CAPM Predictive Plan-Based Methodologies Practice Test 3 — 15 Questions

Question 1

A project team is troubleshooting a delay in the critical path. The project manager identifies that a non-critical activity has slipped by five days but the project end date remains unchanged. What is the most likely reason for this?

Choose an answer to begin — your selection is scored in the full session.

Accepted Answer

The slipped activity has sufficient total float to absorb the delay without affecting the critical path.. Activities not on the critical path have total float; a slip within that float does not affect the project end date. Option A is incorrect because crashing would compress the schedule to mitigate the delay, which would change the end date or not be needed if float is sufficient. Option C is incorrect: if the slipped activity were on the critical path, the end date would be impacted. Option D is incorrect because fast tracking overlaps activities to compress schedule, but here the delay was absorbed by float without any compression technique applied.

Answer

The team used crashing to accelerate the non-critical activity.

Answer

The slipped activity is actually on the critical path and the end date was recalculated incorrectly.

Answer

The project manager applied fast tracking to overlap the slipped activity with its successor.

Question 2

A project manager is evaluating cost performance using earned value management (EVM). The project has a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.85 and a schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.90. Which conclusion is most appropriate?

Accepted Answer

The project is over budget and behind schedule.. A CPI of 0.85 indicates that for every dollar spent, only $0.85 of value is earned, meaning the project is over budget (cost overrun). An SPI of 0.90 indicates that the project is progressing at 90% of the planned rate, meaning it is behind schedule. Therefore, option D is correct: the project is over budget and behind schedule. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they contradict these EVM interpretations.

Answer

The project is over budget but ahead of schedule.

Answer

The project is behind schedule but on budget.

Answer

The project is under budget and ahead of schedule.

Question 3

A project manager in a predictive manufacturing project needs to procure a specialized component. The procurement process requires a detailed statement of work (SOW) and firm fixed price (FFP) contract. What should the project manager create first?

Accepted Answer

Create the procurement management plan.. According to the PMBOK Guide, the procurement management plan is the first document created in the procurement process. It defines how procurement will be managed, including procedures for developing the statement of work (SOW), conducting make-or-buy analysis, selecting contract types (such as FFP), and managing seller relationships. Without this plan, subsequent procurement activities lack guidance. Option A (developing SOW) occurs after the plan is established. Option B (make-or-buy analysis) is part of planning but is typically conducted during the development of the procurement management plan. Option C (drafting the contract) happens after seller selection, which follows the plan and SOW creation. Therefore, the procurement management plan must be created first to set the framework for all procurement activities.

Answer

Develop the procurement statement of work (SOW).

Answer

Conduct a make-or-buy analysis.

Answer

Draft the contract with the selected seller.

Question 4

During a predictive project's execution phase, a key stakeholder requests a change that adds a minor feature. The project manager assesses the impact and determines the change will increase cost by 5% and extend the schedule by two days, which is within the contingency reserves. What should the project manager do first?

Accepted Answer

Submit a change request to the change control board (CCB).. The change control process requires submitting any change request to the Change Control Board (CCB) for evaluation and approval before implementation, even if the impact is within contingency reserves. Option B is incorrect because the project manager cannot unilaterally approve changes unless explicitly granted that authority. Option C is incorrect because the project charter is a high-level document and is not updated for minor feature changes; such updates are handled through integrated change control. Option D is incorrect because implementing the change without formal approval bypasses the established change control process.

Answer

Approve the change immediately and inform the team.

Answer

Update the project charter to reflect the new feature.

Answer

Implement the change since it is within the contingency reserves.

Question 5

A project manager is creating a risk response plan for a predictive construction project. One risk has a high probability and high impact. The team decides to purchase insurance to cover potential losses. Which risk response strategy is being used?

Accepted Answer

Transfer. Purchasing insurance transfers the financial impact of the risk to a third party (the insurer), which is the definition of the transfer strategy. Option A (Avoid) is incorrect because avoidance eliminates the risk entirely, e.g., by not performing the activity; insurance does not eliminate the risk. Option B (Accept) is incorrect because acceptance means acknowledging the risk and taking no proactive action, often setting aside a contingency reserve; purchasing insurance is an active response. Option C (Mitigate) is incorrect because mitigation reduces the probability or impact of the risk; insurance does not reduce the likelihood or severity of the loss, it only shifts the financial burden.

Answer

Avoid

Answer

Accept

Answer

Mitigate

Question 6

A project team is developing a quality management plan for a predictive software development project. Which tool is most appropriate to identify the root causes of potential defects?

Accepted Answer

Ishikawa diagram. The Ishikawa diagram (fishbone diagram) is used to identify root causes of problems. Option B (Pareto chart) is wrong because Pareto charts prioritize issues based on frequency, not root cause identification. Option C (Flowchart) is wrong because flowcharts map process steps, not root causes. Option D (Control chart) is wrong because control charts monitor process stability over time.

Answer

Pareto chart

Answer

Flowchart

Answer

Control chart

Question 7

A project manager is reviewing the project schedule and sees that Task D depends on the completion of Task C, but Task C can start only after Task B finishes. Task B can start only after Task A. This is an example of which dependency?

Accepted Answer

Sequential dependency. The tasks are linked in a series: A→B→C→D. Option A is wrong because parallel dependency allows tasks to overlap, not sequential. Option C is wrong because lag dependency refers to a delay between tasks, not a sequential chain. Option D is wrong because merge activity is when multiple predecessors converge on a single task, which is not the case here.

Answer

Parallel dependency

Answer

Lag dependency

Answer

Merge activity

Question 8

A project manager is estimating the duration of a task using parametric estimation. Historical data shows that a similar task took 10 hours per unit, and 50 units are required. The team's productivity is expected to be 20% slower due to new team members. What is the estimated duration?

Accepted Answer

600 hours. 10 hours/unit * 50 units = 500 hours. With 20% slower productivity, the total hours = 500 * 1.2 = 600 hours. Option A (400 hours) is wrong because it uses a 20% reduction instead of increase. Option B (550 hours) is wrong because it uses a factor of 1.1 or incorrect calculation. Option C (500 hours) is wrong because it does not account for the 20% slowdown.

Answer

400 hours

Answer

550 hours

Answer

500 hours

Question 9

Which THREE of the following are key components of a work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary?

Accepted Answer

Schedule milestones. The WBS dictionary provides detailed information about each WBS component. Key components include a description of the work package (C), the responsible organization or person (E), and associated schedule milestones (A). Option B is incorrect because the project charter is a separate high-level document authorizing the project, not a component of the WBS dictionary. Option D is incorrect because network diagrams are used for activity sequencing, not typically included in the WBS dictionary.

Answer

Project charter

Answer

Network diagram of activities

Question 10

Which TWO of the following are valid techniques for schedule compression in a predictive project?

Accepted Answer

Fast tracking. Options A and D are correct. Fast tracking involves overlapping activities that would normally be done in sequence, shortening the schedule. Crashing adds resources to critical path activities to reduce duration. Option B is wrong because adding lag increases duration. Option C is wrong because Monte Carlo simulation is a risk analysis technique, not schedule compression. Option E is wrong because resource leveling often lengthens the schedule by balancing resource demand.

Answer

Adding lag

Answer

Monte Carlo simulation

Answer

Resource leveling

Question 11

Which THREE of the following are typically included in a project management plan (as opposed to project documents)?

Accepted Answer

Schedule management plan. The correct answers are A, B, and D. The schedule management plan, scope management plan, and risk management plan are all subsidiary plans that are part of the project management plan. Options C (stakeholder register) and E (issue log) are project documents, not components of the project management plan.

Answer

Stakeholder register

Answer

Issue log

Question 12

Based on the exhibit, what is the critical path duration?

Accepted Answer

15 days. The critical path is the longest path through the network. Path A-B-D-E-G = 3+4+5+2+1 = 15 days. Path A-C-D-F-G = 3+2+5+3+1 = 14 days. Therefore, the critical path duration is 15 days. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the longest path duration.

Answer

16 days

Answer

14 days

Answer

13 days

Question 13

Based on the exhibit, which risk should the project manager prioritize for proactive response?

Accepted Answer

R001. Risk R001 has the highest risk score (0.56), indicating the highest priority for proactive response. Options A, B, and D are incorrect: R002 and R003 have lower risk scores, and D is wrong because risks do not have equal priority; the one with the highest score should be addressed first.

Answer

R002

Answer

R003

Answer

All risks have equal priority.

Question 14

Based on the exhibit, what is the estimated cost for the network cabling work package?

Accepted Answer

$15,000. The WBS dictionary shows Cost: $15,000. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not match the WBS dictionary.

Answer

$20,000

Answer

$12,000

Answer

$10,000

Question 15

A project manager needs to decompose the project scope into smaller, more manageable components to provide a framework for detailed planning. Which technique should the project manager use?

Accepted Answer

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is the tool used to decompose scope into work packages. Option A is wrong because the RACI matrix is for responsibility assignment, not decomposition. Option B is wrong because the Critical Path Method (CPM) is for schedule analysis, not decomposition. Option D is wrong because the Gantt chart is for scheduling, not decomposition.

Answer

RACI matrix

Answer

Critical Path Method (CPM)

Answer

Gantt chart