CAPM Practice Test 2 — 30 Questions

Question 1

Refer to the exhibit. Which risk has the highest expected monetary value?

Accepted Answer

R2. EMV for R1 = 0.3 * $40,000 = $12,000; R2 = 0.6 * $50,000 = $30,000; R3 = 0.2 * $100,000 = $20,000. R2 has the highest EMV.

Answer

R1

Answer

R3

Answer

All have equal EMV

Question 2

A business analyst is reviewing the output of a requirements validation session. The following issues were identified: 'Requirement REQ-001 has no associated business objective', 'Requirement REQ-002 has a conflicting priority with REQ-003'. What is the most likely cause of these issues?

Accepted Answer

The requirements traceability matrix was not properly maintained.. The requirements traceability matrix (RTM) is a tool used to ensure that each requirement is linked to a business objective and that dependencies and conflicts are identified. The issues described—missing links and conflicting priorities—are typical signs of a poorly maintained RTM. Option D correctly identifies this cause. Option A is incorrect because scope statement incompleteness might cause missing requirements, but not specifically the linkage issues. Option B is incorrect because the requirements management plan dictates processes, but the specific tool (RTM) is the issue. Option C is incorrect because templates provide structure, but not maintenance.

Answer

The project scope statement is incomplete.

Answer

The requirements management plan was not followed.

Answer

The business analyst did not use a standard template.

Question 3

Which THREE are techniques used for estimating activity durations?

Accepted Answer

Three-point estimating. The correct techniques for estimating activity durations are three-point estimating (A), parametric estimating (B), and analogous estimating (E). Three-point estimating uses optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates. Parametric estimating uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables. Analogous estimating uses values from previous similar projects. Reserve analysis (C) is used for contingency reserves, not for estimating durations. Monte Carlo simulation (D) is a risk analysis technique.

Answer

Reserve analysis

Answer

Monte Carlo simulation

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit. A business analyst is developing a requirements traceability matrix (RTM) for a project. Based on the RTM excerpt shown, which statement is correct?

Accepted Answer

The RTM ensures that every business requirement maps to a functional requirement.. In a requirements traceability matrix, one of the key purposes is to ensure that higher-level requirements (business requirements) are mapped to lower-level requirements (functional requirements) to verify coverage. Option A is incorrect because test case links are not necessarily present in all RTMs; some may only show requirements relationships. Option B is incorrect because forward traceability typically goes from source to derived, but the RTM in the exhibit shows mapping from business to functional requirements. Option D is incorrect because RTMs often include non-functional requirements as well.

Answer

All requirements are linked to at least one test case.

Answer

The RTM shows forward traceability from requirements to design.

Answer

The RTM includes only functional requirements.

Question 5

Based on the exhibit, which risk should the project manager prioritize for proactive response?

Accepted Answer

R001. Risk R001 has the highest risk score (0.56), indicating the highest priority for proactive response. Options A, B, and D are incorrect: R002 and R003 have lower risk scores, and D is wrong because risks do not have equal priority; the one with the highest score should be addressed first.

Answer

R002

Answer

R003

Answer

All risks have equal priority.

Question 6

A project manager is using a predictive approach to manage a project. During the execution phase, the team is working on deliverables. Which process group involves tracking, reviewing, and regulating progress against the plan?

Accepted Answer

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group. The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group involves tracking, reviewing, and regulating progress against the plan. Option A is correct because this process group ensures that project objectives are met by measuring performance and applying corrective actions. The Planning Process Group (B) establishes the scope and plan; the Executing Process Group (C) involves completing the work; and the Initiating Process Group (D) defines the project. Therefore, only Monitoring and Controlling fits the described activities.

Answer

Planning Process Group

Answer

Executing Process Group

Answer

Initiating Process Group

Question 7

Based on the exhibit, what is the most significant risk for the upcoming iteration?

Accepted Answer

The team is overcommitting based on historical velocity data.. The exhibit shows a planned velocity of 30 story points per iteration, but historical velocity averages 21 story points. This mismatch means the team is overcommitting, which will likely lead to unfinished work and reduced quality. In Agile, using historical velocity as a baseline is critical for realistic iteration planning.

Answer

The product backlog may have scope creep from new requirements.

Answer

The team's velocity is dropping, indicating a need to add more team members.

Answer

The team's velocity is trending upward, so the plan is realistic.

Question 8

A project manager in a predictive manufacturing project needs to procure a specialized component. The procurement process requires a detailed statement of work (SOW) and firm fixed price (FFP) contract. What should the project manager create first?

Accepted Answer

Create the procurement management plan.. According to the PMBOK Guide, the procurement management plan is the first document created in the procurement process. It defines how procurement will be managed, including procedures for developing the statement of work (SOW), conducting make-or-buy analysis, selecting contract types (such as FFP), and managing seller relationships. Without this plan, subsequent procurement activities lack guidance. Option A (developing SOW) occurs after the plan is established. Option B (make-or-buy analysis) is part of planning but is typically conducted during the development of the procurement management plan. Option C (drafting the contract) happens after seller selection, which follows the plan and SOW creation. Therefore, the procurement management plan must be created first to set the framework for all procurement activities.

Answer

Develop the procurement statement of work (SOW).

Answer

Conduct a make-or-buy analysis.

Answer

Draft the contract with the selected seller.

Question 9

During project planning, the team identifies that a task has a duration of 10 days, a predecessor finish-to-start relationship, and a lag of 2 days. What is the earliest the successor task can start if the predecessor starts on day 1?

Accepted Answer

Day 12. The predecessor starts on day 1 and has a duration of 10 days, so its early finish is day 10 (assuming no gaps). With a finish-to-start relationship and a lag of 2 days, the successor's early start is the predecessor's early finish plus the lag: 10 + 2 = 12. Therefore, the earliest the successor can start is day 12.

Answer

Day 11

Answer

Day 10

Answer

Day 13

Question 10

Which TWO statements about the Sprint Backlog are true? (Select TWO)

Accepted Answer

It is created during Sprint Planning.. Options B and C are correct. The Sprint Backlog is created during Sprint Planning (B) and includes tasks decomposed from user stories (C). Option A is false because the Sprint Backlog is not just a subset; it includes the plan for delivery. Option D is false because the Sprint Backlog is owned by the Development Team, not the Product Owner. Option E is false because the Sprint Backlog can be changed during the Sprint by the Development Team as needed.

Answer

It is a subset of the Product Backlog.

Answer

It is owned by the Product Owner.

Answer

It cannot be changed during the Sprint.

Question 11

A construction project manager, Maria, is overseeing the building of a bridge. The project has a fixed budget and schedule. During the execution phase, the quality audit reveals that the concrete used does not meet the specified strength requirements. The concrete supplier insists that the concrete meets industry standards. However, the project specifications require a higher strength grade. Maria must decide on corrective action. What should she do?

Accepted Answer

Stop work and request the supplier to provide concrete that meets the project specifications.. The project specifications are the authoritative requirements. Non-conforming material must be rejected to ensure safety and quality. Maria should stop work and require the supplier to provide concrete that meets the project specifications. Option D is correct. Option A (document and proceed) ignores the issue. Option B (revise specifications) is inappropriate as the specifications were established based on design requirements. Option C (accepting the concrete) violates specifications.

Answer

Document the situation in the issue log and proceed with construction.

Answer

Revise the project specifications to match the delivered concrete's strength.

Answer

Accept the concrete as is because it meets industry standards.

Question 12

Which TWO practices are part of the Scrum framework?

Accepted Answer

Sprint Review. The correct answers are B (Sprint Review) and D (Sprint Retrospective). These are two of the five formal events defined in the Scrum Guide. Sprint Review occurs at the end of each Sprint to inspect the Increment and adapt the Product Backlog. Sprint Retrospective is held after Sprint Review to inspect the team's processes and plan improvements. Option A (Pair Programming) is an Extreme Programming (XP) practice, not a formal Scrum event. Option C (Continuous Deployment) is a DevOps practice, not defined in Scrum. Option E (Backlog Refinement) is a common practice in Scrum but is not a time-boxed event in the Scrum Guide; it is considered an ongoing activity.

Answer

Pair Programming

Answer

Continuous Deployment

Answer

Backlog Refinement

Question 13

A team is struggling with frequent requirement changes during a Sprint. The Product Owner keeps adding new items. What should the Scrum Master do?

Accepted Answer

Remind the Product Owner that once a Sprint is planned, no changes are allowed that endanger the Sprint Goal, and help them hold off until the next Sprint.. Once a Sprint is planned, the Product Owner should not add items that would endanger the Sprint Goal. The Scrum Master's role is to protect the Sprint and guide the Product Owner to defer changes to future Sprints. Option A is incorrect because blindly accepting changes disrupts the Sprint. Option B is incorrect because asking the team to work overtime is unsustainable and violates the principle of sustainable pace. Option C is incorrect because increasing the Sprint length breaks the timebox and does not address the root cause.

Answer

Accept the changes as the Product Owner is the voice of the customer.

Answer

Ask the team to work overtime to include the new items.

Answer

Increase the Sprint length to accommodate changes.

Question 14

Which THREE activities are part of the Sprint Planning meeting in Scrum?

Accepted Answer

Selecting which Product Backlog items will be done in the Sprint.. Options A, B, and E are correct. Sprint Planning involves selecting Product Backlog items that will be done in the Sprint (A), defining a Sprint Goal (B), and decomposing selected items into tasks (E). Option C (creating a detailed release plan) is not part of Sprint Planning; release planning is typically a higher-level activity. Option D (estimating the effort of all items in the Product Backlog) is done during Product Backlog refinement, not Sprint Planning.

Answer

Creating a detailed release plan.

Answer

Estimating the effort of all items in the Product Backlog.

Question 15

Which is an effective way to prioritize user stories in a product backlog?

Accepted Answer

Order by business value, risk, and dependencies.. Prioritizing user stories by business value, risk, and dependencies ensures that the most valuable and impactful features are delivered first. Option A (story points) indicates effort or size, not value. Option B (number of tasks) is irrelevant to priority. Option C (creation date) is chronological and does not reflect importance.

Answer

Order by story points.

Answer

Order by the number of tasks in each story.

Answer

Order by the date they were created.

Question 16

A project manager is evaluating a project governance policy in a predictive plan-based methodology. The policy states: Deny changes to project requirements unless the requester is a member of the Change Control Board (CCB). What effect does this policy have?

Accepted Answer

Denies changes from anyone except members of the Change Control Board.. The policy denies a change to project requirements when the requester is NOT a member of the CCB. Thus, it denies changes from anyone outside the CCB, meaning it effectively allows changes only from CCB members. However, the policy is denial-based, not allowance-based, so the correct description is that it denies changes from all except CCB members.

Answer

Denies changes from members of the Change Control Board.

Answer

Allows changes only from members of the Change Control Board.

Answer

Allows changes from any requester.

Question 17

A team using Scrum has a velocity of 30 story points per Sprint. The Product Owner wants to plan for the next release with 150 story points of work remaining. The team is stable. Which release planning approach aligns with agile principles?

Accepted Answer

Plan the first Sprint in detail and forecast the rest using velocity.. It aligns with agile principles of iterative planning and empirical data: plan the first Sprint in detail based on the team's capacity and use velocity to forecast the remaining Sprints, acknowledging that estimates may change. Option B is incorrect because detailed schedules with buffers are a traditional, plan-driven approach. Option C is incorrect because committing to a fixed number of Sprints ignores variability and violates agile's embrace of change. Option D is incorrect because detailed planning for all Sprints upfront is wasteful and contradicts agile's just-in-time planning.

Answer

Create a detailed schedule with buffers.

Answer

Commit to delivering all 150 points in exactly 5 Sprints.

Answer

Plan work in detail for all 5 Sprints now.

Question 18

In Extreme Programming (XP), which practice involves integrating and testing the entire system multiple times per day?

Accepted Answer

Continuous integration. Continuous integration (CI) is the practice of integrating code changes frequently, often multiple times per day, followed by automated testing. Option B (test-driven development) focuses on writing tests before code. Option C (refactoring) is about improving code structure without changing behavior. Option D (pair programming) involves two developers working together on the same code. Only CI involves integrating and testing the entire system multiple times per day.

Answer

Test-driven development

Answer

Refactoring

Answer

Pair programming

Question 19

Refer to the exhibit. What is the total float of activity C?

Accepted Answer

0 days. Activity C has a total float of 0 days because it lies on the critical path. In the network diagram, the critical path is the longest path through the project, and any delay on a critical path activity directly delays the project end date. Since activity C is on the critical path, its total float is zero.

Answer

2 days

Answer

3 days

Answer

1 day

Question 20

Which THREE of the following are commonly used techniques for requirements elicitation?

Accepted Answer

Interviews. Interviews are a direct, one-on-one technique used to elicit requirements from stakeholders by asking structured or unstructured questions. They allow the business analyst to probe deeply into stakeholder needs, clarify ambiguities, and uncover implicit requirements that might not surface in group settings.

Answer

Earned value management

Answer

SWOT analysis