CAPM Practice Questions 2 — 50 Questions

Question 1

A project manager is assigned to a project that is in execution phase. The project has a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.8 and a schedule performance index (SPI) of 1.1. Which of the following best describes the current status of the project?

Accepted Answer

The project is over budget but ahead of schedule.. A CPI of 0.8 means the project is earning only $0.80 for every $1.00 spent, indicating it is over budget. An SPI of 1.1 means the project is earning $1.10 for every $1.00 of planned work, indicating it is ahead of schedule. Therefore, the project is over budget but ahead of schedule, making option C correct.

Answer

The project is under budget and ahead of schedule.

Answer

The project is under budget and behind schedule.

Answer

The project is over budget and behind schedule.

Question 2

Based on the exhibit, what is the critical path duration of the project?

Accepted Answer

12 days. The critical path is the longest path through the project network diagram, determining the shortest possible project duration. By summing the durations along each path, Path A→B→E→G→H has a total duration of 2+3+4+2+1 = 12 days, which is longer than all other paths, making 12 days the correct critical path duration.

Answer

10 days

Answer

11 days

Answer

13 days

Question 3

During project planning, the project manager wants to ensure that all work required to complete the project is identified. Which document is the primary output of the process that defines and controls what is included in the project?

Accepted Answer

Scope baseline. The scope baseline is the primary output of the 'Define Scope' and 'Create WBS' processes, and it formally defines and controls what is included in the project. It consists of the project scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary, providing a comprehensive reference for scope management. By establishing the scope baseline, the project manager ensures that all required work is identified and any changes must go through formal change control.

Answer

Scope management plan

Answer

Project scope statement

Answer

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Question 4

Which TWO of the following are outputs of the Identify Risks process?

Accepted Answer

Risk report. The Identify Risks process produces the risk register and risk report as its primary outputs. The risk register captures individual risks, their causes, and potential responses, while the risk report summarizes overall project risk exposure and key risk information for stakeholders.

Answer

Risk management plan

Answer

Risk response plan

Answer

Project management plan

Question 5

A project team is struggling with unclear roles and responsibilities, leading to duplicated work and missed tasks. Which document should the project manager create or update to resolve this issue?

Accepted Answer

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) in RACI format. The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM), particularly in RACI format, is the correct document to resolve unclear roles and responsibilities because it explicitly maps project tasks to team members, defining who is Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed. This eliminates ambiguity, prevents duplicated work, and ensures no tasks are missed by providing a clear, traceable assignment of duties.

Answer

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Answer

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

Answer

Risk register

Question 6

During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a change that would add a new feature. The project manager assesses the impact and finds that it will increase the project cost by 15% and extend the schedule by three weeks. The sponsor is concerned about the budget but sees the value. What should the project manager do next?

Accepted Answer

Submit the change request to the change control board (CCB) for review and decision.. In project management, once a change is assessed for impact, the project manager must follow the formal change control process. Since the change increases cost by 15% and extends the schedule by three weeks, it exceeds typical contingency thresholds and requires approval from the Change Control Board (CCB), which has the authority to approve or reject changes that affect baselines. Option B is correct because submitting to the CCB ensures proper governance and alignment with the project's change management plan.

Answer

Approve the change since the stakeholder is influential and the sponsor sees value.

Answer

Implement the change immediately to avoid delaying the project further.

Answer

Reject the change because it exceeds the budget and schedule constraints.

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit. What is the total float of Task B?

Accepted Answer

1 day. Task B has a total float of 1 day because it lies on a non-critical path. The critical path (A-C-E) has a duration of 7 days, while the path containing Task B (A-B-D-E) has a duration of 6 days. Total float is calculated as the difference between the duration of the critical path and the duration of the path containing the task, which is 7 - 6 = 1 day.

Answer

3 days

Answer

2 days

Answer

0 days

Question 8

A project team is working on a software development project. The project manager notices that the team is spending too much time on unplanned work, resulting in delays to the critical path. What technique should the project manager use to reduce unplanned work and improve focus?

Accepted Answer

Implement critical chain project management.. Critical chain project management (CCPM) is specifically designed to protect the critical path from disruptions like unplanned work by inserting buffers (e.g., feeding buffers, project buffer) and enforcing a 'relay race' work ethic. This technique reduces multitasking and focuses the team on completing tasks in priority order, directly addressing the root cause of delays from unplanned work.

Answer

Apply crashing to the critical path activities.

Answer

Perform resource leveling to smooth resource usage.

Answer

Use fast tracking to overlap activities.

Question 9

During project planning, the team identifies that a task has a duration of 10 days, a predecessor finish-to-start relationship, and a lag of 2 days. What is the earliest the successor task can start if the predecessor starts on day 1?

Accepted Answer

Day 12. The predecessor starts on day 1 and has a duration of 10 days, so it finishes at the end of day 10 (assuming work starts at the beginning of day 1). With a finish-to-start relationship and a lag of 2 days, the successor cannot start until 2 days after the predecessor finishes. Therefore, the earliest start for the successor is day 13 (end of day 10 + 2 days lag = start of day 13). Option C is correct because it accounts for both the full duration and the lag.

Answer

Day 11

Answer

Day 10

Answer

Day 13

Question 10

During the execution phase of a software development project, the team discovers a critical bug that requires an immediate fix. The project manager uses the contingency reserve to address this. Which plan-based process is being applied?

Accepted Answer

Perform Integrated Change Control. D is correct because using the contingency reserve to address a critical bug requires a formal change request to authorize the release of funds from the reserve. This aligns with the Perform Integrated Change Control process, which evaluates, approves, and manages changes to project baselines, including the cost baseline. The project manager must submit a change request, which is then reviewed by the Change Control Board (CCB) before the contingency reserve can be applied.

Answer

Direct and Manage Project Work

Answer

Monitor and Control Project Work

Answer

Close Project or Phase

Question 11

A project manager is creating the risk management plan. Which document should the project manager reference to identify the risk tolerance of stakeholders?

Accepted Answer

Stakeholder management plan. The stakeholder management plan documents stakeholders' identified needs, expectations, and influence levels, which directly inform their risk tolerance thresholds. The project manager references this plan to understand how different stakeholders perceive risk and what level of risk they are willing to accept, enabling tailored risk responses in the risk management plan.

Answer

Project scope statement

Answer

Project charter

Answer

Risk register

Question 12

A project manager is planning a project and needs to identify all the work required to complete the project successfully. Which document is the primary output of the Create WBS process?

Accepted Answer

Scope baseline. The Create WBS process decomposes the project scope into manageable work packages, and its primary output is the scope baseline. The scope baseline consists of the project scope statement, the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), and the WBS dictionary, which together define all the work required to complete the project successfully.

Answer

Project charter

Answer

Requirements traceability matrix

Answer

Work performance data

Question 13

Which TWO of the following are outputs of the Define Activities process? (Select exactly 2.)

Accepted Answer

Activity attributes. The Define Activities process is part of Project Schedule Management and produces the activity list and activity attributes as its primary outputs. The activity list identifies all scheduled activities, while activity attributes provide metadata such as predecessors, resources, and constraints. These outputs are essential for further schedule development.

Answer

Work breakdown structure

Answer

Project schedule

Answer

Risk register

Question 14

A project manager is developing the project schedule for a construction project. The team has identified that the foundation work must be completed before the framing can begin. Which type of dependency does this represent?

Accepted Answer

Mandatory dependency. The dependency between foundation work and framing is a mandatory dependency because it is physically required that the foundation be completed before framing can begin. In construction, this is a hard logic constraint inherent in the nature of the work, not a preference or external factor. Mandatory dependencies are often referred to as 'hard logic' and are typically based on contractual requirements or physical limitations.

Answer

Lead

Answer

Discretionary dependency

Answer

External dependency

Question 15

During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a change that will increase the project scope. The project manager evaluates the impact and determines it will require additional budget and time. What should the project manager do first?

Accepted Answer

Submit a change request to the change control board. In predictive (waterfall) project management, any change that impacts scope, budget, or schedule must follow a formal change control process. The project manager first assesses the impact, then submits a change request to the Change Control Board (CCB) for approval before any action is taken. Implementing the change or updating baselines without CCB approval violates the control scope process defined in the PMBOK Guide.

Answer

Implement the change and update the project plan

Answer

Update the project baseline immediately

Answer

Reject the change because it impacts the baseline

Question 16

A project manager is leading a software development project. During the planning phase, the team identifies a significant risk that a key third-party API may be deprecated before the project completes. The project sponsor asks for a risk response strategy. Which strategy should the project manager recommend to best address this risk?

Accepted Answer

Mitigate the risk by developing a workaround using an alternative API or building a fallback mechanism.. Option C is correct because developing a workaround using an alternative API or building a fallback mechanism directly reduces the probability and/or impact of the API deprecation risk. This is a classic risk mitigation strategy that proactively ensures the project can continue even if the third-party API becomes unavailable, which is a common technical risk in software projects.

Answer

Accept the risk and plan to deal with the issue if it arises.

Answer

Transfer the risk by purchasing insurance against API deprecation.

Answer

Enhance the risk by increasing the use of the API to benefit from it before deprecation.

Question 17

Which THREE of the following are tools and techniques used in the Control Schedule process? (Select exactly 3.)

Accepted Answer

Performance reviews. Performance reviews (B) are a tool and technique in the Control Schedule process used to compare actual schedule performance against the baseline, often through earned value management (EVM) metrics like schedule variance (SV) and schedule performance index (SPI). This helps identify deviations and trigger corrective actions.

Answer

Rolling wave planning

Answer

Critical path method

Question 18

Which TWO of the following are outputs of the Define Activities process?

Accepted Answer

Activity list. The Define Activities process identifies and documents the specific actions required to produce the project deliverables. Its key outputs are the activity list, activity attributes, and the milestone list. Option C is correct because the activity list is a primary output that enumerates all scheduled activities. Option E is correct because the milestone list, which identifies significant events or decision points, is also a direct output of this process.

Answer

Project charter

Answer

Work breakdown structure

Answer

Resource breakdown structure

Question 19

A project manager is using a predictive approach for a construction project. The team has completed 40% of the work, but the actual cost is $500,000 against a planned value of $450,000. The project manager calculates the cost performance index (CPI) and schedule performance index (SPI). Which conclusion is correct?

Accepted Answer

The project is over budget and behind schedule. The project has completed 40% of the work, so the earned value (EV) is 40% of the total budget. With actual cost (AC) of $500,000 and planned value (PV) of $450,000, the CPI = EV/AC = (0.4 * BAC)/500,000. Since AC > PV and EV < PV (because only 40% of work is done vs. 45% planned), both CPI and SPI are less than 1.0, indicating the project is over budget and behind schedule.

Answer

The project is over budget but ahead of schedule

Answer

The project is on budget and on schedule

Answer

The project is under budget and ahead of schedule

Question 20

A project manager is assigned to a new product development project. The project charter has been approved, and the team is preparing the project management plan. During the planning process, the project manager wants to ensure that all project work is aligned with the business objectives. Which document should the project manager review to confirm the alignment of the project with organizational strategy?

Accepted Answer

Business case. The business case documents the justification for the project, including alignment with organizational strategy and expected benefits. Since the project manager needs to confirm that all project work aligns with business objectives, reviewing the business case provides the strategic context and rationale that links the project to the organization's goals.

Answer

Project scope statement

Answer

Project charter

Answer

Benefits management plan