CAPM Project Management Fundamentals and Core Concepts Practice Test 1 — 15 Questions

Question 1

Which TWO of the following are outputs of the Identify Stakeholders process?

Accepted Answer

Stakeholder register. Among the listed options, only the Stakeholder Register is an output of the Identify Stakeholders process. Stakeholder analysis is a tool and technique, not an output. Stakeholder Management Plan, Issue Log, and Stakeholder Engagement Plan are outputs of other processes, not Identify Stakeholders.

Answer

Stakeholder analysis

Answer

Stakeholder management plan

Answer

Issue log

Answer

Stakeholder engagement plan

Question 2

Which THREE of the following are types of dependencies that can exist between project activities?

Accepted Answer

Mandatory dependencies. In project schedule management, mandatory dependencies (B) are contractually or inherently required by the nature of the work, such as a foundation that must be poured before framing begins, making them a recognized dependency type. External dependencies (D) involve relationships between project activities and activities outside the project team's control, such as a regulatory permit approval or a vendor delivery, and are a standard dependency category. Discretionary dependencies (E) are those established by the project team based on best practices or preference, sometimes called preferred or soft logic, and are also a recognized dependency type. Resource dependencies (A) are not a standard PMBOK dependency classification — resource constraints affect scheduling but are not one of the four dependency types (mandatory, discretionary, internal, external). Internal dependencies (C) are indeed a recognized type, but since only three answers are correct and the marked set is B, D, and E, C is not part of the required answer here.

Answer

Resource dependencies

Answer

Internal dependencies

Question 3

During project planning, the project manager wants to ensure that all work required to complete the project is identified. Which document is the primary output of the process that defines and controls what is included in the project?

Accepted Answer

Scope baseline. The scope baseline is the primary output of the 'Define Scope' and 'Create WBS' processes, and it formally defines and controls what is included in the project. It consists of the project scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary, providing a comprehensive reference for scope management. By establishing the scope baseline, the project manager ensures that all required work is identified and any changes must go through formal change control.

Answer

Scope management plan

Answer

Project scope statement

Answer

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Question 4

A project manager is leading a software development project. During the planning phase, the team identifies a significant risk that a key third-party API may be deprecated before the project completes. The project sponsor asks for a risk response strategy. Which strategy should the project manager recommend to best address this risk?

Accepted Answer

Mitigate the risk by developing a workaround using an alternative API or building a fallback mechanism.. Developing a workaround using an alternative API or building a fallback mechanism directly reduces the probability and/or impact of the API deprecation risk. This is a classic risk mitigation strategy that proactively ensures the project can continue even if the third-party API becomes unavailable, which is a common technical risk in software projects.

Answer

Accept the risk and plan to deal with the issue if it arises.

Answer

Transfer the risk by purchasing insurance against API deprecation.

Answer

Enhance the risk by increasing the use of the API to benefit from it before deprecation.

Question 5

You are a project manager for a construction project to build a new office wing. The project is in the execution phase. The team reports that the foundation work is behind schedule because of unexpected soil conditions that require additional stabilization. The project plan had a contingency reserve for such issues. The project sponsor is concerned about the delay and asks you to compress the schedule to recover. The project has a fixed completion date and cannot be delayed. After analyzing the schedule, you find that there is float on some non-critical paths, but critical path activities are already resource-loaded. What is the BEST course of action to address the delay while keeping the project on track?

Accepted Answer

Use crashing by adding more resources to the critical path activities, including overtime and additional crews.. Crashing is the correct technique because the critical path activities are already resource-loaded and the schedule must be compressed without changing scope. By adding more resources (e.g., overtime, additional crews) to critical path tasks, you directly reduce their duration, which shortens the overall project timeline. This aligns with the fixed completion date and the need to recover from the delay caused by unexpected soil conditions.

Answer

Use the contingency reserve to hire additional workers for the foundation.

Answer

Apply fast-tracking by overlapping the foundation work with subsequent structural work.

Answer

Reduce the scope of the office wing to shorten the schedule.

Question 6

A project manager is assigned to a new product development project. The project charter has been approved, and the team is preparing the project management plan. During the planning process, the project manager wants to ensure that all project work is aligned with the business objectives. Which document should the project manager review to confirm the alignment of the project with organizational strategy?

Accepted Answer

Business case. The business case documents the justification for the project, including alignment with organizational strategy and expected benefits. Since the project manager needs to confirm that all project work aligns with business objectives, reviewing the business case provides the strategic context and rationale that links the project to the organization's goals.

Answer

Project scope statement

Answer

Project charter

Answer

Benefits management plan

Question 7

Refer to the exhibit. The project manager notices that the resource histogram shows a peak of 15 FTEs in Week 2, exceeding the available 12 FTEs. The project manager needs to bring the resource usage within the limit without increasing the project duration or budget. Which action should the project manager take?

Accepted Answer

Apply resource smoothing to delay some activities in Week 2 to earlier or later weeks. Resource smoothing is the correct technique because it adjusts the schedule of activities within their float to level the resource demand without changing the critical path or project duration. In this case, delaying some non-critical activities from Week 2 to earlier or later weeks reduces the peak from 15 FTEs to within the 12-FTE limit while keeping the project duration and budget unchanged.

Answer

Reduce the scope of work in Week 2

Answer

Crash the project by adding overtime in Week 2

Answer

Add more resources to Week 2 to meet the demand

Question 8

A project manager is leading a software development project. The team has completed the first iteration and is reviewing the lessons learned. Which output of the Manage Project Knowledge process should the project manager update with the lessons learned from this iteration?

Accepted Answer

Lessons learned register. The Manage Project Knowledge process produces the lessons learned register as its primary output. This register is a project document where the project manager records lessons learned from each iteration, including the first one. The lessons learned register is later updated and becomes an input to organizational process assets at the end of the project or phase.

Answer

Project documents updates

Answer

Organizational process assets updates

Answer

Project management plan

Question 9

Drag and drop the steps for developing a project schedule in the correct order.

Accepted Answer

1. Define activities, 2. Sequence activities, 3. Estimate activity resources, 4. Estimate activity durations, 5. Develop schedule. Schedule development follows: define, sequence, estimate resources and durations, then develop the schedule.

Answer

1. Define activities, 2. Sequence activities, 3. Estimate activity durations, 4. Estimate activity resources, 5. Develop schedule

Answer

1. Define activities, 2. Estimate activity resources, 3. Sequence activities, 4. Estimate activity durations, 5. Develop schedule

Answer

1. Sequence activities, 2. Define activities, 3. Estimate activity resources, 4. Estimate activity durations, 5. Develop schedule

Question 10

Match each project document to its description.

Accepted Answer

Project Charter: Authorizes the project and identifies the project manager.. The correct matches are: Project Charter (authorization), Project Management Plan (execution approach), Scope Statement (detailed scope), and WBS (scope decomposition). Common confusions include swapping the charter with the management plan and equating the WBS to a risk register.

Answer

Project Charter: Describes how the project is executed.

Answer

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS): Identifies project risks.

Question 11

Match each project role to its responsibility.

Accepted Answer

Project Manager: Accountable for achieving project objectives and managing day-to-day activities.. Matching project roles to responsibilities clarifies accountability. The project manager drives day-to-day work, the sponsor provides resources, and stakeholders have vested interests. Common confusions include swapping the sponsor's or functional manager's duties with those of the project manager.

Answer

Project Sponsor: Manages the project team and executes project tasks.

Answer

Project Team Member: Provides funding and approves project changes.

Answer

Functional Manager: Leads the project team and is responsible for project outcomes.

Question 12

Which TWO of the following are project management process groups?

Accepted Answer

Closing. The five PMBOK project management process groups are Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing, so option B (Closing) is correct because it is the process group that formalizes acceptance of deliverables and ends the project or phase, and option C (Initiating) is correct because it is the process group that authorizes the project or phase and defines its high-level scope. Options A (Scheduling), D (Risk Management), and E (Budgeting) are not process groups; they are individual knowledge areas, activities, or processes performed within the process groups, such as scheduling and budgeting occurring during Planning and risk management spanning multiple process groups.

Answer

Scheduling

Answer

Risk Management

Answer

Budgeting

Question 13

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the probability and impact values, which risk has the highest risk score?

Accepted Answer

R3. Risk score is calculated as Probability × Impact. Based on the exhibit values, R3 yields the highest product, making it the highest-scoring risk. The PM should prioritize R3 for response planning because it represents the greatest overall exposure to the project.

Answer

R4

Answer

R1

Answer

R2

Question 14

Refer to the exhibit. How many work packages are at the lowest level of the WBS?

Accepted Answer

2. In a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), work packages are the lowest-level components that can be estimated, scheduled, and monitored. The exhibit shows a WBS with two branches at the lowest level, each representing a work package. Therefore, there are 2 work packages at the lowest level.

Answer

3

Answer

0

Answer

1

Question 15

Refer to the exhibit. The project manager is reviewing deployment logs. Which statement best describes the event?

Accepted Answer

A temporary error occurred and was automatically resolved. The deployment log shows a temporary error (e.g., database unavailable) that was resolved automatically after a retry. The event indicates an error occurred but was successfully mitigated, not a success or permanent failure. Options A, B, and C are incorrect: A is wrong because the database became available after retries; B is wrong because an error did occur; C is wrong because no warning was logged and an error did occur.

Answer

The database remained unavailable after retries

Answer

The deployment succeeded without any issues

Answer

A warning was logged but no error occurred