CAPM Predictive Plan-Based Methodologies — 40 Questions

Question 1

Based on the exhibit, what is the critical path duration of the project?

Accepted Answer

12 days. The critical path is the longest path through the project network diagram, determining the shortest possible project duration. Based on the exhibit, Path A→B→E→G→H has a total duration of 2+3+4+2+1 = 12 days. Other paths, such as A→B→D→E (11 days) and A→C→F→H (10 days), are shorter. Therefore, 12 days is the correct critical path duration.

Answer

10 days

Answer

11 days

Answer

13 days

Question 2

Based on the schedule network shown in the exhibit, what is the critical path?

Accepted Answer

A-B-C-D-E. The critical path is the longest path through the network. Path A-B-D-E takes 5+3+2+1=11 days. Path A-B-C-E takes 5+3+4+1=13 days. Path A-B-C-D-E takes 5+3+4+2+1=15 days. Path A-C-D-E takes 5+4+2+1=12 days. Since 15 days is the longest duration, the critical path is A-B-C-D-E, which corresponds to option C.

Answer

A-B-D-E

Answer

A-B-C-E

Answer

A-C-D-E

Question 3

Refer to the exhibit. If activity B is delayed by 2 days, what is the new total project duration?

Accepted Answer

17 days. The original project duration is 15 days, with the critical path being A→C→E→F. Activity B is on a path (B→D→F) that also has a duration of 15 days, meaning B has zero float. Therefore, a 2-day delay to B extends its path to 17 days, which becomes the new critical path. Hence, the new total project duration is 17 days.

Answer

16 days

Answer

19 days

Answer

15 days

Question 4

A project manager is developing the project schedule for a construction project. The team has identified all activities and their dependencies. Which tool should the project manager use to determine the critical path?

Accepted Answer

Critical path method (CPM). The Critical Path Method (CPM) is the correct tool because it calculates the longest path through the project network diagram by analyzing activity durations and dependencies, identifying which activities have zero float and thus determine the project's minimum completion time. The question specifically asks for determining the critical path, which is the core output of CPM, not just visualizing or estimating durations.

Answer

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Answer

Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)

Answer

Gantt chart

Question 5

During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a change that will increase the project scope. The project manager evaluates the impact and determines it will require additional budget and time. What should the project manager do first?

Accepted Answer

Submit a change request to the change control board. In predictive (waterfall) project management, any change that impacts scope, budget, or schedule must follow a formal change control process. The project manager first assesses the impact, then submits a change request to the Change Control Board (CCB) for approval before any action is taken. Implementing the change or updating baselines without CCB approval violates the control scope process defined in the PMBOK Guide.

Answer

Implement the change and update the project plan

Answer

Update the project baseline immediately

Answer

Reject the change because it impacts the baseline

Question 6

A project manager is estimating activity durations for a software development project. The team has historical data from similar projects, but the current project involves new technology that could cause delays. Which estimating technique should the project manager use to account for uncertainty?

Accepted Answer

Three-point estimating. Three-point estimating (C) is correct because it explicitly accounts for uncertainty by using optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates. The new technology introduces unknown risks, making the triangular or PERT distribution ideal for modeling the potential delay range.

Answer

Parametric estimating

Answer

Analogous estimating

Answer

Bottom-up estimating

Question 7

A project manager is creating the risk management plan. Which document should the project manager reference to identify the risk tolerance of stakeholders?

Accepted Answer

Project charter. The project charter contains high-level project risks and the risk appetite of the organization, which reflects stakeholders' risk tolerance. Therefore, it is the appropriate document to reference when creating the risk management plan.

Answer

Project scope statement

Answer

Stakeholder management plan

Answer

Risk register

Question 8

During project planning, the team identifies that a task has a duration of 10 days, a predecessor finish-to-start relationship, and a lag of 2 days. What is the earliest the successor task can start if the predecessor starts on day 1?

Accepted Answer

Day 12. The predecessor starts on day 1 and has a duration of 10 days, so its early finish is day 10 (assuming no gaps). With a finish-to-start relationship and a lag of 2 days, the successor's early start is the predecessor's early finish plus the lag: 10 + 2 = 12. Therefore, the earliest the successor can start is day 12.

Answer

Day 11

Answer

Day 10

Answer

Day 13

Question 9

Which TWO of the following are outputs of the Define Activities process? (Select exactly 2.)

Accepted Answer

Activity attributes. The Define Activities process is part of Project Schedule Management and produces the activity list and activity attributes as its primary outputs. The activity list identifies all scheduled activities, while activity attributes provide metadata such as predecessors, resources, and constraints. These outputs are essential for further schedule development.

Answer

Work breakdown structure

Answer

Project schedule

Answer

Risk register

Question 10

Which THREE of the following are tools and techniques used in the Control Schedule process? (Select exactly 3.)

Accepted Answer

Performance reviews. Performance reviews (B) are a tool and technique in the Control Schedule process used to compare actual schedule performance against the baseline, often through earned value management (EVM) metrics like schedule variance (SV) and schedule performance index (SPI). This helps identify deviations and trigger corrective actions.

Answer

Rolling wave planning

Answer

Critical path method

Question 11

A project manager is developing the project schedule for a construction project. The team has identified that the foundation work must be completed before the framing can begin. Which type of dependency does this represent?

Accepted Answer

Mandatory dependency. The dependency between foundation work and framing is a mandatory dependency because it is physically required that the foundation be completed before framing can begin. In construction, this is a hard logic constraint inherent in the nature of the work, not a preference or external factor. Mandatory dependencies are often referred to as 'hard logic' and are typically based on contractual requirements or physical limitations.

Answer

Lead

Answer

Discretionary dependency

Answer

External dependency

Question 12

During the execution phase of a software development project, the team discovers a critical bug that requires an immediate fix. The project manager uses the contingency reserve to address this. Which plan-based process is being applied?

Accepted Answer

Perform Integrated Change Control. D is correct because using the contingency reserve to address a critical bug requires a formal change request to authorize the release of funds from the reserve. This aligns with the Perform Integrated Change Control process, which evaluates, approves, and manages changes to project baselines, including the cost baseline. The project manager must submit a change request, which is then reviewed by the Change Control Board (CCB) before the contingency reserve can be applied.

Answer

Direct and Manage Project Work

Answer

Monitor and Control Project Work

Answer

Close Project or Phase

Question 13

A project manager is reviewing the project's cost performance. The actual cost (AC) is $50,000, the earned value (EV) is $45,000, and the planned value (PV) is $60,000. What is the cost variance (CV)?

Accepted Answer

-$5,000. Cost variance (CV) is calculated as EV minus AC. Here, EV = $45,000 and AC = $50,000, so CV = $45,000 - $50,000 = -$5,000. A negative CV indicates the project is over budget, which matches option C.

Answer

$5,000

Answer

-$15,000

Answer

$10,000

Question 14

A project manager is creating the project schedule. The team estimates that the optimistic time for an activity is 10 days, the pessimistic time is 30 days, and the most likely time is 15 days. Using PERT three-point estimation, what is the expected duration?

Accepted Answer

16.67 days. The PERT three-point estimate formula is (Optimistic + 4×Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 6. Plugging in the values: (10 + 4×15 + 30) / 6 = (10 + 60 + 30) / 6 = 100 / 6 = 16.67 days. This weighted average gives more influence to the most likely estimate, reflecting a beta distribution.

Answer

18.33 days

Answer

20.00 days

Answer

15.00 days

Question 15

Which TWO of the following are characteristics of a predictive life cycle?

Accepted Answer

Scope is defined at the beginning of the project. In a predictive life cycle, the project scope is defined and baselined at the start, before execution begins. This upfront planning ensures that all requirements are known and documented, allowing for a detailed project management plan to guide the entire project.

Answer

Changes are welcomed and incorporated at any time

Answer

Requirements are gathered incrementally throughout the project

Answer

Deliverables are developed through multiple iterations

Question 16

Which THREE of the following are tools and techniques used in the Control Schedule process?

Accepted Answer

Variance analysis. Variance analysis is a tool and technique in the Control Schedule process because it compares planned schedule performance (e.g., baseline dates) against actual results to identify deviations. It uses metrics like Schedule Variance (SV) and Schedule Performance Index (SPI) from earned value management to quantify schedule health and trigger corrective actions.

Answer

Cost-benefit analysis

Answer

Reserve analysis

Question 17

A project manager is planning a project and needs to identify all the work required to complete the project successfully. Which document is the primary output of the Create WBS process?

Accepted Answer

Scope baseline. The Create WBS process decomposes the project scope into manageable work packages, and its primary output is the scope baseline. The scope baseline consists of the project scope statement, the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), and the WBS dictionary, which together define all the work required to complete the project successfully.

Answer

Project charter

Answer

Requirements traceability matrix

Answer

Work performance data

Question 18

A project manager is developing a work breakdown structure (WBS) for a software development project. The team is struggling with defining the lowest-level work packages. Which technique should the project manager use to ensure the WBS is complete and properly decomposed?

Accepted Answer

Decomposition. Decomposition is the correct technique because it is the process of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work package level is reached. This directly addresses the team's struggle with defining the lowest-level work packages, ensuring the WBS is complete and properly decomposed by breaking down deliverables iteratively.

Answer

Critical path method

Answer

Expert judgment

Answer

Rolling wave planning

Question 19

During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a change that will increase the project scope. The project manager evaluates the impact and determines it will require additional budget and time. What is the first step the project manager should take?

Accepted Answer

Submit a change request to the change control board. In predictive (waterfall) project management, any change that impacts scope, budget, or schedule must follow the formal integrated change control process. The project manager's first step after evaluating the impact is to submit a change request to the change control board (CCB) for approval or rejection. This ensures that all changes are documented, assessed for risks, and aligned with the project baseline before implementation.

Answer

Reject the change due to budget and time constraints

Answer

Implement the change and document it later

Answer

Approve the change because the stakeholder is key

Question 20

A project manager is using a predictive approach for a construction project. The team has completed 40% of the work, but the actual cost is $500,000 against a planned value of $450,000. The project manager calculates the cost performance index (CPI) and schedule performance index (SPI). Which conclusion is correct?

Accepted Answer

The project is over budget and behind schedule. The project has completed 40% of the work, so the earned value (EV) is 40% of the total budget. With actual cost (AC) of $500,000 and planned value (PV) of $450,000, the CPI = EV/AC = (0.4 * BAC)/500,000. Since AC > PV and EV < PV (because only 40% of work is done vs. 45% planned), both CPI and SPI are less than 1.0, indicating the project is over budget and behind schedule.

Answer

The project is over budget but ahead of schedule

Answer

The project is on budget and on schedule

Answer

The project is under budget and ahead of schedule