PMP Process — Managing Technical Aspects Practice Question
Your project is using a predictive approach. A key vendor has informed you that they will be unable to deliver a critical component on time, which could delay the project by three weeks. You have identified this risk in the risk register. What should you do first?
Answer choices
Why each option matters
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
✓
Implement the risk response plan that was documented in the risk register
The risk was already identified and documented in the risk register with a response plan. Since the risk has materialized, the project manager should implement the pre‑planned risk response. Option A is incorrect because escalating to the sponsor without first executing the planned response bypasses proper risk management. Option B is incorrect; simply updating the register and monitoring is insufficient when the risk is occurring. Option C is incorrect because it bypasses the established risk management process by having the team find an ad‑hoc workaround without consulting the documented response.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
- ✗
Escalate the issue to the project sponsor immediately without taking any action
Why it's wrong here
Escalating to the sponsor without taking action bypasses the risk response process defined in the risk register; the correct first step is to analyse the risk and select a response strategy (e.g., fast-tracking or crashing) within the project manager’s authority. This option is tempting because escalation is appropriate when a risk exceeds the project manager’s authority or requires sponsor-level decisions, such as a budget increase beyond the contingency reserve.
- ✗
Update the risk register and continue monitoring, as the risk was expected
Why it's wrong here
This option is incorrect because merely updating the risk register and continuing to monitor is insufficient when an identified risk has actually occurred. While updating the register is a necessary administrative step *after* taking action, the immediate priority is to *implement* the pre-planned risk response. Passive monitoring is for risks that have not yet materialized or for tracking the effectiveness of a response, not for the initial action when a known risk eventuates.
- ✗
Ask the team to find a workaround without consulting the risk register
Why it's wrong here
This option is incorrect because workarounds are ad-hoc responses developed for *unidentified* or *unplanned* risks that suddenly materialize. For an *expected* risk, a specific risk response strategy should have been developed and documented in the risk register during planning. Bypassing the risk register and immediately seeking a workaround for a known risk demonstrates a failure to leverage prior planning and established risk management processes.
- ✓
Implement the risk response plan that was documented in the risk register
Why this is correct
This option is correct because when an identified and expected risk materializes, the project manager's immediate and primary responsibility is to execute the pre-defined risk response plan. This proactive approach, documented in the risk register, ensures that the project team leverages prior analysis and planning to mitigate the impact, control the situation, and maintain project objectives, aligning with structured risk management principles.
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Same concept, more angles
1 more way this is tested on PMP
These questions test the same concept from different angles. Work through them to make sure you can recognise it however the exam phrases it.
Variation 1. Your project is using a predictive approach. A key vendor notifies you that they will be unable to deliver a critical component for another four weeks. This component is on the critical path, and you have no schedule reserve left. You have identified that a different vendor can deliver in two weeks at a 20% higher cost. What should you do FIRST?
hard- A.Immediately contract the alternative vendor to avoid further delay
- ✓ B.Perform a quantitative analysis comparing the cost of the alternative vendor versus the cost of delay, then submit a change request
- C.Ask the original vendor to expedite delivery at no extra cost
- D.Update the risk register and accept the four-week delay
Why B: In a predictive (waterfall) project with no schedule reserve and a critical path delay, the first step is to perform a quantitative analysis to compare the cost of the alternative vendor (20% higher) against the cost of schedule delay (e.g., liquidated damages, lost revenue, or penalties). This analysis provides objective data to support a change request, which is the formal process to alter the project baselines. Option B aligns with the PMBOK Guide's emphasis on data-driven decision-making before taking corrective action.
JA
Written by Johnson Ajibi, MSc IT Security
Senior Network & Security Engineer · founder of Courseiva
This PMP practice question is part of Courseiva's free PMI certification practice question bank. Courseiva provides original exam-style practice questions with explanations, topic-based practice, mock exams, readiness tracking, and study analytics to help learners prepare for the PMP exam.