can drop malicious traffic in real-time. Which mode must you select?

A.Promiscuous Mode
B.Inline Mode
C.Bypass Mode
D.Passive Mode
AnswerB

Inline mode places the FTD directly in the traffic path, so packets traverse the inspection engine before forwarding. This allows the NGIPS to drop malicious frames in real time, satisfying the requirement to block rather than merely detect. Passive or tap modes can only alert, not prevent.

Why this answer

Inline Mode places the FTD directly in the traffic path so packets must traverse the sensor, allowing it to drop malicious frames in real time before they reach the protected host. This is the only NGIPS deployment mode that supports blocking/drop actions; the other modes are detection-only.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Promiscuous/Passive monitoring (detection only) with Inline Mode (prevention). Candidates who pick Promiscuous Mode forget that only inline deployment can actually drop traffic in real time.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Promiscuous Mode receives a copy of traffic via SPAN/TAP and can only generate alerts or reset connections — it cannot drop the original packet inline. Option C is wrong because Bypass Mode is a hardware/failure behavior (fail-to-wire or fail-open) that lets traffic pass when the sensor fails, not an inspection mode for dropping attacks. Option D is wrong because Passive Mode is functionally equivalent to promiscuous monitoring and provides no inline blocking capability.

326
Multi-Selecteasy

An administrator is performing health monitoring on an FMC appliance. Which TWO health monitors are available out-of-the-box in the FMC Health Monitor dashboard to track system resource utilization? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.CPU Utilization
B.Disk Utilization
C.SSL Handshake Latency
D.SNMP Trap Queue Depth
E.BGP Peer Flap Counter
AnswersA, B

CPU Utilization is a default FMC health monitor, reporting processor load directly from the appliance's system metrics without extra configuration. It satisfies the stem's out-of-the-box requirement by tracking system resource utilisation, letting the administrator spot sustained high CPU that degrades inspection and logging performance.

Why this answer

The FMC Health Monitor dashboard ships with a set of default, out-of-the-box monitors that focus on appliance-level system resources, and CPU Utilization (A) is one of them, tracking processor load on the FMC so administrators can detect performance degradation. Disk Utilization (B) is also a built-in monitor, reporting how full the FMC's disk partitions are, which is critical because a full disk can halt logging, event storage, and database operations. Both A and B are standard system-resource monitors present by default without any additional configuration.

The other options do not belong: SSL Handshake Latency (C) is not a default FMC health monitor, SNMP Trap Queue Depth (D) is not an out-of-the-box FMC system-resource monitor, and BGP Peer Flap Counter (E) relates to routing protocol state rather than FMC appliance resource utilization.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests whether candidates can distinguish FMC's built-in Health Monitor metrics (CPU, memory, disk, interface) from unrelated features like SSL inspection statistics, SNMP integration, or routing protocol counters that sound plausible but are not default health monitors.

327
MCQeasy

An administrator needs to create a custom Application filter object in the FMC to easily select cloud storage applications in Access Control rules. Where are application filters created?

A.Devices > Device Management > Apps
B.Objects > Object Management > Application Filters
C.System > Configuration > Application Database
D.Policies > Access Control > Applications
AnswerB

Application filters are reusable objects created under Objects > Object Management > Application Filters in the FMC. Building the filter there lets the administrator group cloud storage applications once, then reference that single object in Access Control rules instead of selecting each application individually.

Why this answer

Application Filters are reusable objects created under Objects > Object Management > Application Filters in the FMC. They let administrators group applications by characteristics such as category, risk, business relevance, or tags, so a single filter can be referenced in Access Control rules instead of listing dozens of individual applications. This is the canonical location for creating custom application filter objects.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing where objects are created versus where they are used — candidates pick the Access Control policy page because that's where filters appear in rules, but the object itself is created under Object Management.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Devices > Device Management does not contain an 'Apps' section for creating application filter objects; it manages device registration and interfaces. Option C is wrong because System > Configuration > Application Database only handles application signature updates and database settings, not filter creation. Option D is wrong because Policies > Access Control is where filters are used in rules, not where the filter objects themselves are defined.

328
MCQhard

What occurs when an 'Interactive Block' action is used in an Access Control rule?

A.The user receives a notification page
B.The traffic is dropped
C.The traffic is automatically allowed
D.The rule is ignored
AnswerA

Interactive Block drops the connection but returns a notification page to the user explaining the block, unlike plain Block which silently discards traffic. This satisfies the requirement to inform the user while still denying access.

Why this answer

The user is shown a page explaining why the traffic was blocked and given an option to proceed.

329
MCQeasy

Which menu path in the Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center (FMC) is used to configure the connection to Cisco Threat Response or Cisco SecureX?

A.System > Integration > SecureX
B.Devices > Device Management > Threat Intelligence
C.Objects > Object Management > Cloud Services
D.Policies > Access Control > Security Intelligence
AnswerA

System > Integration > SecureX is the correct path because FMC centralises cloud-service connectors under System > Integration, where the SecureX/Threat Response client registration, Cisco SecureX sign-on and device enrolment are configured. This satisfies the stem's requirement for the menu used to establish the Cisco SecureX or Threat Response connection.

Why this answer

Integration with Cisco SecureX (Threat Response) is configured under System > Integration on the FMC interface.

330
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO methods can be used to gather diagnostic information for a Cisco TAC case from an FTD device?

Select 2 answers
A.Generate a troubleshooting file in the FMC
B.Taking a memory dump of the Snort process
C.Running a full system re-image
D.Exporting the full database schema
E.Run a packet capture on the FTD CLI
AnswersA, E

The troubleshooting file bundles FTD diagnostics, configuration and logs into one archive that Cisco TAC accepts. Generating it from the FMC satisfies the requirement to gather diagnostic information without needing direct CLI access to the managed device.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because the Firepower Management Center (FMC) provides a built-in 'Generate Troubleshooting File' feature under the device's Troubleshoot menu, which bundles logs, configuration, and health data into a single archive specifically intended for Cisco TAC analysis. Option E is correct because running a packet capture on the FTD CLI (e.g., using the 'capture-traffic' command or the FTD 'capture' command in expert mode) lets an administrator collect live packet-level data that TAC commonly requests to diagnose traffic and inspection issues. Option B is not a standard TAC diagnostic method for FTD; a Snort memory dump is not a routine, supported data-gathering procedure and is typically used only for specific crash analysis.

Option C is wrong because re-imaging the device is a destructive recovery action, not a diagnostic data-gathering method, and would erase evidence. Option D is wrong because exporting a full database schema is not a supported FTD diagnostic collection method and provides no useful troubleshooting data for TAC.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests whether candidates can distinguish supported diagnostic-gathering methods (troubleshooting file, CLI packet capture) from destructive or non-diagnostic actions like re-imaging, memory dumps, or database exports that sound technical but are not part of TAC workflows.

331
MCQhard

An engineer is deploying a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense device managed by a Firewall Management Center in a high-availability pair. The engineer configures the failover link and state link, verifies interface monitoring, and then applies the configuration. After applying, the standby unit shows as failed and does not synchronize. Which action should the engineer take to resolve the issue?

A.Disable interface monitoring so the standby stops reporting interface failures.
B.Change the standby unit to active mode manually so it begins forwarding traffic.
C.Verify that the failover link interfaces on both units are on the same subnet and are not used for data traffic.
D.Re-register both FTD devices with the FMC using a new registration key.
AnswerC

The failover link requires both units to be on the same dedicated subnet and must not carry production data traffic. If the link is misconfigured or shared with data, hello messages fail and the standby is marked failed. Ensuring a dedicated, correctly addressed failover link restores communication and allows synchronization.

Why this answer

A standby unit marked failed in an FTD high-availability pair usually indicates a problem with the failover link itself. Verifying that the failover interfaces are on a dedicated, correctly addressed subnet and are not carrying data traffic restores hello communication and allows the standby to synchronize and return to a healthy state.

Exam trap

The trap here is treating the failed standby as a management-registration problem, when the failover link between the two units is the actual communication path that must be validated.

332
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are benefits of using a Port Channel on an FTD?

Select 2 answers
A.Improved link redundancy.
B.Reduced latency.
C.Elimination of spanning tree.
D.Automatic NAT mapping.
E.Increased aggregate bandwidth.
AnswersA, E

Bundling multiple physical links into one logical Port Channel means traffic continues flowing if a member link fails, satisfying the redundancy benefit. FTD treats the bundle as a single interface, so failover occurs without routing or adjacency changes.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because a Port Channel (EtherChannel/LACP or static) bundles multiple physical interfaces into one logical interface, so if a member link fails, traffic continues over the remaining links, providing link redundancy without a topology change. Option E is correct because the bundled member links share traffic through the hashing algorithm, so the logical interface's throughput is the aggregate of its members, increasing total available bandwidth beyond a single link. Options B, C, and D are not benefits of a Port Channel: it does not inherently reduce latency, it does not eliminate spanning tree (STP still runs on the logical bundle and the FTD still participates in loop prevention), and it has nothing to do with automatic NAT mapping, which is a separate FTD NAT policy function.

333
MCQeasy

An administrator needs to configure Quality of Service (QoS) on a Cisco Firepower Threat Defense device via FMC to limit peer-to-peer traffic bandwidth. Where must the QoS policy be applied for it to take effect on traffic traversing the firewall?

A.Assigned to Access Control Policy rules directly
B.Assigned inside Prefilter Policies
C.Assigned globally in Platform Settings
D.Assigned to Security Zones in the Access Control Policy QoS tab
AnswerD

QoS policies on FTD only affect traffic when bound to Security Zones within the Access Control Policy's QoS tab, since that association determines which zone-to-zone flows the rate limiting and prioritisation rules actually inspect and shape.

Why this answer

In FMC, a QoS policy is applied to the Access Control Policy by assigning it to security zones on the QoS tab. The QoS policy defines rate limiting and prioritization, and it takes effect only when associated with zones that carry the traffic traversing the FTD. This is the correct location for applying QoS to limit peer-to-peer bandwidth.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests where QoS is applied in FMC, so candidates who confuse QoS with prefilter or platform settings pick the wrong assignment location instead of the zone-based QoS tab in the Access Control Policy.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because QoS is not assigned directly to individual Access Control Policy rules; rules determine allow/block/inspect actions, while QoS is a separate policy applied at the zone level. Option B is wrong because Prefilter Policies handle early actions like fastpath, block, and tunnel, not QoS rate limiting; QoS is not configured inside prefilter. Option C is wrong because Platform Settings configure device-level parameters such as timeouts, banners, and SSL settings, not QoS policies.

334
MCQmedium

When using a Redundant Interface, what is the primary behavior during a link failure?

A.Both links remain active and load balance.
B.The FTD triggers a device-level failover.
C.Traffic is dropped until manual reset.
D.The standby link becomes active.
AnswerD

A redundant interface pairs two physical links into one logical interface, with only the active member passing traffic. When that active link fails, the standby member immediately takes over, preserving the logical interface and its configuration. This satisfies the stem's requirement for continuous connectivity during a link failure.

Why this answer

In a redundant interface pair, one link is active and the other is standby. If the active link fails, the FTD automatically switches to the standby link.

335
MCQeasy

An administrator wants to stream security events, connection events, and intrusion events from Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center (FMC) to a third-party SIEM platform. Which built-in protocol and feature on the FMC should be configured to export these events in real-time?

A.pxGrid
B.NETCONF
C.eStreamer
D.RADIUS Accounting
AnswerC

eStreamer is FMC's native event-streaming API, delivering security, connection and intrusion events to third-party SIEM clients in real time over a persistent TLS connection. It satisfies the stem's requirement for a built-in FMC protocol exporting these event types, unlike syslog, which lacks structured intrusion event fields.

Why this answer

eStreamer is the FMC's built-in event streaming service that pushes intrusion, connection, security, and malware events to external clients (such as third-party SIEMs) in real time over a proprietary TCP-based protocol on port 8302. It is purpose-built for high-volume event export from the FMC and is the documented integration path for SIEM platforms like Splunk, QRadar, and ArcSight.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing Cisco's identity/context-sharing protocols (pxGrid, SXP) with the FMC's dedicated event-export mechanism, causing candidates to pick pxGrid because it 'sounds like the integration protocol.'

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because pxGrid is Cisco's identity/context-sharing fabric used for ISE-to-FMC user identity and SGT exchange, not for streaming FMC event data to a SIEM. Option B is wrong because NETCONF is a configuration-management protocol (RFC 6241) used to programmatically configure devices, not to export security telemetry. Option D is wrong because RADIUS Accounting carries session start/stop and byte-count records for AAA, not firewall event streams.

336
MCQhard

An administrator is configuring SSL Decryption to inspect internal clients browsing external websites. The organization wants to ensure that traffic to financial and health-related websites is bypassed to maintain privacy and regulatory compliance. How should this be configured in the SSL Policy?

A.Use an Intrusion Policy rule to drop packets destined for financial URLs.
B.Create a rule matching the Financial/Health URL categories with the action 'Do Not Decrypt'.
C.Add financial servers to an SSL Decryption Known Key list.
D.Configure a Prefilter policy to fast-path financial URL categories.
AnswerB

A decryption policy rule matching the Financial and Health URL categories with a 'Do Not Decrypt' action exempts that traffic from inspection while all other categories remain decryptable. This satisfies the privacy and regulatory compliance constraint without disabling decryption fleet-wide.

Why this answer

Privacy and regulatory compliance for financial and health traffic is achieved by creating an SSL policy rule that matches the Financial and Health URL categories and sets the action to 'Do Not Decrypt'. This bypasses decryption for those flows while still allowing the rest of the SSL policy to decrypt other traffic. The rule should be placed above any broader Decrypt rules so it matches first.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming any policy that 'matches URLs' can bypass decryption — candidates pick Prefilter fast-path or Intrusion Policy, but only the SSL Policy's Do Not Decrypt action preserves the encrypted session for specific categories.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Intrusion Policies operate on already-decrypted or unencrypted traffic and cannot selectively drop based on URL category; they also don't address the privacy requirement. Option C is wrong because a Known Key list is for supplying private keys to decrypt specific internal servers, not for bypassing categories. Option D is wrong because Prefilter fast-path bypasses the entire access control and inspection pipeline, which is broader than needed and doesn't specifically honor the SSL policy's Do Not Decrypt semantics.

337
MCQhard

An enterprise integrates Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center with Cisco ISE using pxGrid for identity-based access control. The security team notices that user identity mapping works for domain users authenticating via 802.1X, but guest users connecting through a WebAuth portal do not have their user-to-IP mappings populated on the FTD. What is the root cause of this issue?

A.FMC requires an active eStreamer connection to ingest guest identities because pxGrid only supports Active Directory domain accounts.
B.Guest users must manually log into a captive portal hosted on the FTD data plane before ISE can share their identity.
C.The FTD identity policy must be configured with a RADIUS server group instead of pxGrid to support guest VLANs.
D.The pxGrid connection on ISE is not subscribed to the guest session topic, or guest session publishing is disabled in ISE deployment settings.
AnswerD

pxGrid delivers identity mappings only for topics the FMC subscribes to. Guest WebAuth sessions publish on a separate guest session topic; without that subscription or with guest publishing disabled in ISE, guest user-to-IP mappings never reach FTD.

Why this answer

Guest users authenticated via WebAuth on ISE may not have active pxGrid session directory notifications if the guest profile or ISE profiler service is not configured to publish guest sessions, or if the pxGrid node is not subscribed to guest session topics (such as 'Session Directory' guest events).

338
MCQmedium

A security team wants Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense to block traffic to domains that appear on a third-party threat feed before users connect. The feed is published as a plain-text list of malicious domains over HTTPS and changes frequently. Which integration method should be used to populate a DNS Block List on the Firewall Management Center?

A.Configure an External Block List with a URL source type pointing to the threat feed and assign it to a DNS policy.
B.Import the feed as a Network object group and apply it to an access control rule with a Block action.
C.Create a File Blocking policy that references the threat feed's object group and deploy it to the Threat Defense devices.
D.Enable Security Intelligence feeds and subscribe to the Cisco Talos domain reputation feed only.
AnswerA

External Block List supports a URL source type, where FMC periodically retrieves the plain-text list and populates the DNS block list without manual updates. Assigning the object to a DNS policy causes Threat Defense to block DNS queries for those domains, satisfying the requirement to block before users connect. This is the purpose-built integration for dynamic feed consumption.

Why this answer

The External Block List feature in FMC was designed to consume dynamic, externally hosted lists, including plain-text domain lists retrieved over HTTPS on a schedule. Because the list is bound to a DNS policy, the Threat Defense device can block resolution of the listed domains before any connection is attempted, which is exactly what the team needs for a frequently changing third-party feed without manual object updates.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming any object type can import a domain list, when only the External Block List URL source mechanism is built to pull a plain-text domain feed automatically.

339
MCQmedium

An administrator is configuring a static route tracking mechanism on a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense device using an ICMP Echo IP SLA object. What happens to the tracked static route if the SLA probe fails to receive a response?

A.The static route is removed from the routing table, allowing alternative routes to become active.
B.The static route metric is automatically incremented by 100 while remaining active.
C.The firewall automatically reboots into maintenance mode to clear the routing cache.
D.All firewall interfaces are automatically placed in an administrative shutdown state.
AnswerA

ICMP Echo SLA tracking binds the static route's presence to probe success. When replies cease, the SLA object enters a down state, and the tracked route is withdrawn from the routing table, letting a floating static or dynamic alternative with higher administrative distance take over. This satisfies the failover requirement.

Why this answer

When an IP SLA probe fails, the tracked object changes its state to DOWN, causing the dependent static route to be removed from the routing table, allowing backup routes to take over.

340
MCQeasy

An administrator wants to ensure that specific internal subnets are never subjected to NAT translation when communicating with a partner VPN tunnel. Which NAT feature achieves this?

A.Auto NAT Static
B.Dynamic PAT
C.Port Address Translation
D.Identity NAT
AnswerD

Identity NAT exempts matching traffic from translation by mapping addresses to themselves, so the specified internal subnets traverse the partner VPN tunnel with their original source addresses intact. This directly satisfies the requirement that those subnets never undergo NAT translation, unlike dynamic or static NAT, which rewrite addresses.

Why this answer

Identity NAT (also called NAT exemption or 'no NAT') is the feature that explicitly excludes specified source/destination subnet pairs from translation. In Cisco FTD/FMC, an Identity NAT rule is placed in the manual NAT policy with the original source and destination as both the translated source and destination, effectively creating a 'do not translate' entry. This is the standard method for ensuring VPN traffic to a partner tunnel traverses without address rewriting, which is required for IPsec/ISAKMP selectors to match correctly.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing 'NAT exemption' with 'static NAT' — candidates often pick Auto NAT Static thinking it means 'no change,' when in fact static NAT always rewrites addresses one-to-one.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Auto NAT Static performs a one-to-one static translation of a real IP to a mapped IP — it changes the address, which is the opposite of what is needed for NAT exemption. Option B is wrong because Dynamic PAT translates many internal hosts to a single public IP using port overloading, which would break VPN traffic that requires original addressing. Option C is wrong because Port Address Translation is a subtype of dynamic NAT that rewrites both address and port, again altering the packet and breaking tunnel selectors.

341
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is setting up Cisco ISE pxGrid integration with Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center. Which TWO configuration steps must be performed on the Cisco ISE side to ensure successful integration? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Configure an eStreamer server instance on the ISE policy service node.
B.Enable SNMPv2c traps on the ISE administration node.
C.Export the ISE TACACS+ shared secret to the FTD CLI.
D.Approve the FMC client registration request in the Cisco ISE pxGrid client management settings.
E.Enable the pxGrid service on the designated Cisco ISE node personas.
AnswersD, E

pxGrid requires explicit client approval: the FMC's registration request must be approved in Cisco ISE's pxGrid client management before the connection is trusted. Approving it satisfies the requirement to complete the necessary Cisco ISE-side configuration step for successful integration.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because pxGrid uses mutual certificate-based authentication, and when FMC first connects as a pxGrid client, its registration request must be approved by an ISE administrator under Administration > pxGrid Services > Client Management before the client can subscribe to or publish on the pxGrid bus. Option E is correct because the pxGrid persona is not enabled by default; the administrator must enable the pxGrid service on the appropriate ISE node (typically the PAN/MnT or a dedicated pxGrid node) under Administration > System > Deployment so the node can host the pxGrid controller and accept client connections. Option A is wrong because eStreamer is a Firepower/FSMC-side event-streaming service, not an ISE policy service node component.

Option B is wrong because SNMPv2c traps are for monitoring/alerting and play no role in pxGrid integration. Option C is wrong because TACACS+ shared secrets are for device administration authentication, not for pxGrid, which relies on certificates rather than a shared secret.

342
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE components of an Access Control rule can be used to identify traffic as 'Application' based?

Select 3 answers
A.Application Category
B.Device Type
C.Application Tag
D.Application Name
E.OS Version
AnswersA, C, D

Application Category is one of the three Access Control rule components that classify traffic as Application, alongside Application and Application Tag. It satisfies the stem's requirement by letting the rule match on the category metadata Cisco assigns to the detected application, rather than on IP, port, or URL alone.

Why this answer

In an Access Control rule, traffic can be identified as Application-based by matching on the Application Name (D), which targets a specific application signature such as 'facebook' or 'ssh'; by the Application Category (A), which groups applications by function such as 'social-networking' or 'file-sharing'; and by the Application Tag (C), which matches applications sharing a common attribute such as 'evasive' or 'high-risk'. These three are the application-identification criteria available in the rule's Application column, since App-ID classifies traffic by name, category, and tag. Device Type (B) and OS Version (E) are host/endpoint attributes used for policy matching (for example in HIP or User-ID based rules), not application identifiers, so they cannot be used to identify traffic as Application based.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing application-based criteria with endpoint-based criteria. Candidates might think Device Type or OS Version are application-related because they appear in the same rule configuration interface.

343
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is troubleshooting intermittent connectivity loss between an FTD managed device and the FMC. Which TWO methods or tools can be used to verify registration and communication status between the managed device and the FMC? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Inspect the Access Control policy rule hit counts.
B.Run a packet capture on the FMC management interface filtering for UDP port 514.
C.Review the connection status in the FMC GUI under Devices > Device Management.
D.Check the health monitor alerts specifically for 'SNMP Agent' status.
E.Execute the 'show sftunnel status' or 'sftm status' command on the FTD CLI.
AnswersC, E

The FMC GUI's Devices > Device Management page shows each managed FTD's registration and connectivity state, letting the administrator confirm whether the device is currently reachable and communicating, which directly addresses verifying registration and communication status during intermittent connectivity loss.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the FMC GUI at Devices > Device Management displays each managed device's registration and connectivity state (e.g., 'Up'/'Down' or 'Reachable'), which directly reflects the SFTunnel-based management channel status. Option E is correct because the FTD CLI commands 'show sftunnel status' (or the newer 'sftm status') report the state of the Secure Firewall Tunnel (SFTunnel) that carries management traffic between the FTD and FMC, including peer connectivity and heartbeat information. Option A is wrong because Access Control policy hit counts show traffic matching rules, not the management/registration tunnel status.

Option B is wrong because UDP port 514 is syslog, not the SFTunnel management protocol, and capturing on the FMC management interface would not verify registration state. Option D is wrong because the health monitor's 'SNMP Agent' status concerns SNMP polling, not the FTD-to-FMC registration and communication channel.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests whether candidates confuse data-plane inspection tools (rule hit counts, packet captures on syslog ports) with the management-plane SFTunnel verification commands and GUI locations that actually confirm FMC registration.

344
MCQmedium

A security engineer is deploying a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense device in transparent mode at a data center. The device must inspect traffic between two Layer 3 subnets without changing the IP addressing scheme. The engineer configures a bridge group and assigns two interfaces to it. Which statement describes the correct behavior of the bridge group in transparent mode?

A.The bridge group requires NAT to translate addresses between the two interfaces.
B.The bridge group bridges the two interfaces at Layer 2, and the FTD can inspect traffic without modifying the IP headers.
C.The bridge group operates as a switched virtual interface, and each interface must be in a different VLAN.
D.The bridge group acts as a Layer 3 router between the two interfaces, requiring IP addresses on each interface.
AnswerB

In transparent mode, the FTD uses a bridge group to connect two interfaces at Layer 2. Traffic is inspected as it passes through the bridge, and because the device is not routing, the IP addressing scheme remains unchanged. This is ideal for inserting inspection into an existing network without re-addressing. Access control and other policies still apply to the bridged traffic.

Why this answer

In transparent mode, FTD uses a bridge group to connect two interfaces at Layer 2, allowing inline inspection without changing IP addressing. The device does not route between the interfaces, so the existing subnet design remains intact. Policies such as access control and intrusion prevention still apply to the bridged traffic, making it suitable for data center insertion.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming transparent mode requires routing or NAT, when its defining characteristic is Layer 2 bridging that preserves the original IP addressing.

345
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is managing Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense devices using Cisco Defense Orchestrator (CDO). Which TWO capabilities does CDO provide for firewall deployment and management? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Cloud-based policy management, configuration deployment, and security rule cleanup across multiple FTD devices.
B.Deep forensic packet capture analysis equivalent to a full packet broker collector.
C.Hardware RMA replacement and physical cabling verification.
D.Detection and remediation of configuration drift between the expected policy and the running device configuration.
E.Local hypervisor provisioning for ESXi and KVM virtual machine hypervisors.
AnswersA, D

CDO provides cloud-delivered management, letting administrators define policies once and deploy them consistently across many FTD devices, plus rule cleanup to remove redundant or shadowed entries. This centralised, multi-device capability matches the stem's requirement for managing firewall deployment and management.

Why this answer

CDO is a cloud-based management platform that provides policy management, configuration drift analysis, and bulk management across FTD and other Cisco security devices.

346
MCQmedium

An administrator is configuring a new Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense in routed mode on Firepower Device Manager (FDM). During the initial setup, the administrator needs to define the routing behavior for a multi-zone deployment. Which configuration step is mandatory when setting up routed mode?

A.Disable the Snort inspection engine on all interfaces to allow bridging.
B.Assign a unique Layer 3 IP address to each data interface and associate it with a security zone.
C.Assign a unique MAC address override to every physical interface.
D.Create a BVI (Bridge Virtual Interface) for each pair of physical interfaces.
AnswerB

Routed mode requires each data interface to hold a unique Layer 3 IP address and belong to a security zone, because FDM forwards traffic between zones via routing decisions rather than Layer 2 bridging. Without this per-interface addressing and zone association, inter-zone policy enforcement and route lookup cannot function.

Why this answer

When configuring a routed mode interface on FDM, each data interface must be assigned a unique Layer 3 IP address and associated with a security zone. This is mandatory because routed mode requires interfaces to act as Layer 3 gateways, and security zones are used to apply policies. Without an IP address and zone, the interface cannot route or be managed.

Exam trap

The trap is thinking that routed mode requires special MAC or bridging configurations; candidates may pick BVI or MAC override options, but the essential step is simply assigning an IP address and security zone to each interface.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because disabling Snort is not required for routed mode and would defeat the purpose of the firewall; Snort inspection is a core function. Option C is wrong because MAC address override is optional and not mandatory for routed mode. Option D is wrong because BVIs are used in transparent mode, not routed mode.

347
MCQhard

You are creating a custom URL category. How do you add specific domains to this category in FMC?

A.In the SSL Policy
B.Directly in the Access Control rule
C.In the Prefilter Policy
D.Via Objects > Object Management > URL
AnswerD

Custom URL categories are populated by adding URL objects, which live under Objects > Object Management > URL in FMC. Creating the URL objects there and grouping them into the category satisfies the requirement to add specific domains, since FMC has no separate domain-list editor for custom categories.

Why this answer

Custom URL objects are created in the Object Manager and then assigned to the category.

348
MCQeasy

An engineer wants to group several FTD interfaces into a single logical zone to simplify Access Control rule creation. Where are security zones created in the FMC?

A.System > Integration > Security Zones
B.Objects > Object Management > Security Zones
C.Policies > Access Control > Zones
D.Devices > Device Management > Interfaces > Zones
AnswerB

Security zones are reusable objects stored in the FMC object library, so they are created under Objects > Object Management > Security Zones before being referenced in access control policies. This grouping lets one zone object represent several FTD interfaces, satisfying the requirement to simplify rule creation.

Why this answer

Security zones are created under Objects > Object Management > Security Zones.

349
MCQhard

You are configuring a NAT rule and need to hide the internal network behind a single interface IP. Which NAT translation setting is required?

A.Static IP
B.Dynamic IP
C.Interface PAT
D.Identity NAT
AnswerC

Interface PAT overloads the interface IP, translating many internal addresses to that single address via port multiplexing. This satisfies the requirement to hide the internal network behind one interface IP, unlike static NAT, which maps one-to-one and would expose individual hosts.

Why this answer

Interface PAT (Port Address Translation) overloads the interface's own IP address and uses unique source ports to distinguish sessions, allowing many internal hosts to share a single public IP. This is the standard hide-NAT configuration on FTD when you want to mask the internal network behind one interface address.

Exam trap

The trap is conflating Dynamic NAT (pool of addresses) with Interface PAT (single interface IP with port overloading). Candidates who pick 'Dynamic IP' miss the 'single interface IP' requirement in the question.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Static NAT creates a fixed one-to-one mapping between an inside host and a public address, which does not hide multiple hosts behind a single IP. Option B is wrong because Dynamic IP (dynamic NAT with a pool) maps inside hosts to a pool of public addresses, not to a single interface IP, and does not use port overloading. Option D is wrong because Identity NAT translates the address to itself (no translation), which is used to exempt traffic from NAT, not to hide internal hosts.

350
MCQmedium

What is the primary function of a 'Security Zone' in FMC?

A.To set bandwidth limits
B.To logically group interfaces
C.To enable routing
D.To define IP ranges
AnswerB

A Security Zone in FMC is a logical container that groups interfaces sharing identical security policies, letting rules apply once rather than per interface. This satisfies the requirement to logically group interfaces, simplifying policy management across multiple physical or virtual interfaces.

Why this answer

Security Zones allow applying the same policy to multiple interfaces at once.

351
Multi-Selecthard

An engineer is troubleshooting a scenario where an FTD device fails its pre-upgrade health check during an upgrade initiated from the FMC. Which THREE common pre-check failures must be resolved before proceeding? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Active SSH sessions logged into the FTD CLI.
B.Unapplied pending configuration deployments between FMC and FTD.
C.Insufficient disk space on the target upgrade partition (/var or /CiscoMFT).
D.Active critical health monitor alarms on the device.
E.Configured static routing tables with default gateways.
AnswersB, C, D

Pending configuration changes not yet deployed from FMC to the FTD block the upgrade, because the health check requires the device's running configuration to match the FMC-managed policy. Deploying pending changes clears this pre-check failure before the upgrade proceeds.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because the FMC pre-upgrade health check verifies configuration synchronization, and any pending, undeployed policy or configuration changes between FMC and the managed FTD must be deployed before the upgrade can proceed. Option C is correct because the upgrade process requires adequate free space on the target partition (such as /var or /CiscoMFT) to stage and extract the new software image, and the pre-check fails if disk space is insufficient. Option D is correct because active critical health monitor alarms indicate an unhealthy device state, and the pre-check blocks the upgrade until those critical alarms are cleared.

Option A is not a pre-check failure condition, since active SSH sessions to the FTD CLI do not by themselves block an FMC-initiated upgrade. Option E is not a failure condition either, as static routes and default gateways are normal, valid configuration and are not checked as an upgrade blocker.

Exam trap

300-710 SNCF often tests which conditions actually block an FMC-initiated upgrade — candidates may incorrectly select benign items like active SSH sessions or static routes, when the real blockers are pending deployments, disk space, and critical health alarms.

352
MCQeasy

A security administrator is deploying a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense (FTD) device and needs to configure the management interface for initial setup. The administrator plans to use the default management IP address and then change it to a static address. Which default management IP address and subnet mask are preconfigured on a new FTD appliance?

A.10.0.0.1/8
B.192.168.1.1/24
C.192.168.45.45/28
D.192.168.45.45/24
AnswerC

The default management IP address on a new FTD appliance is 192.168.45.45 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240, which is /28. This allows initial access to the management interface for setup. The administrator can then change it to a static address appropriate for the network.

Why this answer

A new FTD appliance is preconfigured with a management IP address of 192.168.45.45 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240 (/28). This allows initial access to the management interface so the administrator can perform setup and change the address as needed.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the default management IP with other common default addresses like 192.168.1.1 or 10.0.0.1, which are not used on FTD appliances.

353
MCQmedium

An FTD device managed by FMC is failing to download latest Snort Rule Updates (SRUs) and GeoDB updates automatically. The FMC has internet access via an HTTPS proxy. Where must the HTTPS proxy settings be configured on the FMC so that it can successfully reach Cisco update servers?

A.Objects > Object Management > Network Proxy
B.Devices > Device Management > Advanced > Proxy
C.Policies > Access Control > Updates > Proxy
D.System > Configuration > Proxy
AnswerD

The FMC's own management-plane traffic to Cisco update servers uses the appliance-level proxy configuration, found under System > Configuration > Proxy. Configuring it there lets SRU and GeoDB downloads traverse the HTTPS proxy; platform settings or FTD-level proxies do not govern this.

Why this answer

For the FMC to download SRUs and GeoDB updates through an HTTPS proxy, the proxy settings must be configured under System > Configuration > Proxy. This is the global proxy configuration that the FMC uses for all outbound internet communications, including update downloads.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing the FMC's system proxy with device-level proxy settings or network objects; candidates may pick a path that seems logical but is not the global system configuration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Objects > Object Management > Network Proxy is for defining network objects, not for configuring the system proxy. Option B is wrong because Devices > Device Management > Advanced > Proxy is for setting proxy on managed devices, not the FMC itself. Option C is wrong because Policies > Access Control > Updates > Proxy is not a valid path; access control policies do not contain proxy settings for updates.

354
MCQhard

An engineer is troubleshooting a mutual TLS connection failure between Cisco ISE pxGrid and the FMC. The openssl command on the FMC reveals a 'certificate verify failed' error. What is the underlying reason for this error?

A.The NTP clock skew between FMC and ISE exceeds 60 seconds, causing token expiration.
B.The pxGrid shared secret key contains unsupported special characters.
C.The peer certificate has been signed by a Certificate Authority whose root certificate is missing from the local trust store.
D.TCP port 8910 is blocked by an intermediate stateful firewall.
AnswerC

Mutual TLS requires each side to validate the peer's certificate chain up to a trusted root. The 'certificate verify failed' error means the FMC cannot build that chain because the issuing Certificate Authority's root certificate is absent from its local trust store, so validation aborts.

Why this answer

A 'certificate verify failed' error indicates that the client or server certificate was signed by a CA that is not present in the truststore of the peer verifying it.

355
MCQeasy

When configuring syslog export from Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense using Firepower Management Center, which alert format should you choose to ensure standard SIEM ingestion parsers can easily read the event headers?

A.IETF (RFC 5424) format
B.SNMP v2c Trap format
C.Legacy ASA native text format
D.NetFlow v9 structured records
AnswerA

RFC 5424 defines a structured syslog header with version, timestamp, hostname, app-name, and structured-data fields. Choosing the IETF format gives Firepower Management Center events that standard SIEM parsers recognise natively, satisfying the requirement for easy header ingestion without custom parsing.

Why this answer

Syslog messages exported from Secure Firewall Threat Defense can be formatted using BSD (RFC 3164) or IETF (RFC 5424) formats. RFC 5424 is the standard IETF structured format widely supported by modern SIEMs.

356
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO components must be configured in FMC to enable User Identity mapping for Access Control Rules?

Select 2 answers
A.QoS Policy
B.Identity Policy
C.Network Discovery Policy
D.SSL Policy
E.Identity Realm
AnswersB, E

The Identity Policy binds realm, realm-to-AD mapping and active authentication methods together, then is referenced by access control rules. Without it, FMC cannot resolve user or group identity for rule matching, so it satisfies the requirement for user identity mapping.

Why this answer

An identity realm (Active Directory connector) and the Identity Policy are both required to map users to their IP addresses.

357
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE steps are part of a standard FTD upgrade workflow managed via the FMC?

Select 3 answers
A.Manually delete all existing access rules
B.Run a factory reset on the FTD
C.Upload the upgrade package to the FMC
D.Review and approve the health check report
E.Select the device in the Upgrade management page
AnswersC, D, E

FMC-managed upgrades begin by importing the Cisco-provided upgrade package into the FMC's software repository, since the FMC pushes images to managed devices. Without the package staged on the FMC, no device can be upgraded, making this an obligatory early workflow step.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the standard FTD upgrade workflow managed through the FMC begins by uploading the FTD software upgrade package (image) to the FMC, which then stages it for deployment to managed devices. Option E is correct because after the package is available, the administrator selects the target device(s) in the FMC's Upgrade management page to initiate and schedule the upgrade. Option D is correct because the workflow includes running a readiness/health check on the device and reviewing and approving the resulting health check report before proceeding with the actual upgrade.

Options A and B are incorrect: manually deleting all existing access rules is not a step in the upgrade workflow and would disrupt policy, and running a factory reset on the FTD is not part of a standard upgrade—it would wipe the configuration rather than upgrade the software.

Exam trap

The trap here is including unnecessary or destructive steps like factory reset or deleting access rules, which are not part of the standard upgrade workflow and would cause operational issues.

358
MCQhard

An FMC administrator is troubleshooting a scenario where device registration between an FTD and FMC fails immediately with a registration key mismatch error. The administrator verified the NAT ID and registration key. What underlying protocol handshake fails during this registration process, and how can it be debugged?

A.The sftunnel (TCP 8305) handshake fails; debug using 'sftunnel status' and examining /var/log/sftunnel.log.
B.The HTTPS REST API (TCP 443) handshake fails; debug using 'debug rest-api'.
C.The SNMP trap receiver fails; debug using 'system support snmp-debug'.
D.The SSH tunnel (TCP 22) fails; debug using 'tail -f /var/log/secure'.
AnswerA

Device registration relies on the sftunnel daemon over TCP 8305; a key mismatch aborts that handshake before registration completes. Checking 'sftunnel status' and /var/log/sftunnel.log on the FTD reveals the negotiation failure, confirming the key or NAT ID mismatch.

Why this answer

FTD-to-FMC registration relies on the sftunnel, which uses TCP 8305 for its handshake and ongoing management communication. When registration fails with a key mismatch, the sftunnel handshake is what is failing, and it can be debugged with 'sftunnel status' and by examining /var/log/sftunnel.log on the FTD.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming registration uses HTTPS/REST (TCP 443) because FMC's UI is web-based — candidates pick the REST API option, missing that FTD registration specifically uses the sftunnel on TCP 8305.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because while FMC uses HTTPS (TCP 443) for its web UI and some REST API calls, device registration itself is carried over the sftunnel, not the REST API, and 'debug rest-api' is not the relevant troubleshooting command. Option C is wrong because SNMP is used for monitoring and traps, not for FTD registration — SNMP failures would not produce a registration key mismatch error. Option D is wrong because SSH (TCP 22) is used for CLI access to the FTD, not for FMC-FTD management registration; the sftunnel is a separate, dedicated channel on TCP 8305.

Page 4

Page 5 of 5

All pages

Practice 300-710 SNCF by domain

Target a specific domain to shore up weak areas.

See all domains with question counts →