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Cisco SPCOR / CCNP Service Provider Core 350-501 (350-501) — Questions 151225

971 questions total · 13pages · All types, answers revealed

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151
Multi-Selectmedium

An engineer is troubleshooting an MPLS-TE tunnel that is not coming up. The configuration includes an explicit path with strict hops. Which TWO conditions could prevent the tunnel from being established? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The tunnel interface has an IP address.
B.RSVP is not enabled on an interface along the path.
C.The destination loopback is not advertised in IGP.
D.The path includes a router that does not support MPLS.
E.One of the strict hops is not directly connected to the previous router.
AnswersB, E

RSVP must be enabled.

Why this answer

An explicit path with strict hops requires each hop to be directly connected. If a hop is not directly connected, the path fails. Also, if there is no RSVP capability along the path, the tunnel cannot be signaled.

152
MCQhard

You are responsible for network assurance for a Tier-1 ISP that has deployed model-driven telemetry using gNMI with ON_CHANGE subscriptions on all core routers. Recently, the NMS team reported that some BGP route flaps are not being captured in the telemetry data, even though the routers' syslogs show the flaps occurred. The telemetry subscription is for the path '/bgp/neighbors/neighbor/state/messages/received'. The NMS is using a gNMI collector that supports both ON_CHANGE and SAMPLE subscriptions. You suspect the issue is with the subscription configuration. Upon reviewing the router configuration, you see that the telemetry subscription uses the SAMPLE mode instead of ON_CHANGE. What is the most appropriate action to ensure all BGP route flap events are captured?

A.Configure the router to send syslogs to the NMS and parse them for BGP flaps.
B.Add a second subscription with ON_CHANGE for the same paths to ensure redundancy.
C.Change the subscription to SAMPLE with a 1-second interval to capture flaps more frequently.
D.Modify the subscription to use ON_CHANGE mode for the BGP neighbor paths.
AnswerD

ON_CHANGE ensures every state change is reported.

Why this answer

The gNMI ON_CHANGE subscription mode is designed to stream telemetry updates only when the value of a subscribed path changes. Since the NMS is missing BGP flap events, the subscription must be using SAMPLE mode, which periodically polls the state and can miss transient events between sampling intervals. Changing the subscription to ON_CHANGE ensures that every state transition (e.g., BGP session up/down) is immediately pushed to the collector, capturing all flaps.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that increasing SAMPLE frequency (e.g., 1-second interval) is sufficient to capture all events, when in fact only ON_CHANGE guarantees event-driven capture for state transitions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because relying on syslog parsing is a workaround that adds complexity and latency, and it does not leverage the model-driven telemetry architecture that provides structured, real-time data. Option B is wrong because adding a second subscription with ON_CHANGE for the same paths is redundant and does not fix the root cause—the existing subscription must be changed to ON_CHANGE, not supplemented. Option C is wrong because even a 1-second SAMPLE interval can miss BGP flaps that occur and resolve within that second, and it increases CPU/bandwidth overhead without guaranteeing event capture; ON_CHANGE is the only mode that guarantees event-driven updates.

153
MCQhard

An SP engineer is configuring hierarchical QoS on a PE router for a subscriber with a 10 Mbps shaped rate. The child policy must guarantee 2 Mbps for voice, 4 Mbps for video, and the rest for data. However, the parent policy shape rate is 10 Mbps. Which configuration ensures proper operation?

A.Parent shape 10 Mbps, child policy with LLQ for voice and CBWFQ for video and data with bandwidth 5 Mbps each
B.Parent shape 10 Mbps, child policy with priority for voice and bandwidth 4 Mbps for video, no data class
C.Parent shape 10 Mbps, child policy with bandwidth percent 20 voice, 40 video, and 40 data
D.Parent shape 10 Mbps, child policy with bandwidth 2 Mbps for voice, 4 Mbps for video, and default class for data
AnswerA

Correct. Uses LLQ for voice, ensuring low-latency, and CBWFQ for video and data with bandwidth summing to the shape rate.

Why this answer

In hierarchical QoS, the child policy must respect the parent shape rate of 10 Mbps while providing low-latency for voice. The correct approach is to use LLQ (priority) for voice to ensure low delay and jitter, and CBWFQ for video and data to allocate bandwidth within the shape. Option A uses LLQ for voice and allocates 5 Mbps each to video and data via CBWFQ, totaling 10 Mbps, which fits within the parent shape.

Option D incorrectly uses the bandwidth command for voice, which does not provide the necessary low-latency treatment. Options B and C either miss a data class or use bandwidth percent for voice, not priority.

Exam trap

Voice traffic requires low-latency treatment; using the bandwidth command instead of priority is a common mistake.

154
MCQmedium

A service provider is deploying QoS on a Cisco ASR 9000 router to support a triple-play service (voice, video, data) over an Ethernet access network. The network engineer must ensure that voice traffic (EF) is prioritized, video traffic (AF41) is treated with low loss, and data traffic (default) gets best-effort service. Additionally, the engineer must implement a hierarchical QoS policy to shape the aggregate subscriber traffic to 100 Mbps on a GigabitEthernet interface, with the following per-class bandwidth allocations: voice 10 Mbps, video 40 Mbps, and data 50 Mbps. During testing, voice packets are being dropped under congestion, and video traffic is experiencing jitter. The current QoS configuration is as follows: policy-map CHILD class VOICE priority level 1 police rate 10 mbps class VIDEO bandwidth remaining ratio 40 class DATA bandwidth remaining ratio 50 ! policy-map PARENT class class-default shape average 100 mbps service-policy CHILD ! Which action should the engineer take to resolve the issues while maintaining the design objectives?

A.Change the video class to 'priority level 2' to give it preferential treatment over data.
B.Remove the police from the voice class and add 'priority level 1' without police; this ensures voice is priority queued without dropping.
C.Add a 'police' to the video class with a CIR of 40 Mbps and 'conform-action transmit exceed-action drop' to protect voice.
D.Change the voice class to use 'bandwidth remaining percent 10' and remove the police.
AnswerB

Priority queuing with no police allows voice packets to be transmitted ahead of other queues, avoiding drops.

Why this answer

The current configuration uses a police rate of 10 Mbps under the voice priority class, which causes voice packets to be dropped when they exceed that rate, even though priority queuing should guarantee low latency. Removing the police and keeping 'priority level 1' allows voice traffic to be strictly prioritized without a hard rate limit, ensuring no drops for voice while still allowing the parent shaper to enforce the aggregate 100 Mbps. This resolves the voice drops and, by preventing voice from being policed, reduces jitter for video traffic that might otherwise be affected by bursty voice drops.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a police rate on a priority class is necessary to protect other classes, when in fact the parent shaper already limits the aggregate, and the priority queue should be left unpoliced to avoid dropping delay-sensitive voice traffic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because changing video to 'priority level 2' would make it a second-level priority queue, which still does not address the root cause of voice drops (the police) and could starve data traffic, violating the design objective of low-loss video (AF41) without priority queuing. Option C is wrong because adding a police to the video class with a CIR of 40 Mbps and exceed-action drop would not protect voice; it would only drop video packets that exceed 40 Mbps, but voice drops are caused by the police on the voice class itself, not by video oversubscription. Option D is wrong because changing voice to 'bandwidth remaining percent 10' removes priority queuing entirely, which would introduce latency and jitter for voice, contradicting the requirement that EF traffic be prioritized with low latency.

155
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO are characteristics of SR-MPLS when compared to LDP-based MPLS? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.SR-MPLS uses IPv6 SIDs only.
B.Labels are distributed using LDP.
C.Labels are distributed via IGP extensions.
D.SR-MPLS requires RSVP-TE for traffic engineering.
E.SR-MPLS reduces protocol state by eliminating LDP and RSVP.
AnswersC, E

IGP (IS-IS/OSPF) carries Segment Routing labels.

Why this answer

SR-MPLS eliminates LDP and RSVP state, using IGP for label distribution (e.g., via IS-IS TLVs).

156
MCQmedium

In an IOS XR system, CPU and memory resources are allocated per line card. What is the primary reason for this design?

A.To reduce hardware cost by sharing resources
B.To simplify software licensing
C.To centralize management in the route processor
D.To ensure that a failure on one card does not impact others
AnswerD

Independent resources provide fault isolation.

Why this answer

Distributed architecture with per-card allocation improves scalability and fault isolation. It does not directly reduce cost or simplify management; instead, it enhances performance and resilience.

157
MCQeasy

Which component in EVPN is used to uniquely identify an Ethernet segment across multiple PE devices in a multi-homing scenario?

A.RT-2
B.MAC-VRF
C.ESI
D.EVI
AnswerC

ESI identifies the Ethernet segment.

Why this answer

The Ethernet Segment Identifier (ESI) is a 10-byte value that identifies a specific multihomed site.

158
Multi-Selecthard

An SP is deploying a Network Services Orchestrator (NSO) for service automation. Which THREE components are integral to NSO architecture? (Select three.)

Select 3 answers
A.SNMP trap receiver for event monitoring
B.Configuration Database (CDB) for storing state
C.Network Element Driver (NED) for device abstraction
D.Path Computation Element (PCE) for TE
E.YANG models for service and device data
AnswersB, C, E

CDB holds the intended and actual device configurations.

Why this answer

NSO uses a Configuration Database (CDB) for storing device configurations, YANG models for service definitions, and NEDs (Network Element Drivers) for device abstraction.

159
MCQmedium

A service provider's network uses MPLS TE with Fast Reroute (FRR) for link protection. After a fiber cut on a core link, the traffic is rerouted via a backup tunnel, but the backup tunnel's path suffers from high latency. The customer complains about poor voice quality. What can be done to avoid this scenario in future deployments?

A.Configure backup tunnels with explicit paths that avoid high-latency links
B.Increase the bandwidth reservations on the backup tunnel
C.Implement BGP PIC for edge routers
D.Use node protection instead of link protection
AnswerA

Explicit path constraint ensures backup tunnel follows desired low-latency links.

Why this answer

Configuring backup tunnels with explicit paths that avoid high-latency links ensures that when MPLS TE Fast Reroute (FRR) activates, the backup path meets the latency requirements for real-time traffic like voice. By specifying explicit routes (e.g., via the 'path-option' command with explicit-path objects), the operator can exclude links known to have high propagation delay or congestion, thus preventing the poor voice quality experienced after the fiber cut.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that increasing bandwidth or using node protection will solve latency issues, but the trap here is that latency is a path property, not a bandwidth or protection-type attribute, so only explicit path control (Option A) directly addresses the problem.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because increasing bandwidth reservations on the backup tunnel does not address the root cause of high latency; it only ensures sufficient bandwidth is available, but latency is a function of path length, link speed, and queuing delay, not bandwidth alone. Option C is wrong because BGP PIC (Prefix Independent Convergence) is designed to improve convergence for BGP routes at the edge, not to control the path selection of MPLS TE backup tunnels; it does not influence the latency of the FRR backup path. Option D is wrong because node protection (protecting against the failure of a downstream node) does not inherently avoid high-latency links; it only changes the scope of protection from link to node, and the backup tunnel could still traverse high-latency links if not explicitly configured to avoid them.

160
MCQmedium

Based on the exhibit, which prefix is missing a label binding and likely causing traffic to be dropped?

A.10.2.2.0/24
B.10.1.1.0/24
C.10.4.4.0/24
D.10.3.3.0/24
E.10.5.5.0/24
AnswerC

'No Label' means no label binding exists; traffic to this prefix will be dropped.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows an MPLS LDP label binding table. Prefix 10.4.4.0/24 has no local label assigned (shown as 'no label' or missing), meaning LDP has not established a label binding for this FEC. Without a label, traffic destined for 10.4.4.0/24 cannot be label-switched and will be dropped or forwarded via IP lookup (if enabled), but in an MPLS core, this typically results in packet loss.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the concept that a missing local label in the LDP binding table indicates the prefix is not reachable via LDP, and candidates may mistakenly focus on remote labels or assume a label of '0' or 'implicit null' means a problem, when the real issue is the absence of a local label.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 10.2.2.0/24 has a valid local label binding (e.g., label 22), so LDP has successfully assigned a label and traffic can be label-switched. Option B is wrong because 10.1.1.0/24 shows a local label (e.g., label 21), indicating proper LDP label allocation. Option D is wrong because 10.3.3.0/24 has a local label (e.g., label 23), so no missing binding exists.

Option E is wrong because 10.5.5.0/24 also has a local label (e.g., label 25), confirming LDP has completed label binding for that prefix.

161
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO conditions cause a router to drop packets when a police action is configured?

Select 2 answers
A.exceed action is drop
B.conform action is drop
C.no bandwidth is reserved
D.violate action is drop
E.queue is full
AnswersA, D

When a packet exceeds the rate, it can be dropped if configured.

Why this answer

When a police action is configured, the router uses a token bucket model to meter traffic. If traffic exceeds the committed information rate (CIR) and burst size, it falls into the 'exceed' or 'violate' category depending on the configured conform and exceed burst parameters. The 'drop' action for exceed or violate conditions explicitly instructs the router to discard those packets, enforcing traffic shaping or policing at the hardware or software level.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between 'exceed' and 'violate' actions in policing, where candidates mistakenly think only 'violate' can drop packets, but 'exceed' can also be configured to drop, and both are valid conditions for packet loss.

162
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three are characteristics of SR-TE policies? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.They are defined at the headend router with a destination and color.
B.They use explicit segment lists to encode the path.
C.They require RSVP-TE signaling to maintain state.
D.They can be used to steer traffic onto a specific path for service-level agreement (SLA) compliance.
E.They require per-flow state at intermediate routers.
AnswersA, B, D

Correct: Headend defines policy.

Why this answer

SR-TE policies are stateful at the headend, use segment lists for path steering, and can be associated with a color for traffic engineering.

163
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer monitors the queue depths on a core interface. Which class is experiencing the most congestion?

A.The interface is not congested because bandwidth is 1 Gbps.
B.Voice class, because it has a taildrop threshold.
C.Both classes equally, because they both have taildropping.
D.Best-effort class, because its average depth is 580.
AnswerD

Correct: Nearly at taildrop threshold of 600, and exceeded max.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows that the best-effort class has an average queue depth of 580 packets, which is significantly higher than the voice class's average depth. This indicates that the best-effort class is experiencing the most congestion, as queue depth is a direct measure of buffered packets waiting for transmission. The voice class, despite having a taildrop threshold, has a much lower average depth, showing it is not as congested.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a taildrop threshold alone indicates congestion, when in fact the average queue depth is the direct indicator of how much traffic is buffered and thus the level of congestion.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a 1 Gbps interface can still experience congestion if the aggregate traffic rate exceeds the interface bandwidth, and queue depth measurements confirm congestion. Option B is wrong because the voice class has a taildrop threshold, but its average queue depth is much lower than the best-effort class, so it is not the most congested. Option C is wrong because both classes do not experience congestion equally; the best-effort class has a significantly higher average queue depth (580) compared to the voice class, indicating unequal congestion levels.

164
MCQhard

A service provider is deploying network slicing for 5G services. Which slice type is characterized by low latency and high reliability for applications like autonomous driving?

A.FMC
B.eMBB
C.mMTC
D.uRLLC
AnswerD

uRLLC provides low latency and high reliability.

Why this answer

uRLLC (Ultra-Reliable Low-Latency Communications) is designed for latency-critical and reliable applications.

165
MCQmedium

A network operator wants to distribute traffic filtering rules to multiple routers dynamically during a DDoS attack. Which technology should be used?

A.uRPF
B.S/RTBH
C.BGP FlowSpec
D.ACLs
AnswerC

FlowSpec distributes fine-grained filtering rules via BGP.

Why this answer

BGP FlowSpec (RFC 8955) allows encoding of flow specifications (e.g., source/dest IP, ports, protocol) and distributing them via BGP to routers, which then apply traffic filtering actions (e.g., drop, rate-limit) dynamically.

166
MCQeasy

Which BGP attribute influences inbound traffic to an AS by affecting the path selection of eBGP peers?

A.LOCAL_PREF
B.MED
C.Weight
D.AS_PATH
AnswerB

MED is used to influence inbound traffic.

Why this answer

MED (Multi-Exit Discriminator) is used to influence inbound traffic by suggesting to a neighbor AS which path to use.

167
MCQmedium

An engineer configures an MPLS-TE tunnel with a bandwidth of 100 Mbps and an explicit path that avoids a specific link. Which RSVP message carries the Explicit Route Object (ERO) to signal the path?

A.PATH message
B.RESV Confirm message
C.PATH Tear message
D.RESV message
AnswerA

PATH message contains the ERO for explicit routing.

Why this answer

In RSVP-TE, the PATH message includes the ERO to specify the explicit route for the tunnel.

168
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three BGP attributes are considered in the route selection process before comparing MED? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Weight
B.MED
C.Local preference
D.Router ID
E.AS_PATH length
AnswersA, C, E

Highest weight is first in selection.

Why this answer

The order: weight, local pref, originate (locally originated), AS_PATH length, ORIGIN, MED. So weight, local pref, and AS_PATH length are before MED.

169
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. A PE router configuration for VRF CUST1 is shown. What is the most likely result when a CE sends a route with RT 100:100?

A.The route causes a BGP session reset
B.The route is imported and installed in VRF
C.The route is imported but not advertised to other CEs
D.The route is received but not imported into VRF
AnswerD

Only routes with matching RT import are imported; RT 100:100 does not match.

Why this answer

The VRF CUST1 configuration does not include a route-target import statement for RT 100:100. Without a matching import RT, the PE router will receive the route from the CE but will not import it into the VRF. The route is received (BGP update is accepted) but not installed in the VRF routing table, making option D correct.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between BGP receiving a route (which always happens) and importing it into a VRF (which requires a matching import RT), leading candidates to mistakenly think any route from a CE is automatically placed into the VRF.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because receiving a route with a non-matching RT does not cause a BGP session reset; BGP session resets are triggered by configuration changes or keepalive failures, not by route attributes. Option B is wrong because the route is not imported into the VRF; import requires a matching route-target import statement under the VRF address-family. Option C is wrong because the route is not imported at all, so it cannot be advertised to other CEs; only routes successfully imported into the VRF are eligible for export to other CEs based on export RTs.

170
MCQeasy

Which access technology in a service provider network uses a passive optical splitter to distribute signals to multiple customers, with typical downstream speeds up to 2.5 Gbps?

A.Metro Ethernet
B.GPON
C.DSL
D.Cable (DOCSIS)
AnswerB

GPON uses passive optical splitters to distribute signals to multiple customers.

Why this answer

GPON is a point-to-multipoint fiber access technology using passive optical splitters, providing downstream speeds up to 2.5 Gbps and upstream up to 1.25 Gbps.

171
MCQeasy

Which Cisco automation tool is designed for service modeling with YANG and provides lifecycle management of network services?

A.Cisco APIC
B.Cisco Prime Infrastructure
C.Cisco DNA Center
D.Cisco Network Services Orchestrator (NSO)
AnswerD

NSO provides YANG-based service modeling and lifecycle management.

Why this answer

Cisco NSO (Network Services Orchestrator) uses YANG models and NETCONF to manage service lifecycle.

172
MCQhard

A network engineer notices that BGP-LU prefixes learned from an eBGP neighbor are not being installed in the MPLS forwarding table (LFIB). The BGP table shows the prefixes with the correct label. The IGP route to the neighbor is reachable. What additional configuration is needed?

A.Enable `no bgp default ipv4-unicast`
B.Configure `mpls ldp autoconfig` on the interface
C.Add `allowas-in` to accept routes with AS-path containing own AS
D.Set `label mode per-prefix` under the BGP neighbor or address-family
AnswerD

BGP-LU requires per-prefix label allocation for LFIB installation.

Why this answer

BGP-LU (BGP Labeled Unicast) installs labels into the BGP table, but for those labels to be used for MPLS forwarding, the router must be configured to allocate labels on a per-prefix basis. By default, BGP may use per-VRF or per-next-hop label allocation, which does not populate the LFIB with per-prefix entries. Setting `label mode per-prefix` under the BGP neighbor or address-family forces BGP to allocate a unique label for each prefix, enabling the LFIB installation required for MPLS forwarding.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between BGP label allocation modes (per-prefix vs. per-next-hop) and the requirement for per-prefix mode to install BGP-LU prefixes into the LFIB, confusing candidates who assume any BGP label automatically populates the MPLS forwarding table.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because disabling the default IPv4 unicast exchange (`no bgp default ipv4-unicast`) affects BGP session establishment for IPv4 unicast but does not influence MPLS label allocation or LFIB population. Option B is wrong because `mpls ldp autoconfig` enables LDP on an interface, which is unrelated to BGP-LU; BGP-LU uses BGP to distribute labels, not LDP. Option C is wrong because `allowas-in` permits routes with the local AS in the AS_PATH, which is a loop-prevention override for specific topologies (e.g., MPLS VPN inter-AS), but it does not affect label allocation or LFIB installation.

173
MCQeasy

A service provider is implementing MPLS L3VPN for a customer. The customer requires that routes from two different VPNs be imported into a single VRF. Which feature should be used?

A.Route Reflector
B.Route Target (RT) import/export
C.Route Distinguisher (RD)
D.BGP extended community
AnswerB

RT import/export is used to control which routes are imported into a VRF.

Why this answer

Route Target (RT) import/export is the correct feature because it controls which routes from which VPNs are imported into a given VRF. By configuring multiple RT import statements on a single VRF, the provider can selectively import routes from two different VPNs, enabling inter-VPN route sharing without merging the VPNs themselves.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between RD (uniqueness) and RT (route selection), leading candidates to mistakenly choose RD when the question asks about importing routes from multiple VPNs into one VRF.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Route Reflector is a BGP optimization tool used to reduce iBGP peering within an AS, not a mechanism for importing routes into a VRF. Option C is wrong because a Route Distinguisher (RD) is used to make IPv4 prefixes unique across VPNs (preventing route overlap), but it does not control route import/export behavior. Option D is wrong because BGP extended community is a generic category that includes RT, but the specific feature required is the Route Target import/export mechanism, not the broader community concept.

174
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE protocols are used for label distribution in an MPLS network?

Select 3 answers
A.OSPF
B.LDP
C.IS-IS
D.BGP
E.RSVP
AnswersB, D, E

LDP is the most common label distribution protocol for MPLS.

Why this answer

LDP (Label Distribution Protocol) is a standardized protocol (RFC 5036) specifically designed for label distribution in MPLS networks. It operates by discovering LDP peers and exchanging label mappings for each FEC (Forwarding Equivalence Class), enabling label-switched path (LSP) establishment without requiring a routing protocol to carry label information.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between routing protocols (OSPF, IS-IS) and label distribution protocols (LDP, RSVP, BGP), trapping candidates who assume that because a protocol is used in MPLS networks (e.g., OSPF for IGP), it also distributes labels.

175
MCQeasy

In MPLS, which operation occurs when a router receives a labeled packet and replaces the top label with a new label before forwarding?

A.Lookup
B.Pop
C.Swap
D.Push
AnswerC

Swap exchanges the top label for a new one.

Why this answer

In MPLS, the swap operation replaces the incoming top label with a new outgoing label as per the LFIB entry.

176
MCQhard

In SRv6, which behavior is used for L3VPN decapsulation (removing the outer IPv6 header and SRH, and forwarding the inner IPv4 packet based on the VPN routing table)?

A.End.DT2U
B.End.DT6
C.End.DT4
D.End
AnswerC

Correct for IPv4 L3VPN.

Why this answer

End.DT4 is the SRv6 endpoint behavior for decapsulation and table lookup for IPv4 L3VPN. End.DT6 is for IPv6 L3VPN, End.DT2U is for L2VPN.

177
MCQmedium

Which NETCONF RPC is used to retrieve the complete running configuration from a network device?

A.edit-config
B.get
C.get-config
D.lock
AnswerC

get-config with source running retrieves the running configuration.

Why this answer

get-config with <source>running</source> retrieves the running configuration. The <get> RPC retrieves both configuration and state data.

178
MCQhard

An SP engineer is configuring BGP Graceful Shutdown (GSHUT) for maintenance on a router. What does the GSHUT community do to the BGP best path selection process?

A.It prepends the AS path
B.It removes the route from the BGP table
C.It increases the MED value by 100
D.It sets the local preference to 0
AnswerD

The GSHUT community reduces local preference, making the route less preferred.

Why this answer

BGP GSHUT uses a well-known community (0xFFFF0000) that lowers the local preference by 100 (to 0 by default) to make the routes less preferred, thus draining traffic gracefully.

179
MCQmedium

A service provider offers Carrier Ethernet services using MPLS-TP in the access and aggregation layers. The network uses MPLS-TP tunnels with static LSPs and protection via 1:1 linear protection with APS. One customer reports intermittent connectivity issues on their E-LINE service. The operations team observes that the protection switchover is occurring frequently due to apparent signal failures on the working path. However, the physical layer shows no errors. The protection switching is configured with revertive mode. The working LSP has an RDI (Remote Defect Indication) configured. Upon further investigation, the team finds that the working LSP's OAM continuity check messages (CCMs) are being lost occasionally, triggering a protection switch. What is the most likely misconfiguration?

A.The CCM interval is too long, causing delayed detection.
B.The working path uses a higher MPLS-TP OAM rate than the protection path.
C.The protection path has a lower priority than the working path.
D.The CCM interval is too short, causing frequent false failures due to transient congestion.
AnswerD

Correct. A short interval makes the system overly sensitive, leading to false failure detection.

Why this answer

A short CCM interval makes the system sensitive to minor delays, causing false failures and frequent protection switches. A longer interval would reduce sensitivity but increase detection time. Priority and OAM rate differences are not typical causes.

180
MCQeasy

A network architect is designing an MPLS network that must provide fast convergence in case of a link failure. The network uses Segment Routing. Which mechanism provides sub-50ms protection by using a precomputed backup path?

A.BFD (Bidirectional Forwarding Detection)
B.TI-LFA (Topology-Independent Loop-Free Alternate)
C.LFA (Loop-Free Alternate)
D.LDP FRR
AnswerB

TI-LFA uses segment lists to guarantee backup path regardless of topology.

Why this answer

B is correct because TI-LFA (Topology-Independent Loop-Free Alternate) is a Segment Routing mechanism that precomputes a backup path using a segment list, enabling sub-50ms convergence upon link failure. It guarantees loop-free forwarding even in complex topologies where traditional LFA may fail, by leveraging SR's source routing capabilities.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between failure detection (BFD) and failure repair (FRR mechanisms), and the trap here is that candidates confuse BFD's fast detection with the actual precomputed backup path provided by TI-LFA.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because BFD is a fast failure detection protocol (e.g., sub-second hello intervals), not a precomputed backup path mechanism; it detects failures but does not provide an alternate forwarding path. Option C is wrong because LFA (Loop-Free Alternate) computes a backup next-hop but may not provide coverage in all topologies (e.g., ring or square topologies), and it does not guarantee sub-50ms protection in all cases. Option D is wrong because LDP FRR (Label Distribution Protocol Fast Reroute) uses LDP labels for backup paths but is not specific to Segment Routing; it also lacks the topology-independent guarantee and segment list optimization of TI-LFA.

181
MCQeasy

A service provider deploys MPLS L3VPN to connect multiple customer sites. Which VPN address family must be enabled on the PE routers to exchange customer IPv4 routes between PEs?

A.VPNv4 unicast
B.IPv4 labeled-unicast
C.IPv4 unicast
D.VPNv6 unicast
AnswerA

VPNv4 address family carries VPN-IPv4 routes with route distinguisher.

Why this answer

In an MPLS L3VPN, customer IPv4 routes must be transported between Provider Edge (PE) routers across the MPLS backbone. The VPNv4 unicast address family (AF 1, SAFI 128) is required because it carries both the IPv4 prefix and an 8-byte Route Distinguisher (RD), making routes unique across different VPNs. This address family is enabled under the BGP configuration on PE routers (e.g., `address-family vpnv4 unicast`) to exchange labeled VPN routes using MP-BGP, as defined in RFC 4364.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between IPv4 unicast and VPNv4 unicast, trapping candidates who confuse standard BGP route exchange (which lacks VPN separation) with the MP-BGP VPNv4 address family required for MPLS L3VPN.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because IPv4 labeled-unicast (AF 1, SAFI 4) is used for MPLS-based inter-AS or carrier-supporting-carrier scenarios, not for exchanging customer VPN routes between PEs. Option C is wrong because standard IPv4 unicast (AF 1, SAFI 1) lacks the Route Distinguisher and VPN label information required to separate and forward customer routes across the MPLS L3VPN backbone. Option D is wrong because VPNv6 unicast (AF 2, SAFI 128) is used for IPv6 VPN routes, not for IPv4 customer routes.

182
MCQeasy

Which Cisco platform is designed for high-capacity core/backbone routing with support for MPLS, Segment Routing, and large-scale BGP?

A.Cisco CRS
B.Cisco NCS 5500
C.Cisco 8000 series
D.Cisco ASR 9000
AnswerA

Correct. CRS is a core router.

Why this answer

Cisco CRS (Carrier Routing System) is a high-end core router designed for large service provider backbone networks, supporting MPLS, SR, and massive scale.

183
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE are valid methods for label distribution in an MPLS network?

Select 3 answers
A.Segment Routing via IGP
B.RSVP-TE
C.BGP
D.LDP
E.TDP
AnswersA, B, D

Segment routing uses IGP extensions to distribute prefix SIDs.

Why this answer

Segment Routing via IGP (Option A) is a valid label distribution method because it uses the IGP (OSPF or IS-IS) to advertise prefix-SIDs, which are MPLS labels. The IGP distributes these labels as part of its link-state database, eliminating the need for a separate label distribution protocol like LDP. This is defined in RFC 8660 and RFC 8665 for OSPF and IS-IS respectively.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between label distribution protocols for core LSP establishment versus label-carrying protocols for services, so candidates may mistakenly select BGP as a core label distribution method when it is actually used for VPN label distribution.

184
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO queuing mechanisms best meet the requirements for voice traffic (low latency and jitter) in a service provider network?

Select 2 answers
A.LLQ (Low Latency Queuing)
B.WRED (Weighted Random Early Detection)
C.Priority queuing
D.CBWFQ without LLQ
E.FIFO (First In First Out)
AnswersA, C

LLQ provides a strict priority queue for real-time traffic.

Why this answer

LLQ is correct because it combines a strict priority queue with CBWFQ, ensuring voice traffic (which is delay-sensitive) is always serviced first, thereby minimizing latency and jitter. The priority queue is policed to prevent starvation of other traffic, making it ideal for real-time applications like VoIP in service provider networks.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that WRED or CBWFQ alone can handle voice traffic, but the trap here is that only LLQ (or strict priority queuing) provides the necessary low latency and jitter by guaranteeing immediate service for voice packets, while other mechanisms introduce delay or drop packets.

185
MCQmedium

A service provider wants to implement Segment Routing in its MPLS core to simplify traffic engineering. What is the primary advantage of Segment Routing over traditional RSVP-TE?

A.No per-flow state on transit routers
B.Improved ECMP load balancing
C.Better support for Fast Reroute
D.Requires a central controller for path calculation
AnswerA

SR uses source routing; transit routers only need label forwarding.

Why this answer

Segment Routing (SR) eliminates the need for per-flow state on transit routers by encoding the path as a list of segment identifiers (SIDs) directly in the packet header. In contrast, RSVP-TE requires each transit router to maintain soft-state for every LSP, consuming memory and CPU. This state reduction simplifies network operation and scales better in large MPLS cores.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that Segment Routing requires a central controller (like PCE) for path calculation, but in fact SR can use distributed IGP-based path computation or explicit SID lists without any controller.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because both Segment Routing and RSVP-TE can leverage ECMP load balancing; SR does not inherently improve ECMP over RSVP-TE. Option C is wrong because Fast Reroute (FRR) is supported by both technologies (e.g., TI-LFA in SR, facility backup in RSVP-TE), and SR does not provide inherently better FRR. Option D is wrong because Segment Routing can operate without a central controller using distributed IGP or BGP-based path computation, whereas RSVP-TE typically requires a controller or head-end for explicit path calculation.

186
Multi-Selectmedium

A service provider is hardening management plane access on IOS XR routers. Which TWO measures should be implemented to secure management access? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Use SNMPv2c for monitoring
B.Enable Telnet for remote access
C.Disable password encryption
D.Implement AAA with TACACS+
E.Enable SSH only
AnswersD, E

TACACS+ provides granular authorization and accounting.

Why this answer

Enabling SSH only and using AAA with TACACS+ are key management plane hardening steps. SNMPv3 with encryption is also important but not listed as an option.

187
MCQhard

In a carrier's network, MPLS-TE tunnels are used to steer traffic away from congested links. The operator configures a tunnel with a bandwidth of 200 Mbps and a dynamic path. The CSPF computation shows a path with sufficient bandwidth, but the tunnel fails to come up. The RSVP neighbor is established. What is the most likely cause?

A.The tunnel destination is not reachable via IGP
B.The path message is rejected due to resource reservation failure
C.The tunnel interface is down
D.MPLS LDP is not configured
AnswerB

RSVP-TE reserves bandwidth; if not available, tunnel fails.

Why this answer

The tunnel fails to come up because the CSPF-computed path cannot reserve the requested 200 Mbps bandwidth. Even though the path has sufficient bandwidth on paper, the RSVP resource reservation process may fail due to a lack of available bandwidth at the exact time of reservation, or due to a mismatch in bandwidth pool configuration (e.g., global vs. subpool). Since the RSVP neighbor is established, the issue is specifically with the reservation step, not with reachability or LDP.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between CSPF path computation (which only checks link metrics and TE attributes) and RSVP resource reservation (which performs actual bandwidth admission control), leading candidates to incorrectly assume that a successful CSPF computation guarantees the tunnel will come up.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the RSVP neighbor is already established, which implies IGP reachability to the tunnel destination is present; RSVP relies on IGP routes to send Path messages. Option C is wrong because the tunnel interface being down would prevent any RSVP signaling, but the RSVP neighbor is established, indicating the interface is operationally up. Option D is wrong because MPLS LDP is not required for MPLS-TE tunnels; RSVP-TE handles label distribution for TE tunnels, and LDP is used for non-TE LSPs.

188
MCQeasy

A service provider router receives a route with a higher specific prefix length than the same prefix in the routing table. Which route will be preferred?

A.The route with higher administrative distance.
B.The route with lower metric.
C.The more specific prefix.
D.The less specific prefix.
AnswerC

Longest prefix match is the primary criterion in IP routing.

Why this answer

C is correct because a router always prefers the most specific prefix (longest prefix length) when forwarding packets, regardless of administrative distance or metric. This is a fundamental rule of IP routing: the route with the longest subnet mask match is chosen first, as it represents the most precise path to the destination.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that administrative distance or metric can override the longest prefix match, leading candidates to incorrectly choose option A or B when the question explicitly states a higher specific prefix length.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because administrative distance is only used to compare routes to the same prefix length; a less specific route with a lower AD cannot override a more specific route. Option B is wrong because metric is compared only among routes with the same prefix length and same routing protocol; a lower metric on a less specific route does not make it preferred over a more specific route. Option D is wrong because the less specific prefix is never preferred when a more specific prefix exists for the same destination; the longest prefix match rule always takes precedence.

189
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO BGP path attributes are considered before AS-path length in the default best-path selection process?

Select 2 answers
A.Origin code
B.Community
C.MED
D.Weight
E.Local Preference
AnswersD, E

Weight is the first tie-breaker.

Why this answer

Weight (D) is a Cisco-proprietary attribute that is checked first in the BGP best-path selection process, before AS-path length. Local Preference (E) is the second attribute evaluated, also preceding AS-path length. Both are considered before the AS-path length comparison in the default BGP decision process.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the exact order of BGP path selection attributes, and the trap here is that candidates mistakenly think MED or Origin are evaluated before AS-path length, when in fact they come later in the decision process.

190
MCQhard

In SR-TE, a headend router is configured with an SR Policy using an explicit candidate path that includes a segment list [100, 200, 300]. If all routers have the same SRGB starting at 10000, what is the actual outgoing label stack for the first segment?

A.100, 200, 300
B.10100, 10200, 10300
C.10000, 20000, 30000
D.Labels depend on LDP allocation
AnswerB

Correct: SRGB base + index.

Why this answer

In SR-MPLS, the SID values in the segment list are relative to the SRGB. If the SRGB starts at 10000, a SID value of 100 corresponds to label 10100 (10000 + 100). So the first segment label is 10100.

191
MCQmedium

In Segment Routing (SR-MPLS), which IGP TLV is used by IS-IS to advertise the Node SID for a prefix?

A.TLV 135 (Extended IP Reachability) with sub-TLV 3 for Prefix-SID.
B.TLV 22 (IS Reachability) with sub-TLV 22 for Adjacency SID.
C.TLV 130 (IP Address) with sub-TLV 1 for Node SID.
D.TLV 137 (Dynamic hostname) with sub-TLV 5 for SID.
AnswerA

Correct.

Why this answer

IS-IS uses the IS-IS Router CAPABILITY TLV (135) with sub-TLV 19 to carry the SR-capable information and prefix-SID. Specifically, the Prefix-SID is advertised in the IS-IS Extended IP Reachability TLV (135) with sub-TLV 3.

192
MCQhard

A service provider is using NSO for service orchestration. Which protocol does NSO use to communicate with network devices for configuration?

A.NETCONF
B.SNMP
C.RESTCONF
D.CLI scripting
AnswerA

NSO uses NETCONF for device configuration.

Why this answer

NSO uses NETCONF as the primary protocol for device configuration, leveraging YANG models.

193
MCQmedium

An engineer is using NETCONF to retrieve the operational QoS statistics from a router. The response contains XML data but does not include the queueing statistics. What is the most likely reason?

A.The NETCONF filter did not include the correct YANG path for QoS statistics
B.The user does not have enough privilege level
C.The statistics are only available via SNMP
D.The router is running an older IOS that does not support NETCONF
AnswerA

NETCONF filters are used to select specific data; omitting the path for queueing statistics results in their omission from the response.

Why this answer

NETCONF retrieves data based on YANG models. If the filter does not specify the correct YANG path for QoS queueing statistics, the server will not include that data in the response. The YANG data model for QoS (e.g., Cisco‑IOS‑XE‑qos‑oper.yang) defines specific paths for queueing counters; omitting or mis‑specifying the filter path results in an incomplete reply.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a successful NETCONF reply means all requested data is present, when in reality a missing or incorrect YANG path filter silently omits specific subtrees like queueing statistics.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because insufficient privilege would cause an authentication or authorization error (e.g., rpc‑error with access‑denied), not a successful response missing specific data. Option C is wrong because NETCONF is a standards‑based management protocol (RFC 6241) that can retrieve all operational data, including QoS statistics, if the corresponding YANG model is supported; SNMP is not the exclusive source. Option D is wrong because even older IOS versions that support NETCONF (e.g., IOS‑XE 16.x) include QoS YANG models; the absence of queueing statistics is a filtering issue, not a NETCONF capability issue.

194
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has configured an SR-TE policy. What is required for this policy to be used for traffic steering?

A.Static routing
B.IGP with segment routing
C.BGP with color extended community
D.OSPF with opaque LSA
AnswerC

BGP routes with a color community matching the policy's color will steer traffic onto that policy.

Why this answer

An SR-TE policy uses a color extended community to identify the policy's color and its associated endpoint. BGP distributes these color extended communities, enabling headend routers to match traffic to the correct SR-TE policy for steering. Without BGP carrying the color extended community, the policy cannot be dynamically selected for traffic engineering.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that IGP segment routing alone is sufficient for SR-TE policy steering, but the color extended community is exclusively carried by BGP, not by the IGP.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because static routing does not interact with SR-TE policy selection; SR-TE policies are dynamically steered via BGP color extended communities, not static routes. Option B is wrong because while IGP with segment routing (e.g., IS-IS or OSPF) distributes prefix-SIDs and adjacency-SIDs, it does not carry the color extended community required to bind traffic to an SR-TE policy. Option D is wrong because OSPF opaque LSAs are used for traffic engineering extensions (e.g., OSPF-TE) but do not propagate the color extended community needed for SR-TE policy steering.

195
MCQmedium

In BGP route selection, which attribute is considered before the MED when comparing routes from different ASes?

A.Local preference
B.Next-hop reachability
C.ORIGIN type
D.AS_PATH length
AnswerC

ORIGIN (IGP, EGP, incomplete) is compared before MED.

Why this answer

The BGP best path selection order is: weight, local pref, originated locally, AS_PATH length, ORIGIN, MED, etc. MED is considered after ORIGIN.

196
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. The policy above is applied on a PE router. The customer complains that voice quality is poor. Based on the exhibit, what is the most likely cause?

A.The police rate for voice is too low for the offered traffic
B.The policy is applied to the wrong direction
C.The class-default is empty
D.The DATA class is not matching any traffic
AnswerA

The offered rate of 100 kbps exceeds the policed rate of 64 kbps, causing significant drops (over 40% of packets dropped), which directly impacts voice quality.

Why this answer

The police rate for voice is too low for the offered traffic. Voice traffic requires a guaranteed bandwidth to maintain low jitter and packet loss; if the policer rate is set below the actual voice flow rate, packets are dropped or marked down, causing poor voice quality. In the exhibit, the voice class has a police rate that is insufficient for the offered load, leading to excessive drops.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that applying a policy in the correct direction is sufficient, but the trap here is that the police rate itself must be properly sized for the actual voice traffic load, not just the classification.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the policy is applied in the ingress direction on the PE router, which is correct for policing inbound customer traffic before it enters the service provider core; applying it egress would not prevent oversubscription at the edge. Option C is wrong because class-default being empty means no traffic is classified there, but voice and data are matched in other classes, so this does not cause voice quality issues. Option D is wrong because the DATA class not matching traffic would only affect data, not voice; the voice class is matching traffic, so the problem lies in the voice policing rate.

197
MCQhard

A service provider uses an MPLS-TE tunnel to carry voice and data traffic. The tunnel is experiencing packet loss during congestion. The engineer wants to ensure that voice traffic receives guaranteed bandwidth and low latency while data traffic uses remaining bandwidth. Which QoS configuration should be applied on the tunnel interface?

A.LLQ with a priority queue for voice and a default class for data
B.CBWFQ with bandwidth allocation for voice and data
C.Policing on voice traffic to limit its rate
D.Shaping on the tunnel to 75% of bandwidth with no queuing
AnswerA

LLQ ensures low latency for voice, and the default class uses remaining bandwidth for data.

Why this answer

Low Latency Queuing (LLQ) allows you to place voice traffic into a strict priority queue, ensuring guaranteed bandwidth and low latency during congestion, while the default class uses CBWFQ to allocate remaining bandwidth to data traffic. This matches the requirement of prioritizing voice without starving data entirely, as the priority queue is policed to prevent voice from consuming all bandwidth.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that CBWFQ alone can provide low latency for voice, but the trap here is that CBWFQ lacks a strict priority queue, so voice traffic will experience delay and jitter, making LLQ the only correct choice for real-time traffic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because CBWFQ alone cannot provide the strict low latency required for voice; it allocates bandwidth fairly but does not have a priority queue, so voice would experience jitter and delay during congestion. Option C is wrong because policing on voice traffic limits its rate but does not guarantee low latency or bandwidth; policing drops excess traffic without queuing, which can cause voice packet loss even within the contracted rate. Option D is wrong because shaping to 75% of bandwidth with no queuing only smooths traffic but provides no QoS differentiation; without queuing, both voice and data are treated equally, leading to packet loss for voice during congestion.

198
Multi-Selectmedium

An SP is implementing DiffServ at the edge router. Which TWO DSCP values are used for AF41 and AF31, respectively? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.DSCP 10
B.DSCP 26
C.DSCP 46
D.DSCP 18
E.DSCP 34
AnswersB, E

AF31 corresponds to DSCP 26.

Why this answer

AF41 uses DSCP 34 (010001) and AF31 uses DSCP 26 (011010).

199
MCQmedium

An SP is deploying Deep Packet Inspection (DPI) to classify traffic for QoS and security. Which DPI technique is used to identify applications regardless of port numbers?

A.IP address filtering
B.Port-based classification
C.Signature-based pattern matching
D.NetFlow analysis
AnswerC

Signature matching identifies application-specific patterns in payload.

Why this answer

DPI inspects packet payloads using signatures, pattern matching, or behavioral analysis to identify applications, even if they use non-standard ports.

200
MCQmedium

A service provider is deploying EVPN-VXLAN in its data center to provide Layer 2 and Layer 3 overlay services. The underlay uses an eBGP-based CLOS fabric with spine and leaf switches. The leaf switches act as VTEPs and run EVPN for MAC/VXLAN advertisement. One of the tenants, a financial customer, requires that their traffic between two leaf-connected servers is always forwarded through a firewall for inspection, even when the servers are on the same leaf. The firewall is connected to a service leaf. The architect proposes using EVPN integrated routing and bridging (IRB) with asymmetric IRB. However, traffic between two VMs on the same leaf is bypassing the firewall. Which architectural change ensures that all inter-VM traffic within the same leaf goes through the firewall?

A.Implement a VXLAN tunnel from each leaf to the firewall and use policy-based forwarding (PBF) on the leaf to redirect inter-VM traffic to the firewall via the tunnel.
B.Configure a gateway on the firewall and use static routes on the leaf to forward traffic to the firewall.
C.Use EVPN symmetric IRB and ensure the firewall is attached as a Layer 2 extension.
D.Enable 'split-horizon' on the leaf switches to prevent direct forwarding.
AnswerA

Correct. PBF can redirect traffic to the firewall even for local traffic, ensuring inspection.

Why this answer

Implement a VXLAN tunnel from each leaf to the firewall and use policy-based forwarding (PBF) on the leaf to redirect inter-VM traffic to the firewall via the tunnel. This forces traffic to the firewall even for local traffic. Split-horizon prevents loops, not service insertion; static routes are not scalable; symmetric IRB still allows local bridging.

201
Matchingmedium

Match each service provider architecture term to its description.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Provider Edge router connecting to customer equipment

Provider core router forwarding traffic without VPN awareness

Customer Edge router connecting to the provider network

Route Reflector to scale BGP in a service provider backbone

Autonomous System Boundary Router connecting to other ASes

Why these pairings

The correct matches are: PE connects to customer edge, P is MPLS core, ASBR connects to other ASes. Common confusions: mistaking P for CE or confusing Route Reflector with ASBR.

202
MCQeasy

In IOS XR architecture, what is the role of the Secure Domain Router (SDR)?

A.It handles all packet forwarding in hardware.
B.It is used for OSPF only.
C.It provides isolation for routing protocols and forwarding tables.
D.It manages the admin plane for all line cards.
AnswerC

SDR creates separate routing domains.

Why this answer

An SDR provides a logical partitioning of router resources, allowing multiple independent virtual routers within a single physical chassis.

203
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO are benefits of using Segment Routing (SR) over traditional LDP-based MPLS?

Select 2 answers
A.Eliminates the need for LDP and RSVP-TE protocols.
B.Requires only OSPF as the IGP.
C.Reduces label imposition at the ingress PE.
D.Faster convergence due to BGP PIC.
E.Supports traffic engineering without RSVP-TE.
AnswersA, E

SR uses IGP to distribute labels, removing LDP and RSVP-TE.

Why this answer

Segment Routing (SR) eliminates the need for the Label Distribution Protocol (LDP) and Resource Reservation Protocol with Traffic Engineering (RSVP-TE) by encoding MPLS labels directly into the Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP), such as OSPF or IS-IS. This simplifies the control plane by removing these protocols entirely, reducing operational complexity and resource overhead.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that Segment Routing requires a specific IGP (like OSPF only) or that it reduces label imposition, when in fact SR is IGP-agnostic and label depth depends on the path encoding, not the protocol itself.

204
MCQmedium

An SP's core router experiences excessive packet drops on a congested link. The QoS policy uses CBWFQ with 4 queues. The drops occur only in the queue for a premium business class. Which is the most likely cause?

A.The 'bandwidth remaining' command is missing from the policy-map.
B.The interface is using MLP with interleaving.
C.The queue is using tail-drop without WRED.
D.The premium class is configured with a police action that drops traffic when it exceeds the committed information rate.
AnswerD

Policing drops excess traffic; if the police rate is lower than the guaranteed bandwidth, drops occur.

Why this answer

The premium business class queue is experiencing excessive packet drops because a police action configured with a 'drop' exceed-action is discarding traffic that exceeds the committed information rate (CIR). Unlike congestion management (queuing), policing is a congestion avoidance mechanism that drops packets immediately when the traffic rate surpasses the configured CIR, regardless of the queue depth or available bandwidth. This explains why drops occur only in the premium class queue, as the policer is explicitly dropping excess packets before they even enter the CBWFQ scheduler.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between policing (which drops excess traffic regardless of congestion) and queuing (which drops only when buffers are full), leading candidates to mistakenly attribute drops to congestion management mechanisms like tail-drop or WRED when the real cause is a police action configured with a drop exceed-action.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the 'bandwidth remaining' command is used to allocate excess bandwidth among queues in a class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ) policy; its absence would not cause drops in a specific queue, but rather affect how unused bandwidth is distributed. Option B is wrong because MLP with interleaving is a technique to reduce serialization delay on multilink interfaces by fragmenting and interleaving small packets; it does not cause packet drops in a specific queue. Option C is wrong because tail-drop without WRED would cause drops when the queue is full, but the drops would occur in any queue that reaches its maximum threshold, not exclusively in the premium class queue; the question states drops occur only in the premium class queue, which points to a policing action rather than a congestion management drop mechanism.

205
MCQmedium

A service provider's network is experiencing suboptimal routing for BGP prefixes received from a customer. The customer is multihomed to two different PE routers in the same AS. Which BGP feature can ensure that traffic ingresses via the correct PE?

A.MED
B.Local Preference
C.AS-path prepend
D.Weight
AnswerA

MED is used to influence inbound traffic by advertising different metrics to different peers.

Why this answer

MED (Multi-Exit Discriminator) is the correct BGP attribute for influencing inbound traffic from a multihomed customer. When the customer advertises the same prefix to two PE routers in the same AS, setting a lower MED value on one PE will cause the customer's upstream AS to prefer that path for returning traffic. This allows the service provider to control which PE receives the ingress traffic without altering any outbound routing policies.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between attributes that influence inbound vs. outbound traffic, and the trap here is confusing Local Preference (outbound) with MED (inbound) when both are used for path selection within an AS.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Local Preference) is wrong because Local Preference is used to influence outbound traffic from the local AS, not inbound traffic from a customer. Option C (AS-path prepend) is wrong because it influences path selection by making a route appear longer, but it is typically applied on egress updates to affect inbound traffic from external ASes, not within the same AS for multihomed customers. Option D (Weight) is wrong because Weight is a Cisco-proprietary attribute that is local to the router and influences outbound path selection, not inbound traffic from a customer.

206
Multi-Selectmedium

Which three BGP attributes are considered before the MED in the BGP best path selection process?

Select 3 answers
A.Weight
B.Next-hop metric
C.AS_PATH length
D.Local preference
E.Multi-Exit Discriminator (MED)
AnswersA, C, D

Weight is first in order.

Why this answer

Weight, local preference, and AS_PATH length are considered before MED. ORIGIN is also before MED but AS_PATH is longer.

207
MCQhard

A service provider wants to influence inbound traffic from a customer AS. The customer AS is multi-homed to two provider ASes. Which BGP community is most effective to make the customer prefer a specific entry point?

A.Set community 'no-export' on routes from the undesired entry point.
B.Set community 'prepend 3' on routes from the desired entry point.
C.Set community 'local-preference 200' on routes from the desired entry point.
D.Set community 'no-advertise' on routes from the undesired entry point.
AnswerA

Set community 'no-export' on routes from the undesired entry point. This prevents those routes from being advertised to the customer AS, so the customer only sees routes from the desired entry point, making them prefer that entry point. Correct.

Why this answer

Setting the BGP 'no-export' community on routes from the undesired entry point prevents those routes from being advertised to the customer AS. Since the customer only learns routes from the desired entry point, they will prefer that entry point for inbound traffic. This is a standard technique for influencing inbound traffic without requiring customer-side configuration.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse the purpose of BGP communities. 'no-export' prevents advertisement to external peers, while 'no-advertise' prevents any advertisement. Additionally, local preference is an attribute set on the receiving end, not a community.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the 'no-export' community prevents routes from being advertised to any eBGP peers outside the local AS, but it does not influence the customer's path selection; it only controls route propagation. Option B is wrong because 'prepend 3' is not a BGP community; AS path prepending is a separate technique where the local AS is repeated in the AS_PATH attribute, and it would actually make the desired entry point less preferred by increasing the AS path length. Option D is wrong because the 'no-advertise' community prevents the route from being advertised to any BGP peer, which would block the route entirely rather than influencing the customer's preference for a specific entry point.

208
MCQmedium

In EVPN, what is the function of the Ethernet Segment Identifier (ESI)?

A.It is used for load balancing among PEs.
B.It identifies a multi-homed device or network segment.
C.It uniquely identifies a customer MAC address.
D.It identifies a VXLAN tunnel.
AnswerB

ESI is used for multi-homing.

Why this answer

The ESI identifies a multi-homed device or network, enabling all-active redundancy and fast convergence.

209
MCQhard

In a BGP confederation, which AS number is used in the AS_PATH to prevent loops within the confederation?

A.The same AS number as the confederation ID
B.Private AS numbers (64512-65535)
C.Public AS numbers
D.No AS number is prepended
AnswerB

Private AS numbers are used within the confederation.

Why this answer

Confederation uses private AS numbers (from 64512 to 65535) for sub-ASs, and these are prepended to the AS_PATH but not shown to external peers.

210
Multi-Selectmedium

A service provider is designing an OSPF network for both IPv4 and IPv6. Which two features are supported by OSPFv3 but not by OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Virtual links
B.Authentication using MD5
C.Route redistribution
D.Support for IPv6
E.Multiple instances per link
AnswersD, E

OSPFv3 is designed for IPv6.

Why this answer

OSPFv3 runs over IPv6, supports multiple instances per link, and uses link-local addresses. OSPFv2 does not have these.

211
MCQhard

An engineer is deploying MPLS-TE with FRR using the 1:1 detour method. Which statement about link protection in this scenario is true?

A.The detour LSP merges back with the main LSP after the protected link.
B.The detour LSP is created dynamically after a failure is detected.
C.Link protection requires node protection to be configured.
D.A single bypass tunnel protects multiple LSPs over the same link.
AnswerA

Correct.

Why this answer

1:1 detour creates a one-to-one backup LSP for each protected LSP. The detour LSP is pre-signaled and protects against link failure by re-routing traffic around the failed link.

212
MCQmedium

Which BGP mechanism can reduce the number of iBGP sessions in a large SP network while preventing routing loops?

A.BGP PIC
B.BGP confederation
C.BGP route reflector
D.BGP BFD
AnswerC

Route reflectors reduce iBGP sessions and use loop prevention mechanisms.

Why this answer

Route reflectors allow iBGP speakers to advertise routes learned from other iBGP peers, reducing full mesh requirements, and use cluster-id and originator-id to prevent loops.

213
MCQhard

An SP is deploying network slicing for 5G services. They need to ensure ultra-reliable low-latency communication (uRLLC) slice has dedicated bandwidth and low latency. Which mechanism is best suited to guarantee performance for this slice?

A.Class of Service (CoS) marking on all traffic
B.MPLS Traffic Engineering with RSVP-TE
C.Flexible Algorithm (Flex-Algo) in IGP
D.DiffServ with EF PHB
AnswerC

Correct. Flex-Algo can compute paths with low-latency constraints for uRLLC slices.

Why this answer

Network slicing using dedicated resources via Flex-Algo or resource reservation can guarantee performance. Flex-Algo allows IGP to compute paths based on constraints like latency, providing dedicated paths for uRLLC.

214
MCQmedium

A network engineer is troubleshooting MPLS L3VPN issues on a PE router. The CE router is receiving routes from the PE, but the CE cannot ping the remote CE. The PE shows the remote prefix in its routing table and in the VRF. What is the most likely cause?

A.The VRF route-target import/export is misconfigured
B.The MTU on the core links is too small
C.The RD is different on the two PEs
D.The LSP between the PEs is not operational
AnswerD

The LSP must be up to forward MPLS-encapsulated packets between PEs.

Why this answer

The CE can receive routes from the PE (indicating that the VRF and route-target import/export are functioning correctly), but the CE cannot ping the remote CE. This points to a failure in the data plane between the PEs. If the LSP (Label Switched Path) between the PEs is not operational, MPLS labels cannot be swapped or forwarded correctly, causing packets to be dropped even though the control plane (routing table and VRF) shows the remote prefix.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between control plane and data plane failures; the trap here is that candidates see routes in the VRF and assume the data path is working, but they overlook the requirement for a functional LSP to forward MPLS-encapsulated traffic between PEs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the VRF route-target import/export were misconfigured, the PE would not import the remote prefix into the VRF, and the CE would not receive the route at all. Option B is wrong because an MTU issue on core links would typically cause fragmentation problems or packet drops for large packets, but it would not prevent the CE from receiving routes or the PE from having the prefix in its routing table and VRF. Option C is wrong because the Route Distinguisher (RD) is used to make prefixes unique across VRFs; different RDs on the two PEs do not affect reachability or ping success, as long as the route targets match for import/export.

215
MCQhard

A service provider uses BGP communities to influence routing policies. An administrator wants to prevent a specific prefix from being advertised to any external AS. Which BGP community should be applied?

A.NO_ADVERTISE
B.INTERNET
C.LOCAL_AS
D.NONE
E.NO_EXPORT
AnswerE

NO_EXPORT prevents advertisement to any eBGP peer, which is exactly what is needed.

Why this answer

The NO_EXPORT community (well-known community 0xFFFFFF01) tells the router not to advertise the prefix to any external BGP peer (eBGP), but allows it to be advertised within the same AS (iBGP). This matches the requirement to prevent the prefix from being advertised to any external AS, as NO_EXPORT is specifically designed to keep routes confined to the local autonomous system.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between NO_EXPORT and NO_ADVERTISE, where candidates mistakenly choose NO_ADVERTISE because they think 'no advertisement' means 'no external advertisement,' but NO_ADVERTISE blocks all advertisements (including iBGP), while NO_EXPORT only blocks eBGP advertisements.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (NO_ADVERTISE) is wrong because it prevents the prefix from being advertised to any BGP peer at all, including iBGP peers within the same AS, which is more restrictive than needed. Option B (INTERNET) is wrong because it is a well-known community (0xFFFFFF00) that means 'advertise this route to the Internet' (i.e., no restriction), which is the opposite of what is required. Option C (LOCAL_AS) is wrong because it prevents advertisement to peers in the same confederation sub-AS but allows advertisement to external ASes, which does not meet the requirement.

Option D (NONE) is wrong because it is not a valid BGP community value; BGP communities are 32-bit values, and 'NONE' is not defined in RFC 1997 or any standard.

216
MCQmedium

In OSPFv3, what change was introduced compared to OSPFv2 for supporting IPv6?

A.OSPFv3 uses the same LSA types as OSPFv2
B.OSPFv3 supports only point-to-point network types
C.OSPFv3 runs over IPv6 and uses link-local addresses for adjacencies
D.OSPFv3 eliminates the need for a router ID
AnswerC

Correct; OSPFv3 uses IPv6 link-local addresses for neighbor communication.

Why this answer

OSPFv3 runs per-link instead of per-subnet, uses link-local addresses for neighbor discovery, and separates the protocol from addressing by using LSAs with IPv6 prefix information.

217
MCQhard

A large SP is using model-driven telemetry to collect interface statistics from 5000 routers to a centralized collector. The collector is deployed on two servers with load balancing. Recently, the operations team noticed that some router telemetry streams are missing data for intervals of up to 5 minutes during peak hours. The engineer suspects packet loss between the routers and collector. The routers are sourced from different vendors but all support gRPC dial-out telemetry. The engineer wants to identify which routers are affected. The current configuration uses a single telemetry collector IP with port 5000. What step should the engineer take to isolate the problematic routers?

A.Use a packet capture on the network to identify drops.
B.Enable telemetry debugging on each router and review logs.
C.Check the telemetry subscription statistics on each router for drops and errors.
D.Configure a second collector on a different port and split the routers across two collectors.
AnswerC

Routers maintain per-subscription counters (e.g., sent packets, dropped packets, sequence errors) that directly pinpoint problematic devices.

Why this answer

Checking telemetry subscription statistics on each router (e.g., using show telemetry statistics) provides per-router counters for drops, errors, and sequence gaps. This directly identifies which routers are experiencing loss. Other options are either too manual, network-wide, or do not isolate individual routers.

218
MCQeasy

In IS-IS, which type of router is responsible for routing between different areas and also maintains a Level 1 Link State Database?

A.L1/L2 router
B.Level 2 router
C.Level 1 router
D.Area Border Router (ABR)
AnswerA

L1/L2 routers participate in both levels.

Why this answer

L1/L2 routers perform both intra-area and inter-area routing, maintaining both L1 and L2 LSDBs.

219
MCQmedium

A service provider needs to offer L3VPN services with customer isolation. Which technology is used to maintain separate routing tables for different customers on a single PE router?

A.VLAN
B.Route distinguisher (RD)
C.VRF
D.MPLS labels
AnswerC

VRF creates separate routing tables.

Why this answer

VRF (Virtual Routing and Forwarding) instances provide separate routing tables per customer, ensuring isolation in L3VPN.

220
MCQmedium

Which MEF Carrier Ethernet service type is used for a rooted-multipoint topology, where a single root site communicates with multiple leaf sites but leaf sites cannot communicate directly?

A.E-Access
B.E-LAN
C.E-Tree
D.E-Line
AnswerC

E-Tree is rooted-multipoint.

Why this answer

E-Tree (Ethernet Tree) is a rooted-multipoint service where the root can communicate with leaves, but leaves cannot communicate with each other.

221
MCQmedium

A service provider is implementing Multicast VPN (MVPN) in an MPLS backbone. They use Rosen GRE (draft-rosen) for multicast transport. What is the primary limitation of Rosen GRE compared to mLDP-based MVPN?

A.It requires full-mesh of GRE tunnels between all PEs.
B.It cannot use Source-Specific Multicast (SSM).
C.All multicast traffic is sent to every PE in the VPN, even if no receiver exists.
D.It does not support Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM).
AnswerC

Rosen GRE uses a default MDT that forwards traffic to all PEs, causing waste.

Why this answer

In Rosen GRE (draft-rosen) MVPN, a default MDT (Multicast Distribution Tree) is built using a shared PIM-SM group across all PEs in the VPN. All multicast traffic from any source in the VPN is encapsulated in GRE and sent to this default MDT group, meaning every PE receives the traffic regardless of whether it has any local receivers. This is the primary limitation because it wastes bandwidth and processing on PEs that do not need the traffic, unlike mLDP-based MVPN which builds trees only to PEs with receivers.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that Rosen GRE requires a full-mesh of tunnels (Option A) because candidates confuse the concept of a shared MDT with the need for individual tunnels, but the real limitation is the flooding of traffic to all PEs regardless of receivers.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Rosen GRE does not require a full-mesh of GRE tunnels; it uses a single default MDT group (a PIM-SM group) shared across all PEs, and traffic is sent via this group, not via individual point-to-point GRE tunnels between each pair of PEs. Option B is wrong because Rosen GRE can use Source-Specific Multicast (SSM) for the default MDT if the provider configures it, though it is more commonly associated with PIM-SM; the limitation is not about SSM support. Option D is wrong because Rosen GRE explicitly relies on PIM (typically PIM-SM) to build the default MDT between PEs; it does not lack PIM support.

222
Multi-Selecteasy

A service provider is configuring BGP community propagation in an MPLS VPN network. Which two actions are necessary to ensure that communities are passed from CE to remote PE?

Select 2 answers
A.Configure no bgp default community-mode
B.Configure send-community on the CE-to-PE BGP session
C.Configure send-community extended on the VPNv4 neighbor
D.Configure vrf forwarding with route-target both
E.Configure route-map to filter communities
AnswersB, C

Correct. This allows communities from the CE to be received by the PE.

Why this answer

B is correct because the `send-community` command must be configured on the CE-to-PE BGP session to allow standard BGP communities (e.g., NO_EXPORT) to be propagated from the CE router into the MPLS VPN network. Without this, the PE router will strip communities from incoming BGP updates, preventing them from reaching the remote PE.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between standard and extended communities, leading candidates to forget that `send-community` (for standard) is required on the CE-PE session, while `send-community extended` is only for VPNv4 peers.

223
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer pushes this XML configuration via NETCONF, but the device rejects it with an error stating 'invalid policy-map structure'. What is the problem?

A.The class name must be defined in a class-map before being referenced in the policy-map
B.The configuration is missing the class-default class
C.The YANG model does not support the 'police' keyword
D.The priority and police commands cannot coexist in the same class
AnswerA

The YANG model requires that class-maps are defined separately. This XML attempts to define a class inline, which is not allowed.

Why this answer

The error 'invalid policy-map structure' occurs because the policy-map references a class name that has not been defined in a class-map beforehand. In Cisco IOS, a class-map must exist before it can be used inside a policy-map; otherwise, the device rejects the configuration as structurally invalid.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the dependency between class-maps and policy-maps, where candidates mistakenly think the error is about missing class-default or command incompatibility, rather than the fundamental requirement that a class must be defined before it is referenced.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the class-default class is automatically created by the system and does not need to be explicitly defined; its absence is not the cause of the error. Option C is wrong because the YANG model for Cisco IOS-XE NETCONF fully supports the 'police' keyword for traffic policing under a policy-map class. Option D is wrong because priority and police can coexist in the same class when used correctly (e.g., priority with police for bandwidth policing), though certain restrictions apply; this is not the cause of the 'invalid policy-map structure' error.

224
MCQeasy

Which congestion avoidance technique drops packets probabilistically before the queue becomes full?

A.FIFO
B.Priority Queuing
C.WRED
D.Custom Queuing
AnswerC

WRED proactively drops packets to avoid congestion.

Why this answer

WRED (Weighted Random Early Detection) is a congestion avoidance mechanism that monitors the average queue depth and, when it exceeds a configured threshold, begins dropping packets probabilistically before the queue becomes completely full. This proactive dropping signals TCP senders to reduce their transmission rates, thereby preventing tail drop and global synchronization.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse congestion avoidance (WRED) with congestion management (queuing algorithms like PQ, CQ, or FIFO), mistakenly thinking that any queuing mechanism that drops packets qualifies as congestion avoidance.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because FIFO (First-In, First-Out) is a simple queuing method that does not perform any congestion avoidance; it simply transmits packets in the order they arrive and drops packets only when the queue is full (tail drop). Option B is wrong because Priority Queuing (PQ) is a congestion management technique that services high-priority queues first and can starve lower-priority queues, but it does not proactively drop packets based on queue depth. Option D is wrong because Custom Queuing (CQ) is a congestion management technique that allocates a fixed amount of bandwidth to each queue by round-robin servicing, but it does not perform random early detection or probabilistic dropping.

225
MCQeasy

A service provider is migrating from OSPF to IS-IS in the core. During the migration, both protocols are running. Some prefixes are learned via both OSPF and IS-IS. The network uses BGP for external routes and MPLS for VPNs. The engineer notices that BGP routes are pointing to a next-hop that is reachable via OSPF but not via IS-IS, causing traffic to be dropped. What is the best course of action to ensure that during the migration, BGP uses only one IGP protocol?

A.Use BGP next-hop tracking to prefer IS-IS routes
B.Configure a route-map to selectively distribute routes
C.Increase the administrative distance of IS-IS to be higher than OSPF
D.Implement MPLS TE tunnels for BGP next-hops
AnswerC

Higher admin distance makes IS-IS less preferred, ensuring OSPF routes are used for next-hop resolution.

Why this answer

Increasing the administrative distance of IS-IS to be higher than OSPF (e.g., from 115 to 120) makes OSPF routes preferred over IS-IS routes in the routing table. Since BGP uses the IGP route to resolve its next-hop, this ensures BGP always selects the OSPF path, preventing traffic drops when the next-hop is only reachable via OSPF. This is a simple, protocol-agnostic way to control IGP preference during a migration without altering route redistribution or tunneling.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that BGP next-hop tracking (Option A) or route-maps (Option B) can influence IGP preference, when in fact administrative distance is the direct and simplest mechanism to control route selection between two IGPs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because BGP next-hop tracking (NHT) monitors reachability changes but does not influence which IGP protocol is preferred; it only triggers BGP to re-evaluate next-hops, not to prefer one IGP over another. Option B is wrong because a route-map for selective distribution controls which prefixes are advertised between protocols, not the administrative distance or next-hop resolution behavior of BGP; it would not force BGP to use only OSPF for next-hop resolution. Option D is wrong because MPLS TE tunnels can steer traffic but add complexity and do not address the fundamental issue of BGP next-hop resolution preferring one IGP over another; they are an over-engineered solution for a simple administrative distance fix.

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