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Cisco SPCOR / CCNP Service Provider Core 350-501 (350-501) — Questions 76150

971 questions total · 13pages · All types, answers revealed

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76
MCQeasy

An engineer is deploying MPLS in the core and wants to ensure that all core routers use the same label for a specific prefix, regardless of which router originated it. Which MPLS label allocation mode should be used?

A.Per-interface label mode
B.Per-next-hop label mode
C.Per-prefix label mode
D.Per-VRF label mode
AnswerC

Per-prefix allocates one label per prefix, ensuring same label across all routers.

Why this answer

Per-prefix label mode (option C) is correct because it assigns a single label for a specific prefix across all core routers, regardless of which router originated the route. This ensures label consistency, which is critical for proper MPLS forwarding and troubleshooting. In contrast, per-next-hop or per-interface modes would create different labels for the same prefix based on the next hop or interface, breaking the requirement for uniform label allocation.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between per-prefix and per-next-hop label modes, and the trap here is that candidates confuse per-next-hop (which creates multiple labels for the same prefix) with per-prefix, thinking that per-next-hop ensures consistency when it actually does the opposite.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because per-interface label mode assigns a unique label per interface for each FEC, which would cause the same prefix to have different labels on different interfaces, not a single label across all routers. Option B is wrong because per-next-hop label mode allocates a label per next hop for a given prefix, leading to multiple labels for the same prefix if multiple next hops exist, violating the requirement for a single label. Option D is wrong because per-VRF label mode is used in MPLS VPNs to assign a label per VRF, not per prefix, and would not ensure a single label for a specific prefix across the core.

77
MCQmedium

In BGP route selection, which attribute is considered before LOCAL_PREF?

A.AS_PATH length
B.MED
C.LOCAL_PREF
D.Weight
AnswerD

Weight is checked first; it is Cisco proprietary.

Why this answer

BGP route selection starts with the highest weight (Cisco proprietary), then highest LOCAL_PREF, then locally originated routes.

78
MCQmedium

A customer requires MPLS Layer 2 VPN connectivity between two sites using Pseudowire. Which control protocol is used to signal the pseudowire label?

A.RSVP-TE
B.LDP
C.BGP
D.OSPF
AnswerB

LDP signaled pseudowire is used in AToM.

Why this answer

B is correct because LDP (Label Distribution Protocol) is the standard control protocol used to signal pseudowire labels in MPLS Layer 2 VPNs. Specifically, the Targeted LDP (T-LDP) session between the two Provider Edge (PE) routers exchanges the Virtual Circuit (VC) label, which is the inner label used to identify the pseudowire. This is defined in RFC 4447 and is the default signaling mechanism for AToM (Any Transport over MPLS).

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse BGP's role in MPLS Layer 3 VPNs (where it distributes VPNv4 routes and labels) with pseudowire signaling, leading them to incorrectly select BGP for Layer 2 VPN pseudowire setup.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because RSVP-TE is used for traffic engineering and MPLS-TE label signaling, not for pseudowire label distribution. Option C is wrong because BGP can be used for MPLS Layer 3 VPN label distribution (VPNv4 routes) or for signaling pseudowire labels in certain implementations like L2VPN BGP-signaled VPLS, but it is not the standard control protocol for point-to-point pseudowires in AToM. Option D is wrong because OSPF is an IGP used for IP routing within an autonomous system and does not distribute MPLS labels; it has no role in pseudowire signaling.

79
MCQmedium

An engineer is configuring management plane hardening on an IOS XR router. The requirement is to authenticate users against a central server and provide granular command authorization. Which protocol and feature should be used?

A.SSH with local username/password
B.TACACS+ with AAA and task groups
C.SNMPv3 with ACLs
D.RADIUS with local authentication
AnswerB

TACACS+ provides granular command authorization, and task groups enable role-based access.

Why this answer

TACACS+ provides separate authentication, authorization, and accounting, and is commonly used with AAA for centralized management. Role-based access is achieved via task groups in IOS XR.

80
MCQhard

An SP deploys EVPN to provide L2VPN services with multi-homing. The customer CE is dual-homed to two different PE routers. Which EVPN mechanism ensures that only one PE forwards traffic to the CE for a given Ethernet segment, preventing loops?

A.BGP Route Reflector
B.MAC learning via data plane
C.Split horizon groups
D.Designated Forwarder election based on ESI
AnswerD

DF election ensures only one PE forwards BUM traffic to the CE.

Why this answer

Ethernet Segment Identifier (ESI) and designated forwarder (DF) election in EVPN ensure that only one PE forwards traffic to the CE for a given Ethernet segment, preventing loops.

81
MCQeasy

A service provider recently deployed MPLS L3VPN for a customer with four sites (Site1, Site2, Site3, Site4) connected to PE1, PE2, PE3, and PE4 respectively. All sites are in VRF CUST-A with route targets 100:1 import and 100:1 export on all PEs. The customer reports that Site4 cannot ping the loopback interface (10.1.1.1/32) of Site1, but Site2 and Site3 can reach it. The provider verifies that BGP sessions between all PEs and the route reflector are up and that VPNv4 routes are advertised. The VRF on PE4 shows the route 10.1.1.1/32 with next-hop 192.0.2.1 (PE1's loopback) but when Site4 initiates a ping, it fails. What should the provider check next?

A.Ensure that the IGP operating in the core has propagated the loopback interface address of PE1 to all P routers.
B.Verify that the BGP session between PE4 and the route reflector is using the correct update source.
C.Verify that the CE router at Site4 is configured with the correct VRF name and default gateway.
D.Check the VRF route target import on PE1 to ensure it includes the route target exported by PE4 for Site4's subnet.
AnswerD

Correct. The ping fails because return traffic from Site1 to Site4 is dropped. PE1 must import the route target exported by PE4 for Site4's subnet. If the import RT on PE1 does not include the RT from PE4, the return path is broken.

Why this answer

The issue is that return traffic from Site1 to Site4 is being dropped. Although PE4 has the route to Site1's loopback, PE1 needs to have a route back to Site4's subnet in its VRF CUST-A. This is achieved by ensuring that PE1 imports the correct route target (exported by PE4 for Site4's prefix).

If the import RT on PE1 does not include the RT that PE4 exports for Site4, the return path is broken. Option A is incorrect because the IGP propagation of loopback interfaces is not directly related to VPNv4 route reachability; BGP sessions are already up. Option B is incorrect because the BGP session between PE4 and the route reflector is already up, and update source issues would affect route advertisement, not return path.

Option C is incorrect because CE configuration is likely fine since Site2 and Site3 work.

82
MCQeasy

Which technology should be used to provide per-flow load balancing across multiple equal-cost paths in an MPLS network while preserving packet order?

A.ECMP with a hash algorithm based on layer 3 and layer 4 headers
B.LAG with default hashing
C.Policy-based routing with next-hop per destination
D.Per-packet round-robin load balancing
AnswerA

ECMP hashing preserves flow ordering.

Why this answer

ECMP with a hash algorithm based on Layer 3 and Layer 4 headers is the correct choice because it provides per-flow load balancing by computing a hash over source/destination IP addresses and TCP/UDP port numbers, ensuring that all packets belonging to the same flow are forwarded over the same equal-cost path. This preserves packet order while distributing different flows across multiple paths in an MPLS network.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between per-flow and per-packet load balancing, and the trap here is that candidates confuse ECMP with per-packet round-robin, assuming both preserve order, but only per-flow hashing guarantees packet ordering within a flow.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because LAG (Link Aggregation Group) with default hashing operates at the link level, not at the network layer, and does not provide per-flow load balancing across multiple equal-cost paths in an MPLS network; it bundles physical links into a single logical link and may reorder packets if the hash is not flow-aware. Option C is wrong because policy-based routing with next-hop per destination is a static, destination-based forwarding mechanism that does not dynamically load balance per flow across equal-cost paths and can lead to packet reordering if policies change. Option D is wrong because per-packet round-robin load balancing sends packets sequentially across paths without considering flow affinity, which breaks packet order and causes severe reordering issues in TCP and other stateful protocols.

83
MCQmedium

A service provider is deploying MPLS L3VPN and notices that BGP next-hop resolution for VPNv4 routes fails on the PE routers. The PE routers are running OSPF as the IGP and have loopback interfaces used for LDP and BGP peering. Which configuration change should the engineer implement to ensure that the BGP next-hop is reachable?

A.Configure 'neighbor x.x.x.x update-source loopback0' under the BGP router configuration.
B.Configure 'neighbor x.x.x.x allowas-in 1' under the BGP VRF configuration.
C.Apply the 'neighbor x.x.x.x next-hop-self' command under the BGP VRF configuration.
D.Increase the 'maximum-paths' value under the BGP address-family VPNv4.
AnswerA

This ensures BGP uses the loopback as the source IP, making the next-hop reachable via IGP.

Why this answer

The BGP next-hop for VPNv4 routes is typically the loopback interface of the remote PE router. For BGP to consider the next-hop reachable, the local PE must have an IGP route to that loopback address. The 'neighbor x.x.x.x update-source loopback0' command ensures that BGP uses the loopback interface as the source IP for the TCP session, which aligns the BGP peering address with the IGP-advertised loopback, making the next-hop reachable via OSPF.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between BGP session establishment (which requires reachability to the neighbor's IP) and BGP next-hop resolution (which requires reachability to the next-hop address carried in the route); candidates confuse these two separate requirements and incorrectly apply 'next-hop-self' or 'allowas-in'.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'allowas-in' permits the local AS to appear in the AS_PATH, which is used for route acceptance in VRF contexts, not for next-hop resolution. Option C is wrong because 'next-hop-self' changes the next-hop to the local PE's address on routes sent to a BGP neighbor, but the issue is that the original next-hop (remote PE loopback) is unreachable due to IGP routing, not that the next-hop needs to be changed. Option D is wrong because 'maximum-paths' controls the number of equal-cost paths for load balancing, not next-hop reachability.

84
MCQhard

An SP is implementing BGP FlowSpec to mitigate DDoS. The FlowSpec rule should match traffic with destination port 80 and DSCP value 0. Which FlowSpec component is used to specify the destination port?

A.Type 3: Destination Port
B.Type 2: Source Port
C.Type 4: ICMP Type
D.Type 1: Destination Prefix
AnswerA

Destination port component matches the destination L4 port.

Why this answer

FlowSpec defines traffic matching criteria using components like destination port (type 3), source port (type 2), etc. Destination port is type 3.

85
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. CE1 is not receiving the VPNv4 route for the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet. What is the most likely cause?

A.PE1 is missing the VRF configuration for CUSTOMER_A
B.PE1 is missing the neighbor statement under address-family ipv4 vrf CUSTOMER_A
C.CE1 is missing the network statement under router bgp 65001
D.The neighbor 10.0.0.2 is using an incorrect update-source
AnswerB

Why this answer

For CE1 to receive the VPNv4 route for 192.168.1.0/24, PE1 must redistribute the route from the VRF into BGP. The neighbor statement under address-family ipv4 vrf CUSTOMER_A is required to establish an eBGP peering with CE1 and exchange IPv4 routes within that VRF. Without it, PE1 will not send any routes to CE1, even if the VRF and route targets are correctly configured.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between VRF configuration and BGP address-family activation, tricking candidates into thinking a missing VRF is the issue when the real problem is the missing neighbor statement under the VRF address-family.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because PE1 missing the VRF configuration for CUSTOMER_A would prevent any VRF-based routing, but the question states CE1 is not receiving the VPNv4 route specifically, implying the VRF exists but the BGP peering is broken. Option C is wrong because CE1 missing the network statement under router bgp 65001 would prevent CE1 from advertising the 192.168.1.0/24 route to PE1, but the issue is CE1 not receiving the route, not advertising it. Option D is wrong because the neighbor 10.0.0.2 using an incorrect update-source would affect the BGP session between PE1 and CE1, but the exhibit shows the peering is established (otherwise CE1 would not be a BGP neighbor at all), and the problem is specifically that the route is not being sent to CE1.

86
MCQhard

A large SP network uses Segment Routing (SR) with MPLS data plane. They want to enforce a strict path for certain traffic flows across the core while using shortest-path for others. Which technique should be used?

A.SR-TE with explicit path using segment list
B.Using TI-LFA
C.Configuring bandwidth reservation on all links
D.Using SR policies with color extended community based on BGP
AnswerA

SR-TE with a segment list defines the exact path through the network.

Why this answer

SR-TE with an explicit path using a segment list allows the operator to define a strict, ordered list of MPLS labels (segments) that the traffic must follow, overriding the default IGP shortest-path behavior. This is the correct technique for enforcing a strict path across the core while leaving other traffic to use shortest-path forwarding.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between SR-TE explicit paths (which enforce strict hop-by-hop routing) and SR policies using color communities (which are more about traffic steering based on BGP attributes, not strict path enforcement).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because TI-LFA (Topology Independent Loop-Free Alternate) is a fast-reroute mechanism that provides local protection against link or node failures, not a method for enforcing strict traffic paths. Option C is wrong because bandwidth reservation on all links is a capacity-planning or RSVP-TE feature, not a Segment Routing technique, and it does not enforce a strict path for specific flows. Option D is wrong because SR policies with color extended community based on BGP are used for steering traffic into SR-TE tunnels based on BGP attributes, but the question specifically asks for a strict path enforcement, which is achieved by an explicit segment list, not just a color-based policy.

87
MCQmedium

An SP is implementing RPKI to validate BGP origin AS. After configuring RPKI-to-Router (RTR) and setting BGP origin validation, a route is marked as 'invalid'. What action does BGP default take for invalid routes?

A.The route is installed with a lower local preference
B.The route is not installed in the routing table unless it is the only path
C.The route is treated as valid but with a lower preference
D.The route is dropped and not considered for best path selection
AnswerB

Invalid routes are not selected if any valid or not-found route exists; they may be used as a last resort.

Why this answer

By default, BGP does not drop invalid routes; they are considered but with a lower preference (typically not installed in the routing table if a valid route exists). To drop invalid routes, explicit policy is needed.

88
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE actions can help mitigate the impact of BGP prefix flapping in a service provider network?

Select 3 answers
A.Use route summarization.
B.Implement route dampening.
C.Use BGP peer groups.
D.Increase the BGP hold timer.
E.Apply BGP graceful restart.
AnswersA, B, D

Summarization aggregates multiple prefixes, reducing the impact of individual flaps.

Why this answer

Route summarization (A) reduces the number of BGP prefixes advertised, which inherently limits the impact of flapping because a single summary prefix represents many more-specific prefixes. If a specific subprefix flaps, the aggregate remains stable, preventing the flapping from propagating to BGP peers. This is a proactive approach to minimize the control-plane churn caused by unstable routes.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between mechanisms that reduce control-plane churn (summarization, dampening) versus those that maintain forwarding during failures (graceful restart), leading candidates to incorrectly select graceful restart as a flapping mitigation tool.

89
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. The output shows an MPLS forwarding entry with FRR protection. What is the purpose of the backup path shown?

A.To handle penultimate hop popping for the primary path.
B.To forward traffic if the primary outgoing interface fails.
C.To provide a load-balancing alternative for the primary path.
D.To carry the VPN label separately.
AnswerB

The backup path activates when primary fails, ensuring fast convergence.

Why this answer

The backup path in an MPLS Fast Reroute (FRR) configuration is precomputed and installed in the forwarding table to provide sub-50ms protection against link or node failures. When the primary outgoing interface fails, traffic is immediately switched to the backup path without waiting for IGP convergence, ensuring minimal packet loss.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between FRR backup paths (for protection) and ECMP load-balancing paths (for traffic distribution), leading candidates to confuse redundancy with load sharing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because penultimate hop popping (PHP) is a mechanism where the egress LSR removes the label before forwarding the packet to the CE, and it is unrelated to FRR backup paths; the backup path handles label imposition and forwarding, not PHP. Option C is wrong because load-balancing alternatives distribute traffic across multiple equal-cost paths for efficiency, not for protection against failures; FRR backup paths are solely for redundancy and are not used for load sharing. Option D is wrong because VPN labels are carried in the primary and backup paths as part of the label stack, but the backup path's purpose is not to separate VPN labels; it is to provide a precomputed alternate route for fast failover.

90
MCQeasy

A service provider wants to stream interface counters from a Cisco router to a collector using model-driven telemetry. The collector is behind NAT and cannot be reached from the router. Which telemetry model should be used?

A.Dial-out
B.SNMP traps
C.gNMI
D.NETCONF
E.Dial-in
AnswerA

Dial-out lets the router push telemetry to the collector, working even if the collector is behind NAT.

Why this answer

Dial-out telemetry is the correct model because it allows the router to initiate a TCP connection to the collector, even when the collector is behind NAT and cannot be reached from the router. In dial-out mode, the router acts as the client and pushes telemetry data to the collector's configured IP address and port, bypassing the need for the collector to initiate the connection. This contrasts with dial-in models where the collector must reach the router, which is impossible when the collector is behind NAT.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between dial-in and dial-out telemetry, and the trap here is that candidates assume gNMI or NETCONF can be used for streaming telemetry in any network topology, forgetting that these protocols require the collector to initiate the connection, which fails when the collector is behind NAT.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (SNMP traps) is wrong because SNMP traps are a legacy, pull-based or event-driven notification mechanism that does not support model-driven telemetry streaming and still requires the collector to be reachable from the router for trap delivery, which fails when the collector is behind NAT. Option C (gNMI) is wrong because gNMI is a dial-in model where the collector (client) initiates a gRPC connection to the router (server), which is impossible when the collector is behind NAT and cannot reach the router. Option D (NETCONF) is wrong because NETCONF is typically used for configuration management and, when used for telemetry, operates in a dial-in model where the collector connects to the router, again requiring reachability from the collector to the router.

Option E (Dial-in) is wrong because dial-in telemetry requires the collector to initiate the connection to the router, which is not possible when the collector is behind NAT and the router cannot be reached from the collector.

91
Multi-Selecteasy

Which two protocols are commonly used for label exchange in an MPLS network? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.OSPF
B.PIM
C.LDP
D.BGP
E.IS-IS
AnswersC, D

LDP exchanges labels for IGP prefixes.

Why this answer

LDP (Label Distribution Protocol) is a standardized protocol (RFC 5036) specifically designed for distributing MPLS labels between routers to establish Label Switched Paths (LSPs) without requiring an IGP to carry label information. BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) can also exchange MPLS labels, particularly in MPLS VPN and Inter-AS scenarios, where it carries VPNv4 routes with MPLS labels using the BGP label-mapping capability (RFC 3107).

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that IGPs like OSPF or IS-IS can be used for MPLS label exchange because they are commonly associated with MPLS traffic engineering extensions, but those extensions (e.g., OSPF-TE) only carry link attributes, not labels.

92
MCQmedium

An SP is designing an OSPF network with a totally stubby area to reduce the LSA database. Which LSA types are blocked by default in a totally stubby area?

A.Type 3 and Type 5 only
B.Type 5 only
C.Type 3, Type 4, and Type 5
D.Type 4 and Type 5 only
AnswerC

Totally stubby blocks all inter-area (Type 3) except default, and all external (Type 4/5).

Why this answer

Totally stubby area blocks Type 4 (ASBR Summary) and Type 5 (External) LSAs, and also Type 3 (Summary) LSAs except for the default route.

93
MCQmedium

An engineer configures a class-map to match traffic with DSCP AF41. What is the numerical DSCP value for AF41?

A.38
B.36
C.34
D.32
AnswerC

Correct; AF41 = DSCP 34.

Why this answer

AF41 is Assured Forwarding class 4, low drop probability, with DSCP decimal value 34 (binary 100010).

94
MCQeasy

A network engineer needs to ensure that a specific customer's traffic is not adversely affected by other customers' traffic in a shared MPLS core. Which technology should be used?

A.QoS policies on PE routers with shaping and policing
B.iBGP route reflectors
C.MPLS Traffic Engineering
D.802.1Q VLANs
AnswerA

QoS allows per-customer traffic controls.

Why this answer

QoS policies on PE routers with shaping and policing allow the service provider to enforce traffic contracts per customer, ensuring that one customer's traffic does not consume bandwidth allocated to another. This is achieved by applying ingress policing to limit customer traffic to the Committed Information Rate (CIR) and egress shaping to smooth bursts, preventing congestion in the MPLS core from affecting other customers.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between traffic engineering (path optimization) and QoS (rate enforcement), leading candidates to mistakenly choose MPLS TE when the question asks about preventing one customer's traffic from adversely affecting another.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because iBGP route reflectors are used to reduce the number of BGP sessions in an autonomous system by reflecting routes to clients; they do not provide traffic isolation or rate limiting between customers. Option C is wrong because MPLS Traffic Engineering (TE) optimizes the path of traffic through the network based on bandwidth constraints and administrative policies, but it does not enforce per-customer rate limits or prevent one customer's traffic from overwhelming another's. Option D is wrong because 802.1Q VLANs operate at Layer 2 to segment traffic within a single broadcast domain, but they are not applicable in an MPLS core where traffic is forwarded based on labels, not VLAN tags, and they do not provide per-customer rate limiting.

95
MCQmedium

In an MPLS-TE tunnel configuration, which RSVP message carries the Explicit Route Object (ERO) that specifies the explicit path the tunnel must follow?

A.RSVP_TEAR message
B.RSVP_ERR message
C.PATH message
D.RESV message
AnswerC

PATH carries the ERO.

Why this answer

In RSVP-TE, the PATH message includes the ERO to define the explicit route the traffic should take. The RESV message is sent back to confirm the reservation.

96
MCQmedium

A service provider is troubleshooting a BGP route advertisement issue. Routes from a customer are not being advertised to the upstream provider. The PE router is configured with 'neighbor 10.0.0.1 route-map RMAP out'. The route-map RMAP permits the customer prefix. However, the BGP table on the PE shows the prefix as valid but not advertised. What is a likely cause?

A.The next-hop is not reachable from the upstream provider
B.The BGP session to the upstream provider is flapping
C.The prefix is not in the global routing table
D.The route-map is applied inbound instead of outbound
AnswerA

If next-hop-self is not used, the next-hop might be a customer-facing interface not reachable upstream.

Why this answer

The BGP table shows the prefix as valid but not advertised, which indicates that BGP has the route but is not sending it to the upstream neighbor. A common cause is that the next-hop for the customer prefix is not reachable from the PE router via the interface used to reach the upstream provider. BGP will not advertise a route if the next-hop is not reachable in the routing table (unless 'neighbor x.x.x.x next-hop-self' is configured), because the upstream router would be unable to forward traffic to that next-hop.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the subtle distinction between a prefix being 'valid' (next-hop reachable in the global routing table) and 'advertised' (next-hop reachable from the specific neighbor's perspective), leading candidates to overlook next-hop reachability as the root cause.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a flapping BGP session would cause the session to go up and down, resulting in prefixes being withdrawn and re-advertised, not a stable 'valid but not advertised' state. Option C is wrong because if the prefix were not in the global routing table, it would not appear as valid in the BGP table; BGP requires the prefix to be in the routing table (or have a valid route) to be considered valid. Option D is wrong because the question states the route-map is applied outbound, and if it were mistakenly applied inbound, the prefix would still be advertised (the outbound filter would not exist), and the issue would be with receiving routes, not advertising them.

97
Multi-Selecthard

A service provider is implementing Segment Routing (SR) with MPLS. Which three statements are true regarding SR-MPLS? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.SR-MPLS supports traffic engineering only with a central controller
B.SR-MPLS does not require LDP or RSVP-TE
C.The SRGB must be globally unique across the domain
D.Adjacency SIDs are advertised via BGP-LS
E.Prefix-SIDs are bound to node loopbacks
AnswersB, C, E

SR uses IGP to distribute labels, eliminating the need for LDP or RSVP-TE.

Why this answer

B is correct because SR-MPLS uses the MPLS data plane but replaces the control plane protocols LDP and RSVP-TE with IGP extensions (IS-IS or OSPF) to distribute segment information. This eliminates the need for these traditional label distribution protocols, simplifying network operations and reducing protocol overhead.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that SR-MPLS requires a central controller for traffic engineering, but in reality, it supports both centralized and distributed TE models, and the key differentiator is the elimination of LDP/RSVP-TE.

98
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements about BGP route reflectors are true?

Select 2 answers
A.The cluster ID is used to detect routing loops.
B.A route reflector does not modify the next-hop attribute.
C.Route reflectors modify the AS_PATH attribute.
D.Route reflectors must be fully meshed.
E.A route reflector passes routes from non-client to non-client.
AnswersA, B

Multiple RRs in the same cluster use the cluster ID to avoid loops.

Why this answer

BGP route reflectors use the cluster ID to detect and prevent routing loops. When a route reflector receives an update containing its own cluster ID in the cluster-list attribute, it discards the route, breaking the loop. This mechanism is defined in RFC 4456 and is essential for loop-free route propagation in non-full-mesh iBGP topologies.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that route reflectors modify the AS_PATH or that they pass routes between non-clients, when in fact they preserve the AS_PATH and only reflect routes from non-clients to clients, not between non-clients.

99
MCQmedium

Which of the following best describes the function of CSPF in MPLS-TE?

A.It distributes labels to LDP neighbors.
B.It calculates the shortest path based solely on IGP metric.
C.It signals RSVP-TE PATH messages.
D.It prunes links that do not satisfy constraints and then runs SPF on the remaining topology.
AnswerD

Correct. CSPF applies constraints first.

Why this answer

CSPF computes a path that meets constraints (bandwidth, affinity, etc.) and avoids links/ nodes not meeting them.

100
MCQeasy

Which DSCP value is used for voice traffic (EF) in the DiffServ model?

A.DSCP 8
B.DSCP 0
C.DSCP 34
D.DSCP 46
AnswerD

EF corresponds to DSCP 46.

Why this answer

EF (Expedited Forwarding) is assigned DSCP 46 for low-latency voice traffic.

101
MCQhard

A service provider is implementing 6VPE to provide IPv6 L3VPN services over an MPLS core. Which BGP address family must be configured on the PE routers to exchange IPv6 VPN routes?

A.IPv6 unicast
B.VPNv4 unicast
C.IPv4 unicast
D.VPNv6 unicast
AnswerD

VPNv6 unicast carries IPv6 VPN prefixes.

Why this answer

6VPE uses the VPNv6 address family (or IPv6 labeled unicast with VPN extensions) to carry IPv6 prefixes with VPN-IPv6 addresses.

102
MCQeasy

A service provider is designing a greenfield MPLS core and wants to minimize control-plane complexity while still supporting traffic engineering. They plan to use Segment Routing with MPLS. Which statement about Segment Routing in this context is accurate?

A.Segment Routing only works with IPv6 data plane.
B.Segment Routing uses RSVP-TE for label distribution.
C.Segment Routing reduces the number of protocols required in the core.
D.Segment Routing requires TI-LFA to be enabled for traffic engineering.
AnswerC

SR eliminates LDP and RSVP-TE, relying only on an IGP with SR extensions, thus reducing protocol complexity.

Why this answer

Segment Routing (SR-MPLS) eliminates the need for a separate label distribution protocol like LDP or RSVP-TE. The MPLS labels are derived directly from the IGP (IS-IS or OSPF) extensions, reducing control-plane complexity while still enabling traffic engineering via SR-TE policies and flexible path computation.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that Segment Routing requires a separate label distribution protocol like LDP or RSVP-TE, when in fact it uses IGP extensions (IS-IS or OSPF) to distribute labels, reducing protocol complexity.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Segment Routing supports both MPLS (SR-MPLS) and IPv6 (SRv6) data planes; it is not limited to IPv6. Option B is wrong because SR-MPLS does not use RSVP-TE for label distribution; labels are signaled via IGP extensions (IS-IS or OSPF) with the Segment Routing extensions, not via RSVP-TE. Option D is wrong because TI-LFA (Topology Independent Loop-Free Alternate) is a fast-reroute mechanism that can be used with SR but is not required for traffic engineering; SR-TE can be achieved using explicit paths or SR policies without TI-LFA.

103
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements about BGP FlowSpec (RFC 8955) are correct?

Select 2 answers
A.FlowSpec can be deployed in BGP sessions between a route reflector and a client.
B.FlowSpec uses a separate BGP session from the regular IPv4 unicast session.
C.FlowSpec is designed to replace ACLs on provider edge routers.
D.FlowSpec requires MPLS forwarding to operate.
E.FlowSpec uses the IPv4 unicast or VPNv4 address family.
AnswersA, E

FlowSpec routes can be propagated via BGP within the service provider network.

Why this answer

BGP FlowSpec (RFC 8955) can be deployed between a route reflector and its clients. The route reflector propagates FlowSpec NLRI (Network Layer Reachability Information) to its clients, allowing the clients to install traffic filtering rules without requiring a full BGP mesh. This is a common deployment model in service provider networks to distribute flow-spec routes efficiently.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that FlowSpec requires a separate BGP session or MPLS, but the trap here is that candidates confuse the address family separation (which uses the same session) with a separate session, or assume MPLS is mandatory because FlowSpec is often discussed in MPLS VPN contexts.

104
MCQeasy

Which protocol is used by a BNG to authenticate and authorize subscribers?

A.RADIUS
B.DIAMETER
C.LDAP
D.TACACS+
AnswerA

RADIUS is the standard for subscriber authentication in BNG.

Why this answer

BNG uses RADIUS for AAA (authentication, authorization, and accounting) of subscribers. RADIUS exchanges messages with a backend server to validate credentials and assign policies.

105
MCQhard

A network engineer is troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency issue between two routers connected via a serial link. The routers are configured with point-to-point network type. The adjacency stays in EXSTART state. What is the most likely cause?

A.Mismatched OSPF area ID.
B.Mismatched hello/dead intervals.
C.Mismatched MTU.
D.Duplicate router IDs.
AnswerC

OSPF uses the MTU in Database Description packets; a mismatch causes the adjacency to stay in EXSTART.

Why this answer

On a point-to-point OSPF link, the EXSTART state indicates that the routers have formed a bidirectional communication (2WAY) and are now negotiating the master/slave relationship for database description (DBD) packet exchange. A mismatched MTU between the two interfaces causes the DBD packets to be dropped or rejected, preventing the adjacency from progressing beyond EXSTART. This is a common issue on serial links where one side may have a different MTU configured.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the EXSTART state trap by making candidates confuse it with the more common mismatched hello/dead intervals or area ID issues, which actually prevent reaching EXSTART, while MTU mismatch is the specific cause of stalling in EXSTART.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a mismatched OSPF area ID would prevent the adjacency from forming at all, typically stalling in the INIT or 2WAY state, not EXSTART. Option B is wrong because mismatched hello/dead intervals would cause the adjacency to fail during the INIT or 2WAY state, as routers would not receive Hello packets within the expected interval. Option D is wrong because duplicate router IDs would cause one router to reject the other's Hello packets, leading to a state of DOWN or INIT, not EXSTART.

106
Matchingmedium

Match each IS-IS term to its definition.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Link State PDU containing routing information

Designated Intermediate System on a broadcast network

Network Service Access Point, the IS-IS address

Subnetwork Point of Attachment, e.g., MAC address

IS-IS Hello PDU used for neighbor discovery

Why these pairings

In IS-IS, an area is identified by a common area address, LSPs carry link state data, and Level-1 routers operate intra-area. Common confusions involve swapping area definitions (system ID vs. area address) and mixing Level-1/Level-2 roles.

107
MCQmedium

A service provider is deploying EVPN-VPWS for point-to-point services. They have set up an EVPN instance with Ethernet Segment Identifier (ESI) and EVI. After configuration, the pseudowire is not coming up. Which misconfiguration is most likely?

A.The same EVI is used on both PEs.
B.The ESI is all-zeros.
C.The MTU mismatch on the attachment circuits.
D.The BGP EVPN address-family is not activated.
AnswerD

Correct. The BGP EVPN address-family must be activated on both PEs to exchange EVPN routes. Without it, the PEs cannot advertise or receive the necessary per-EVI AD routes, and the pseudowire will not be established.

Why this answer

In EVPN-VPWS, the EVI (EVPN Instance) must be the same on both PEs for the same point-to-point service to ensure proper route matching and label assignment. Therefore, using the same EVI is correct and not a misconfiguration. The most likely issue is that the BGP EVPN address-family is not activated on the PEs.

Without this address-family, the PEs cannot exchange EVPN routes (e.g., Type 1 per-EVI AD routes), so the pseudowire cannot be established. The other options—ESI all-zeros (acceptable for single-homed) and MTU mismatch (would cause operational issues but not prevent pseudowire from coming up at the control-plane level)—are less likely to be the root cause.

Exam trap

Candidates may mistakenly think that the EVI must be unique per PE, but in EVPN-VPWS the EVI must match across PEs for the same service. The real misconfiguration is often forgetting to activate the BGP EVPN address-family.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because an ESI of all-zeros is a valid configuration for single-homed endpoints in EVPN-VPWS; it does not prevent the pseudowire from coming up. Option C is wrong because an MTU mismatch on the attachment circuits would cause operational issues or packet drops, but it would not prevent the pseudowire control plane from establishing; the pseudowire can still come up with an MTU mismatch. Option D is wrong because if the BGP EVPN address-family is not activated, the PE would not exchange EVPN routes at all, and the pseudowire would not be advertised; however, the question states the pseudowire is not coming up after configuration, implying BGP EVPN is likely activated but the EVI misconfiguration is the specific cause.

108
Multi-Selecthard

An SP network uses RSVP-TE for MPLS traffic engineering with FRR link protection. Which THREE statements are correct about RSVP-TE operation and FRR? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.CSPF (Constrained Shortest Path First) is used to compute the best path based on IGP metrics only, ignoring TE constraints.
B.In FRR link protection, the 1:1 detour method creates a separate backup LSP for each protected LSP, while the bypass tunnel method protects multiple LSPs over a single backup tunnel.
C.The RSVP 'fixed-filter' (FF) reservation style is the only style used in MPLS-TE to allow multiple senders.
D.The PATH message travels from headend to tailend, while the RESV message travels from tailend back to headend, establishing reservation state.
E.The Explicit Route Object (ERO) in the PATH message lists the strict or loose hops that the traffic must traverse.
AnswersB, D, E

Correct. 1:1 detour per LSP; bypass tunnel protects many.

Why this answer

RSVP-TE uses PATH messages traveling downstream from headend to tailend and RESV messages traveling upstream from tailend to headend, establishing reservation state (D correct). The Explicit Route Object (ERO) in the PATH message specifies the strict or loose hops the traffic must traverse (E correct). For FRR link protection, the 1:1 detour method creates a separate backup LSP for each protected LSP, while the bypass tunnel method protects multiple LSPs over a single backup tunnel (B correct).

Option A is incorrect because CSPF computes paths based on both IGP metrics and TE constraints (e.g., bandwidth, affinity), not only IGP metrics. Option C is incorrect because the 'fixed-filter' (FF) style is for per-sender reservation in RSVP, but MPLS-TE typically uses the 'shared-explicit' (SE) style to allow multiple senders (LSPs) to share the same reservation.

109
MCQmedium

A service provider is deploying a Broadband Network Gateway (BNG) for subscriber management. Which protocol is used by the BNG to authenticate subscribers via a RADIUS server?

A.LDAP
B.Diameter
C.TACACS+
D.RADIUS
AnswerD

RADIUS is used for subscriber authentication, authorization, and accounting.

Why this answer

The BNG acts as a RADIUS client and uses RADIUS protocol to send authentication requests (Access-Request) for PPPoE or IPoE sessions.

110
MCQmedium

A service provider has deployed QoS on its MPLS backbone to offer different classes of service. The provider notices that EF (Expedited Forwarding) traffic sometimes experiences high jitter during congestion. Following recommended practices, which action is MOST likely to reduce jitter for EF traffic?

A.Use priority queuing (LLQ) for EF traffic with a policer
B.Apply traffic shaping on all EF packets at the edge
C.Change the DSCP value of EF traffic to AF41 to reduce drops
D.Apply weighted random early detection (WRED) on the EF queue
AnswerA

LLQ gives strict priority, minimizing jitter by servicing EF first.

Why this answer

Priority queuing (LLQ) with a policer ensures EF traffic is served strictly before other queues, reducing jitter, while the policer prevents EF traffic from monopolizing bandwidth. Option B is wrong because traffic shaping smooths bursts but does not provide priority treatment during congestion, so jitter can still occur. Option C is wrong because changing DSCP to AF41 would reclassify EF traffic to a lower priority class, potentially increasing jitter and delay.

Option D is wrong because WRED is a congestion avoidance mechanism that drops packets randomly, which can cause jitter for EF traffic; EF should be exempt from WRED.

111
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE technologies or protocols are used to implement automated service provisioning in a Cisco service provider network?

Select 3 answers
A.Cisco NSO
B.SNMP
C.YANG
D.RIP
E.NETCONF
AnswersA, C, E

NSO is an orchestration platform that automates service provisioning across multi-vendor networks.

Why this answer

Cisco NSO (Network Services Orchestrator) is a key technology for automated service provisioning because it provides a multi-vendor, service-oriented orchestration layer that uses YANG models and NETCONF to manage device configurations and service lifecycles. It enables operators to define services as templates, then push consistent configurations across the network, drastically reducing manual CLI-based provisioning.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between monitoring protocols (SNMP) and model-driven automation protocols (NETCONF/YANG), leading candidates to incorrectly include SNMP as a provisioning tool when it is only used for monitoring and telemetry.

112
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures IP SLA for UDP jitter. The operation completes successfully, but the customer reports voice quality issues. What should the engineer check next?

A.The packet loss is 0%
B.The frequency is too low
C.The jitter value is within threshold
D.The destination is unreachable
E.The threshold is set too high
AnswerE

A 100 ms threshold is too high for jitter; it should be lowered to trigger alerts when jitter impacts voice quality.

Why this answer

The IP SLA UDP jitter operation completed successfully, meaning the destination is reachable and the operation is running. However, if the threshold is set too high, the IP SLA will not trigger a reaction (e.g., an SNMP trap or route change) even when jitter exceeds acceptable levels for voice quality. The customer reports voice quality issues, so the engineer must check if the jitter threshold is configured too high, masking the problem.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a successful IP SLA operation implies no issues, when in fact the threshold configuration can hide performance problems that affect voice quality.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 0% packet loss does not guarantee good voice quality; jitter and delay can still cause issues. Option B is wrong because the frequency being too low affects how often the probe is sent, but the operation completed successfully and voice quality issues are reported, so frequency is not the immediate check. Option C is wrong because the jitter value being within threshold would mean no issue, but the customer reports voice quality problems, so the jitter value is likely exceeding the threshold.

Option D is wrong because the destination is unreachable would cause the IP SLA operation to fail, but the exhibit states the operation completes successfully.

113
MCQmedium

Which statement about the commit/rollback configuration model in IOS XR is true?

A.Rollback requires manual deletion of uncommitted changes
B.Configuration is applied to all cards simultaneously without validation
C.If a commit fails, the system automatically rolls back to the last committed configuration
D.Changes take effect immediately without a commit command
AnswerC

The commit model ensures atomicity: on failure, changes are discarded.

Why this answer

IOS XR uses a two-phase commit: the user commits, and if successful, the configuration is applied; otherwise, it rolls back. There is no need for explicit rollback commands.

114
MCQeasy

In an IS-IS network, a router has a NET of 49.0001.1921.6800.1001.00. What does the '00' at the end represent?

A.System ID
B.SEL (NSAP Selector)
C.AFI
D.Area ID
AnswerB

SEL is always 00 for IS-IS.

Why this answer

The last byte '00' is the SEL (NSAP Selector), which is always '00' for IS-IS routing.

115
MCQhard

An ISP is deploying EVPN-VXLAN for its data center interconnect. Which statement about control-plane learning is correct?

A.MAC addresses are learned via IRB
B.MAC addresses are learned via OSPF
C.MAC addresses are learned via BGP MP-BGP EVPN address family
D.MAC addresses are learned via VXLAN data plane
AnswerC

EVPN uses BGP for MAC route advertisement.

Why this answer

In EVPN-VXLAN deployments for data center interconnect, MAC address learning occurs via the control plane using BGP with the MP-BGP EVPN address family (AFI 25 / SAFI 70). This eliminates the need for traditional data-plane flooding and learning, providing better scalability and control. The correct statement is that MAC addresses are learned via BGP MP-BGP EVPN address family.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between control-plane learning (EVPN via BGP) and data-plane learning (traditional VXLAN flood-and-learn), and candidates mistakenly associate VXLAN with data-plane learning even when EVPN is specified.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because IRB (Integrated Routing and Bridging) is a function that provides Layer 3 gateway services for VXLAN segments, not a mechanism for MAC address learning. Option B is wrong because OSPF is a link-state routing protocol used for IP routing, not for MAC address learning in EVPN environments. Option D is wrong because VXLAN data-plane learning (flood-and-learn) is a legacy approach that EVPN explicitly replaces with control-plane learning to avoid flooding and improve convergence.

116
MCQhard

Which EVPN component ensures that only one of the multi-homed PEs forwards traffic to the CE for a given Ethernet segment?

A.DF Election
B.Split Horizon
C.Aliasing
D.ESI (Ethernet Segment Identifier)
AnswerA

Correct: DF election selects one PE to forward.

Why this answer

DF election determines which PE forwards traffic for a given VLAN to avoid duplication.

117
MCQhard

An SP uses BGP FlowSpec to mitigate DDoS attacks. They also want to rate-limit the traffic per FlowSpec rule. Which configuration is required to enable policing within a FlowSpec action?

A.Configure MPLS TE bandwidth reservation for the FlowSpec routes.
B.Use policy-based routing (PBR) to set QoS parameters.
C.Apply a QoS policy-map to the interface and match the FlowSpec destination.
D.Include the 'rate-limit' action in the FlowSpec rule using the 'action' clause.
AnswerD

FlowSpec allows rate-limiting directly in the rule definition.

Why this answer

BGP FlowSpec allows the inclusion of a 'rate-limit' action within the FlowSpec rule's 'action' clause to enforce policing. This action directly applies a traffic rate limit (in bits per second) to the matched flow, enabling DDoS mitigation without requiring external QoS policies or MPLS TE reservations.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that FlowSpec actions require external QoS mechanisms (like policy-maps or PBR), when in fact the 'rate-limit' action is a native, built-in FlowSpec action that directly enables policing within the rule.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because MPLS TE bandwidth reservation is used for traffic engineering and path selection, not for per-flow policing within BGP FlowSpec actions. Option B is wrong because policy-based routing (PBR) operates on routing decisions and cannot be dynamically triggered by FlowSpec rules to apply QoS parameters; FlowSpec uses its own action mechanism. Option C is wrong because applying a QoS policy-map to an interface and matching the FlowSpec destination is an indirect, static approach that does not leverage the dynamic, rule-based policing capabilities of BGP FlowSpec's built-in 'rate-limit' action.

118
MCQmedium

A service provider is deploying LISP (Locator/ID Separation Protocol) to provide mobility and multihoming for customer endpoints. Which LISP component is responsible for maintaining the mapping between Endpoint Identifiers (EIDs) and Routing Locators (RLOCs) and for responding to Map-Request messages from ITRs?

A.Ingress Tunnel Router (ITR)
B.Map-Server (MS)
C.Map-Resolver (MR)
D.Egress Tunnel Router (ETR)
AnswerB

MS maintains the EID-to-RLOC mapping and responds to Map-Requests.

Why this answer

The Map-Server (MS) is the central control-plane component in LISP that maintains the authoritative mapping database of EID-to-RLOC entries. When an Ingress Tunnel Router (ITR) sends a Map-Request for an unknown EID, the Map-Server receives it, looks up the mapping, and either responds directly or forwards the request to the appropriate Egress Tunnel Router (ETR) for a reply. This makes the MS the correct answer for maintaining mappings and responding to Map-Requests.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between the Map-Server and Map-Resolver, where candidates confuse the Map-Resolver's role of forwarding requests with the Map-Server's role of maintaining the authoritative mapping database and responding to Map-Requests.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Ingress Tunnel Router (ITR) is the device that encapsulates packets and initiates Map-Requests, but it does not maintain the authoritative mapping database or respond to Map-Requests; it is a consumer of mapping information. Option C is wrong because the Map-Resolver (MR) receives Map-Requests from ITRs and forwards them to the Map-Server, but it does not maintain the mapping database or directly respond to Map-Requests; it acts as a proxy. Option D is wrong because the Egress Tunnel Router (ETR) decapsulates packets and can respond to Map-Requests if it is the authoritative ETR for the requested EID, but it does not maintain the central mapping database; the Map-Server is the authoritative repository.

119
MCQhard

You are a network architect for a large service provider. The network consists of multiple core routers (P routers) and edge routers (PE routers) supporting both L3VPN and L2VPN services. The network currently uses LDP for label distribution and has a flat IGP (OSPF) design. Recently, there have been scalability issues: the IGP convergence time has increased significantly, and the OSPF link-state database (LSDB) has grown large, causing high CPU utilization on core routers. Additionally, the LDP sessions are taking longer to establish after a router reboot. You are tasked with redesigning the network to improve scalability and convergence. The budget allows for significant changes but cannot replace all hardware. Which approach best addresses the scalability issues while minimizing disruption?

A.Upgrade OSPF to OSPFv3 to support IPv6 and improve performance
B.Implement Segment Routing (SR-MPLS) to replace LDP and reduce IGP overhead
C.Introduce IS-IS as a second IGP to offload traffic from OSPF, and use route redistribution between the two protocols
D.Replace OSPF with BGP as the core IGP to reduce link-state overhead
AnswerB

SR-MPLS eliminates LDP and reduces IGP LSDB size because SIDs are advertised as TLV extensions, reducing the number of LSA types.

Why this answer

Segment Routing (SR-MPLS) eliminates the need for LDP by encoding MPLS labels directly in the IGP (OSPF or IS-IS) using extensions, which reduces control-plane overhead and speeds up convergence. This directly addresses the large OSPF LSDB and slow LDP session establishment because SR-MPLS does not require a separate label distribution protocol and can leverage a single IGP for both routing and label information, improving scalability without hardware replacement.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that adding a second IGP or upgrading to OSPFv3 will improve scalability, when in fact the real issue is the overhead of a separate label distribution protocol (LDP) and the LSDB size, which Segment Routing directly addresses by integrating label distribution into the IGP.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because OSPFv3 is an IPv6 routing protocol that does not inherently reduce LSDB size or improve convergence; it would add IPv6 overhead without solving the core LDP and IGP scalability issues. Option C is wrong because introducing IS-IS as a second IGP with route redistribution would increase complexity, LSDB size, and convergence time due to mutual redistribution loops and administrative overhead, making scalability worse. Option D is wrong because BGP is not designed as an IGP; it lacks fast convergence and link-state awareness, and using it as a core IGP would introduce path-vector convergence delays and require full-mesh or route reflectors, increasing rather than reducing overhead.

120
MCQeasy

In IS-IS, what is the purpose of the System ID portion of the NET address?

A.It identifies the router within the area
B.It identifies the area to which the router belongs
C.It indicates the routing protocol version
D.It specifies the ISO layer (SEL) for routing
AnswerA

Correct; System ID is unique per router in the area.

Why this answer

The NET (Network Entity Title) consists of AFI, Area ID, System ID, and SEL. The System ID uniquely identifies a router within an area.

121
MCQhard

A network engineer is troubleshooting an MPLS L3VPN where the CE router is receiving the correct VPN prefixes from the PE, but traffic from the CE to those prefixes is being dropped. The PE has a default route pointing to the CE. What is the most likely cause?

A.The VRF on the PE is not configured with the correct route-target import.
B.The PE does not have a specific route for the destination in its global routing table.
C.The CE does not have a route back to the PE's loopback.
D.The PE-CE link MTU is smaller than the packet size.
AnswerB

Without a specific route, the PE may not push the correct MPLS label, causing the core to drop the packet.

Why this answer

The CE is receiving the correct VPN prefixes from the PE, so the VRF import/export is working. However, when the CE sends traffic to those prefixes, the PE must forward the packets. The PE has a default route pointing to the CE, but if the PE's global routing table lacks a specific route for the destination prefix (which is normal for L3VPN, as VPN routes are in the VRF, not the global table), the PE will drop the traffic because it cannot find a valid next hop in the global table for the outer IP header.

This is a classic issue where the PE's global table must have a route to the CE's loopback or the PE-CE link subnet to enable recursive forwarding.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a VRF route alone is sufficient for forwarding, but in reality, the PE must have a global route to the BGP next-hop (typically the remote PE's loopback) for the MPLS label-switched path to function.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the CE is already receiving the correct VPN prefixes, which proves the VRF route-target import is functioning correctly; if it were misconfigured, the prefixes would not be present on the CE. Option C is wrong because the CE does not need a route back to the PE's loopback; the CE only needs a route to the PE's interface IP (or a default route) to send traffic, and the problem is on the PE side, not the CE. Option D is wrong because an MTU mismatch would typically cause fragmentation issues or ICMP unreachables, not a complete drop of all traffic to the VPN prefixes, and the CE is receiving routes, so the control plane is unaffected.

122
MCQmedium

Which OSPF area type does not allow external routes (Type 5 LSAs) but does allow inter-area routes and can have a default route injected?

A.Totally stubby area
B.Backbone area (Area 0)
C.Not-So-Stubby Area (NSSA)
D.Stub area
AnswerD

Stub areas block Type 5 and have a default.

Why this answer

A stub area blocks Type 5 LSAs, and a default route is injected for external destinations.

123
MCQmedium

A team uses Ansible to automate configuration of Cisco devices. They want to ensure that configurations are applied only if the device is reachable and the current configuration differs from the intended. Which Ansible module or feature is best suited for this?

A.ios_system
B.net_get
C.ios_config with check_mode
D.ios_command
E.ios_facts
AnswerC

check_mode performs a diff and only applies changes when there is a difference, ensuring idempotency.

Why this answer

The `ios_config` module with `check_mode` (enabled via the `--check` flag or `check_mode: yes`) allows Ansible to first verify device reachability and then compare the intended configuration against the running configuration without making changes. Only when a difference is detected and `check_mode` is disabled will the module apply the configuration changes. This directly meets the requirement of applying configurations only when the device is reachable and the current configuration differs from the intended.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse `check_mode` with `ios_command` or `ios_facts`, assuming that simply gathering facts or running a command can determine configuration drift, but only `ios_config` with `check_mode` provides the idempotent diff-and-apply workflow required by the question.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because `ios_system` is used to manage system attributes like hostname, domain name, and DNS servers, not to compare or apply general configuration changes. Option B is wrong because `net_get` is designed to copy files from a network device to the control node, not to manage or compare device configurations. Option D is wrong because `ios_command` sends arbitrary Cisco IOS commands and returns output, but it lacks built-in idempotency or configuration comparison logic.

Option E is wrong because `ios_facts` gathers device facts (e.g., version, interfaces) but does not apply or compare configurations.

124
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. The router is configured as a PE router in an MPLS VPN network. Which option correctly identifies a configuration error that would prevent proper operation?

A.The neighbor remote-as should be the same AS number for iBGP
B.The interface lacks the 'mpls ip' command
C.The OSPF network statement uses an incorrect wildcard mask
D.The BGP network statement does not match the interface prefix
AnswerC

The wildcard mask 0.255.255.255 is too broad and does not match the /30 prefix correctly.

Why this answer

The OSPF network statement uses a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.0, which matches only the exact IP address 10.1.1.1, but the interface has a /30 prefix (255.255.255.252), so the correct wildcard mask should be 0.0.0.3 to include the entire subnet. This misconfiguration prevents OSPF from advertising the correct network, breaking MPLS VPN CE-to-PE routing.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between OSPF wildcard masks and subnet masks, where candidates mistakenly think any wildcard mask that includes the interface IP is sufficient, but the mask must match the subnet exactly for OSPF to advertise the correct network.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the neighbor remote-as for iBGP should be the same AS number as the router's own BGP AS, and the exhibit shows neighbor 10.1.1.2 remote-as 65000, which matches the router's BGP AS 65000, so this is correct. Option B is wrong because the interface configuration includes 'mpls ip' under interface GigabitEthernet0/0, so MPLS is enabled on that interface. Option D is wrong because the BGP network statement uses 'network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.252', which exactly matches the /30 prefix on the interface, so it is correctly configured.

125
MCQmedium

An SP engineer is using YANG to model a service. Which statement correctly describes the use of a 'leafref' type?

A.It performs data validation using XPath
B.It defines a new leaf with a default value
C.It restricts the leaf value to match another leaf's value
D.It allows multiple values to be selected
AnswerC

Leafref enforces that the value must equal the value of the referenced leaf.

Why this answer

Leafref references an existing leaf in the YANG data tree, ensuring consistency.

126
Multi-Selectmedium

A service provider is designing an MPLS L3VPN network to provide Layer 3 VPN services to multiple customers. Which two statements correctly describe the roles of the Provider Edge (PE) and Customer Edge (CE) routers in this architecture?

Select 2 answers
A.P routers store all customer VPN routes in their global routing table.
B.CE routers perform MPLS label switching between PE routers.
C.PE routers advertise customer routes via MP-BGP with route distinguishers and route targets.
D.CE routers participate in the service provider's IGP to exchange loopback addresses.
E.PE routers maintain separate VRF tables for each customer VPN.
AnswersC, E

Correct. MP-BGP is used to distribute VPNv4 routes with RD and RT.

Why this answer

In an MPLS L3VPN, PE routers use MP-BGP (Multiprotocol BGP) to exchange customer VPN routes. Each VPN route is uniquely identified by a Route Distinguisher (RD) to maintain global uniqueness, and Route Targets (RTs) control the import/export of routes between VRFs. This allows the PE to separate customer routing domains while still using a shared MPLS backbone.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the roles of P and PE routers, mistakenly thinking P routers store customer routes or that CE routers participate in MPLS label switching, when in fact P routers are label-switching only and CE routers are MPLS-unaware.

127
MCQhard

In SR-TE, a headend router is configured with an SR Policy that includes an explicit candidate path with segment list [16001, 16003, 16005]. What does this segment list represent?

A.A list of labels for an RSVP-TE LSP
B.A list of adjacency SIDs for each link
C.A list of node SIDs representing the path through routers with those SIDs
D.A list of anycast SIDs for redundancy
AnswerC

Correct. Node SIDs identify routers.

Why this answer

Each SID in the list is a node SID (Prefix-SID) of intermediate routers, forming a strict hop-by-hop path.

128
MCQmedium

What is the primary purpose of the SRGB (Segment Routing Global Block) when configuring SR-MPLS on a network?

A.To provide a common label space for global segments, ensuring consistent label to prefix mapping.
B.To set aside labels for MPLS-TE tunnels.
C.To allocate labels for adjacency SIDs only.
D.To define the range for LDP labels used in SR interworking.
AnswerA

Correct.

Why this answer

SRGB defines a range of labels reserved for global segments (e.g., Node SIDs). It ensures that a given Node SID maps to the same label across all routers in the SR domain, simplifying operations.

129
MCQhard

An SP is implementing IPv6 transition using MAP-T. Which encapsulation method does MAP-T use?

A.MPLS label switching
B.IPv4 in IPv6 encapsulation
C.IPv6 in IPv4 encapsulation
D.IPv4-IPv6 translation (NAT64-like)
AnswerD

MAP-T uses translation in the data plane.

Why this answer

MAP-T (Mapping of Address and Port using Translation) uses IPv4-IPv6 translation (stateless NAT64-like) at the customer edge, not encapsulation.

130
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements correctly describe the use of OSPF in a service provider network?

Select 2 answers
A.OSPF uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to compute routes.
B.OSPF uses different LSA types to advertise different types of routing information.
C.OSPF is a distance-vector routing protocol.
D.OSPF can support multiple areas with a backbone area 0.
E.OSPF uses TLVs to encode routing information.
AnswersB, D

LSA types 1-5 and 7 are used.

Why this answer

OSPF uses different LSA types (e.g., Type 1 Router LSA, Type 2 Network LSA, Type 3 Summary LSA, Type 5 AS-External LSA) to advertise different categories of routing information, such as router links, network links, inter-area routes, and external routes. This LSA-type differentiation is fundamental to OSPF's link-state architecture, enabling efficient flooding and route computation within and across areas.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between link-state and distance-vector protocols, and candidates may mistakenly associate OSPF with Bellman-Ford or TLVs due to superficial similarities with other protocols like IS-IS or EIGRP.

131
MCQhard

In an MPLS L3VPN network, which security measure should be taken on PE-CE links to prevent MPLS label spoofing?

A.Enable MPLS OAM
B.Use BGP prefix filtering
C.Enable TTL propagation
D.Disable MPLS on the PE-CE link
AnswerD

This prevents customer from injecting labeled packets.

Why this answer

Disabling MPLS on the PE-CE link ensures that the customer cannot send labeled packets into the MPLS core, preventing label spoofing. Additionally, disabling TTL propagation can hide the core topology but does not prevent spoofing.

132
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE factors must be considered when deploying MPLS Layer 3 VPN services to ensure optimal scalability and convergence?

Select 3 answers
A.Label distribution via LDP or TDP must be consistent across all P routers.
B.Route reflectors should be used to reduce the number of BGP sessions in the service provider core.
C.All PE routers must be directly connected via eBGP to exchange VPNv4 routes.
D.The number of VRFs per PE router is limited by available memory and route processing capacity.
E.The use of BGP next-hop-self is mandatory to prevent routing blackholes in multi-area IGP environments.
AnswersA, B, D

Inconsistent label distribution can cause label mismatch and forwarding failures.

Why this answer

Consistent label distribution across all P (Provider) routers is essential for MPLS L3VPN scalability and convergence. LDP (Label Distribution Protocol) or TDP (Tag Distribution Protocol, Cisco proprietary predecessor) must be uniformly configured to ensure a seamless label-switched path (LSP) from ingress to egress PE. Inconsistent label distribution can cause label binding mismatches, leading to forwarding failures or suboptimal convergence during topology changes.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that eBGP is required between PEs for VPNv4 exchange, when in fact iBGP (often with route reflectors) is the standard, and eBGP is only used at the CE-PE edge.

133
MCQeasy

Which DSCP value corresponds to Best Effort (DF) per-hop behavior?

A.DSCP 10
B.DSCP 0
C.DSCP 8
D.DSCP 46
AnswerB

DSCP 0 represents Best Effort.

Why this answer

Best Effort (DF, Default Forwarding) is DSCP 0.

134
MCQeasy

Which access technology is based on ITU-T G.984 and provides downstream speeds up to 2.488 Gbps?

A.GPON
B.XGS-PON
C.DSL
D.EPON
AnswerA

GPON provides 2.488 Gbps downstream.

Why this answer

GPON (Gigabit-PON) is defined by ITU-T G.984 with downstream up to 2.488 Gbps.

135
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE DSCP values are part of the Assured Forwarding (AF) class 4? (Select three.)

Select 3 answers
A.DSCP 34
B.DSCP 40
C.DSCP 36
D.DSCP 46
E.DSCP 38
AnswersA, C, E

AF41.

Why this answer

AF4 has three drop probabilities: low (AF41 = DSCP 34), medium (AF42 = DSCP 36), high (AF43 = DSCP 38).

136
Multi-Selectmedium

An engineer is designing an iBGP route reflector topology to improve scalability. Which two statements about BGP route reflectors are correct?

Select 2 answers
A.The originator-id attribute prevents the route from being advertised back to the originating router.
B.All clients must be fully meshed with each other.
C.Route reflectors modify the AS_PATH attribute to prevent loops.
D.The cluster-id is used to identify a group of route reflectors.
E.Route reflectors are only used in eBGP topologies.
AnswersA, D

Originator-id is set by the RR and checked to avoid loops.

Why this answer

Route reflectors use cluster-id to detect loops and originator-id to prevent advertisement back to the originator. The non-client mesh requirement is eliminated with route reflectors.

137
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE are mechanisms used in EVPN to support multi-homing and load balancing? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Aliasing
B.Ethernet Segment Identifier (ESI)
C.Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
D.Designated Forwarder (DF) election
E.Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
AnswersA, B, D

Allows load balancing to any PE in the ES.

Why this answer

ESI identifies the segment, DF election avoids duplicates, and aliasing allows traffic to be forwarded to any PE in the multi-homing group.

138
MCQhard

A service provider operates a large MPLS network with Segment Routing (SR) and BGP-LS enabled on all routers. They have deployed a centralized Path Computation Element (PCE) to compute SR-TE policies for optimal traffic engineering. The PCE is configured to receive the network topology via BGP-LS from a route reflector (RR). Recently, the PCE has been unable to compute paths for certain destinations, and logs show that the topology database is missing some links and nodes. The engineer verifies that all routers have BGP-LS configured and are peering with the RR. The RR's BGP table shows the BGP-LS NLRI received from all routers. However, the PCE sees only a subset of the topology. Which action should the engineer take to resolve the issue?

A.Check the IGP (OSPF/IS-IS) configuration on the routers. BGP-LS relies on IGP to obtain link-state information, and if IGP does not have full visibility, BGP-LS will not either.
B.Apply a prefix-list on the PCE to filter out unwanted BGP-LS prefixes, as the PCE may be overwhelmed.
C.Configure the RR to send BGP-LS routes to the PCE. Verify that the RR has a BGP session with the PCE in the address-family link-state.
D.Verify that the PCE itself has a BGP-LS adjacency to each router, bypassing the RR.
AnswerC

The PCE needs to receive BGP-LS updates from the RR. If the RR is not configured to advertise BGP-LS to the PCE, the PCE's topology will be incomplete.

Why this answer

The PCE is not receiving the full topology because the Route Reflector (RR) is not sending BGP-LS routes to the PCE. The most likely cause is that the RR is not configured to advertise BGP-LS to the PCE. Option C is correct: the engineer should verify that the RR has a BGP session with the PCE in the address-family link-state and ensure that BGP-LS routes are being sent.

Option A is wrong because BGP-LS relies on IGP for link-state information, but the issue is not with IGP visibility; the RR already receives BGP-LS from all routers. Option B is wrong because filtering out prefixes would reduce topology information, not solve missing data. Option D is wrong because the PCE does not need direct BGP-LS adjacency to each router; it can receive topology via the RR.

139
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three BGP communities are standardized and commonly used for inter-AS traffic engineering? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.NOPEER
B.NO_EXPORT (0xFFFFFF01)
C.LOCAL_AS (0xFFFFFF03)
D.INTERNET (0x00000000)
E.NO_ADVERTISE (0xFFFFFF02)
AnswersB, C, E

Prevents route from being advertised to any eBGP peer.

Why this answer

Standard BGP communities include NO_EXPORT (0xFFFFFF01), NO_ADVERTISE (0xFFFFFF02), and LOCAL_AS (0xFFFFFF03). NO_EXPORT prevents advertisement to any eBGP peer; NO_ADVERTISE prevents advertisement to any peer; LOCAL_AS prevents advertisement outside the local AS.

140
MCQeasy

Which BGP attribute is locally significant and used to influence outbound traffic from an AS?

A.WEIGHT
B.LOCAL_PREF
C.AS_PATH
D.MED
AnswerB

LOCAL_PREF influences outbound traffic.

Why this answer

LOCAL_PREF is used to influence the path selection for outbound traffic within the AS, with higher preference preferred.

141
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer checks the policy and notices that the policing is not working as expected—traffic is not being dropped even when exceeding 1 Mbps. What could be the issue?

A.The service-policy is applied inbound, but police should be applied outbound to be effective
B.The police command is missing an exceed-action, so traffic is transmitted instead of dropped
C.The police rate is too high compared to interface speed
D.The shape command is interfering with the police command
AnswerD

Correct. The shape command can interfere with police by smoothing traffic, causing the policer to not see exceed traffic and thus not drop packets.

Why this answer

The shape command can interfere with police by smoothing traffic, which may prevent the policer from seeing bursts that exceed the committed rate. If the shape rate is set higher than the police rate, the policer may not drop traffic because the shaper is already limiting the output to a lower rate. Additionally, the order of operations in a service policy matters: if shape is applied before police, the policer sees shaped traffic, which may not exceed the rate.

Exam trap

Candidates often overlook the interaction between shape and police. While police alone can drop excess traffic, the presence of shape can mask the need for policing by buffering and smoothing traffic, leading to no drops despite the policer being configured.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because policing can be applied inbound or outbound; there is no requirement that police must be applied outbound to be effective. In fact, inbound policing is commonly used to rate-limit traffic before it enters the network. Option C is wrong because the police rate being too high compared to the interface speed would not prevent dropping; it would simply mean that traffic rarely exceeds the policer, but if it does exceed, the missing exceed-action is the root cause.

Option D is wrong because the `shape` command does not inherently interfere with the `police` command; they can coexist, and shaping queues traffic while policing drops or marks it, but the absence of an exceed-action is the direct cause of the issue.

142
MCQeasy

What is the main difference between traffic shaping and traffic policing?

A.Shaping buffers excess traffic; policing drops or re-marks
B.Shaping is only for ingress; policing for egress
C.Shaping drops excess traffic; policing buffers it
D.Both perform the same function
AnswerA

Correct; shaping buffers, policing drops.

Why this answer

Traffic shaping buffers excess traffic that exceeds the configured rate, smoothing bursts and delaying packets to conform to the desired rate. Traffic policing, on the other hand, immediately drops or re-marks packets that exceed the rate limit, without buffering. This fundamental difference in handling excess traffic—buffering versus dropping/re-marking—is the key distinction between the two QoS mechanisms.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that shaping and policing are interchangeable or that shaping drops traffic, when in fact the core difference is buffering versus immediate action (drop/re-mark).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because shaping is typically applied on egress (outbound) traffic to control the rate of transmission, while policing can be applied on both ingress and egress. Option C is wrong because it reverses the behavior: shaping buffers excess traffic, not drops it; policing drops or re-marks excess traffic, not buffers it. Option D is wrong because shaping and policing have distinct functions and behaviors—shaping smooths traffic with buffering, while policing enforces a hard rate limit via drop/re-mark—and are not the same.

143
MCQmedium

An engineer is troubleshooting MPLS label switching in a service provider core. They notice that packets are being forwarded correctly between provider edge routers, but when they check the MPLS forwarding table on a P router, they see only implicit-null labels for some destinations. What is the most likely reason for this?

A.The router is using explicit-null label due to security policies.
B.The router has a directly connected neighbor that is the egress LER.
C.The router is misconfigured to use implicit-null for all labels.
D.The router is performing penultimate hop popping (PHP) incorrectly.
AnswerB

Implicit-null is used in PHP; the egress LER advertises it to the penultimate hop.

Why this answer

When a P router sees only implicit-null labels (label 3) for some destinations in its MPLS forwarding table, it indicates that the router is performing penultimate hop popping (PHP). This occurs when the P router is the penultimate hop before the egress Label Edge Router (LER). The egress LER advertises an implicit-null label to its directly connected neighbor, causing the P router to pop the label and forward the packet using only the IP header.

Option B is correct because the P router has a directly connected neighbor that is the egress LER, which triggers PHP.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse implicit-null with a misconfiguration or error, when in fact it is a normal and expected result of PHP being triggered by a directly connected egress LER.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the explicit-null label (label 0) is used for traffic engineering or QoS preservation, not for security policies, and it would appear as label 0 in the forwarding table, not implicit-null. Option C is wrong because implicit-null is not a misconfiguration; it is a standard label advertised by the egress LER to request PHP, and a router does not globally configure implicit-null for all labels—it is per-prefix based on LDP or RSVP-TE signaling. Option D is wrong because the router is performing PHP correctly, not incorrectly; the presence of implicit-null labels in the forwarding table is the expected result of proper PHP operation.

144
MCQeasy

An SP is deploying a Quality of Service (QoS) architecture in its core network to support multiple services: voice, video, and data. The core routers use MPLS and implement QoS based on the MPLS EXP bits. The architecture must ensure that voice packets are never dropped, even during congestion, while allowing video to have higher priority than data. The current design marks voice with EXP 4, video with EXP 3, and data with EXP 0. During a traffic burst, voice traffic is being dropped, which should not happen. The core routers have the following queue configuration: (1) a priority queue (PQ) for EXP 4+5, (2) a bandwidth queue for EXP 2-3, (3) a default queue for EXP 0-1. What is most likely the cause of voice drops?

A.Voice traffic is being marked with EXP 4 but the priority queue also includes EXP 5, which may cause policing.
B.The bandwidth queue for video is configured to borrow from the priority queue.
C.The priority queue is not strictly priority; it shares bandwidth with other queues.
D.The priority queue is rate-limited by a policer that shapes traffic to a certain bandwidth.
AnswerD

Correct. Many implementations use a policer on the priority queue to prevent starvation; if the police rate is too low, voice packets are dropped.

Why this answer

Voice drops occur because the priority queue is often rate-limited by a policer to prevent starvation of other queues. If the policer rate is set too low, voice packets are dropped during bursts. Strict priority without policing does not drop, but policing is common in SP core to protect other queues.

The bandwidth queue and default queue are not the issue.

145
MCQhard

A network engineer applies the above configuration on a PE router. The PE receives route 172.16.1.0/24 from eBGP peer 10.1.1.1. Which communities will be attached to this route?

A.65000:100 only
B.No communities are attached because the route-map does not specify additive.
C.65000:200 only
D.65000:100 and 65000:200
AnswerD

The set community command can include multiple values.

Why this answer

The route-map 'SET_COMMUNITY' is applied to the eBGP neighbor 10.1.1.1 via the `neighbor 10.1.1.1 route-map SET_COMMUNITY in` command. The route-map first matches all routes with `match ip address prefix-list ANY` (which permits 0.0.0.0/0 le 32), then executes the `set community 65000:100 65000:200` action. Since the `additive` keyword is not used, the set command replaces any existing communities with the two listed communities (65000:100 and 65000:200).

Therefore, both communities are attached to the route 172.16.1.0/24.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that the `additive` keyword is required for any communities to be attached, when in fact `additive` only controls whether existing communities are preserved or overwritten.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the route-map sets both 65000:100 and 65000:200, not just 65000:100. Option B is wrong because the `additive` keyword is only required to preserve existing communities while adding new ones; without it, the set command still attaches the specified communities (it replaces, not omits). Option C is wrong because the route-map sets both communities, not just 65000:200.

146
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured Segment Routing on a router. However, the router does not advertise a Prefix-SID for the loopback0 interface. What is the most likely reason?

A.The loopback is not included in any OSPF network statement.
B.The 'prefix-sid index' command is not associated with the loopback prefix; it should be configured under the OSPF process for that specific prefix.
C.The 'segment-routing mpls' command is missing under the loopback interface.
D.The 'mpls ip' command is missing on the loopback interface.
AnswerB

The prefix-sid index under OSPF is generic; it needs to be tied to the specific prefix, e.g., 'prefix-sid index 100 192.168.1.1/32'.

Why this answer

In Cisco IOS XR, the 'prefix-sid index' command must be configured under the OSPF process for the specific prefix (e.g., 'prefix-sid index 100' under 'router ospf 1' for the loopback0 prefix). Configuring it under the interface does not associate the SID with the prefix in OSPF's link-state database, so the router will not advertise the Prefix-SID. The exhibit shows the command under the loopback interface, which is incorrect for OSPF Segment Routing.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between interface-level and protocol-level configuration for Segment Routing, trapping candidates who assume the 'prefix-sid index' command belongs on the interface (like MPLS or IPv6 commands) rather than under the OSPF or IS-IS process.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because OSPF network statements are not required for loopback interfaces; loopbacks are automatically advertised as stub networks if the interface is enabled under OSPF. Option C is wrong because 'segment-routing mpls' is a global command that enables Segment Routing MPLS on the router, not an interface-level command; it is not missing on the loopback. Option D is wrong because 'mpls ip' is used for LDP, not for Segment Routing; Segment Routing does not require MPLS IP on the interface for Prefix-SID advertisement.

147
Multi-Selectmedium

An SP engineer is configuring QoS on a PE router for MPLS traffic. The core network uses MPLS EXP bits for QoS. Which TWO methods can be used to set MPLS EXP bits based on IP DSCP? (Select two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Configure 'mpls qos enforce' on the interface.
B.Configure 'mpls ip' to automatically copy DSCP to EXP.
C.Use a policy-map with 'set mpls experimental' command.
D.Apply 'qos-group' to DSCP mapping.
E.Use 'set mpls experimental imposition' under interface.
AnswersC, E

Policy-map can set EXP bits based on classification.

Why this answer

On Cisco routers, you can use 'set mpls experimental imposition' to set EXP on the imposed label, or use a QoS policy with 'set mpls experimental' in a policy-map.

148
MCQmedium

An automation engineer uses RESTCONF to configure a Cisco ASR 9000 router. When sending a PATCH request to update an interface description, the API returns 404 Not Found. What is the most probable issue?

A.HTTP authentication is required.
B.The YANG module is not supported.
C.The interface does not exist on the device.
D.The RESTCONF username/password is incorrect.
AnswerC

A non-existent interface results in a 404 because the resource URI points to a path that does not exist.

Why this answer

A 404 Not Found response to a RESTCONF PATCH request targeting a specific interface indicates that the resource (the interface) does not exist at the given URI. RESTCONF uses the URI path to identify the exact YANG data node; if the interface name in the URI does not match any configured interface on the Cisco ASR 9000, the server returns 404. This is consistent with RFC 8040, where 404 is used when the target resource cannot be found.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between HTTP status codes (404 vs 401 vs 501) to see if candidates understand that a 404 specifically points to a missing resource, not an authentication or module support issue.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because HTTP authentication issues (e.g., missing or invalid credentials) would result in a 401 Unauthorized or 403 Forbidden response, not 404. Option B is wrong because if the YANG module were not supported, the server would typically return a 501 Not Implemented or a 400-level error indicating the module is unknown, not a 404 for a specific resource. Option D is wrong because incorrect username/password would cause an authentication failure (401), not a 404 Not Found; the 404 is independent of authentication status.

149
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE are requirements for deploying MPLS Traffic Engineering with RSVP-TE?

Select 3 answers
A.OSPFv3 must be the IGP
B.LDP must be enabled on all routers
C.Links must have reservable bandwidth advertised
D.CSPF (Constrained SPF) must be implemented for path calculation
E.RSVP-TE signaling protocol must be configured
AnswersC, D, E

Bandwidth reservations require links to advertise available bandwidth.

Why this answer

MPLS TE with RSVP-TE requires that links advertise reservable bandwidth so that the Constrained Shortest Path First (CSPF) algorithm can compute paths that satisfy bandwidth constraints. Without reservable bandwidth advertised via IGP extensions (e.g., OSPF TE or IS-IS TE), RSVP-TE cannot reserve resources along the path.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that LDP is required for MPLS TE with RSVP-TE, but RSVP-TE can distribute labels independently, making LDP optional.

150
MCQmedium

A service provider is deploying MPLS Layer 3 VPNs and wants to ensure that customer traffic is not dropped when a PE-CE link fails. The CE router is using static routing. Which design should be implemented to provide fast convergence?

A.Configure OSPF on the PE-CE link and set hello timers to 1 second.
B.Use IP SLA tracking to monitor the CE and adjust the static route.
C.Increase the administrative distance of the static route to 255.
D.Enable BFD on the PE-CE interface and associate it with the static route.
AnswerD

BFD provides sub-second failure detection, triggering fast route withdrawal.

Why this answer

BFD (Bidirectional Forwarding Detection) provides sub-second failure detection on the PE-CE link, and when associated with a static route, it allows the PE to quickly remove the failed route from the routing table. This triggers fast convergence without waiting for routing protocol timers, which is critical for MPLS Layer 3 VPNs using static routing on the CE side.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose IP SLA (Option B) thinking it provides fast failure detection, but they overlook that IP SLA is poll-based and slower than BFD, which is the Cisco-recommended mechanism for sub-second convergence with static routes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because OSPF is a dynamic routing protocol, but the CE router is using static routing; configuring OSPF would require changing the CE configuration and does not leverage the static route design. Option B is wrong because IP SLA tracking can detect reachability but typically operates at a polling interval of several seconds (e.g., 5-60 seconds), which is too slow for fast convergence compared to BFD's sub-second detection. Option C is wrong because increasing the administrative distance of the static route to 255 makes it the least preferred route, effectively removing it from the routing table unless no other route exists, which would break connectivity rather than provide fast convergence.

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