The correct first step is to implement the fallback plan or contingency reserves as defined in the risk register. This is because the risk has materialized and the primary risk response—outsourcing to the vendor—has failed, meaning the project manager must immediately activate the pre-planned alternative response documented during risk planning. The PMBOK Guide emphasizes that when a risk occurs and the primary response is no longer viable, the fallback plan or contingency reserves are the authorized next action to mitigate impact. On the PMP exam, this scenario tests your understanding of the Implement Risk Responses process and the distinction between a fallback plan (used when the primary response fails) and a workaround (used for unplanned risks). A common trap is to jump into problem-solving with the vendor or escalate prematurely, but the correct protocol is to follow the documented risk register. Remember the mnemonic: “Risk hits, primary flops? Fallback drops.”
PMP People — Leading Projects Practice Question
This PMP practice question tests your understanding of people — leading projects. Read the scenario carefully and evaluate each option against the stated constraints before committing to an answer. After answering, compare your reasoning against the explanation and wrong-answer breakdown below. Once you have made your selection, read the full explanation to reinforce the concept and understand why each distractor is designed to mislead on exam day.
A risk that was identified and in the risk register has occurred. The risk response plan involves outsourcing a component, but the vendor is now unable to deliver on time. What should the project manager do FIRST?
Clue words in this question
Noticing these words before you look at the options changes how you read each choice.
Clue: "first"
Why it matters: Order matters here. You are being tested on which action comes before the others — not which action is generally useful.
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
✓
Implement the fallback plan or contingency reserves as defined in the risk register
Option A is correct because the risk has materialized and the risk response plan (outsourcing) has failed. The project manager must immediately execute the pre-defined fallback plan or use contingency reserves as documented in the risk register. This aligns with the PMBOK Guide's guidance on implementing risk responses when the primary response is no longer viable.
Key principle: Answer the scenario, not the keyword: identify the specific constraint before choosing the most familiar-sounding option.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
✓
Implement the fallback plan or contingency reserves as defined in the risk register
Why this is correct
The risk register should have a contingency plan for such scenarios.
Clue confirmation
The clue word "first" in the question point toward this answer.
Related concept
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
✗
Wait to see if the vendor can resolve the issue
Why it's wrong here
Waiting may cause further delays.
✗
Escalate the issue to the project sponsor for guidance
Why it's wrong here
The PM should first implement the planned response.
✗
Reassign the work to an internal team
Why it's wrong here
This may not follow the planned risk response.
Common exam traps
Common exam trap: answer the scenario, not the keyword
The trap here is that candidates confuse 'implement the fallback plan' with 'escalate to sponsor,' but the PMBOK Guide emphasizes that the project manager should first use the pre-defined risk responses before escalating, as escalation is reserved for risks outside the project manager's authority.
Detailed technical explanation
How to think about this question
The risk register typically includes a risk owner, primary response, fallback plan, and contingency reserves (time or budget). When the primary response fails, the fallback plan is triggered automatically, not as a secondary decision. In practice, this could involve activating a pre-qualified backup vendor or using contingency reserves to expedite delivery, ensuring the project stays within the defined risk thresholds.
KKey Concepts to Remember
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
Find the constraint that changes the correct option.
Eliminate answers that are true in general but not in this case.
TExam Day Tips
→Watch for words such as best, first, most likely and least administrative effort.
→Review why wrong options are wrong, not only why the correct option is correct.
Key takeaway
Answer the scenario, not the keyword: identify the specific constraint before choosing the most familiar-sounding option.
Real-world example
How this comes up in practice
A practitioner preparing for the PMP exam encounters this exact type of scenario on the job. The correct answer here is not the most general option — it is the best answer for the specific constraint described. Answer the scenario, not the keyword: identify the specific constraint before choosing the most familiar-sounding option. Real exam questions reward reading the full scenario before eliminating options, because the constraint defines which answer fits.
Related glossary terms
Concepts from this question explained
These glossary pages explain the core terms tested in this PMP question in full detail.
People — Leading Projects — This question tests People — Leading Projects — Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer..
What is the correct answer to this question?
The correct answer is: Implement the fallback plan or contingency reserves as defined in the risk register — Option A is correct because the risk has materialized and the risk response plan (outsourcing) has failed. The project manager must immediately execute the pre-defined fallback plan or use contingency reserves as documented in the risk register. This aligns with the PMBOK Guide's guidance on implementing risk responses when the primary response is no longer viable.
What should I do if I get this PMP question wrong?
Identify which exam domain this question belongs to, review the core concept, then practise similar questions from the same domain.
Are there clue words in this question I should notice?
Yes — watch for: "first". Order matters here. You are being tested on which action comes before the others — not which action is generally useful.
What is the key concept behind this question?
Read the scenario before looking for a memorised answer.
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Question Discussion
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