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Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2026 Architect Associate (1Z0-1072-26) (1Z0-1072-26) (1Z0-1072-26) — Questions 376–404

404 questions total · 6 pages · All types, answers revealed

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376
MCQmedium

You are configuring a FastConnect virtual circuit using the Oracle provider model. You have completed the setup in the OCI Console and received an Oracle Industry Partner token (OCID). What is the next step you must take?

A.Configure the token as the BGP ASN on your on-premises router.
B.Attach the token directly to the instance security list.
C.Paste the token into the OCI VCN route table settings.
D.Provide the Oracle Industry Partner token to your FastConnect provider so they can complete the provisioning from their network.
AnswerD

When utilising the Oracle provider model for FastConnect, provisioning is split between the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Console and the telecommunications partner's management plane. Having generated the Oracle Industry Partner token (OCID) within the OCI console, you must share this unique identifier with your designated network service provider. This satisfies the architectural constraint of the provider-managed workflow, allowing the external partner to reference the exact OCI circuit configuration and complete the Layer 2 or Layer 3 provisioning from their side.

Why this answer

In the Oracle provider model for FastConnect, after creating the virtual circuit in the OCI Console, OCI generates an Oracle Industry Partner token (OCID). The customer must give this token to the FastConnect provider so the provider can complete the cross-connect provisioning on their network. The token is the handoff artifact between OCI and the partner.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that the partner token is a network configuration value (ASN, route, or security rule) rather than a handoff identifier for the provider.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the token is not a BGP ASN — BGP ASN is a separate value configured on the on-premises router and in the virtual circuit, unrelated to the partner token. Option B is wrong because security lists are VCN firewall rules and have nothing to do with FastConnect provisioning tokens. Option C is wrong because route tables control VCN traffic routing, not FastConnect partner provisioning; pasting the token there does nothing.

377
MCQeasy

When you create a new OCI tenancy, what is the name of the default top-level compartment created automatically by Oracle?

A.MasterCompartment
B.Tenancy root (or the root compartment)
C.RootComp
D.Default-Tenant
AnswerB

Creating a tenancy automatically generates the root compartment, named after the tenancy itself, which sits at the top of the compartment hierarchy. Every other compartment nests beneath it, and tenancy-level policies are attached here, satisfying the question's requirement for the default top-level compartment.

Why this answer

When an OCI tenancy is created, Oracle automatically creates a top-level compartment known as the tenancy root or root compartment. It shares the tenancy's name and serves as the default container for all resources until administrators create additional compartments.

Exam trap

The trap is inventing a specific product-style name (MasterCompartment, RootComp, Default-Tenant) when OCI simply calls it the root compartment or tenancy root.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'MasterCompartment' is not an OCI term; it is a fabricated name that does not exist in OCI. Option C is wrong because 'RootComp' is not the official name; the correct term is the root compartment or tenancy root. Option D is wrong because 'Default-Tenant' is not an OCI construct; the default top-level compartment is the root compartment, not a separately named tenant.

378
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are valid verbs used in OCI IAM policy statements? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.manage
B.write
C.delete
D.execute
E.inspect
AnswersA, E

The `manage` verb acts as a comprehensive permission set within OCI IAM, granting users the ability to perform all operations on a specific resource type, including the creation, deletion, and modification of associated components. By satisfying the requirement to identify a valid verb for policy statements, this option provides the highest level of administrative control available in the OCI authorisation model. Unlike the granular access controls found in Microsoft Entra ID, this verb encapsulates all CRUD actions, ensuring full lifecycle management of the targeted cloud resources.

Why this answer

In OCI IAM policy statements, the verb defines the level of access granted on a resource-type, and the valid verbs are inspect, read, use, manage. Option A (manage) is correct because it is the highest-level verb, granting full control including create, read, update, and delete on the specified resources. Option E (inspect) is correct because it is the lowest-level verb, allowing a user to list resources without accessing their contents or metadata beyond basic listing.

Option B (write) is not a valid OCI IAM policy verb; write-style permissions are covered by manage or use depending on the resource. Option C (delete) is not a standalone verb in OCI policies; deletion is included within manage. Option D (execute) is not a valid OCI IAM policy verb; execution of functions or instances is granted via use or manage.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the specific set of valid OCI IAM policy verbs, and candidates frequently confuse them with CRUD operations or other cloud providers' verbs like 'write' or 'delete'.

379
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE features are supported by OCI Load Balancer?

Select 3 answers
A.TCP layer 4 load balancing
B.Automatic packet filtering like a Next-Gen Firewall
C.HTTP/HTTPS layer 7 load balancing
D.SSL termination
E.Direct database query routing without backend compute instances
AnswersA, C, D

OCI Load Balancer provides native support for TCP layer 4 load balancing, which satisfies the requirement for handling non-HTTP traffic. By operating at the transport layer, the service performs packet forwarding based on source and destination IP addresses and ports without inspecting application-layer data. This mechanism ensures efficient routing for protocols such as database connections or custom binary streams, allowing administrators to balance traffic across backend sets while maintaining high availability for services that do not necessitate layer 7 application-aware processing.

Why this answer

OCI Load Balancer supports TCP layer 4 load balancing (option A) because it can distribute raw TCP traffic based on IP address and port without inspecting application-layer content, which is the defining behavior of a Layer 4 load balancer. It also supports HTTP/HTTPS layer 7 load balancing (option C), allowing it to route requests based on HTTP headers, paths, hostnames, and cookies, and to perform health checks at the application layer. SSL termination (option D) is supported because the load balancer can decrypt incoming TLS/SSL traffic at the listener and forward plaintext or re-encrypted traffic to backend servers, offloading certificate processing from the backends.

Option B is incorrect because OCI Load Balancer is not a Next-Gen Firewall and does not perform automatic packet filtering or deep packet inspection like a security appliance. Option E is incorrect because OCI Load Balancer distributes traffic to backend compute instances (or backend sets), not directly to database query engines, and it has no native database query routing capability.

380
MCQhard

You need to increase the size of an existing Block Volume. What is the correct procedure?

A.Snapshot and clone
B.Use the 'Resize' action in the console
C.Delete and recreate the volume
D.Attach a second volume and mirror
AnswerB

Selecting the 'Resize' action within the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure console triggers an online volume expansion, which satisfies the requirement to increase the size of an existing Block Volume without necessitating a detachment or service interruption. This mechanism updates the volume's metadata and backend storage allocation dynamically. Once the console operation completes, you must manually extend the file system on the attached compute instance to utilise the newly available capacity, ensuring the operating system recognises the expanded logical block device.

Why this answer

You can increase the size of a volume without detaching it, then expand the file system on the OS.

381
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE protocols are supported for Notifications subscriptions?

Select 3 answers
A.SNMP
B.Email
C.HTTPS
D.PagerDuty
E.FTP
AnswersB, C, D

Email serves as a primary delivery mechanism for OCI Notifications, satisfying the requirement for supported subscription protocols by enabling asynchronous message distribution to end-users. When an event triggers a notification, the service dispatches an SMTP-based message directly to the configured recipient address. This integration ensures that administrators receive critical alerts without requiring custom API polling. Furthermore, it functions seamlessly alongside other supported protocols like HTTPS and PagerDuty, providing a reliable communication channel that remains independent of Microsoft Entra ID authentication constraints.

Why this answer

Notifications supports Email, PagerDuty, and HTTPS.

382
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following actions can be performed using OCI Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE)? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Upgrading the Kubernetes control plane version independently of worker nodes
B.Running serverless container instances without any Kubernetes pod orchestration
C.Directly modifying the underlying Linux kernel parameters of the OKE-managed control plane master nodes
D.Automatically resizing worker node pools based on pod resource demands using the Cluster Autoscaler
E.Configuring node pools across multiple fault domains or availability domains
AnswersA, D, E

OCI Container Engine for Kubernetes decouples the control plane lifecycle from the worker node pools, allowing administrators to initiate version upgrades for the API server and scheduler independently. This architectural separation satisfies the requirement for granular cluster management, enabling users to maintain control plane stability while performing rolling updates on worker nodes. By leveraging this independent upgrade mechanism, operators can ensure compatibility with specific Kubernetes versions and security patches without forcing an immediate, synchronous update across the entire compute infrastructure.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because OKE decouples control plane and node pool versioning: you can upgrade the managed control plane (e.g., via `oci ce cluster update` or the console) to a newer Kubernetes version while worker nodes remain on their current version until you separately upgrade each node pool. Option D is correct because OKE supports the Kubernetes Cluster Autoscaler, which watches for unschedulable pods and scales node pools up or down within configured min/max sizes to match pod resource demands. Option E is correct because OKE node pools can be spread across multiple fault domains within an availability domain (and across availability domains in multi-AD regions) by specifying placement/subnet configuration, improving resilience.

Option B is not an OKE capability: OKE orchestrates containers as Kubernetes pods, whereas serverless containers without pod orchestration are provided by OCI Container Instances or OCI Functions. Option C is not possible because the OKE-managed control plane master nodes are fully managed by Oracle; customers cannot SSH into or alter kernel parameters on those master nodes.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the boundary between OKE and other OCI container services — the trap is selecting 'serverless containers without orchestration' because OKE sounds like it should run containers, but that is Container Instances/Functions, not OKE.

383
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following operations are supported by OCI Vault in the context of storage?

Select 3 answers
A.Encryption of Block Volumes
B.Encryption of Object Storage
C.Encryption of ephemeral storage
D.Encryption of compute memory
E.Encryption of File Storage
AnswersA, B, E

OCI Vault integrates seamlessly with the Block Volume service to facilitate data-at-rest protection through the use of Customer-Managed Keys. By leveraging the Key Management Service, administrators can assign a master encryption key to a specific volume, ensuring that all data blocks are encrypted using the Advanced Encryption Standard. This mechanism satisfies the storage operation constraint by providing a centralised, hardware-backed security layer for persistent block storage, a functionality distinct from identity-based access control systems like Microsoft Entra ID.

Why this answer

Encrypting buckets, block volumes, and file systems.

384
MCQmedium

You have deployed an OCI Function and invoked it, but it returns a timeout error. What is the maximum execution timeout limit supported by OCI Functions?

A.Infinite
B.900 seconds (15 minutes)
C.60 seconds
D.3600 seconds (1 hour)
AnswerB

OCI Functions enforces a strict execution timeout limit of 900 seconds, which directly addresses the timeout error encountered in the scenario. When a function exceeds this 15-minute threshold, the OCI platform terminates the process to prevent runaway resource consumption. This constraint is a fundamental architectural boundary for serverless workloads within the environment. Developers must ensure that long-running tasks are offloaded to alternative services, such as OCI Data Integration or OCI Container Instances, to remain within this defined execution window.

Why this answer

OCI Functions enforces a maximum execution timeout of 900 seconds (15 minutes) per function invocation. This limit is set at the function configuration level and cannot be exceeded, regardless of the function's runtime or resource allocation. When a function runs longer than the configured timeout, the invocation is terminated and returns a timeout error, which is exactly what occurred in the scenario.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the distinction between default and maximum limits for serverless services, causing candidates to confuse the default timeout (often 60 seconds) with the maximum allowed (900 seconds) or to assume cloud functions can run indefinitely.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because OCI Functions does not support infinite execution; all invocations are bounded by a configurable timeout with a hard maximum. Option C is wrong because 60 seconds is the default timeout for many serverless platforms (and possibly the default in OCI Functions), but it is not the maximum allowed. Option D is wrong because 3600 seconds (1 hour) exceeds the actual maximum of 900 seconds; OCI Functions does not permit timeouts longer than 15 minutes.

385
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE network components must be correctly configured in a VCN to allow an application instance in a private subnet to connect to an Autonomous Database with a private endpoint?

Select 3 answers
A.Security lists or network security groups allowing traffic on port 1522
B.DNS configuration to resolve the private IP address of the database endpoint
C.An Internet Gateway attached to the private subnet
D.A Public Load Balancer fronting the private IP address
E.A subnet designated for the Autonomous Database private endpoint
AnswersA, B, E

Security lists or network security groups must explicitly permit ingress and egress traffic on port 1522 to satisfy the connectivity constraint imposed by the private endpoint architecture. Since the Autonomous Database resides within a private subnet, the stateful or stateless firewall rules act as the primary gatekeepers, ensuring that the application instance can successfully establish a TCP connection to the database listener. Without these specific rules, the VCN's default security posture would block the necessary traffic, preventing the application from reaching the database resource.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because the Autonomous Database private endpoint listener accepts connections on TCP port 1522, so the security list or NSG applied to the application subnet (and the ADB endpoint subnet) must permit ingress/egress on port 1522 between the application instance and the database endpoint. Option B is correct because the application must resolve the private endpoint's hostname to its private IP; this requires proper DNS configuration, typically via the VCN resolver and, for private endpoints, the private DNS zone/record associated with the ADB endpoint. Option E is correct because a private endpoint for Autonomous Database must reside in a subnet within the VCN (often a dedicated subnet), and that subnet must be properly designated and configured so the endpoint is reachable from the application's private subnet.

Option C is incorrect because an Internet Gateway is only for public internet traffic and is not required for private subnet-to-private endpoint communication. Option D is incorrect because a Public Load Balancer is not needed and would not provide the private connectivity path to the ADB private endpoint.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that an Internet Gateway or a Public Load Balancer is required for private connectivity, when in fact private endpoints are accessed directly within the VCN without public exposure.

386
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO statements are true regarding OCI IAM policy evaluation behavior? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.There are no explicit 'Deny' rules in OCI IAM policy grammar.
B.Tenancy root policies always override and cancel compartment-level policies.
C.Explicit deny statements take precedence over all allow statements.
D.Policy evaluation stops immediately upon encountering the first matching statement.
E.If multiple policies apply, permissions are cumulative (additive).
AnswersA, E

OCI IAM policies function exclusively through additive permissions, meaning they only grant access rather than restricting it. Unlike Microsoft Entra ID, which incorporates explicit deny assignments to override existing permissions, the OCI grammar lacks a deny construct entirely. Consequently, the evaluation logic relies solely on the union of all applicable allow statements. This architectural constraint ensures that security posture is defined strictly by the presence of positive authorisation, simplifying policy management by eliminating the complex conflict resolution required when explicit denials are present.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because OCI IAM policy grammar only supports 'Allow' statements (e.g., 'Allow group X to manage instance in compartment Y'); there is no 'Deny' verb in the policy syntax, so access is never explicitly denied by a policy statement. Option E is correct because OCI IAM evaluates all applicable policies and the resulting permissions are additive — if any policy grants a permission, the user has it, and multiple grants simply accumulate rather than one overriding another. Option B is wrong because tenancy root policies do not cancel compartment-level policies; policies at any level are combined additively, and a root-level policy can grant access that compartment policies also grant.

Option C is wrong because there are no explicit deny statements in OCI IAM, so nothing can take precedence over allows in that manner. Option D is wrong because OCI does not stop at the first matching statement; it evaluates all policies that apply to the request and unions the allowed permissions.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that OCI IAM supports explicit deny or that root policies override compartment policies — candidates coming from AWS assume a deny-overrides model that does not exist in OCI.

387
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO components are required when defining an OCI dynamic group matching rule for compute instances? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.A user password hash
B.A logical wrapper operator (ALL or ANY)
C.Matching criteria enclosed in curly braces {}
D.An API signing key fingerprint
E.A VCN security list ID
AnswersB, C

The ALL or ANY operator determines whether every or just one condition in the rule must match, so it is mandatory syntax. Without it, OCI cannot evaluate multiple matching criteria, making the rule invalid for identifying compute instances.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because every OCI dynamic group matching rule must begin with a logical wrapper operator, either ALL (all criteria must be true) or ANY (at least one criterion must be true), which governs how the enclosed conditions are evaluated. Option C is correct because the matching criteria themselves must be enclosed in curly braces {}, for example 'ALL {instance.compartment.id = "ocid1.compartment..."}', which delimits the rule body that OCI IAM parses. Option A is not part of a dynamic group rule; password hashes are irrelevant to instance principal authentication and are never used in matching rules.

Option D is also unrelated, since API signing key fingerprints apply to user API-key authentication, not to compute instance principals. Option E is incorrect because a VCN security list ID is a networking construct and is not a valid attribute in a dynamic group matching rule.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing dynamic group matching rule syntax with other OCI authentication mechanisms — candidates must recall that the rule requires a logical operator and curly-braced criteria, not user credentials or network identifiers.

388
MCQhard

An enterprise customer has a Hybrid cloud architecture. They need to connect their on-premises datacenter to multiple VCNs in different OCI regions using a single dedicated connection. Which OCI component must be used as the central transit hub?

A.NAT Gateway
B.Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG)
C.Local Peering Gateway (LPG)
D.Internet Gateway
AnswerB

A Dynamic Routing Gateway acts as the regional transit hub, terminating the FastConnect virtual circuit and routing traffic to attached VCNs. Critically, DRG route tables support inter-region routing via remote peering or DRG attachments, satisfying the requirement to reach multiple VCNs across different OCI regions through one dedicated connection.

Why this answer

The Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) is OCI's virtual router that acts as the single transit hub between on-premises networks and multiple VCNs, including VCNs in different regions. A single FastConnect or IPSec connection terminates on the DRG, and the DRG can be attached to many VCNs across regions, enabling transitive routing. This is exactly the central transit hub role described in the question.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates confuse the DRG with the LPG — both are 'gateways' but only the DRG supports on-premises connectivity and cross-region transit, while the LPG is strictly intra-region VCN-to-VCN peering.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a NAT Gateway only provides outbound internet access for instances in a private subnet — it cannot connect on-premises networks to VCNs. Option C is wrong because a Local Peering Gateway (LPG) only peers two VCNs within the same region and cannot connect to on-premises or across regions. Option D is wrong because an Internet Gateway provides inbound/outbound internet connectivity for public subnets, not dedicated private connectivity to an on-premises datacenter.

389
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE statements regarding OCI VCN DNS and Hostname resolution are correct?

Select 3 answers
A.Instances in a VCN can resolve each other using their assigned hostnames.
B.Public DNS zones cannot be hosted on OCI.
C.The VCN Resolver can forward DNS queries to on-premises DNS servers.
D.You can create custom private DNS zones and associate them with your VCN.
E.OCI requires you to deploy external bind DNS servers for basic VCN hostname resolution.
AnswersA, C, D

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure provides an integrated DNS resolver that automatically manages internal hostname resolution within a Virtual Cloud Network. By assigning a unique hostname to each virtual network interface card, the platform enables instances to communicate using these labels rather than relying solely on private IP addresses. This mechanism satisfies the requirement for seamless intra-VCN connectivity, functioning independently of external identity providers like Microsoft Entra ID, as the OCI-native resolver maintains the authoritative records for all instances provisioned within the specified subnet.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because OCI's VCN Resolver automatically provides internal DNS resolution, allowing instances within a VCN to resolve each other by their assigned hostnames (e.g., instance FQDN in the vcn.oraclevcn.com domain) without any additional DNS infrastructure. Option C is correct because the VCN Resolver supports forwarding rules that send DNS queries for specific domains to on-premises DNS servers, enabling hybrid DNS resolution over FastConnect or VPN. Option D is correct because OCI allows you to create custom private DNS zones (via the DNS service) and associate them with one or more VCNs, so instances can resolve custom internal names.

Option B is wrong because OCI fully supports hosting public DNS zones through the OCI DNS service. Option E is wrong because OCI provides built-in VCN hostname resolution via the VCN Resolver; deploying external BIND servers is not required for basic resolution.

390
MCQhard

If you detach a Block Volume, what happens to the data?

A.Data is lost if not backed up
B.Data remains intact
C.Data is encrypted for migration
D.Data is deleted
AnswerB

Detaching a block volume in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure simply unmounts the storage from the compute instance without triggering a deletion process. Because the volume exists as a persistent, independent resource decoupled from the lifecycle of the virtual machine, the underlying data blocks remain stored within the storage pool. This mechanism ensures that the volume satisfies the constraint of data persistence, allowing the storage to be reattached to a different instance or re-mounted later without any loss of information.

Why this answer

The correct answer is B because detaching a Block Volume in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) is a non-destructive operation. The data on the volume persists independently of its attachment state; the volume is simply disassociated from the instance. The data remains intact and can be reattached to the same or a different instance later.

This is a fundamental characteristic of block storage, which provides persistent, durable storage separate from compute lifecycle.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the persistence of block storage; candidates may confuse detach with delete, or assume that detaching requires backup to avoid data loss, which is incorrect.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because detaching a Block Volume does not cause data loss; data loss would only occur if the volume itself were deleted or if the underlying storage failed, which is mitigated by OCI's durability. Option C is wrong because detaching does not trigger encryption for migration; encryption is a separate configuration (OCI Block Volumes are encrypted by default at rest, but detaching does not change encryption state). Option D is wrong because detaching does not delete data; deletion is a separate, explicit action (e.g., terminating the volume).

391
MCQmedium

You are managing an Oracle Base Database System and need to configure automated backups to retain backups for a custom period (e.g., 60 days). Where can you configure this retention period?

A.By modifying retention rules on Object Storage lifecycle policies
B.In the DB system backup configuration settings within the OCI Console
C.Backup retention is fixed at 30 days and cannot be modified.
D.By editing the 'init.ora' parameter file using SQL*Plus
AnswerB

Retention is set per DB system under Backup Configuration in the OCI Console, where the retention period field accepts values from 1 to 60 days. This directly satisfies the stem's 60-day custom retention requirement, since the setting applies to the Base Database System's automated backups rather than individual manual backups.

Why this answer

For Oracle Base Database Service (DB Systems) on OCI, the backup retention period is configured directly in the DB system's backup configuration settings in the OCI Console (or via CLI/SDK). You can set a custom retention period (e.g., 60 days) when enabling automatic backups, and this value is stored as part of the DB system's backup policy. This is a native OCI-level configuration, not something managed through Object Storage lifecycle rules or database initialization parameters.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between OCI-level backup retention settings and database-level RMAN retention policies, or mistakenly assuming Object Storage lifecycle rules control backup retention.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Object Storage lifecycle policies govern the lifecycle of objects in a bucket (e.g., tiering to Archive, deletion after N days) and are not the mechanism used to set the DB system's backup retention period; the DB service manages backup retention independently and may store backups in a service-owned bucket. Option C is wrong because the retention period is not fixed at 30 days — Oracle Base Database Service allows you to configure a custom retention period (from 1 to 3650 days) when enabling automatic backups. Option D is wrong because init.ora parameters control database instance behavior (e.g., memory, processes) and have no bearing on OCI-level backup retention; RMAN retention policies are separate and not configured via init.ora.

392
MCQeasy

Which OCI service feature enables you to automatically create identical compute instances based on an instance configuration and adjust the pool size based on demand?

A.Instance Pools and Autoscaling
B.Dedicated Virtual Machine Hosts
C.Compute Cluster Placement Groups
D.Managed File Storage
AnswerA

Instance Pools provision identical compute instances from an instance configuration, and autoscaling adjusts the pool size automatically in response to demand metrics. This satisfies the requirement for both template-driven consistency and elastic capacity, which standalone instance creation cannot deliver.

Why this answer

Instance Pools combined with Autoscaling Configurations allow you to manage groups of identical instances and scale them automatically.

393
MCQmedium

You have an OKE cluster and want to expose multiple HTTP and HTTPS microservices running in your cluster externally using a single public IP address and path-based routing. Which OCI native component should you deploy?

A.Internet Gateway directly attached to worker node pods
B.Service Gateway
C.OCI Network Load Balancer
D.OCI Load Balancer with Kubernetes Ingress Controller
AnswerD

The OCI Load Balancer integrates with the Kubernetes Ingress Controller, which watches Ingress resources and programs path-based routing rules onto a single flexible load balancer. This exposes multiple HTTP and HTTPS microservices through one public IP, meeting the stated requirement natively.

Why this answer

OCI Load Balancer or Native Ingress Controller integrated with OCI Load Balancer allows you to route external traffic to different Kubernetes services based on paths or hostnames.

394
MCQmedium

You are managing an Oracle Base Database System and need to secure data at rest by using your own encryption keys rather than Oracle-managed keys. Which OCI service must you integrate with the database?

A.Oracle Cloud Guard
B.OCI Vault (Key Management Service)
C.Identity and Access Management (IAM) Policies
D.OCI Object Storage Server-Side Encryption
AnswerB

Integrating OCI Vault allows you to satisfy the requirement of using customer-managed keys instead of Oracle-managed keys for Transparent Data Encryption. By leveraging the Key Management Service, you maintain full control over the lifecycle of the master encryption keys stored within a FIPS 140-2 Level 3 hardware security module. This integration enables the database to perform cryptographic operations using your own keys, ensuring that you retain sovereignty over the data-at-rest protection mechanism rather than relying on default provider-managed infrastructure.

Why this answer

To use customer-managed encryption keys for data at rest on an Oracle Base Database System, you must integrate with OCI Vault (Key Management Service). OCI Vault stores and manages the master encryption keys, and the database uses them to encrypt datafiles, backups, and other storage. This satisfies compliance requirements that mandate customer-controlled keys rather than Oracle-managed keys.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing access control with encryption — candidates pick IAM policies because they think 'securing data' means permissions, but customer-managed encryption keys specifically require OCI Vault (KMS).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Oracle Cloud Guard is a security posture management and threat detection service, not a key management service; it does not provide encryption keys. Option C is wrong because IAM policies control access and authorization, not encryption key material — they cannot encrypt data at rest. Option D is wrong because OCI Object Storage Server-Side Encryption applies to Object Storage buckets, not to Base Database System datafiles, and it does not let you bring your own keys for database storage.

395
MCQmedium

Your team needs to allow a group of developers to read logs in the Logging service across all compartments, but you want to ensure they cannot modify or delete any logging resources. Which of the following IAM policy verbs should you use?

A.Manage
B.Read
C.Use
D.Inspect
AnswerB

The Read verb grants permission to view logging resources and their contents without allowing creation, modification, or deletion, which require Manage or Use. This precisely satisfies the stem's constraint that developers read logs across all compartments while being unable to alter any logging resources.

Why this answer

The 'read' verb in OCI IAM grants permission to view or list a resource but explicitly excludes the ability to create, update, or delete it. Since the requirement is to let developers view logs across all compartments without modifying or deleting logging resources, 'read' is the precise least-privilege verb. It maps to the GET/LIST operations on the logging-family resource types.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the IAM verb hierarchy by offering 'inspect' and 'read' side by side; candidates pick 'inspect' thinking it means read-only, but 'inspect' only lists resources and cannot read their contents.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'manage' is a superset verb that includes create, update, and delete permissions, violating the least-privilege requirement. Option C is wrong because 'use' grants the ability to work with existing resources (for example, attaching or invoking them) and is typically used for compute or network resources, not for read-only log access. Option D is wrong because 'inspect' is a limited verb that allows listing resources but not reading their contents, so developers could see that a log exists but not read the log entries themselves.

396
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE are characteristics of Object Storage lifecycle rules?

Select 3 answers
A.Automated execution
B.Supports database commands
C.Real-time trigger
D.JSON-based configuration
E.Name-based filtering
AnswersA, D, E

Lifecycle rules operate as an automated background process within Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage, eliminating the need for manual intervention to manage data retention. By defining policies based on object age or prefix, the service autonomously transitions data to archive tiers or deletes expired objects. This mechanism directly satisfies the requirement for automated execution, ensuring that storage costs are optimised and data governance policies are enforced consistently without requiring administrators to manually trigger scripts or perform recurring management tasks.

Why this answer

JSON-based, filterable by name, and target-specific actions.

397
MCQmedium

You are managing an Oracle Base Database System (Virtual Machine) and need to scale up the compute shape to a higher number of OCPUs to handle an upcoming month-end processing spike. Which action should you perform?

A.Terminate the current DB system and provision a new one with the larger shape, then restore from a manual backup.
B.Stop the database instance via SQL*Plus and run the 'alter system modify shape' command.
C.Edit the DB system configuration in the OCI Console and update the OCPU count or shape directly.
D.Attach an additional block storage volume with higher performance tiers to absorb the extra compute load.
AnswerC

Oracle Base Database System on Virtual Machine shapes are scaled by editing the DB system and changing the OCPU count or shape, which resizes the underlying compute without redeployment. This satisfies the month-end spike requirement.

Why this answer

For an Oracle Base Database System (VM), you can scale the compute shape by editing the DB system configuration in the OCI Console, which allows you to change the OCPU count or select a different shape. This operation can be performed online or may require a brief restart depending on the change, but it does not require terminating and recreating the system.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming that scaling requires a rebuild or that it can be done via SQL commands, when in fact OCI provides a direct console/API operation for shape changes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because terminating and recreating the DB system with a restore from backup is a disruptive and unnecessary approach when a direct scaling operation is available. Option B is wrong because 'alter system modify shape' is not a valid SQL*Plus command; shape changes are managed through OCI APIs or Console, not SQL. Option C is correct.

Option D is wrong because attaching additional block storage addresses storage capacity and performance, not compute (OCPU) scaling, and does not increase the number of OCPUs available to the database.

398
MCQmedium

You are designing an OCI VCN and need to configure DNS so that instances can resolve custom internal domain names as well as internet domain names. Which OCI VCN Resolver feature should you utilize?

A.Internet Gateway DNS proxy
B.Service Gateway name server
C.NAT Gateway DNS translation
D.VCN Resolver custom forwarders
AnswerD

Custom forwarders let the VCN Resolver send queries for specific internal domains to your own DNS servers while still resolving internet names, satisfying both requirements. Internet Resolver alone handles only public names; private views serve OCI-assigned hostnames.

Why this answer

The OCI VCN Resolver supports custom forwarders, which let you forward DNS queries for specific domains to your own DNS servers (for example, on-premises or third-party resolvers) while still resolving internet names through the VCN resolver. This is the feature that satisfies resolving both custom internal domain names and public internet domains from the same VCN. You configure forwarding rules that match the internal domain and point to the target nameserver IPs.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between routing gateways and DNS features, tricking candidates into choosing a gateway option when the requirement is specifically about DNS forwarding.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an Internet Gateway is a routing component for public traffic and does not provide DNS proxy or forwarding functionality. Option B is wrong because a Service Gateway provides private access to Oracle services and is not a name server for custom domain resolution. Option C is wrong because a NAT Gateway provides outbound internet access and does not perform DNS translation or forwarding for internal domains.

399
MCQeasy

Which command-line interface tool is used for managing core OCI infrastructure such as compute instances, VCNs, and block volumes?

A.kubectl
B.docker
C.fn
D.oci CLI
AnswerD

The OCI CLI serves as the primary command-line interface tool designed specifically to interact with the OCI REST APIs, enabling comprehensive management of core infrastructure resources like compute instances, VCNs, and block volumes. By providing a unified syntax for these services, it satisfies the stem’s constraint for a tool capable of handling foundational infrastructure components. Unlike browser-based consoles or external identity providers like Microsoft Entra ID, this tool executes direct programmatic requests to the OCI control plane to automate and manage complex cloud environments efficiently.

Why this answer

The OCI CLI is the official command-line interface for managing core OCI infrastructure, including compute instances, VCNs, block volumes, and other services. It provides a comprehensive set of commands that map directly to OCI REST APIs, enabling automation and scripting. Unlike other tools, it is specifically designed for OCI resource management.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between service-specific CLI tools (like kubectl for Kubernetes, fn for Functions) and the general-purpose OCI CLI for core infrastructure management.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because kubectl is the Kubernetes command-line tool for managing containerized applications on Kubernetes clusters, not OCI infrastructure. Option B is wrong because docker is a containerization platform for building and running containers, not for managing cloud infrastructure. Option C is wrong because fn is the command-line tool for Oracle Functions (serverless), which is a specific service, not core infrastructure management.

400
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE components are required when establishing a Site-to-Site VPN connection between your on-premises datacenter and an OCI VCN?

Select 3 answers
A.Internet Gateway attached to the private subnets
B.IPSec Connection between the CPE and the DRG
C.Local Peering Gateway (LPG)
D.Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) attached to the VCN
E.Customer-Premises Equipment (CPE) object in OCI
AnswersB, D, E

Establishing an IPSec connection between the Customer Premises Equipment (CPE) and the Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) is essential for creating the encrypted tunnel required by the stem. This component satisfies the requirement for a secure, site-to-site communication path by encapsulating traffic between the on-premises network and the OCI VCN. Without this specific logical link, the infrastructure cannot facilitate the routing of packets across the public internet, thereby failing to establish the necessary connectivity between the two distinct datacenter environments.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because the IPSec Connection is the actual tunnel resource in OCI that links the on-premises CPE to the DRG, carrying encrypted traffic over the internet using IKE/IPSec. Option D is correct because a Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) must be attached to the VCN to serve as the OCI-side termination point for the Site-to-Site VPN and to route traffic to and from the on-premises network. Option E is correct because the Customer-Premises Equipment (CPE) object is an OCI representation of the on-premises VPN device (its public IP and routing/BGP details) and is a mandatory input when creating the IPSec connection.

Option A is incorrect because an Internet Gateway is used for public subnet internet access, not for Site-to-Site VPN termination, and the VPN attaches to the DRG instead. Option C is incorrect because a Local Peering Gateway connects VCNs within the same region and has no role in connecting an on-premises datacenter to OCI.

Exam trap

The trap is thinking an Internet Gateway is needed for VPN traffic, or confusing Local Peering Gateway with the DRG — candidates mix up intra-region VCN peering with on-premises IPSec connectivity.

401
MCQmedium

An administrator needs to allow a group of developers to create and manage File Storage Service (FSS) file systems and mount targets in a compartment named 'FSCompartment'. Which policy statement is correct?

A.Allow group Developers to read storage-systems in tenancy
B.Allow group Developers to manage file-storage-family in compartment FSCompartment
C.Allow group Developers to manage mount-targets in compartment FSCompartment
D.Allow group Developers to use nfs-shares in compartment FSCompartment
AnswerB

Managing file-storage-family in FSCompartment grants the Developers group full control over FSS file systems and mount targets, since that aggregate covers all file-storage resource types. Scoping the statement to FSCompartment satisfies the compartment constraint, and manage supplies the create, update and delete verbs the task requires.

Why this answer

File Storage Service resources (file systems, mount targets, snapshots, replication) are all members of the 'file-storage-family' aggregate resource type in OCI IAM. Granting 'manage file-storage-family' in the target compartment gives the Developers group full lifecycle control over FSS resources there, which is exactly what the administrator needs.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates know the correct aggregate resource type name — 'file-storage-family' — versus plausible-sounding but invalid names like 'mount-targets' or 'nfs-shares'.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'storage-systems' is not a valid FSS resource type in OCI IAM grammar, and 'read' would not grant create/manage permissions anyway. Option C is wrong because 'mount-targets' alone is not the correct aggregate resource type for FSS — the family resource type 'file-storage-family' is required to cover file systems and mount targets together. Option D is wrong because 'nfs-shares' is not a valid OCI IAM resource type for File Storage Service.

402
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting a complex policy evaluation in your tenancy. There are multiple overlapping policies defined at both the tenancy root and various compartment levels. Which principle does OCI IAM follow when evaluating conflicting or overlapping policy statements?

A.OCI policies are additive; if any applicable policy grants access, the user is authorized.
B.Explicit deny statements always take precedence over allow statements.
C.Compartment-level policies take strict precedence, overriding and nullifying tenancy root policies.
D.The most recently created policy overrides all older conflicting policies.
AnswerA

OCI IAM policies are additive: evaluation unions all applicable statements, and access is granted if any statement allows the requested operation. No deny rule overrides a grant, so overlapping policies at root and compartment levels simply accumulate permissions.

Why this answer

OCI IAM policies are additive by design: there is no concept of an explicit 'deny' rule in the policy language. When multiple policies apply to a request, OCI evaluates all of them and grants access if at least one applicable statement allows the action on the resource. This means overlapping policies at the tenancy root and compartment levels simply accumulate permissions rather than conflict in a precedence hierarchy.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates with AWS or Azure IAM experience assume explicit deny always wins, but OCI IAM has no deny statements at all — policies are purely additive allow rules.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because OCI IAM policy syntax does not support explicit 'deny' statements — there is no way to write a deny rule, so the concept of deny taking precedence is inapplicable. Option C is wrong because compartment-level policies do not override or nullify tenancy root policies; policies at all levels are evaluated together and permissions are cumulative. Option D is wrong because OCI does not use creation timestamps or recency to resolve policy conflicts — there is no 'most recent wins' rule in the IAM evaluation engine.

403
MCQmedium

You are designing an OCI VCN and need to ensure that database instances in a private subnet can communicate with backend storage endpoints over the Oracle network backbone. Which gateway should you ensure is attached and routed to?

A.Service Gateway
B.Internet Gateway
C.NAT Gateway
D.Local Peering Gateway
AnswerA

A Service Gateway provides private connectivity to OCI public services, such as Object Storage, without traversing the public internet. By routing traffic through this gateway, database instances residing in a private subnet maintain their isolation while accessing backend storage endpoints over the Oracle network backbone. This configuration satisfies the constraint of ensuring secure, private communication for resources that lack public IP addresses, effectively bypassing the need for a NAT gateway or public internet exposure for these specific service-bound requests.

Why this answer

Service Gateway provides private access to Oracle services like Object Storage across the Oracle network backbone.

404
MCQhard

You are migrating a legacy application to OCI. The application requires a specific network interface card (NIC) virtualization mode and custom UEFI boot parameters that are not standard. Where should you configure these custom launch options?

A.Inside the VCN Security List configurations
B.Via the compute instance's operating system kernel parameters
C.In the Custom Image launch options settings
D.In the Instance Configuration template parameters
AnswerC

Custom image launch options let you specify the NIC virtualisation mode and UEFI boot parameters, such as secure boot and firmware settings, when instances launch from that image. This satisfies the non-standard hardware requirements, since these settings cannot be altered on a running instance after launch.

Why this answer

Custom Image launch options in OCI allow you to specify non-standard launch parameters such as NIC virtualization mode (paravirtualized vs. SR-IOV) and custom UEFI boot parameters at image creation time. These settings are baked into the custom image and applied whenever an instance is launched from it, which is exactly what a legacy application requiring specific NIC modes and UEFI parameters needs.

This is the only option that operates at the image/launch layer where such hardware-level boot and NIC settings are defined.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing image-level launch options with runtime OS or network configuration — candidates often pick kernel parameters or security lists because those are the familiar places to 'configure networking,' but NIC virtualization mode and UEFI settings are fixed at image launch time.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because VCN Security Lists are stateless packet filters controlling ingress/egress traffic by IP, port, and protocol — they have no bearing on NIC virtualization mode or UEFI boot parameters. Option B is wrong because OS kernel parameters are configured inside a running guest OS and cannot control the hypervisor-level NIC virtualization mode or UEFI firmware boot behavior. Option D is wrong because Instance Configuration templates are used by Instance Pools to define repeatable instance shapes, images, and metadata for autoscaling — they reference an image but do not themselves define custom NIC/UEFI launch options.

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