CAPM Practice Exam 2 — 20 Questions

Question 1

A project manager is managing a complex IT project with many inter-dependencies. During execution, a key stakeholder requests a feature that will require rework of several completed deliverables. The project manager wants to minimize disruption to the project. What is the best course of action?

Choose an answer to begin — your selection is scored in the full session.

Accepted Answer

Follow the integrated change control process to assess impact. Following the integrated change control process allows the project manager to formally assess the impact of the change on scope, schedule, cost, and quality before making a decision. This minimizes disruption by ensuring that changes are evaluated and approved through a structured process. Option A is incorrect because delegating to the CCB without analysis may bypass necessary impact assessment. Option C is incorrect because implementing immediately bypasses evaluation and risks significant disruption. Option D is incorrect because refusing without analysis ignores the possibility of a beneficial change and may damage stakeholder relationships.

Answer

Delegate the decision to the change control board (CCB)

Answer

Implement the change immediately to satisfy the stakeholder

Answer

Refuse the request as it will cause rework

Question 2

Which THREE of the following are characteristics of a project?

Accepted Answer

Progressive elaboration. Options A, C, and D are correct because projects are temporary (C), unique (D), and progressively elaborated (A). Option B (Repetitive) and option E (Ongoing) describe operations, not projects.

Answer

Repetitive

Answer

Ongoing

Question 3

Refer to the exhibit. How many work packages are at the lowest level of the WBS?

Accepted Answer

2. 2. The lowest level of the WBS (level 3) contains two work packages: Develop and Test. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the actual count.

Answer

3

Answer

0

Answer

1

Question 4

Which TWO of the following are considered business analysis planning activities?

Accepted Answer

Conducting stakeholder analysis. Business analysis planning activities involve identifying stakeholders and determining how to elicit requirements. Conducting stakeholder analysis (D) is a planning activity to understand who will be impacted and their involvement. Selecting elicitation techniques (E) is also planning as it defines how requirements will be gathered. Option A (conducting interviews) is part of elicitation execution, not planning. Option B (developing wireframes) is solution design. Option C (defining project success criteria) is typically part of project management or scope definition, not specifically business analysis planning.

Answer

Conducting interviews to gather requirements

Answer

Developing wireframes for the user interface

Answer

Defining project success criteria

Question 5

You are a project manager working on a large infrastructure project under a strong matrix organization. The project charter has been signed, and you have been given authority to manage the project. However, the functional manager of the engineering department is refusing to assign the promised resources, claiming that another project has higher priority. You have already held a meeting with the sponsor and functional manager, but the functional manager remains uncooperative. The sponsor is concerned about the project's viability. What is the most effective course of action?

Accepted Answer

Request the sponsor to reaffirm the project's priority and enforce resource allocation per the charter. In a strong matrix, the project manager has significant authority, but functional managers still control resources. The best action is to refer to the project charter and sponsor to enforce resource commitments. Option A is too adversarial. Option B is premature rescheduling. Option D undermines the project manager's authority.

Answer

Contact the other project's manager to negotiate resource sharing directly

Answer

Formally document the issue and escalate to the PMO for resolution

Answer

Proceed with the project using available resources and adjust the schedule

Question 6

A project has a fixed deadline but flexible scope. The project manager receives a change request that would significantly increase scope. What should the project manager do first?

Accepted Answer

Evaluate the impact on time, cost, and quality. According to the PMBOK Guide, the first step when a change request is received is to evaluate its impact on project constraints such as time, cost, quality, and scope. This impact analysis determines the feasibility and implications before any decision to approve or reject. Direct approval (C) or rejection (D) would be premature without analysis, and escalation to sponsor (A) is not the first step.

Answer

Escalate to the sponsor immediately

Answer

Approve the change because the scope is flexible

Answer

Reject the change to protect the fixed deadline

Question 7

Which TWO are types of organizational structures commonly used in project management?

Accepted Answer

Functional. Options D and E are correct: Functional and Matrix are two standard organizational structures in project management. Option A (Flat) is a general organizational structure but not specifically recognized in PMI's framework. Option B (Circular) is not a standard project management structure. Option C (Hierarchical) describes a characteristic of structures like functional or matrix, but is not itself a distinct structure defined by PMI.

Answer

Flat

Answer

Circular

Answer

Hierarchical

Question 8

During a project, two team members have a conflict that is affecting progress. The project manager attempts to resolve it but fails. What is the next best action?

Accepted Answer

Escalate to the project sponsor. Escalate to the project sponsor. When the project manager cannot resolve a conflict, escalation to the sponsor is appropriate because the sponsor has authority over project decisions and can help resolve the issue. Option A is incorrect because the PMO provides guidance and standards but typically lacks direct authority over team conflicts. Option B is incorrect because reassigning a team member is a drastic measure that should only be considered after other resolution attempts have failed. Option D is incorrect because if the project manager's attempt failed, asking the team to resolve it themselves is unlikely to succeed and may exacerbate the situation.

Answer

Request guidance from the PMO

Answer

Reassign one team member to another project

Answer

Ask the team to resolve it themselves

Question 9

A project manager is leading a team in a matrix organization where team members report to both a functional manager and the project manager. The project is in the planning phase. What is the primary responsibility of the project manager during this phase?

Accepted Answer

Developing the project management plan. Developing the project management plan is the primary responsibility of the project manager during the planning phase. Option A (managing team conflicts) is more relevant to the executing or monitoring and controlling phases. Option B (assigning daily tasks) is typically done by the functional manager or team leads, not the project manager, especially during planning. Option C (closing out the project) belongs to the closing phase. Thus, D is the correct answer.

Answer

Managing team conflicts

Answer

Assigning daily tasks to team members

Answer

Closing out the project

Question 10

A project team is conducting cost estimation for a project that uses a predictive lifecycle. They have historical data from similar projects. Which estimation technique is MOST appropriate?

Accepted Answer

Analogous estimating. Analogous estimating uses historical data from similar projects, making it the most appropriate technique for this scenario. Option B is correct.

Answer

Three-point estimating

Answer

Parametric estimating

Answer

Bottom-up estimating

Question 11

Refer to the exhibit. Which risk has the highest expected monetary value?

Accepted Answer

R2. EMV for R1 = 0.3 * $40,000 = $12,000; R2 = 0.6 * $50,000 = $30,000; R3 = 0.2 * $100,000 = $20,000. R2 has the highest EMV.

Answer

R1

Answer

R3

Answer

All have equal EMV

Question 12

A business analyst is reviewing the output of a requirements validation session. The following issues were identified: 'Requirement REQ-001 has no associated business objective', 'Requirement REQ-002 has a conflicting priority with REQ-003'. What is the most likely cause of these issues?

Accepted Answer

The requirements traceability matrix was not properly maintained.. The requirements traceability matrix (RTM) is a tool used to ensure that each requirement is linked to a business objective and that dependencies and conflicts are identified. The issues described—missing links and conflicting priorities—are typical signs of a poorly maintained RTM. Option D correctly identifies this cause. Option A is incorrect because scope statement incompleteness might cause missing requirements, but not specifically the linkage issues. Option B is incorrect because the requirements management plan dictates processes, but the specific tool (RTM) is the issue. Option C is incorrect because templates provide structure, but not maintenance.

Answer

The project scope statement is incomplete.

Answer

The requirements management plan was not followed.

Answer

The business analyst did not use a standard template.

Question 13

Which THREE are techniques used for estimating activity durations?

Accepted Answer

Three-point estimating. The correct techniques for estimating activity durations are three-point estimating (A), parametric estimating (B), and analogous estimating (E). Three-point estimating uses optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates. Parametric estimating uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables. Analogous estimating uses values from previous similar projects. Reserve analysis (C) is used for contingency reserves, not for estimating durations. Monte Carlo simulation (D) is a risk analysis technique.

Answer

Reserve analysis

Answer

Monte Carlo simulation

Question 14

Refer to the exhibit. A business analyst is developing a requirements traceability matrix (RTM) for a project. Based on the RTM excerpt shown, which statement is correct?

Accepted Answer

The RTM ensures that every business requirement maps to a functional requirement.. In a requirements traceability matrix, one of the key purposes is to ensure that higher-level requirements (business requirements) are mapped to lower-level requirements (functional requirements) to verify coverage. Option A is incorrect because test case links are not necessarily present in all RTMs; some may only show requirements relationships. Option B is incorrect because forward traceability typically goes from source to derived, but the RTM in the exhibit shows mapping from business to functional requirements. Option D is incorrect because RTMs often include non-functional requirements as well.

Answer

All requirements are linked to at least one test case.

Answer

The RTM shows forward traceability from requirements to design.

Answer

The RTM includes only functional requirements.

Question 15

Based on the exhibit, which risk should the project manager prioritize for proactive response?

Accepted Answer

R001. Risk R001 has the highest risk score (0.56), indicating the highest priority for proactive response. Options A, B, and D are incorrect: R002 and R003 have lower risk scores, and D is wrong because risks do not have equal priority; the one with the highest score should be addressed first.

Answer

R002

Answer

R003

Answer

All risks have equal priority.

Question 16

A project manager is using a predictive approach to manage a project. During the execution phase, the team is working on deliverables. Which process group involves tracking, reviewing, and regulating progress against the plan?

Accepted Answer

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group. The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group involves tracking, reviewing, and regulating progress against the plan. Option A is correct because this process group ensures that project objectives are met by measuring performance and applying corrective actions. The Planning Process Group (B) establishes the scope and plan; the Executing Process Group (C) involves completing the work; and the Initiating Process Group (D) defines the project. Therefore, only Monitoring and Controlling fits the described activities.

Answer

Planning Process Group

Answer

Executing Process Group

Answer

Initiating Process Group

Question 17

Based on the exhibit, what is the most significant risk for the upcoming iteration?

Accepted Answer

The team is overcommitting based on historical velocity data.. The exhibit shows a planned velocity of 30 story points per iteration, but historical velocity averages 21 story points. This mismatch means the team is overcommitting, which will likely lead to unfinished work and reduced quality. In Agile, using historical velocity as a baseline is critical for realistic iteration planning.

Answer

The product backlog may have scope creep from new requirements.

Answer

The team's velocity is dropping, indicating a need to add more team members.

Answer

The team's velocity is trending upward, so the plan is realistic.

Question 18

A project manager in a predictive manufacturing project needs to procure a specialized component. The procurement process requires a detailed statement of work (SOW) and firm fixed price (FFP) contract. What should the project manager create first?

Accepted Answer

Create the procurement management plan.. According to the PMBOK Guide, the procurement management plan is the first document created in the procurement process. It defines how procurement will be managed, including procedures for developing the statement of work (SOW), conducting make-or-buy analysis, selecting contract types (such as FFP), and managing seller relationships. Without this plan, subsequent procurement activities lack guidance. Option A (developing SOW) occurs after the plan is established. Option B (make-or-buy analysis) is part of planning but is typically conducted during the development of the procurement management plan. Option C (drafting the contract) happens after seller selection, which follows the plan and SOW creation. Therefore, the procurement management plan must be created first to set the framework for all procurement activities.

Answer

Develop the procurement statement of work (SOW).

Answer

Conduct a make-or-buy analysis.

Answer

Draft the contract with the selected seller.

Question 19

During project planning, the team identifies that a task has a duration of 10 days, a predecessor finish-to-start relationship, and a lag of 2 days. What is the earliest the successor task can start if the predecessor starts on day 1?

Accepted Answer

Day 12. The predecessor starts on day 1 and has a duration of 10 days, so its early finish is day 10 (assuming no gaps). With a finish-to-start relationship and a lag of 2 days, the successor's early start is the predecessor's early finish plus the lag: 10 + 2 = 12. Therefore, the earliest the successor can start is day 12.

Answer

Day 11

Answer

Day 10

Answer

Day 13

Question 20

Which TWO statements about the Sprint Backlog are true? (Select TWO)

Accepted Answer

It is created during Sprint Planning.. Options B and C are correct. The Sprint Backlog is created during Sprint Planning (B) and includes tasks decomposed from user stories (C). Option A is false because the Sprint Backlog is not just a subset; it includes the plan for delivery. Option D is false because the Sprint Backlog is owned by the Development Team, not the Product Owner. Option E is false because the Sprint Backlog can be changed during the Sprint by the Development Team as needed.

Answer

It is a subset of the Product Backlog.

Answer

It is owned by the Product Owner.

Answer

It cannot be changed during the Sprint.