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Cisco Securing Networks with Cisco Firewalls (300-710 SNCF, CCNP Security) (300-710 SNCF) (300-710 SNCF) — Questions 301375

478 questions total · 7pages · All types, answers revealed

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301
MCQmedium

A network engineer needs to configure Auto NAT on a Firepower Threat Defense device managed by FMC to translate internal subnet 10.10.10.0/24 to a single public IP address 203.0.113.50. Which translation type should be selected?

A.Static NAT
B.Dynamic PAT (Port Address Translation)
C.Static Identity NAT
D.Dynamic NAT
AnswerB

Dynamic PAT maps an entire subnet to a single IP address by translating source ports.

Why this answer

Dynamic PAT translates a pool of inside IP addresses to a single outside IP address using unique port numbers, which matches mapping a subnet to a single public IP.

302
MCQeasy

Which Cisco security product integrates with Secure Firewall to provide threat intelligence sharing, automated response actions, and cross-product pivot investigations across email, endpoint, network, and cloud workloads?

A.Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA)
B.Cisco SecureX
C.Cisco Prime Infrastructure
D.Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client
AnswerB

SecureX unifies visibility and enables threat response and automation across email, endpoint, network, and cloud.

Why this answer

Cisco SecureX (evolving into Cisco Security Cloud Control / Cisco XDR) is Cisco's integrated security platform providing unified threat response and visibility across security vectors.

303
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is troubleshooting an issue where Snort inspection engine crashes repeatedly on an FTD device. Which THREE diagnostic artifacts or steps should the administrator collect and perform to assist Cisco TAC in resolving the core dump issue? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Collect the generated core dump files located in the core directory (such as /var/common/ or /var/sf/cores/).
B.Delete all log files in /var/log to clear disk space before opening a TAC case.
C.Note the exact timestamp and any preceding intrusion events or traffic patterns that coincided with the crash.
D.Generate a full 'system support tech-support' bundle from the FTD CLI.
E.Format the flash memory partition containing the Snort binaries.
AnswersA, C, D

Core dumps contain the exact memory state at the moment of the crash.

Why this answer

When Snort crashes, core dump files are generated in /var/common/ or /var/sf/cores/. Collecting core files, tech-support bundles, and verifying Snort configuration rules helps TAC.

304
MCQeasy

You are configuring a static route on a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense using FDM. Which parameters are strictly required to create a valid IPv4 static route?

A.MAC address of the next-hop router and security zone name.
B.IP SLA tracking object ID and weighted cost metric.
C.Source IP address, destination IP address, and BGP Autonomous System number.
D.Destination IP network, subnet mask, and next-hop IP address or egress interface.
AnswerD

Creating a static route requires defining the target network/mask and the gateway (next-hop IP or interface).

Why this answer

A valid static route requires a destination network (prefix/mask), and either a next-hop IP address or an egress outgoing interface.

305
MCQmedium

An engineer is troubleshooting a passive NGIPS deployment where the Cisco Secure Firewall is connected to a switch SPAN port. Security analysts report that certain VLAN-tagged packets are not appearing in the event logs. What is the most likely cause?

A.The firewall management IP address is misconfigured, causing packet loss on the monitoring port.
B.The passive interface or subinterfaces on the firewall are not configured to recognize or decode the specific 802.1Q VLAN tags present in the SPAN stream.
C.The Snort inspection engine drops all SPAN traffic by default unless inline bypass mode is active.
D.Passive interfaces do not support VLAN tagging; all trunk traffic must be untagged at the switch SPAN source.
AnswerB

If VLAN tags are present in the SPAN traffic, the passive interface must be configured to handle those VLANs to inspect the encapsulated packets.

Why this answer

When monitoring trunk ports via SPAN, if the firewall's passive interface is configured without VLAN tagging enabled or lacks subinterfaces matching the trunk VLANs, tagged frames may be dropped or ignored.

306
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is troubleshooting a Cisco ISE and Secure Firewall pxGrid integration where identity policies are failing to match traffic. Which TWO tools or diagnostic methods should the administrator use to verify that IP-to-user mappings are present on the FTD? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Inspect the 'estreamer.log' file on the FTD CLI.
B.Run 'show user-identity user' on the FTD CLI to verify active user mappings.
C.Access the FTD expert mode shell and check identity database statistics using 'show idedb statistics'.
D.Run 'show ise-server status' on the FMC CLI.
E.Run 'debug pxgrid packet' on the FTD privileged EXEC mode.
AnswersB, C

This command displays active user-to-IP mappings currently stored in the FTD memory.

Why this answer

Identity mappings on FTD can be verified using FTD CLI commands such as 'show user-identity user' and inspecting the identity database statistics ('show idedb').

307
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator configures Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense to integrate with Cisco ISE via pxGrid. Which TWO operational benefits are provided by this integration for firewall policy enforcement? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Automatic generation of FTD intrusion detection signatures.
B.Real-time streaming of raw PCAP files to third-party SIEM platforms.
C.Direct management of FMC appliance administrator passwords.
D.Consumption of Security Group Tags (SGTs) for tag-based microsegmentation and access filtering.
E.Enforcement of Access Control policies based on user identity, username, and user group membership.
AnswersD, E

ISE shares SGT mapping via pxGrid for firewall policy enforcement.

Why this answer

pxGrid integration allows identity-based access control rules and dynamic threat mitigation (such as quarantine or tagging) based on ISE context.

308
MCQmedium

An engineer is deploying a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense Virtual (FTDv) instance in an Amazon Web Services (AWS) VPC. The deployment requires the FTDv to inspect traffic crossing between public and private subnets. Which AWS architectural construct is mandatory for routing traffic through the FTDv instance?

A.Custom AWS Route Tables associated with the subnets, pointing traffic destined outside the VPC to the FTDv data interface ENI.
B.Cisco TrustSec Security Group Tags (SGTs) applied to AWS security groups.
C.AWS Transit Gateway with static BGP peering enabled to the FTDv management interface.
D.Physical bypass NICs installed in the AWS hypervisor layer.
AnswerA

AWS route tables must be modified to point traffic to the firewall instance's Elastic Network Interface (ENI) to ensure traffic flows through the virtual firewall.

Why this answer

In public cloud deployments like AWS, routing traffic through a firewall appliance requires updating AWS Route Tables to point default or specific subnet traffic to the Elastic Network Interface (ENI) of the firewall's internal/external interfaces.

309
MCQeasy

An administrator needs to create a variable set to define specific port or network variables used within Intrusion Rules. Where are variable sets managed in the FMC?

A.Devices > Device Management > Variables
B.Objects > Object Management > Variable Sets
C.System > Localized Variables
D.Policies > Access Control > Variables
AnswerB

Intrusion rule variable sets are managed under Objects > Object Management > Variable Sets.

Why this answer

Variable sets are managed under Objects > Object Management > Variable Sets.

310
Multi-Selecteasy

An administrator is configuring automated backup tasks on the FMC. Which TWO destinations or protocols are natively supported by the FMC for storing backup archives? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Cisco Smart Licensing Cloud Repository
B.Local storage on the FMC appliance
C.Remote SCP / SFTP server
D.Windows Active Directory SYSVOL share
E.Public AWS S3 bucket via direct API access without a local mount
AnswersB, C

Backups can be stored locally on the FMC disk.

Why this answer

FMC supports local storage on the appliance as well as remote storage via SCP, FTP, and SFTP.

311
MCQhard

An enterprise requires FTD to decrypt outbound SSL/TLS traffic so internal users visiting external websites can be inspected by Snort for malware. Which policy and action combination must be configured?

A.SSL/TLS Decryption Policy with Decrypt - Resign action
B.Prefilter Policy configured with SSL Bypass
C.SSL/TLS Decryption Policy with Decrypt - Inbound action
D.Access Control Policy with Malware Inspection enabled and no SSL policy
AnswerA

Decrypt - Resign re-signs outbound traffic with a trusted local CA certificate to allow inspection.

Why this answer

Outbound SSL decryption requires an SSL/TLS Decryption Policy with a 'Decrypt - Resign' action using an internal subordinate CA certificate.

312
MCQeasy

In the context of FTD, what does 'FMC' stand for?

A.Firewall Management Console
B.Firewall Monitoring Center
C.Firepower Managed Cloud
D.Firepower Management Center
AnswerD

Correct product name.

Why this answer

FMC is the central management platform for FTD devices.

313
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO tasks are required to delete a NAT rule safely?

Select 2 answers
A.Deploy changes
B.Identify dependencies
C.Backup the FMC
D.Disable the rule
E.Rename the rule
AnswersA, B

Required to effect the deletion on the device.

Why this answer

Before deleting, ensure no other policies reference it and save/deploy the changes.

314
MCQmedium

An administrator needs to ensure that internal users can access the internet using a public IP while hiding their private address. Which NAT rule type should be configured on the FMC?

A.Policy NAT
B.Identity NAT
C.Static NAT
D.Dynamic NAT
AnswerD

Dynamic NAT provides a pool of addresses or PAT to translate internal hosts to a public IP.

Why this answer

Dynamic NAT or PAT is used to map internal private addresses to public addresses for outbound internet traffic.

315
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is configuring Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense to send syslog messages. Which TWO options can be included in the syslog message header or content to assist SIEM correlation and analysis? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Device name or firewall identifier in the syslog header
B.FMC administrator password hash for auditing
C.Full Active Directory database file attachments
D.Precise timestamp formatting (UTC or local time) configured in Platform Settings
E.Raw PCAP binary dumps appended to every syslog packet
AnswersA, D

Including the device name in syslog headers helps distinguish logs from multiple firewalls.

Why this answer

Syslog messages can include device identifiers and timestamps to aid SIEM correlation.

316
MCQmedium

An administrator needs to create a Geolocation object in the FMC to block traffic originating from a specific country. Where is this object used?

A.In Access Control rules under the Networks tab as Country objects
B.In manual NAT rules under Original Source
C.In Identity policies to restrict user login locations
D.In Prefilter policies under Geo-FastPath
AnswerA

Countries/Regions are selected as network criteria within Access Control rules.

Why this answer

Geolocation objects are used directly within Access Control rules under the Source/Destination Country criteria.

317
MCQhard

An administrator is troubleshooting an Access Control Policy where multiple rules could potentially match a specific packet. In what order does the FMC evaluate rules within an Access Control Policy?

A.Top-down within the configured sections: first Prefilter, then Security Intelligence, then Mandatory Access Rules, then Default Access Rules, then Default Action.
B.From bottom to top, with more specific rules evaluated last.
C.Simultaneously across all rules using hardware ASIC parallel processing.
D.Based on rule hit count optimization, putting frequently matched rules at the top automatically.
AnswerA

The evaluation order follows the strict packet pipeline: Prefilter -> Security Intelligence -> Access Control (Mandatory/Default) -> Default Action.

Why this answer

Access Control rules are evaluated in a top-down, first-match manner within sections (Mandatory, Default, etc.).

318
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is configuring interface-level QoS on an FTD device. Which THREE parameters or features can be configured within an FTD QoS policy? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.DSCP Marking
B.Active Directory user group mapping
C.Automatic IP address translation (NAT mapping)
D.Priority Queuing for critical traffic like VoIP
E.Rate Limiting (maximum bandwidth limits)
AnswersA, D, E

DSCP marking allows remarking IP precedence or differentiated services code points.

Why this answer

Qos policies on FTD support rate limiting, traffic shaping, priority queuing, and marking DSCP values.

319
MCQhard

An engineer is configuring static route tracking on a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense to ensure high availability for outbound internet connectivity. A backup static route is configured with a higher metric. What mechanism does the firewall use to dynamically switch from the primary route to the backup route when the primary next-hop fails?

A.Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) or ICMP ping SLA trackers that monitor the next-hop IP.
B.STP topology change notifications received on the tracked interface.
C.FMC heartbeat loss detection between the firewall and the gateway.
D.Automatic generation of dynamic OSPF neighbor adjacencies over the static interface.
AnswerA

Static route tracking relies on IP SLA (ping/TCP monitors) or BFD to monitor availability and remove the primary route from the forwarding table upon failure.

Why this answer

Static route tracking utilizes Embedded Event Manager (EEM) or IP SLA monitoring (via ICMP/TCP probes) to track reachability, modifying the routing table dynamically when the probe fails.

320
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is troubleshooting high memory utilization on an FMC appliance. Which TWO actions or tools can be used to identify resource-heavy processes or clean up storage? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Navigate to Analysis > Health > Monitor to review historical memory utilization graphs and identify anomalies.
B.Run 'system support memory-dump' from the FMC GUI.
C.Use the FMC CLI expert mode to run standard Linux utilities such as 'top' or 'ps' to inspect process resource consumption.
D.Restart the Snort inspection engine on the FMC.
E.Execute 'clear memory cache' in the FMC CLI.
AnswersA, C

The Health Monitor provides detailed historical graphs of memory utilization.

Why this answer

On FMC, administrators can check process resource utilization using Linux top/ps via expert mode or review the Health Monitor. Cleaning up disk space and checking logs are standard troubleshooting steps.

321
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are valid requirements for setting up an FTD high availability pair?

Select 2 answers
A.The units must have the same amount of memory.
B.The units must be managed by different FMC instances.
C.The units must be in different subnets.
D.The units must be the same FTD model.
E.The units must have identical software versions.
AnswersD, E

Matching hardware models is a mandatory requirement.

Why this answer

FTD HA requires both units to be the same model and the same software version to ensure compatibility.

322
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE factors affect the choice between deploying FTD in Routed vs Transparent mode?

Select 3 answers
A.Layer 2 vs Layer 3 placement.
B.Existing network IP constraints.
C.The brand of the upstream switch.
D.The number of users.
E.Requirement for NAT or dynamic routing.
AnswersA, B, E

Placement dictates the mode.

Why this answer

Your need for L3 features (NAT, dynamic routing), network topology constraints, and existing IP infrastructure dictate the mode choice.

323
MCQhard

When configuring an FTD in Transparent Mode, how is the 'Bridge Group' created?

A.In the Access Control Policy
B.In Device Management > Interfaces
C.In the Security Zone settings
D.In the Platform Settings
AnswerB

Bridge groups are interface constructs.

Why this answer

Bridge groups are created in the Device Management interface configuration section.

324
Multi-Selecthard

When configuring FMC backup schedules, which TWO storage options are natively supported for the backup files?

Select 2 answers
A.Remote SCP server
B.Local USB drive
C.Cloud S3 storage bucket
D.Local management appliance storage
E.Centralized Syslog server
AnswersA, D

SCP is a supported, secure protocol for offloading backups.

Why this answer

FMC supports local storage (to the management appliance) and remote storage via SCP or FTP/SFTP.

325
MCQhard

An organization uses Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense and integrates with Cisco ISE for identity policies. The security team notices that identity rules are intermittently failing because the FTD cache of IP-to-user mappings is being flushed unexpectedly. Upon investigation, what condition on FTD or ISE typically causes the purging of active user identity maps?

A.A mismatch in the NTP time synchronization greater than 5 minutes between the FTD and the FMC.
B.Exceeding the FMC database storage limit for event logging.
C.Receipt of an accounting stop message from the authenticator or an explicit session termination event from ISE pxGrid.
D.Automatic daily rotation of the FMC administrator password.
AnswerC

ISE sends session termination or accounting stop events via pxGrid, prompting the FTD to remove the IP-to-user mapping from its active identity table.

Why this answer

User identity mappings on FTD can be purged or invalidated due to RADIUS accounting stop messages, explicit pxGrid session termination notices from ISE (such as logoff or re-authentication timeouts), or when the maximum session idle timer expires on the firewall identity policy configuration.

326
Multi-Selecteasy

An administrator is creating an Access Control Policy rule on the FMC. Which TWO elements are required to create a basic rule? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Rule Name
B.Source Security Zone
C.Action (e.g., Allow, Block, Monitor)
D.Destination Port Object
E.Intrusion Policy assignment
AnswersA, C

Every rule must have a unique descriptive name.

Why this answer

Every Access Control Policy rule requires at least an Action (e.g., Allow, Block) and a Name. Other fields like source/destination zones or applications can be set to 'Any'.

327
MCQhard

When deploying a configuration change from FMC to FTD, what is the 'Deployment' process actually doing?

A.Pushing policy and configuration updates
B.Running a connectivity test
C.Rebooting the FTD
D.Updating the Snort binary
AnswerA

This applies the new settings to the target device.

Why this answer

The deployment process pushes the configuration changes and policies to the FTD device.

328
MCQmedium

You are setting up an FTD interface. What is the difference between a 'Routed' and 'Transparent' interface mode?

A.Transparent mode operates at L2
B.Routed mode does not support VLANs
C.Transparent mode requires a default gateway
D.Routed mode requires NAT
AnswerA

Transparent mode acts as a bridge without being a hop.

Why this answer

Routed mode acts as a L3 gateway, while Transparent mode acts as a L2 bridge.

329
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is configuring an Identity Policy to enforce user-based access control. Which THREE identity sources are supported by the FMC for user awareness? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.RADIUS Server (Authentication and Accounting)
B.Captive Portal for active web authentication
C.Syslog server log scraping without agent integration
D.Active Directory via AD Agent or Cisco ISE (Passive Authentication)
E.Local SNMP MIB walk queries
AnswersA, B, D

RADIUS can be utilized for user authentication and session mapping.

Why this answer

FMC supports Active Directory via user agent/ISE, RADIUS accounting/authentication, and captive portal for user identification.

330
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is setting up a new Cisco Firepower Threat Defense device and needs to configure platform-level parameters using FMC Platform Settings. Which TWO features can be configured via Platform Settings? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.SSL Decryption Certificate assignment
B.Network Address Translation (NAT)
C.SNMP parameters
D.Access Control Policy rules
E.Syslog Server configuration
AnswersC, E

SNMP community strings and trap destinations are configured in Platform Settings.

Why this answer

Platform Settings manage device-level settings such as Syslog/logging configuration, SNMP, Time Synchronization (NTP), and Banner settings. Access Control Policies and NAT are configured elsewhere.

331
MCQmedium

Which type of object is best suited for defining a web server's public-to-private NAT mapping?

A.VLAN object
B.Network object (Host)
C.Port object
D.Network object (Group)
AnswerB

Host objects specify a single IP for precise mapping.

Why this answer

A Host object representing the specific server IP is required for precise Static NAT mapping.

332
MCQmedium

An engineer is deploying an NGIPS inline set across two physical interfaces. To prevent network disruption during maintenance, the engineer needs to ensure that if the firewall loses power or experiences a kernel panic, traffic can still traverse the physical link. Which hardware feature must the interfaces support?

A.Unidirectional Link Detection (UDLD)
B.Spanning Tree PortFast BPDU filtering
C.Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI)
D.Hardware bypass capability (fail-open)
AnswerD

Hardware bypass ports physically bridge the RX/TX paths when power or software fails, allowing uninspected traffic to pass.

Why this answer

Optical or copper bypass capability (hardware fail-open/fail-close bypass caps) allows traffic to pass physically through the ports when power is lost or the system crashes.

333
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions must be performed on Cisco ISE when setting up pxGrid integration with Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center (FMC)? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Enable TrustSec SGT propagation via NetFlow v9 on all ISE interfaces.
B.Approve the certificate for the FMC client within the Cisco ISE pxGrid services administration interface.
C.Configure SNMPv3 traps on ISE to forward user IP mappings to the FMC.
D.Configure a RADIUS shared secret on the FMC platform settings page.
E.Enable the pxGrid service on the appropriate Cisco ISE Policy Service Nodes or Administration nodes.
AnswersB, E

ISE requires manual or automatic approval of client certificates attempting to join the pxGrid ecosystem.

Why this answer

When integrating ISE with FMC via pxGrid, you must enable the pxGrid service on the designated ISE nodes and approve the certificate/node registration from the FMC or ISE side depending on auto-approval settings.

334
Multi-Selecthard

An engineer is troubleshooting Cisco SecureX threat intelligence integration with Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center. The firewall is failing to receive updated indicators of compromise. Which TWO troubleshooting steps should the engineer perform? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Verify that outbound HTTPS (port 443) connectivity from the FMC management interface to the SecureX cloud is unobstructed.
B.Re-register the FTD with the FMC using a new registration key.
C.Check the FMC integration settings and re-authenticate or regenerate the SecureX API integration credentials if expired.
D.Run 'show threat-response debug' on the FTD CLI.
E.Restart the pxGrid service on the FTD command line.
AnswersA, C

FMC must be able to reach SecureX cloud APIs over outbound HTTPS port 443.

Why this answer

Troubleshooting SecureX integration involves verifying API token validity, cloud reachability over HTTPS, and FMC cloud services logs.

335
MCQhard

An administrator is implementing an SSL Decryption Policy on a Cisco Firepower Threat Defense device managed by FMC. The policy must decrypt outbound HTTPS traffic to inspect for malware, but certain financial domains must be excluded from decryption to comply with privacy regulations. Which rule action should be configured for these specific financial domains in the SSL Decryption Policy?

A.Do Not Decrypt
B.Decrypt - Known Key
C.Block
D.Decrypt - Resign
AnswerA

Do Not Decrypt allows the SSL/TLS session to pass through the firewall without decryption or payload inspection.

Why this answer

To prevent inspection and decryption of sensitive traffic while allowing it to pass through the firewall, the Do Not Decrypt action is used in the SSL Decryption Policy.

336
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is configuring an SSL Decryption Policy on the FMC. Which TWO conditions or actions can be configured within an SSL rule? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Matching traffic based on URL Categories (e.g., Banking, Gambling)
B.Applying the 'Decrypt - Resign' action
C.Configuring static route metrics for decrypted packets
D.Defining QoS rate limits for HTTPS sessions
E.Enforcing Snort 3 Intrusion rule signatures directly inside the SSL policy
AnswersA, B

SSL rules support matching traffic based on URL categories to bypass or inspect specific web traffic.

Why this answer

SSL rules allow matching on criteria such as Certificate status, URL categories, and zones, and applying actions like Do Not Decrypt, Decrypt - Resign, or Block.

337
MCQmedium

An Identity Policy is configured on the FMC to authenticate users connecting through the FTD. The administrator wants to use Active Directory as the identity source. Which mechanism must be configured to map user IP addresses to usernames without requiring explicit web authentication?

A.Captive Portal
B.Passive Authentication via AD Agent or ISE
C.Local User Database
D.RADIUS Server Authentication
AnswerB

Passive authentication monitors directory server logs or agents to map user IP addresses to usernames without user intervention.

Why this answer

Passive authentication utilizes the Cisco User Agent or Firepower Identity Services Engine (ISE) / AD agent to map IP addresses to usernames transparently.

338
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are required for FTD transparent mode deployment?

Select 2 answers
A.Public IP addresses on all interfaces.
B.Static routing protocol.
C.VLAN tagging on all ports.
D.BVI with an IP address.
E.Bridge groups.
AnswersD, E

The BVI provides the L3 management entry point.

Why this answer

Transparent mode requires bridge groups to handle traffic, and an IP address on the BVI for management purposes.

339
MCQmedium

An engineer deploys an NGIPS in passive mode using a SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) port on a core switch. During traffic analysis, the engineer notices that the firewall is not seeing TCP reset packets generated by internal servers. What is the primary operational limitation of deploying an NGIPS in passive mode that explains this behavior?

A.Passive sensors operate out-of-band and cannot block traffic inline or guarantee packet delivery state synchronization.
B.Passive mode forces the Snort engine to disable all custom intrusion rules.
C.Passive sensors cannot inspect encrypted TLS traffic due to missing cryptographic keys.
D.SPAN ports automatically drop TCP reset flags for security reasons.
AnswerA

Because passive sensors only monitor a copy of traffic, they cannot block live traffic inline.

Why this answer

Passive mode sensors receive a copy of traffic via SPAN or tap. Because they are out-of-band, they cannot block traffic inline or actively drop packets; they can only generate alerts or send TCP resets (if configured and supported), but cannot guarantee inline remediation.

340
MCQhard

An organization mandates that all integration traffic between Cisco Firepower Management Center and Cisco SecureX must be inspected. Which cloud connection mechanism does FMC use to communicate with SecureX threat intelligence and telemetry?

A.Direct syslog forwarding over TCP 6514 to the SecureX collector.
B.Outbound HTTPS REST API communication to Cisco SecureX cloud endpoints.
C.Inbound SSH tunneling initiated by the SecureX cloud connector.
D.Bidirectional IPSec VPN tunnel established automatically between FMC and SecureX cloud cluster.
AnswerB

FMC initiates outbound HTTPS (TCP 443) connections to Cisco SecureX cloud APIs for telemetry and threat intelligence sync.

Why this answer

FMC connects outbound to Cisco SecureX using HTTPS (TCP port 443) via public cloud APIs and messaging fabric.

341
MCQmedium

When troubleshooting policy deployment failures, which log file on the FMC should be examined to see the specific error returned by the device during the commit process?

A.FMC kernel log
B.Snort logs
C.Deployment History
D.System Access Log
E.Audit logs
AnswerC

The deployment history logs contain the granular errors from the device during policy push.

Why this answer

The task queue and the deployment history log contain details regarding why a deployment to a managed device failed.

342
MCQmedium

An administrator needs to configure NAT on an FTD device so that internal traffic destined for a partner network uses the original source IP, but the destination IP is translated from 192.168.10.50 to 172.16.50.10. What type of NAT rule is required?

A.Auto NAT Destination PAT
B.Manual NAT with Destination Translation
C.Identity NAT Destination Rule
D.Auto NAT Source Translation
AnswerB

Manual NAT rules support both source and destination IP address translation configurations.

Why this answer

Translating the destination IP address of an outgoing or incoming packet requires a Destination NAT configuration (Manual NAT with dynamic or static destination translation).

343
MCQhard

A network security engineer configures Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense to ingest Security Group Tags (SGTs) from Cisco ISE via pxGrid. The integration is active, and SGTs are successfully mapped to IP addresses. However, access control rules referencing Security Group Tags fail to match traffic originating from authenticated endpoints. What is the most likely cause of this behavior on FTD?

A.Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense does not support enforcement of SGTs learned via pxGrid; it only supports SXP.
B.The TrustSec SXP peering is not configured between the FTD and the authenticator switch, causing the firewall data plane to drop or ignore inline SGT headers.
C.The Identity Source Sequence on ISE must include Active Directory LDAP bindings specifically for FTD rule evaluation.
D.The FMC requires a manual restart of the Snort detection engine every time a new SGT is learned via pxGrid.
AnswerB

If SXP or inline TrustSec is missing along the data path, the firewall does not receive the SGT metadata embedded or mapped in the packets.

Why this answer

For SGTs to be enforced in Access Control policies on FTD, the SGT metadata must be preserved in the data plane (such as through inline SGT propagation using Cisco TrustSec SXP or inline tagging). If SXP is not configured to propagate the tags across routed hops, or if the interface is not configured to trust SGT headers, FTD will not inspect the tag in the packet header.

344
MCQmedium

An administrator is setting up a high availability pair of Cisco Secure Firewall devices. During the HA configuration wizard in FMC, the administrator is asked to provide a registration key. What is the purpose of this key?

A.It authorizes the FMC to push the initial bootstrap image to the standby unit.
B.It provides mutual authentication and establishes the secure trust relationship between the primary and secondary units.
C.It decrypts encrypted payloads passing across the stateful data links.
D.It unlocks the advanced clustering license on both firewalls.
AnswerB

The registration key serves as a shared secret to authenticate the HA peers when establishing the secure control link.

Why this answer

The registration key (shared secret) is used to securely authenticate and encrypt the initial communication channel between the primary and secondary units during the HA pairing process.

345
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is configuring Identity Policies on the FMC. Which TWO identity sources are supported for user mapping and authentication? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Syslog server parsing for DHCP leases
B.SNMP trap listener
C.Local FTD administrator database
D.Active Directory via Firepower User Agent
E.Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) via pxGrid
AnswersD, E

Active Directory integration via the User Agent provides passive user mapping.

Why this answer

FMC Identity Policies support Active Directory via User Agent or ISE/pxGrid integration, along with RADIUS and captive portal.

346
MCQhard

When troubleshooting an issue where an FTD interface is in a 'down' state, which command helps verify if there is a physical layer issue or an administrative shutdown?

A.show link status
B.show interface
C.show hardware interface
D.show run interface
E.show status
AnswerB

This provides the operational status and administrative state of the interface.

Why this answer

The 'show interface' command displays both the physical status and the administrative status of the interface.

347
MCQhard

An administrator is preparing to upgrade an FMC and its managed FTD devices from version 6.6.x to 7.2.x. What is the mandatory prerequisite regarding upgrade paths and compatibility checks?

A.Run the FMC Upgrade Readiness Tool (URT) to check for configuration and database incompatibilities.
B.Upgrade all FTD devices to 7.2.x before upgrading the FMC.
C.Export the security policy, wipe the FMC, and re-import the policy on version 7.2.
D.Delete all historical event data to ensure the database fits within the 7.2 schema limits.
AnswerA

The URT is a mandatory pre-upgrade utility that scans the database and configurations for blocking issues before upgrading.

Why this answer

Cisco mandates running the FMC Upgrade Readiness Tool (URT) before performing any major version upgrade to identify schema, database, or configuration incompatibilities.

348
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO items can be used to filter traffic in a QoS policy?

Select 2 answers
A.Port object
B.User Identity
C.License status
D.Device name
E.Network object
AnswersA, E

Used for protocol classification.

Why this answer

QoS policies use Network and Port objects to classify traffic for bandwidth management.

349
MCQmedium

An FTD device is deployed behind a service provider router that performs NAT, meaning the external IP address assigned to the FTD's outside interface changes dynamically via DHCP. How should a Manual NAT rule be configured to handle outbound traffic referencing this dynamic outside IP?

A.Configure Auto NAT with a translated network object set to dynamic.
B.Use a static IP address object matching the expected DHCP lease.
C.Use Identity NAT with dynamic DHCP options.
D.Configure Dynamic PAT using the Outside Interface as the translated address.
AnswerD

Using the interface IP dynamically accommodates DHCP address changes on external interfaces.

Why this answer

When the outside interface IP is dynamic, Manual NAT can use the interface itself as the translated address (Interface PAT).

350
MCQmedium

An engineer is deploying a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense Virtual (FTDv) in Google Cloud Platform (GCP). The architecture requires multiple network interfaces. How does GCP map these interfaces during deployment?

A.GCP requires all data traffic to pass through an external HTTP(S) load balancer before reaching nic0.
B.GCP allows multiple discrete NICs per instance, with nic0 assigned to management and subsequent NICs mapped to data subnets.
C.GCP supports only a single interface per VM; all VLAN subinterfaces must be trunked through nic0.
D.GCP virtual machines cannot be managed by Cisco FMC; they require deployment via Google Deployment Manager only.
AnswerB

GCP supports multi-NIC instances where nic0 is reserved for management and additional NICs handle internal and external data traffic.

Why this answer

GCP allows multiple Network Interface Cards (NICs) on a single compute instance, where nic0 is typically assigned for management and subsequent nic1, nic2, etc., are assigned for data traffic.

351
MCQmedium

An administrator configures Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense to send connection logs to a syslog server. The SIEM administrator reports that connection teardown logs are missing, while connection creation logs are successfully received. What setting in the FTD Platform Settings syslog configuration needs to be adjusted?

A.Increase the syslog severity level from informational to debug.
B.Change the syslog facility from local4 to daemon.
C.Ensure that 'Log Beginning of Connection' and 'Log End of Connection' (Teardown) are both explicitly enabled in the FTD Platform Settings logging configuration.
D.Enable 'Reliable Syslog' over TCP.
AnswerC

Teardown logs are generated only when connection end logging is explicitly enabled in the platform settings or access control rule logging options.

Why this answer

By default, FTD logging options allow configuring whether to log connection begin, connection end (teardown), or both. If teardown logs are missing, the logging option for 'Connection Teardown' (or closed connections) is disabled in the Platform Settings logging configuration.

352
MCQhard

An FTD high availability pair experiences a failover due to a hardware failure on the active unit. After the standby unit takes over, the administrator notices that existing TCP connections were dropped and did not state-fully fail over. What configuration setting should the administrator verify?

A.Ensure that dynamic routing protocols are configured with graceful restart.
B.Verify that stateful failover is enabled and the failover link interface is operational and passing state packets.
C.Verify that clustering is enabled instead of high availability.
D.Check that adaptive inspection is disabled in the Access Control Policy.
AnswerB

Stateful failover requires an active, low-latency failover link to synchronize connection states between units.

Why this answer

Stateful failover in FTD requires properly configured State MAC and Failover interfaces. If stateful failover is not enabled or if the failover link is down, long-lived or active TCP states are not synchronized to the standby unit.

353
MCQhard

When configuring ECMP (Equal-Cost Multi-Path) on FTD, what happens if one of the next-hop paths fails?

A.Traffic is dropped until manual intervention.
B.The entire cluster enters a maintenance mode.
C.All traffic is rerouted to the primary management interface.
D.Traffic is automatically load-balanced across the remaining active paths.
AnswerD

ECMP re-calculates the path based on available routes.

Why this answer

FTD monitors the routes; if a path fails, the FTD removes that specific route from the routing table, and traffic is automatically redistributed across the remaining paths.

354
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator integrates Cisco Secure Firewall Management Center with Cisco SecureX. Which TWO benefits and features are unlocked by this cloud integration? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Replacement of the FMC PostgreSQL database with a cloud-hosted data warehouse.
B.Direct hardware provisioning and zero-touch booting of physical FTD appliances via SecureX.
C.Cross-product pivoting and investigation capabilities from security events to network flows.
D.Automatic generation of TACACS+ administrator credentials for FTD CLI access.
E.Centralized threat intelligence synchronization and automated indicator blocking across managed FTD sensors.
AnswersC, E

SecureX allows security analysts to pivot across endpoints, network firewalls, and email security vectors.

Why this answer

SecureX integration provides unified threat response actions and cross-product threat intelligence correlation.

355
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE commands are valid for gathering information about the FTD's current status and health from the CLI?

Select 3 answers
A.show interface ip brief
B.show network health
C.show memory
D.show cpu usage
E.show snort traffic
AnswersA, C, D

Provides a summary of configured interfaces.

Why this answer

These commands provide insight into hardware, processes, and network state.

356
MCQmedium

When deploying an FTD appliance, which interface role is used for receiving traffic from a SPAN port?

A.Routed interface
B.Inline set
C.Passive interface
D.Bridge group interface
AnswerC

Passive interfaces are designed for monitoring.

Why this answer

A passive interface is configured to monitor traffic without being part of the production traffic path, making it perfect for SPAN/TAP input.

357
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is managing high availability failover events for Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense devices using Cisco FMC. Which TWO actions or events will trigger a failover from the active unit to the standby unit? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Failure of a monitored data interface exceeding the configured interface failure criteria.
B.An administrator logging into the FMC user interface via HTTPS.
C.An increase in CPU utilization above 10% on the active unit.
D.A scheduled backup job running on the secondary unit.
E.Loss of heartbeat communications over the dedicated failover control link between the active and standby units.
AnswersA, E

Monitored interface failures can trigger an automated failover.

Why this answer

Failover is triggered by events such as hardware failure, loss of heartbeat on the failover/control link, or interface failure thresholds being exceeded.

358
MCQhard

When deploying an FTD virtual appliance in AWS, which feature allows the FTD to scale horizontally to handle varying traffic loads?

A.ECMP load balancing.
B.Auto Scaling Groups.
C.Clustering.
D.Stateful failover.
AnswerB

Cloud-native auto-scaling handles horizontal scaling.

Why this answer

In cloud environments, FTD virtual appliances can be deployed within an Auto Scaling group to handle dynamic traffic loads.

359
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is configuring third-party SIEM integration using syslog on Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense. Which TWO configuration practices are recommended to ensure optimal log management and troubleshooting? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Disable connection teardown logging to reduce log volume.
B.Configure all FTD devices to use UDP port 514 without severity filters.
C.Configure severity filtering to prevent excessive, low-priority debug logs from overwhelming the SIEM ingestion capacity.
D.Export raw PCAP files via syslog instead of text logs.
E.Use Reliable Syslog over TCP with TLS encryption where confidentiality and guaranteed delivery are required.
AnswersC, E

Filtering unnecessary low-priority logs prevents SIEM performance bottlenecks and log storage exhaustion.

Why this answer

Recommended syslog practices include filtering event severities to avoid log flooding and using Reliable Syslog (TCP/TLS) for secure, guaranteed transmission.

360
MCQhard

An administrator is configuring static route tracking on a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense device managed by FMC. A tracked IP address becomes unreachable, and the primary static route is removed from the routing table. What mechanism does FTD use to verify the reachability of the tracked destination?

A.ARP request polling sent every 3 seconds to the default gateway MAC address
B.ICMP Echo or TCP Connect probes managed by IP SLA tracking objects
C.Continuous bidirectional forwarding detection (BFD) sessions initiated directly from the routing daemon process
D.SNMP trap polling managed by the Firepower Management Center correlation engine
AnswerB

FTD uses IP SLA tracking objects that issue ICMP Echo or TCP probes to determine reachability.

Why this answer

Static route tracking in FTD uses IP SLA monitoring (ICMP Echo or TCP probes) to continuously test reachability and trigger failover to a backup route.

361
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is troubleshooting a Prefilter Policy configured on an FMC. Which THREE actions are available when creating a rule in a Prefilter Policy? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Decrypt - Resign (intercept and re-sign SSL certificate)
B.Inspect with Snort 3 Intrusion Prevention
C.Slow Path (send traffic through normal inspection pipeline)
D.Block (drop traffic immediately)
E.Fast Path (bypass inspection and fast-forward traffic)
AnswersC, D, E

Slow Path forces traffic through standard access control and inspection.

Why this answer

Prefilter policies support Fast Path, Slow Path, and Block actions to handle traffic before access control and inspection.

362
MCQeasy

An administrator is configuring a new Access Control Policy on the Firepower Management Center and needs to add a rule that blocks peer-to-peer file sharing applications regardless of port. Which rule type should the administrator select?

A.NAT rule
B.Identity rule
C.Access control rule
D.Prefilter rule
AnswerC

Access control rules allow defining application filters to inspect and block traffic based on Layer 7 signatures.

Why this answer

Access Control Rules of type Access are used to allow, block, or inspect traffic. To block applications regardless of port, the administrator uses the Applications tab within an Access rule.

363
MCQhard

How do you ensure that a specific host object is only used in a specific interface?

A.Use a VLAN group
B.Use a Security Zone
C.Use a Port object
D.Use an Interface Object
AnswerD

This ties the object to an interface.

Why this answer

By using the 'Interface Objects' feature in FMC, you can restrict where a network object is valid.

364
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO settings are available when configuring the 'Logging' tab in an Access Control Rule?

Select 2 answers
A.Log to Cloud
B.Log every packet
C.Log at Middle
D.Log at End
E.Log at Beginning
AnswersD, E

Logs connection completion.

Why this answer

Logging can be configured at the beginning or end of a connection.

365
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are necessary to configure an FTD in passive mode?

Select 3 answers
A.Assign a static route to the passive interface.
B.Disable the interface IP address.
C.Enable hardware bypass.
D.Connect to a SPAN or TAP source.
E.Configure the interface as 'Passive'.
AnswersB, D, E

Passive interfaces should not have an IP address.

Why this answer

Passive mode requires an interface to be in a non-routing mode, typically using a SPAN port, and it does not allow for blocking traffic.

366
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are valid requirements or characteristics when deploying Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense in a high availability (HA) configuration? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Transparent mode HA supports asymmetric routing paths across both active and standby units simultaneously.
B.The active and standby units can have differing amounts of RAM as long as the CPU core counts match.
C.Both units must run the exact same software version and maintenance patch level.
D.A dedicated physical interface must be configured as the HA failover link.
E.The units must be of the same model (e.g., two FPR-1010 units).
AnswersC, D, E

Software version consistency is mandatory for FTD HA formation.

Why this answer

FTD High Availability requires identical hardware/virtual models, the same software versions, and dedicated HA links.

367
MCQeasy

Which deployment scenario represents the correct use case for deploying a Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense in passive NGIPS mode?

A.Out-of-band monitoring of core switch traffic using a SPAN port to detect threats without impacting production latency.
B.Acting as the default Layer 3 gateway and DHCP server for guest Wi-Fi users.
C.Terminating remote access AnyConnect VPN tunnels for mobile employees.
D.Inline inspection of all core data center traffic where blocking malicious packets is mandatory.
AnswerA

Passive mode monitors traffic via SPAN/tap out-of-band, avoiding latency or inline points of failure.

Why this answer

Passive NGIPS mode is used when monitoring traffic out-of-band via a tap or SPAN port without putting the device in the direct path of data flow.

368
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is troubleshooting eStreamer event export from a Firepower Management Center to a third-party SIEM tool. Which TWO factors can cause eStreamer communication to fail? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.TCP port 8302 is blocked by an intermediate firewall between the FMC and the eStreamer client.
B.The eStreamer client certificate has expired or was generated with an incorrect IP/hostname binding.
C.NetFlow export rate-limiting has been exceeded on the data interfaces.
D.The SNMPv3 authentication password does not match between the devices.
E.The Syslog server is configured to use UDP port 514 instead of TCP port 514.
AnswersA, B

The eStreamer protocol operates exclusively over TCP port 8302, which must be permitted.

Why this answer

eStreamer communication relies on valid PKCS#12 client certificates generated on the FMC and proper firewall/network rules allowing TCP port 8302 between the FMC and the eStreamer client.

369
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO types of objects can be created in the FMC Object Manager?

Select 2 answers
A.Network
B.License
C.System Health
D.Dashboard
E.Port
AnswersA, E

Core object type.

Why this answer

Network and Port objects are standard types in FMC.

370
MCQmedium

An administrator is configuring third-party SIEM integration using eStreamer. The external client application encounters a TLS handshake failure when attempting to connect to the FMC eStreamer port. What is the standard troubleshooting step to resolve certificate validation issues between an external eStreamer client and the FMC?

A.Disable SSL/TLS verification in the FMC Platform Settings under the eStreamer daemon parameters.
B.Restart the Snort inspection engine on all managed FTD devices.
C.Generate a new pkcs12 client certificate bundle from the FMC eStreamer configuration menu and import it into the client application store.
D.Change the eStreamer listening port from 8302 to 443 in the FMC System Preferences.
AnswerC

Mutual TLS requires the client to present a valid certificate generated by the FMC's internal CA during the eStreamer setup.

Why this answer

When setting up an external eStreamer client, the administrator must generate a PKCS#12 (.pfx or .pem) client certificate bundle and copy the corresponding CA certificate to the client host so that mutual TLS authentication succeeds.

371
MCQmedium

An administrator is configuring a Prefilter policy to handle GRE-encapsulated traffic. Which Prefilter rule option allows handling or accelerating tunneled traffic?

A.Access Control rule with GRE protocol filter
B.SSL Decryption Policy Tunnel Decrypt
C.Tunnel rule type
D.NAT rule with Protocol Rewriting
AnswerC

Tunnel rules in Prefilter policies allow matching and processing tunneled traffic such as GRE and IPsec.

Why this answer

Prefilter policies contain specific settings for handling tunnels such as GRE or IPsec to either bypass, accelerate, or match them.

372
MCQhard

An FMC high availability (HA) pair has split-brain symptoms due to a management network failure. After restoring network connectivity, the standby unit remains in a 'Failed' state and does not automatically re-synchronize. What is the correct procedure to recover the HA sync?

A.Run 'system support fmc-ha-sync' from the standby FMC CLI.
B.Go to System > Integration > HA, break the HA pairing, and re-establish it using the active unit as the primary.
C.Reboot both FMC units simultaneously.
D.From the primary FMC CLI, run 'configure ha restore-sync'.
AnswerB

Breaking and re-establishing the HA pair ensures a clean database sync from the active FMC to the standby.

Why this answer

When FMC HA encounters persistent sync issues after network restoration, the administrator must break the HA relationship and re-establish it, or use the system-level HA synchronization tools to force a re-sync from active to standby.

373
Multi-Selecthard

An enterprise integrates Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense with Cisco ISE via pxGrid. The security team notices that user identity mapping is intermittent for wireless clients roaming across different access points. Which TWO factors should be verified to ensure robust identity continuity during wireless roaming? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Disable the Snort engine during wireless handover events.
B.Ensure that ISE session updates and RADIUS accounting interim updates are properly configured on the wireless controllers.
C.Verify that pxGrid session publishing is active and subscriptions are maintained without disconnects.
D.Ensure the FTD is configured as an SXP speaker for wireless SSIDs.
E.Configure static ARP entries for all wireless client MAC addresses on the FTD.
AnswersB, C

Wireless controllers must send accounting updates to ISE quickly so pxGrid can update IP-to-user bindings during roaming.

Why this answer

Roaming wireless clients require rapid RADIUS accounting updates and ISE session continuity to update pxGrid mapping without delays.

374
MCQeasy

Which FTD deployment mode must be selected to use the device as a transparent bump-in-the-wire for security inspection?

A.Hybrid
B.Passive
C.Transparent
D.Routed
AnswerC

Transparent mode is the correct mode for bump-in-the-wire.

Why this answer

Transparent mode allows the FTD to be inserted into a network without changing the IP scheme, acting as a bridge.

375
MCQeasy

Which tab in the Access Control Policy rule allows you to choose the 'Logging' action?

A.General
B.Inspection
C.Logging
D.Advanced
AnswerC

Correct, this is the logging configuration tab.

Why this answer

The Logging tab in the rule editor is dedicated to logging configuration.

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