CAPM Predictive Plan-Based Methodologies Practice Test 5 — 15 Questions

Question 1

A project manager is leading a construction project with a fixed budget and strict deadline. During execution, a key supplier notifies that a critical material will be delayed by two weeks, which will push the project past the deadline. The project manager reviews the schedule and identifies that the delay can be compensated by fast-tracking two subsequent activities that are currently planned sequentially. What should the project manager do first?

Choose an answer to begin — your selection is scored in the full session.

Accepted Answer

Assess the risks of fast-tracking the two activities.. The correct first step is to assess the risks of fast-tracking the two activities (Option B). Fast-tracking involves performing activities in parallel that were originally planned sequentially, which can introduce new risks such as rework, resource conflicts, or quality issues. The PMBOK Guide emphasizes that before implementing a schedule compression technique, the project manager must evaluate the associated risks and determine if the benefits outweigh the potential negative impacts. Since the project has a fixed budget and strict deadline, a risk assessment ensures informed decision-making before proceeding.

Answer

Accept the delay and update the project schedule accordingly.

Answer

Submit a change request to extend the deadline.

Answer

Immediately add resources to the delayed activity to catch up.

Question 2

A project manager is developing the project schedule using a predictive approach. The project involves multiple dependencies and a critical path that has been identified. Which TWO of the following are valid techniques for schedule compression that can be applied to activities on the critical path?

Accepted Answer

Crashing - adding resources to critical path activities to reduce duration.. Crashing and fast-tracking are both schedule compression techniques that focus on the critical path. Crashing reduces duration by adding resources to critical path activities, while fast-tracking performs critical path activities in parallel that were originally sequential, thereby shortening the overall schedule. Both are valid because they directly target the critical path, where any reduction directly impacts the project completion date.

Answer

Resource leveling - adjusting start and finish dates based on resource constraints.

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Monte Carlo simulation - analyzing probable schedule outcomes.

Answer

Critical chain method - adding buffers to protect the schedule.

Question 3

Drag and drop the steps for controlling project changes according to the integrated change control process.

Accepted Answer

Step 1: Submit change request; Step 2: Review change request; Step 3: Approve or reject change; Step 4: Update project management plan and communicate outcome.. Change control involves submitting, reviewing, deciding, updating plans, and communicating outcomes.

Answer

Step 1: Review change request; Step 2: Submit change request; Step 3: Approve or reject change; Step 4: Update project management plan and communicate outcome.

Answer

Step 1: Submit change request; Step 2: Approve or reject change; Step 3: Review change request; Step 4: Update project management plan and communicate outcome.

Answer

Step 1: Submit change request; Step 2: Review change request; Step 3: Update project management plan and communicate outcome; Step 4: Approve or reject change.

Question 4

Drag and drop the steps for managing project communications in the correct order.

Accepted Answer

Plan Communications Management, then Manage Communications, then Monitor Communications. Communications management: plan (including requirements and technology), manage, and monitor.

Answer

Manage Communications, then Plan Communications Management, then Monitor Communications

Answer

Monitor Communications, then Plan Communications Management, then Manage Communications

Answer

Plan Communications Management, then Monitor Communications, then Manage Communications

Question 5

During the planning phase of a predictive project, the project manager notices that the project schedule does not include all required deliverables. What is the most appropriate action to address this gap?

Accepted Answer

Review the work breakdown structure (WBS) to ensure all deliverables are represented.. The WBS decomposes the project scope into deliverables and work packages; if the schedule is missing deliverables, the root cause is likely an incomplete WBS. Reviewing the WBS ensures all deliverables are identified and represented before updating the schedule. This aligns with the PMBOK principle of verifying scope before schedule development.

Answer

Update the schedule to include the missing deliverables directly.

Answer

Request a change to the project charter to accommodate the missing deliverables.

Answer

Review the scope statement and add more resources to the project.

Question 6

A project team is troubleshooting a delay in the critical path. The project manager identifies that a non-critical activity has slipped by five days but the project end date remains unchanged. What is the most likely reason for this?

Accepted Answer

The slipped activity has sufficient total float to absorb the delay without affecting the critical path.. In critical path method (CPM), non-critical activities have total float — the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project finish date. If a non-critical activity slips by five days but the project end date is unchanged, the slip is within the activity's total float, so it is absorbed without impacting the critical path.

Answer

The team used crashing to accelerate the non-critical activity.

Answer

The slipped activity is actually on the critical path and the end date was recalculated incorrectly.

Answer

The project manager applied fast tracking to overlap the slipped activity with its successor.

Question 7

A project manager is evaluating cost performance using earned value management (EVM). The project has a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.85 and a schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.90. Which conclusion is most appropriate?

Accepted Answer

The project is over budget and behind schedule.. CPI = EV/AC; a CPI of 0.85 means the project is earning only 85 cents of value per dollar spent — it is over budget. SPI = EV/PV; an SPI of 0.90 means the project is earning only 90 cents of value per planned dollar — it is behind schedule. Both indices below 1.0 therefore indicate the project is over budget and behind schedule.

Answer

The project is over budget but ahead of schedule.

Answer

The project is behind schedule but on budget.

Answer

The project is under budget and ahead of schedule.

Question 8

During a predictive project's execution phase, a key stakeholder requests a change that adds a minor feature. The project manager assesses the impact and determines the change will increase cost by 5% and extend the schedule by two days, which is within the contingency reserves. What should the project manager do first?

Accepted Answer

Submit a change request to the change control board (CCB).. The change control process requires submitting any change request to the Change Control Board (CCB) for evaluation and approval before implementation, even if the impact is within contingency reserves. Option B is incorrect because the project manager cannot unilaterally approve changes unless explicitly granted that authority. Option C is incorrect because the project charter is a high-level document and is not updated for minor feature changes; such updates are handled through integrated change control. Option D is incorrect because implementing the change without formal approval bypasses the established change control process.

Answer

Approve the change immediately and inform the team.

Answer

Update the project charter to reflect the new feature.

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Implement the change since it is within the contingency reserves.

Question 9

A project manager is creating a risk response plan for a predictive construction project. One risk has a high probability and high impact. The team decides to purchase insurance to cover potential losses. Which risk response strategy is being used?

Accepted Answer

Transfer. Purchasing insurance transfers the financial impact of the risk to a third party (the insurer), which is the definition of the transfer strategy. Option A (Avoid) is incorrect because avoidance eliminates the risk entirely, e.g., by not performing the activity; insurance does not eliminate the risk. Option B (Accept) is incorrect because acceptance means acknowledging the risk and taking no proactive action, often setting aside a contingency reserve; purchasing insurance is an active response. Option C (Mitigate) is incorrect because mitigation reduces the probability or impact of the risk; insurance does not reduce the likelihood or severity of the loss, it only shifts the financial burden.

Answer

Avoid

Answer

Accept

Answer

Mitigate

Question 10

A project team is developing a quality management plan for a predictive software development project. Which tool is most appropriate to identify the root causes of potential defects?

Accepted Answer

Ishikawa diagram. The Ishikawa diagram (fishbone diagram) is used to identify root causes of problems. Option B (Pareto chart) is wrong because Pareto charts prioritize issues based on frequency, not root cause identification. Option C (Flowchart) is wrong because flowcharts map process steps, not root causes. Option D (Control chart) is wrong because control charts monitor process stability over time.

Answer

Pareto chart

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Flowchart

Answer

Control chart

Question 11

A project manager is reviewing the project schedule and sees that Task D depends on the completion of Task C, but Task C can start only after Task B finishes. Task B can start only after Task A. This is an example of which dependency?

Accepted Answer

Sequential dependency. The tasks are linked in a series: A→B→C→D. Option A is wrong because parallel dependency allows tasks to overlap, not sequential. Option C is wrong because lag dependency refers to a delay between tasks, not a sequential chain. Option D is wrong because merge activity is when multiple predecessors converge on a single task, which is not the case here.

Answer

Parallel dependency

Answer

Lag dependency

Answer

Merge activity

Question 12

A project manager is estimating the duration of a task using parametric estimation. Historical data shows that a similar task took 10 hours per unit, and 50 units are required. The team's productivity is expected to be 20% slower due to new team members. What is the estimated duration?

Accepted Answer

600 hours. 10 hours/unit * 50 units = 500 hours. With 20% slower productivity, the total hours = 500 * 1.2 = 600 hours. Option A (400 hours) is wrong because it uses a 20% reduction instead of increase. Option B (550 hours) is wrong because it uses a factor of 1.1 or incorrect calculation. Option C (500 hours) is wrong because it does not account for the 20% slowdown.

Answer

400 hours

Answer

550 hours

Answer

500 hours

Question 13

Which TWO of the following are valid techniques for schedule compression in a predictive project?

Accepted Answer

Fast tracking. Options A and D are correct. Fast tracking involves overlapping activities that would normally be done in sequence, shortening the schedule. Crashing adds resources to critical path activities to reduce duration. Option B is wrong because adding lag increases duration. Option C is wrong because Monte Carlo simulation is a risk analysis technique, not schedule compression. Option E is wrong because resource leveling often lengthens the schedule by balancing resource demand.

Answer

Adding lag

Answer

Monte Carlo simulation

Answer

Resource leveling

Question 14

Which THREE of the following are typically included in a project management plan (as opposed to project documents)?

Accepted Answer

Schedule management plan. The project management plan is composed of subsidiary management plans and baselines, so A (Schedule management plan), B (Scope management plan), and D (Risk management plan) are all correct because each is a formal subsidiary plan that describes how the respective knowledge area will be planned, executed, monitored, and controlled throughout the project. These plans are developed as part of the project management plan and are formally approved and controlled through integrated change control. By contrast, C (Stakeholder register) and E (Issue log) are project documents, not components of the project management plan; they are working records that are created and updated during project execution and are not part of the formal plan baselines or subsidiary plans.

Answer

Stakeholder register

Answer

Issue log

Question 15

A project manager needs to decompose the project scope into smaller, more manageable components to provide a framework for detailed planning. Which technique should the project manager use?

Accepted Answer

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is the PMBOK-defined tool for progressively decomposing total project scope into smaller, manageable deliverables called work packages. It provides the hierarchical framework that all subsequent planning (cost, schedule, risk, resources) is built upon. The WBS is deliverable-oriented and represents 100% of the scope — no more, no less.

Answer

RACI matrix

Answer

Critical Path Method (CPM)

Answer

Gantt chart