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Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2026 Architect Associate (1Z0-1072-26) (1Z0-1072-26) (1Z0-1072-26) — Questions 301–375

404 questions total · 6 pages · All types, answers revealed

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301
MCQmedium

You want to automate the installation of packages and configuration scripts on newly launched compute instances without manual intervention. What OCI feature should you use?

A.Block Volume Attachment scripts
B.VCN Security List rules
C.IAM Instance Principals policy generator
D.Instance User Data (Cloud-init)
AnswerD

Instance User Data leverages the cloud-init framework to automatically execute scripts and install packages upon the initial boot of newly launched compute instances. This mechanism directly satisfies the requirement for zero-touch automation without manual intervention, allowing administrators to pass shell scripts or cloud-init configuration files directly through the OCI API or Console during provisioning.

Why this answer

Instance User Data (Cloud-init) allows you to supply a script or cloud-config that runs automatically on first boot of a compute instance, enabling unattended installation of packages and execution of configuration scripts. This is the standard OCI mechanism for bootstrapping instances without manual intervention. The user data is passed via the instance metadata service and consumed by cloud-init.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing networking or IAM features with bootstrapping — candidates who don't recognize cloud-init's role pick security lists or instance principals because they sound like automation tools.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Block Volume Attachment scripts are not a bootstrapping feature — attaching a block volume is a storage operation and does not run installation or configuration logic on the instance. Option B is wrong because VCN Security List rules control network traffic (ingress/egress), not software installation or configuration. Option C is wrong because IAM Instance Principals are used for granting OCI API access to an instance via dynamic groups, not for automating package installation.

302
MCQmedium

You have a large dataset in Object Storage that needs to be accessed by an on-premises server. What is the most efficient way to access this data via a local file interface?

A.Use Mount Targets
B.Use OCI CLI to download everything
C.Use FastConnect alone
D.Use Storage Gateway
AnswerD

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Storage Gateway satisfies the requirement for a local file interface by providing an on-premises virtual appliance that translates standard NFS or SMB file protocols into OCI Object Storage REST API calls. This directly addresses the stem's constraint of needing file-based access to object storage data from an on-premises server, bridging the protocol gap efficiently by caching frequently accessed data locally while maintaining the complete dataset within Object Storage.

Why this answer

Storage Gateway provides a file-system interface to Object Storage.

303
MCQmedium

You are setting up OCI DNS and want to configure a zone transfer (AXFR) from your on-premises DNS server to OCI Private DNS. Which feature enables secondary DNS functionality in OCI?

A.NAT Gateway port forwarding for DNS ports
B.Internet Gateway DNS proxy
C.OCI DNS Secondary DNS feature with TSIG key authentication
D.Service Gateway DNS resolver
AnswerC

OCI DNS Secondary DNS lets a private zone act as a secondary, pulling transfers from your on-premises primary, which satisfies the AXFR requirement. TSIG key authentication secures that transfer by validating the shared secret between servers, ensuring only your authorised primary can push zone data into OCI.

Why this answer

OCI DNS Secondary DNS enables OCI to act as a secondary DNS provider by transferring zones from an external primary via AXFR/IXFR, authenticated with a TSIG key. This is the feature that supports zone transfers into OCI Private DNS or public DNS zones.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing DNS resolution features (forwarders, resolvers) with DNS replication features (secondary DNS, AXFR, TSIG) — candidates must recognize that zone transfer requires the Secondary DNS feature with TSIG authentication, not a gateway or resolver setting.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because NAT Gateways perform outbound NAT for private subnets and have no port-forwarding or DNS-transfer capability — they cannot receive AXFR traffic. Option B is wrong because an Internet Gateway is a routing construct for public subnets and has no DNS proxy or zone-transfer function. Option D is wrong because a Service Gateway provides private access to OCI services (like Object Storage) from a VCN, not DNS zone transfer or resolver functionality.

304
MCQmedium

You have an OCI alarm that is stuck in the 'Firing' state. What is the most likely cause?

A.The alarm is paused
B.The notification topic is disabled
C.The metric data is still above the threshold
D.The notification frequency is too high
AnswerC

An OCI alarm remains in the 'Firing' state because the underlying metric stream continues to breach the configured threshold defined within the alarm query. The Monitoring service evaluates the metric data points against the specified trigger condition; as long as the incoming data values satisfy the 'greater than' or 'less than' logic, the alarm state persists. This behaviour confirms that the metric has not returned to a normal range, preventing the alarm from transitioning back to the 'OK' state.

Why this answer

If the metric evaluation remains above the threshold, the alarm will stay in the firing state.

305
MCQeasy

Which storage type offers the highest performance for random I/O operations?

A.Archive Storage
B.File Storage
C.Block Volume
D.Object Storage
AnswerC

Block Volume storage utilises high-performance NVMe-based architecture designed for low-latency, high-throughput access, satisfying the demand for high random I/O operations. Unlike object storage, which relies on a flat namespace and HTTP protocols that introduce overhead unsuitable for database transactions, block storage exposes raw storage volumes directly to the operating system. This allows applications to perform fine-grained reads and writes at the block level, ensuring optimal IOPS performance and minimal latency required for intensive transactional workloads.

Why this answer

Block Volume with Ultra High Performance is built for random I/O.

306
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE components are required when configuring an OCI FastConnect direct peering connection?

Select 3 answers
A.Internet Gateway
B.Physical cross-connect or partner provider connection
C.Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG)
D.Local Peering Gateway (LPG)
E.FastConnect Virtual Circuit
AnswersB, C, E

Establishing an OCI FastConnect direct peering connection fundamentally requires either a dedicated physical cross-connect directly terminated at an Oracle-designated Meet-Me Room or a virtual circuit provisioned via an approved FastConnect partner provider. This physical or partner-mediated circuit directly satisfies the architectural requirement for dedicated layer connectivity bypassing the public internet, thereby providing the mandatory transport medium for the peering session.

Why this answer

A FastConnect direct peering connection requires a Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) attached to your VCN, a FastConnect virtual circuit, and a physical cross-connect or partner connection setup.

307
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE services can be used as a destination for the Events service?

Select 3 answers
A.Functions
B.Compute Instance
C.Streaming
D.Notifications
E.Object Storage
AnswersA, C, D

Functions acts as a serverless compute destination, allowing you to trigger custom code execution automatically whenever a specific event occurs within Oracle Cloud Infrastructure. By integrating directly with the Events service, this option satisfies the requirement to route event-driven triggers to scalable, event-driven compute resources. This mechanism enables developers to automate responses to resource state changes or lifecycle events without maintaining persistent infrastructure, providing a seamless bridge between cloud telemetry and programmatic logic.

Why this answer

The Events service supports Functions, Notifications, and Streaming as targets.

308
MCQeasy

Which OCI service allows you to deploy and manage managed Kubernetes clusters without having to administer the underlying control plane nodes?

A.OCI Functions
B.Compute Instance Pools
C.Oracle Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE)
D.Container Instances
AnswerC

Oracle Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE) directly satisfies the requirement to deploy and manage containerised workloads without administrative overhead by fully automating the provisioning, scaling, and patching of the Kubernetes control plane. In this fully managed architecture, Oracle takes responsibility for the underlying master nodes and API server availability, leaving you to focus solely on configuring and scaling worker nodes to run your container images efficiently.

Why this answer

Oracle Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE) is OCI's managed Kubernetes service. OKE provisions and manages the Kubernetes control plane (API server, etcd, scheduler, controller manager) across multiple availability domains, so customers do not administer control plane nodes. Customers manage only worker nodes (or use virtual nodes/serverless).

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the distinction between managed Kubernetes (OKE) and other container services (Container Instances, Functions); candidates may pick Container Instances thinking it provides orchestration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because OCI Functions is a serverless functions (FaaS) platform, not a Kubernetes service. Option B is wrong because Compute Instance Pools manage groups of identical compute instances, not Kubernetes clusters. Option D is wrong because Container Instances runs individual containers without a Kubernetes control plane or orchestration.

309
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE factors should you consider when selecting an OCI Compute shape for an enterprise application? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Specific workload requirements such as local NVMe storage, GPUs, or high-performance networking
B.The requirement that all compute instances must use public IP addresses by default
C.Whether the compute instance can be converted into an Autonomous Database instance
D.The availability of flexible shape configurations to precisely match CPU and memory needs
E.Processor architecture (Intel, AMD EPYC, or ARM Ampere)
AnswersA, D, E

Enterprise applications frequently demand specialised hardware accelerators, ultra-low latency fabric, or high-throughput ephemeral storage to satisfy rigorous performance criteria. When evaluating an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Compute shape, workloads requiring dedicated graphics processing units, direct-attached Non-Volatile Memory Express devices, or RDMA-enabled cluster networks directly dictate the selection of hardware. Choosing a shape tailored to these specific architectural constraints ensures that throughput bottlenecks are eliminated and applications operate at maximum efficiency without resource contention.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because OCI Compute shapes differ in hardware capabilities, and workloads that need local NVMe storage (dense I/O shapes), GPUs (GPU shapes), or high-performance networking (cluster networks/RDMA) must select a shape that provides those features. Option D is correct because OCI flexible shapes let you independently choose OCPUs and memory within supported ranges, so you can right-size an enterprise application instead of over- or under-provisioning with fixed shapes. Option E is correct because OCI offers Intel Xeon, AMD EPYC, and ARM Ampere A1 processors, and the chosen architecture affects performance, cost, and application compatibility.

Option B is not a shape-selection factor because public IP assignment is a networking choice (VCN/subnet and public IP settings), not a property of the compute shape. Option C is not relevant because Autonomous Database is a separate managed database service and a compute instance cannot be converted into one.

Exam trap

The trap is picking plausible-sounding but irrelevant criteria (public IP defaults, Autonomous Database conversion) instead of the three genuine shape-selection dimensions: workload features, flexible sizing, and CPU architecture.

310
MCQhard

You are configuring Data Guard between two Exadata Cloud Service instances across different OCI regions. Which network component is mandatory to facilitate redo transport securely across regional boundaries?

A.OCI API Gateway
B.An Internet Gateway with public IP addresses
C.Remote VCN Peering
D.Local VCN Peering gateway
AnswerC

Remote VCN peering connects the two regional VCNs via an LPG pairing, providing the private IP path redo transport requires. Without it, Data Guard traffic between regions cannot traverse the private network, so this satisfies the cross-region secure transport constraint.

Why this answer

Remote VCN Peering connects VCNs in different OCI regions, providing the private network path needed for Data Guard redo transport between Exadata Cloud Service instances in separate regions. Without it, redo traffic would have to traverse the public internet, which is neither secure nor supported for this use case.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Local VCN Peering with Remote VCN Peering — candidates pick the local option because they overlook the 'different regions' detail, but only Remote Peering spans regions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because OCI API Gateway is an HTTP API management service, not a network transport for database redo. Option B is wrong because an Internet Gateway with public IPs would route redo traffic over the public internet, violating the security requirement and adding latency. Option D is wrong because a Local VCN Peering gateway connects VCNs within the same region only — it cannot span regions.

311
MCQmedium

Your organization uses Oracle Identity Cloud Service (IDCS) federated with OCI. You need to assign an existing IDCS group named 'NetworkAdmins' to manage Virtual Cloud Networks in OCI. What is the proper workflow to achieve this?

A.Assign the NetworkAdmins group directly to the tenancy root compartment via the IDCS console.
B.Write a policy directly referencing the IDCS group name 'NetworkAdmins' with no OCI group mapping.
C.Create a local user in OCI IAM for every member of the IDCS 'NetworkAdmins' group and assign them roles.
D.Map the IDCS group 'NetworkAdmins' to an OCI IAM group, then write an OCI policy allowing that OCI IAM group to manage virtual-network-family in the desired compartment.
AnswerD

Federated IDCS groups cannot hold OCI policies directly; they must be mapped to an OCI IAM group, which then receives the policy granting manage virtual-network-family. This satisfies the stem's requirement to assign NetworkAdmins management of Virtual Cloud Networks.

Why this answer

When OCI is federated with IDCS, IDCS groups must be mapped to OCI IAM groups before OCI policies can reference them. The correct workflow is to map the IDCS group 'NetworkAdmins' to an OCI IAM group, then write an OCI policy granting that OCI IAM group permission to manage virtual-network-family in the desired compartment. This ensures proper authorization and follows OCI's federation model.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming OCI policies can directly reference IDCS groups or that IDCS groups can be assigned to compartments — candidates must remember the required mapping step to OCI IAM groups.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because you cannot assign an IDCS group directly to a compartment via the IDCS console; OCI policies must reference OCI IAM groups. Option B is wrong because OCI policies cannot directly reference IDCS group names; they must reference OCI IAM groups that are mapped to IDCS groups. Option C is wrong because creating local OCI users for each IDCS member defeats the purpose of federation and creates unnecessary administrative overhead and security risks.

312
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of an OCI Service Gateway?

A.To load balance HTTP traffic across backend servers.
B.To provide internet access to public subnets.
C.To privately connect a VCN to Oracle services like Object Storage without using the public internet.
D.To connect on-premises datacenters to cloud subnets.
AnswerC

An Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Service Gateway directly addresses the constraint of routing traffic to regional Oracle services—such as Object Storage—entirely within Oracle's internal backbone network rather than traversing the public internet. By establishing this private pathway, resources residing within a Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) without public IP addresses can securely consume public cloud endpoints while maintaining strict data sovereignty and compliance postures. This specific architectural mechanism ensures that traffic avoids public routing tables and internet gateways altogether, satisfying both security and network optimisation requirements.

Why this answer

A Service Gateway enables private connectivity from a VCN to Oracle services in the Oracle Services Network without traversing the public internet.

313
MCQmedium

When configuring an alarm, what does the 'suppression' feature do?

A.Deletes all historical logs
B.Temporarily stops notifications for the alarm
C.Prevents the resource from scaling
D.Disables all metrics for the resource
AnswerB

Suppressing an alarm temporarily halts the generation of notifications, preventing alert fatigue during planned maintenance or known system instability. By defining a specific duration or condition for this suppression, administrators ensure that the monitoring system does not trigger redundant alerts while the underlying issue is being addressed. This mechanism satisfies the requirement to manage notification flow effectively within Oracle Cloud Infrastructure, ensuring that operational teams are only alerted when actionable events occur, rather than being overwhelmed by persistent noise during scheduled service windows.

Why this answer

Suppression allows you to temporarily disable notifications for an alarm without deleting or disabling the alarm itself.

314
MCQeasy

What is the maximum MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) supported on standard OCI VCN virtual network interfaces (VNICs)?

A.576 bytes
B.9000 bytes (Jumbo Frames)
C.1500 bytes
D.65535 bytes
AnswerB

Standard Oracle Cloud Infrastructure virtual network interfaces natively support an MTU of 9,000 bytes, enabling Jumbo Frames for high-throughput workloads. This directly satisfies the maximum packet size constraint specified in the VCN networking architecture, which allows virtual machines to transmit larger data payloads without fragmentation overhead. By accommodating 9,000-byte frames across the underlying physical network infrastructure, OCI significantly reduces CPU encapsulation overhead and improves network performance for bandwidth-intensive database clustering and storage replication tasks.

Why this answer

Standard OCI VNICs support an MTU of 9000 bytes (Jumbo Frames), as well as the standard 1500 bytes.

315
MCQmedium

You are troubleshooting a web application where users intermittently experience 504 Gateway Timeout errors when connecting via the OCI Public Load Balancer. What is the most common cause related to the load balancer or backend configuration?

A.The Internet Gateway has exceeded its bandwidth limit.
B.The NAT Gateway is blocking incoming HTTP traffic.
C.The VCN route table is missing a default route.
D.Backend servers are taking longer to process requests than the load balancer idle timeout threshold.
AnswerD

When a backend takes longer to respond than the listener's idle timeout, the load balancer closes the connection and returns 504. Raising the idle timeout or optimising backend response time resolves the intermittent timeouts users experience.

Why this answer

A 504 Gateway Timeout from an OCI Public Load Balancer almost always means the backend did not respond within the listener's configured idle/response timeout window. When the LB's idle timeout (default 60 seconds for HTTP listeners) expires before the backend finishes processing, the LB closes the connection and returns 504 to the client. The fix is to raise the idle timeout or optimize backend response time.

Exam trap

The trap is conflating 504 with network-layer failures — candidates often pick routing or gateway options, but 504 specifically points to an application/backend timeout relative to the load balancer's idle timeout setting.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an Internet Gateway does not have a user-visible bandwidth limit that manifests as 504 errors; IGW bandwidth is effectively elastic and would not produce a gateway-timeout response. Option B is wrong because NAT Gateways are for outbound-only traffic from private subnets — they never handle inbound HTTP to a public load balancer, so they cannot cause a 504. Option C is wrong because a missing default route in the VCN route table would break connectivity entirely (connection timeouts or unreachable errors), not produce intermittent 504s from a functioning LB.

316
MCQmedium

Your serverless application built on OCI Functions needs to process events coming from OCI Object Storage when a new file is uploaded. What is the primary mechanism to trigger the function?

A.OCI Events Service
B.Direct polling of Object Storage buckets by the function container
C.Scheduled Cron Jobs in Compute
D.API Gateway direct integration
AnswerA

OCI Events Service is the correct mechanism because it captures the Object Storage lifecycle state change—specifically the `Object Create` lifecycle event—when a new file is uploaded. This directly satisfies the requirement to trigger a serverless function asynchronously based on resource creation, without needing polling or custom daemon architectures, by routing the emitted cloud event payload straight to the function endpoint as an invocation trigger.

Why this answer

OCI Events Service is the native, event-driven mechanism that emits Object Storage events (e.g., ObjectCreated) and routes them to a Functions target via a rule. When a new object is uploaded, the Events rule matches the bucket and event type, then invokes the function with the event payload.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that Functions can poll Object Storage or that API Gateway is the trigger, when the correct native mechanism is OCI Events Service.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because OCI Functions containers are ephemeral and event-driven; they cannot continuously poll Object Storage buckets, and polling would be inefficient and unsupported as a primary trigger. Option C is wrong because scheduled Cron jobs on Compute are time-based, not event-based, and would not react to object uploads. Option D is wrong because API Gateway exposes functions as HTTP endpoints for synchronous invocation; it does not natively subscribe to Object Storage events.

317
MCQhard

You are planning a Disaster Recovery strategy for an Oracle Base Database System using Oracle Data Guard on OCI. You need the standby database to be open in read-only mode for reporting queries while simultaneously applying redo data from the primary database. Which Data Guard mode should you configure?

A.Snapshot Standby
B.Active Data Guard
C.Logical Standby in read-write mode
D.Traditional Physical Standby (Mount mode)
AnswerB

Active Data Guard applies redo to the standby while it remains open read-only, enabling concurrent reporting queries. Standard Data Guard requires the standby to be mounted, so it cannot serve queries during redo apply, failing the stem's requirement.

Why this answer

Active Data Guard enables physical standby databases to be open for read-only queries while performing real-time apply of redo from the primary database.

318
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are valid lifecycle policy actions?

Select 3 answers
A.Delete
B.Archive
C.Abort multipart upload
D.Compress
E.Encrypt
AnswersA, B, C

Object storage lifecycle management policies natively support the permanent removal of data objects to automate capacity optimisation and compliance retention windows. By configuring a deletion rule, administrators satisfy the requirement to purge expired or redundant objects directly from storage buckets without manual intervention. This mechanism evaluates object metadata against defined temporal triggers, ensuring that storage resources are efficiently reclaimed once data reaches the end of its useful lifecycle stage.

Why this answer

Delete, Archive, and aborting multipart uploads are valid.

319
MCQeasy

What is the primary difference between a public subnet and a private subnet in an OCI Virtual Cloud Network?

A.Private subnets require IPv6 addressing.
B.Public subnets have route table rules pointing to an Internet Gateway, while private subnets do not.
C.Private subnets cannot use Security Lists.
D.Public subnets cannot communicate with Oracle Database services.
AnswerB

A public subnet within an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Virtual Cloud Network is explicitly defined by having at least one route table rule that directs outbound traffic destined for 0.0.0.0/0 to an Internet Gateway, thereby satisfying the primary architectural requirement for public accessibility. Conversely, private subnets lack this specific routing configuration, preventing direct communication with the public internet and ensuring that instances residing within them remain isolated from external inbound connections while still permitting internal VCN communication.

Why this answer

Public subnets have a route to an Internet Gateway, allowing instances within them to have public IP addresses and communicate with the public internet. Private subnets do not have routes to an Internet Gateway.

320
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO features are supported by OCI File Storage Service (FSS)? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Block-level multi-attach with read-write access across availability domains
B.Encryption at rest using customer-managed keys in OCI KMS
C.Snapshots for point-in-time recovery
D.Automatic tiering from file storage to Archive Storage
E.Native integration with Block Volume replication policies
AnswersB, C

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure File Storage Service natively integrates with OCI Key Management Service (KMS) to secure file systems using customer-managed master encryption keys. This mechanism directly satisfies the requirement for encryption at rest via customer-managed keys, allowing administrators to maintain complete lifecycle control over the cryptographic material protecting their sensitive file data rather than relying solely on Oracle-managed keys.

Why this answer

OCI File Storage Service supports snapshots for data protection and encryption using customer-managed keys via OCI KMS.

321
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO methods can be used to connect your on-premises datacenter to an OCI Virtual Cloud Network?

Select 2 answers
A.OCI FastConnect
B.Internet Gateway
C.OCI Site-to-Site VPN
D.Service Gateway
E.Local Peering Gateway
AnswersA, C

OCI FastConnect satisfies the requirement to securely link an on-premises datacenter to an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Virtual Cloud Network by establishing a dedicated, high-bandwidth private network connection. Bypassing the public internet entirely, this service utilises either a direct cross-connect via a FastConnect partner or a colocation provider to integrate your local network architecture directly with your cloud resources. This physical or virtual private circuit ensures reliable, predictable throughput with lower latency than standard public internet connections, perfectly fulfilling the high-performance networking constraint specified in the stem.

Why this answer

OCI offers FastConnect for dedicated private connections and Site-to-Site VPN for encrypted IPSec connections over the public internet.

322
MCQhard

You are running a stateful application inside an OKE cluster that requires persistent storage backed by OCI Block Volumes. When a pod is rescheduled to a different worker node due to a node failure, how does the Persistent Volume (PV) behave?

A.The OCI Block Volume CSI driver automatically detaches the volume from the old node and attaches it to the new worker node.
B.You must manually log into the OCI Console, detach the volume, and attach it to the new worker node.
C.The persistent volume is converted to Object Storage automatically.
D.The data is permanently lost because block volumes cannot move across worker nodes.
AnswerA

The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Storage Interface (OCI CSI) driver continuously reconciles the desired state of Kubernetes storage objects with underlying cloud infrastructure APIs. When a pod running a stateful workload is rescheduled following a worker node failure, the CSI driver initiates a detachment workflow on the unresponsive node and immediately issues an attachment request to the new worker node. This seamless volume migration satisfies the stem requirement for automated multi-attach/detach lifecycle management without manual intervention, ensuring the persistent volume remains securely accessible to the newly provisioned pod.

Why this answer

The OCI Block Volume CSI driver integrates with OKE to manage the lifecycle of PersistentVolumes backed by Block Volumes. When a pod is rescheduled to a new node, the CSI driver automatically detaches the volume from the failed node and attaches it to the new node, then mounts it to the pod. This is a core feature of the CSI driver and requires no manual intervention.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests OKE storage behavior — candidates think manual intervention is required or that data is lost, not understanding the CSI driver's automatic detach/attach capability.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because manual detachment in the OCI Console is unnecessary and would break automation; the CSI driver handles this. Option C is wrong because PersistentVolumes are not converted to Object Storage; the backing storage type remains Block Volume. Option D is wrong because Block Volumes can be detached and reattached across nodes in the same availability domain, so data is not lost.

323
MCQmedium

You are planning to deploy a high-performance computing (HPC) cluster on OCI requiring extremely high packet per second (PPS) and ultra-low latency between compute nodes. Which feature must you utilize?

A.NAT Gateway with bandwidth throttling disabled
B.Cluster Networks with RDMA (Remote Direct Memory Access)
C.Public IP addresses on all compute nodes
D.OCI Local Peering Gateway
AnswerB

Cluster Networks with RDMA directly satisfy the strict performance constraints by providing a flat, non-blocking 100 Gbps InfiniBand backbone that delivers ultra-low latency and extremely high packet-per-second (PPS) throughput. By bypassing the operating system kernel and CPU for data transfer, Remote Direct Memory Access allows direct memory-to-memory communication between compute nodes. This capability is essential for tightly coupled high-performance computing workloads that demand deterministic performance without network jitter.

Why this answer

Cluster Networks with RDMA provide a high-bandwidth, ultra-low-latency interconnect specifically designed for HPC workloads on OCI. RDMA allows direct memory-to-memory transfers between compute nodes, bypassing the OS kernel and CPU, which drastically reduces latency and increases packet per second (PPS) throughput. This is the only OCI feature that delivers the required performance for tightly-coupled HPC applications.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that general networking features like NAT Gateway or Local Peering can be tuned for HPC, but only Cluster Networks with RDMA provide the required kernel bypass and ultra-low latency.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a NAT Gateway is used for outbound internet access from private subnets and does not provide low-latency, high-PPS inter-node communication; disabling bandwidth throttling does not address RDMA or kernel bypass. Option C is wrong because public IP addresses are for external connectivity and do not enhance inter-node performance; they add security risks and do not provide RDMA capabilities. Option D is wrong because a Local Peering Gateway connects VCNs within the same region for private traffic, but it does not offer the ultra-low latency and high PPS required for HPC; it is a routing construct, not a high-performance interconnect.

324
MCQhard

Your organization requires that all database traffic originating from OCI subnets to Oracle Autonomous Database bypass the public internet and use private IP paths. You have configured a Service Gateway. What additional configuration is mandatory in the subnet route table?

A.No route table changes are required once the Service Gateway is attached to the VCN.
B.Add a route rule with destination service cidr (e.g. All Services in Oracle Services Network) and target as the Service Gateway.
C.Add a route rule pointing to the Dynamic Routing Gateway.
D.Add a route rule with destination 0.0.0.0/0 and target as the Service Gateway.
AnswerB

A Service Gateway only carries traffic whose route table points at it; without a route rule targeting the gateway for the Oracle Services Network service CIDR, database traffic still egresses via the internet gateway or NAT. Adding that rule forces private IP paths, satisfying the bypass requirement.

Why this answer

To direct traffic to the Service Gateway, the subnet route table must have a route rule where the destination is the Oracle Services Network (or a specific service region prefix) and the target is the Service Gateway.

325
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO storage options are available when provisioning an Oracle Base Database System?

Select 2 answers
A.Google Cloud Persistent Disk
B.Local floppy disk drives
C.Amazon S3 object storage buckets
D.OCI Block Volume storage managed via Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
E.Local NVMe storage (available on specific Bare Metal shapes)
AnswersD, E

Block Volume storage managed via ASM is one of the two supported provisioning choices for Oracle Base Database System, satisfying the question's requirement for available storage options. ASM provides the volume management layer over OCI Block Volumes, delivering the striping, mirroring and redundancy needed for database files.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because Oracle Base Database System on OCI can be provisioned with OCI Block Volume storage that is presented to the database host and managed by Automatic Storage Management (ASM), which is the standard Oracle storage management layer for database files. Option E is correct because certain Bare Metal shapes for Base Database System offer local NVMe storage, which can be used as high-performance direct-attached storage for the database. Options A, B, and C are not valid provisioning choices for Oracle Base Database System: Google Cloud Persistent Disk and Amazon S3 are other cloud providers' services, and local floppy disk drives are obsolete and far too small for database storage.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the supported storage types for Base Database System, and candidates incorrectly select object storage or non-OCI storage options.

326
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following metrics or conditions can trigger an OCI Autoscaling event for an Instance Pool? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.CPU utilization crossing a specified threshold percentage
B.Object Storage bucket upload frequency
C.Database backup completion status
D.VCN route table modification events
E.A predefined schedule based on date and time
AnswersA, E

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Autoscaling explicitly supports performance-based triggers, meaning CPU utilisation crossing a specified threshold percentage directly satisfies the metric-based condition required by the stem. When the aggregate or individual CPU usage of instances within the pool breaches the configured high or low watermark for a sustained duration, the autoscaling service evaluates this metric against predefined rules to programmatically execute scale-out or scale-in actions, adjusting the instance pool capacity dynamically without manual intervention.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because OCI Instance Pool autoscaling supports metric-based autoscaling policies that monitor CPU utilization and trigger scale-out or scale-in when usage crosses a configured threshold percentage. Option E is correct because OCI also supports schedule-based autoscaling policies, where scaling actions are triggered at predefined dates and times. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because Object Storage upload frequency, Database backup completion status, and VCN route table modification events are not metrics or conditions used by OCI Instance Pool autoscaling policies.

Exam trap

The trap is selecting non-compute metrics (storage, database, networking events) as autoscaling triggers, when OCI instance pool autoscaling only responds to compute metrics and schedules.

327
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following statements are true regarding OCI Compute Instance Maintenance and Events? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Maintenance events cause permanent data loss on attached boot volumes.
B.Instance maintenance events can only be managed using Terraform scripts.
C.Customers have zero visibility into hardware retirement schedules and cannot take preemptive action.
D.OCI sends notifications when underlying infrastructure maintenance is scheduled for a compute instance.
E.For certain maintenance events, customers can choose to reboot the instance to apply maintenance early.
AnswersD, E

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure leverages integration with Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Notifications and Events services to proactively alert administrators about scheduled infrastructure maintenance events affecting compute instances. This mechanism satisfies the requirement for visibility into underlying hardware lifecycles by automatically broadcasting operational state changes, enabling engineers to plan migrations or reboots effectively before maintenance windows commence.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because OCI publishes infrastructure maintenance events for compute instances through the OCI Notifications service and the Console, so customers receive advance notice when underlying hardware maintenance is scheduled. Option E is correct because for certain maintenance events, such as those that require a reboot, customers can proactively reboot the instance from the Console or CLI to apply the maintenance at a convenient time rather than waiting for the scheduled window. Option A is false because maintenance events do not cause permanent data loss on boot volumes; data on block and boot volumes persists across reboots and maintenance.

Option B is false because maintenance events can be viewed and managed through the OCI Console, CLI, SDKs, and APIs, not only Terraform. Option C is false because customers do have visibility into hardware retirement and maintenance schedules via notifications and the Console, allowing preemptive action.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that maintenance events cause data loss or that customers have no control — the trap is picking options that overstate the impact or understate the visibility and control OCI provides.

328
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of the OCI Compute Instance Oracle Cloud Agent?

A.To route TCP/IP packets across VCN subnets at the hypervisor level.
B.To provide serverless execution environments for OCI Functions.
C.To manage Kubernetes cluster worker node lifecycles.
D.To perform plugin-based management tasks like monitoring, patching, and run commands on the instance.
AnswerD

Oracle Cloud Agent operates as lightweight software running on compute instances to facilitate communication with the control plane, satisfying the primary management requirement outlined in the stem. By executing modular plugins, it directly addresses the need for automated administrative workflows such as collecting performance metrics, applying operating system patches, and executing remote scripts securely without manual intervention. This architecture enables administrators to centrally manage guest-level operations through native APIs and the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure console.

Why this answer

The Oracle Cloud Agent is a lightweight process that runs on OCI compute instances and hosts plugins for management tasks such as monitoring, patching (OS Management), running commands, and collecting metrics. It is the agent that enables services like the Monitoring plugin, Compute Instance Run Command, and Vulnerability Scanning. Its primary function is plugin-based instance management, not networking or orchestration.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates know the Oracle Cloud Agent is for instance-level management plugins, not for networking, serverless, or Kubernetes orchestration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because packet routing across VCN subnets is handled by the VCN's virtual router and route tables at the network fabric level, not by an agent on the instance. Option B is wrong because OCI Functions runs on a separate serverless platform managed by Oracle; it does not rely on the Compute Instance Oracle Cloud Agent. Option C is wrong because Kubernetes worker node lifecycle management is the responsibility of OKE's control plane and kubelet, not the Oracle Cloud Agent.

329
MCQeasy

Which OCI service should you use if you want to store and manage custom VM disk images so that they can be deployed across multiple regions easily?

A.OCI Block Volume Backups
B.OCI Custom Images
C.OCI Object Storage Archival Tier
D.OCI File Storage Service
AnswerB

OCI Custom Images directly satisfies the requirement to store and manage virtual machine disk images by capturing the boot volume of a running instance or a manual backup. Once created, you can easily export and copy these custom images across different OCI regions to deploy standardised workloads globally. This mechanism provides a native lifecycle management approach for reusable templates, ensuring consistency and rapid multi-region deployment without requiring external storage configuration.

Why this answer

OCI Custom Images let you capture a compute instance's boot volume (or import a disk image) and store it as a reusable image that can be exported to Object Storage and imported into other regions. This is the standard mechanism for distributing VM images across regions and tenancies. Block Volume Backups, Object Storage Archival, and File Storage do not provide deployable VM image management.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing volume backups (data restore) with custom images (deployable VM templates) — candidates often pick Block Volume Backups because both involve copying disks.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Block Volume Backups are point-in-time copies of block volumes used for restore within a region or via cross-region copy, not a portable VM image artifact that can be launched as an instance. Option C is wrong because Object Storage Archival Tier is a low-cost storage class for long-term retention of objects, not an image management service — it can hold exported images but does not manage them. Option D is wrong because File Storage Service provides NFS file systems, not VM disk images.

330
MCQmedium

An Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) architect needs to configure a Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) with a public subnet and a private subnet. Which configuration is required for resources in the private subnet to reach the public internet through a NAT Gateway?

A.Add a route in the private subnet route table with a destination of 0.0.0.0/0 and the target as the NAT Gateway.
B.Attach an Internet Gateway directly to the private subnet and add a security list rule allowing egress to 0.0.0.0/0.
C.Configure a Service Gateway with a route to 0.0.0.0/0.
D.Assign a public IP address to the instances within the private subnet.
AnswerA

Private subnets have no implicit internet route, so a route rule targeting the NAT Gateway with destination 0.0.0.0/0 in the private subnet's route table is required. The NAT Gateway then performs source NAT for outbound traffic while blocking inbound connections.

Why this answer

A NAT Gateway allows instances in a private subnet to initiate connections to the internet, but prevents inbound connections from the internet. The route table associated with the private subnet must have a route pointing 0.0.0.0/0 to the NAT Gateway.

331
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO tasks can an administrator perform when managing database homes in Oracle Base Database Service? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Apply Database Updates (Database Software Patches) to the DB home.
B.Modify the underlying physical CPU hardware model of the hypervisor.
C.Delete the DB home while keeping all associated databases running unaffected.
D.Convert the database home into an Autonomous Container Database.
E.Create multiple databases within the same database home if they share the same software version.
AnswersA, E

Managing database homes in Oracle Base Database Service directly involves maintaining the underlying Oracle Grid Infrastructure and database binaries. An administrator must be able to apply database updates, such as Database Software Patches and Bundle Patches, directly to a specific DB home to ensure security compliance and feature currency. This capability directly satisfies the requirement to manage database software lifecycles at the home level, enabling administrators to patch the binaries before propagating those updates to individual database instances associated with that home.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because Oracle Base Database Service allows administrators to apply database updates (database software patches) to a DB home, which patches the Oracle Database software binaries in that home. Option E is correct because a single DB home can host multiple databases as long as they all run the same Oracle Database software version, since the home provides one set of binaries. Option B is wrong because customers cannot modify the hypervisor's physical CPU hardware model in this managed service.

Option C is wrong because deleting a DB home requires or removes its associated databases; they cannot all keep running unaffected. Option D is wrong because a DB home cannot be converted into an Autonomous Container Database, which is a separate Autonomous Database construct.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming DB homes are tightly coupled to their databases, leading candidates to think deleting a DB home leaves databases running — in reality, deleting a DB home deletes its databases.

332
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting a connectivity issue where an on-premises server is trying to reach an OCI compute instance via an IPsec VPN attached to a Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG). The VPN tunnels are up, but traffic is dropped. Upon checking the VCN route table, you see a route pointing to the DRG, but the on-premises subnet CIDR is missing. What specific OCI construct must be updated to ensure return traffic from the VCN successfully routes back to the on-premises network?

A.The Security List must have a stateful egress rule allowing all protocols to the internet.
B.The Local Peering Gateway route table must map the on-premises subnet.
C.The NAT Gateway route table must be updated with the on-premises CIDR.
D.The VCN Route Table associated with the subnet must include a route rule with the destination as the on-premises CIDR and the target as the DRG.
AnswerD

Return traffic needs a route rule whose destination is the on-premises CIDR and whose target is the DRG. Without it, the VCN has no path back, so adding this rule to the subnet's route table satisfies the return-routing constraint.

Why this answer

The VCN route table associated with the compute instance's subnet must contain a route entry pointing the on-premises CIDR block to the DRG as the target.

333
MCQmedium

An autoscaling configuration is attached to your instance pool. You notice that instances are scaling out correctly based on CPU utilization, but you want to ensure that scaling events do not happen too frequently in response to brief traffic spikes. Which setting should you adjust?

A.The Instance Pool capacity limits
B.The Autoscaling Cooldown Period
C.The VCN DHCP Options timeout value
D.The Monitoring service metric polling interval
AnswerB

The cooldown period sets the interval after a scaling action during which further scaling is suppressed, preventing rapid oscillation from brief CPU spikes. Adjusting it directly controls how frequently scaling events occur, matching the stem's requirement.

Why this answer

The Autoscaling Cooldown Period is the exact setting that prevents rapid, repeated scaling actions by enforcing a wait time after each scale event before another can trigger. This smooths out reactions to brief CPU spikes so the pool does not thrash between scale-out and scale-in. Adjusting it directly addresses the requirement to avoid frequent scaling events.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates confuse capacity limits (how many) with cooldown (how often) — the question's phrase 'too frequently' is the tell for cooldown.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because instance pool capacity limits (min/max) only bound how many instances exist, not how often scaling fires. Option C is wrong because VCN DHCP options control DNS/search domain and lease behavior, which is unrelated to autoscaling timing. Option D is wrong because the Monitoring metric polling interval affects data granularity, not the autoscaling decision cadence — cooldown is what gates repeated actions.

334
MCQmedium

You are planning to restore an Oracle Base Database Service DB system from an object storage backup. Which backup types are supported by OCI for creating a new DB system?

A.OCI Block Volume snapshots
B.Only incremental manual backups
C.Only Data Pump export dump files
D.Automated backups or manual full backups
AnswerD

OCI supports restoring a DB system from either automated backups or manual full backups held in object storage. Incremental and archived log backups cannot seed a new DB system, so only these two types satisfy the restore requirement.

Why this answer

Oracle Base Database Service on OCI supports restoring from automated backups or manual full backups stored in Object Storage. These backup types contain the full database state needed to provision a new DB system. Incremental-only or Data Pump exports are not supported as direct sources for creating a new DB system via the OCI console or API.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates confuse logical backups (Data Pump) or storage snapshots with the physical backups (automated/manual full) that OCI actually supports for DB system restore.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Block Volume snapshots capture the underlying storage, not a database-consistent backup, and are not a supported source for creating a new DB system. Option B is wrong because incremental manual backups alone cannot reconstruct a full database — a full backup is required as a base. Option C is wrong because Data Pump export dump files are logical exports used for schema-level migration, not for provisioning a new DB system through OCI's native restore workflow.

335
MCQmedium

An administrator wants to delegate compartment creation to a group of team leads named 'TeamLeads' without granting them full tenancy administrator privileges. Which policy statement achieves this?

A.Allow group TeamLeads to create sub-tenancies in tenancy
B.Allow group TeamLeads to manage compartments in tenancy
C.Allow group TeamLeads to use tenancy-root in tenancy
D.Allow group TeamLeads to administer identity in tenancy
AnswerB

The verb 'manage' on the compartments resource grants create, update, and delete rights scoped to compartments, letting TeamLeads build and administer them without tenancy-wide administrator privileges. Specifying 'in tenancy' sets the correct scope, matching the delegation requirement exactly.

Why this answer

The policy verb 'manage' on the 'compartments' resource in the tenancy grants full lifecycle control over compartments (create, update, delete, move) without conferring broader tenancy-admin rights. This is the least-privilege way to delegate compartment creation to TeamLeads. It does not grant identity administration or tenancy-level control.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between delegating compartment management and granting broader identity or tenancy administration — candidates over-grant with 'administer identity' when 'manage compartments' is sufficient.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'create sub-tenancies' is not a valid OCI policy verb/resource combination — sub-tenancies are not created via IAM policy statements, and this would imply far broader authority than intended. Option C is wrong because 'use tenancy-root' is not a valid resource in OCI policy syntax; tenancy-root is not an addressable resource for delegation. Option D is wrong because 'administer identity' grants full control over users, groups, and policies — far more privilege than needed and a violation of least privilege.

336
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO mechanisms are used by OCI Database backup services to ensure data consistency and integrity during backups of Oracle Base Database Systems?

Select 2 answers
A.Third-party FTP mirroring of the /etc/passwd file
B.Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup validation and incremental backup integration
C.OCI Block Volume crash-consistent and point-in-time snapshot mechanisms
D.Manual SQL*Plus file copy commands while the database is in read-write mode
E.Automatic conversion of all database files to CSV format prior to backup
AnswersB, C

Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN) natively integrates with OCI Database backup services to satisfy the data consistency and integrity constraint for Oracle Base Database Systems. RMAN performs internal block-level validation during backups, verifying checksums to detect corrupted data blocks before they are written to object storage. Furthermore, its incremental backup architecture tracks changed blocks using change tracking files, ensuring that subsequent backups maintain relational and transactional consistency without requiring full database locks.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because Oracle Base Database Systems use Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN) to perform validated backups and incremental backups, which verify block integrity and maintain consistency across datafiles, control files, and archived redo logs. Option C is correct because OCI Block Volume snapshots provide crash-consistent, point-in-time copies of the underlying storage, ensuring the database files captured in a backup are consistent as of a single moment. Option A is incorrect because mirroring /etc/passwd via FTP is unrelated to database backup consistency and integrity.

Option D is incorrect because manually copying files with SQL*Plus while the database is read-write risks inconsistent, torn backups. Option E is incorrect because converting database files to CSV is not a backup mechanism and would destroy the Oracle datafile format.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming a single mechanism suffices — candidates pick only RMAN or only snapshots, missing that OCI pairs database-aware RMAN validation with storage-level crash-consistent snapshots for full integrity.

337
MCQmedium

You are designing an architecture where instances in a private subnet need to send log data to an OCI Logging analytics endpoint, but must not have access to the general public internet. Which service should you leverage?

A.Internet Gateway
B.Local Peering Gateway
C.Service Gateway
D.NAT Gateway
AnswerC

A Service Gateway allows instances residing in a private subnet to securely route traffic to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) public services, such as Logging Analytics, via Oracle's internal backbone network rather than traversing the public internet. This directly satisfies the strict security constraint that instances must not possess internet access while still enabling necessary data egress for telemetry and log management.

Why this answer

An OCI Service Gateway provides private access from a VCN to supported Oracle services, including OCI Logging and Logging Analytics, without traversing the public internet. Traffic from instances in a private subnet routes through the service gateway to the Oracle service's public endpoint using the service's CIDR label in a route rule. This satisfies the requirement of reaching the logging endpoint while keeping the subnet private and blocking general internet access.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between NAT Gateway and Service Gateway, tricking candidates into choosing NAT because both provide outbound access, even though only the Service Gateway keeps traffic off the public internet for Oracle services.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an Internet Gateway provides bidirectional public internet access, which directly violates the requirement that instances must not reach the general public internet. Option B is wrong because a Local Peering Gateway connects two VCNs in the same region, not a VCN to an Oracle service endpoint. Option D is wrong because a NAT Gateway gives instances outbound internet access (for patching, for example) but still routes through the public internet and does not target Oracle services specifically.

338
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following can prevent a bucket from being deleted?

Select 2 answers
A.Public access allowed
B.Bucket contains objects
C.Versioning enabled
D.Retention rules
E.Bucket encryption
AnswersB, D

Object Storage buckets cannot be deleted while they still contain data or multipart uploads, as a safety mechanism to prevent accidental data loss. To satisfy the requirement of preventing bucket deletion, you must ensure the bucket is not empty. Therefore, deleting a bucket requires either manually removing all contained objects and object versions first, or configuring lifecycle rules to purge the contents, because the service API explicitly rejects deletion requests for non-empty buckets to safeguard against irreversible operational mistakes.

Why this answer

Retention rules and non-empty status prevent bucket deletion.

339
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of OCI Compute Instance Launch Options?

A.To set up automatic IAM user credential rotation.
B.To schedule automated block volume backup retention policies.
C.To define DNS domain suffix forwarding rules for VCN resolvers.
D.To configure instance network virtualization, firmware type, and boot parameters.
AnswerD

Launch Options govern the low-level platform settings applied when an instance boots: the network virtualisation type (paravirtualised or hardware-assisted SR-IOV), firmware (BIOS or UEFI), and boot parameters. This directly matches the stem's requirement to configure those three elements, which are fixed at launch and cannot be altered afterwards.

Why this answer

OCI Compute Instance Launch Options control low-level platform settings applied at launch, including network virtualization type (paravirtualized vs. SR-IOV), firmware type (BIOS vs. UEFI), boot parameters, and secure boot/measured boot settings.

These options affect how the hypervisor presents hardware to the guest and how the instance boots.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates confuse instance-level launch options with VCN-level or IAM-level settings — the trap is selecting DNS or backup options because they sound like 'launch configuration'.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because IAM credential rotation is handled by IAM policies and the Identity service, not by compute launch options. Option B is wrong because block volume backup retention is configured via Block Volume backup policies, not instance launch options. Option C is wrong because DNS domain suffix forwarding is a VCN resolver feature configured on the VCN's DNS resolver, not on compute instances.

340
MCQeasy

What is the default replication method for Object Storage buckets?

A.Manual replication
B.RAID 5
C.Not replicated
D.Automatic replication
AnswerD

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage inherently secures data durability by applying automatic asynchronous replication across multiple fault domains within a region as soon as an object is successfully written. This satisfies the default replication method constraint specified in the stem without requiring users to manually configure policies or cross-region tenancy structures. The service continuously manages data redundancy in the background, ensuring high availability and fault tolerance natively without administrative intervention.

Why this answer

Object Storage data is automatically replicated across three Fault Domains within an AD.

341
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO actions can be performed using OCI Resource Manager stacks? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Send email notifications when an object storage bucket size exceeds a threshold.
B.Create custom time-series metric alarms to monitor CPU and memory utilization.
C.Automatically ingest and parse custom application log files from compute instances.
D.Provision and configure cloud infrastructure resources using Terraform configuration files.
E.Import existing OCI cloud resources into a Terraform state file managed by the stack.
AnswersD, E

OCI Resource Manager stacks utilise Terraform as their underlying engine to automate the deployment and lifecycle management of cloud environments. By processing Terraform configuration files, the service enables users to define, provision, and configure complex resource topologies declaratively. This capability directly satisfies the requirement to perform infrastructure provisioning, as the stack acts as a managed execution environment that orchestrates the provider-specific API calls necessary to realise the infrastructure state defined within the code, ensuring consistent and repeatable deployments across OCI tenancies.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because OCI Resource Manager is Oracle's managed Terraform service: a stack is built from Terraform configuration (HCL) and jobs such as plan/apply provision and configure OCI infrastructure resources declaratively. Option E is correct because Resource Manager supports importing existing OCI resources into a stack's Terraform state, typically via the "Import state" / terraform import workflow, so previously created resources become tracked and manageable by that stack. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they describe monitoring and logging capabilities, not Resource Manager: threshold-based bucket-size email alerts are handled by OCI Monitoring alarms with Notifications, custom time-series metric alarms for CPU/memory are created in OCI Monitoring (with agent metrics), and ingesting/parsing application logs is done by the OCI Logging service (and Logging Analytics), none of which are functions of Resource Manager stacks.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates confuse Resource Manager (Terraform IaC) with OCI Monitoring, Logging, or Notifications — the distractors are all real OCI features but belong to different services.

342
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE components are required when configuring OCI VCN Remote Peering between two regions?

Select 3 answers
A.Local Peering Gateway (LPG)
B.Remote Peering Connection (RPC) between the two DRGs
C.Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) attached to VCN-1 in Region A
D.Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) attached to VCN-2 in Region B
E.Internet Gateway in both VCNs
AnswersB, C, D

A Remote Peering Connection (RPC) must be created on the Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) in each region and then paired together, directly satisfying the multi-region connectivity requirement specified in the stem. This resource acts as the logical endpoint that bridges the two DRGs across separate cloud regions, enabling secure and private traffic routing between Virtual Cloud Networks (VCNs) without traversing the public internet.

Why this answer

Remote VCN peering across regions requires a Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) attached to each VCN, a Remote Peering Connection (RPC) established between the two DRGs, and matching route table/security rules.

343
MCQeasy

What is the main advantage of the OCI Block Volume performance tier selection?

A.Customizable IOPS and throughput
B.Always fixed price
C.Mandatory for boot volumes
D.Only for production
AnswerA

OCI Block Volume performance tiers let you provision IOPS and throughput independently of capacity, up to 300,000 IOPS and 4,800 MB/s per volume. This satisfies the stem's requirement for a main advantage: workloads needing high performance without large storage avoid paying for unused capacity, unlike fixed-performance alternatives.

Why this answer

OCI Block Volume performance tiers (Lower Cost, Balanced, Higher Performance, and Ultra High Performance) let administrators choose and adjust IOPS and throughput independently of capacity. This flexibility to customize performance to workload needs is the main advantage, allowing cost optimization without over-provisioning.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the assumption that Block Volume performance is fixed or tied only to size — candidates miss that tiers allow independent, adjustable IOPS/throughput selection.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because pricing varies by performance tier and provisioned capacity — it is not always a fixed price; higher tiers cost more. Option C is wrong because performance tier selection is not mandatory for boot volumes; boot volumes have their own defaults and can use different tiers, but it is not a requirement. Option D is wrong because performance tiers are available for any workload, not restricted to production — dev/test volumes can also use them.

344
MCQhard

You are deploying a microservices application on OKE and want to implement zero-downtime rolling deployments for your pods. Which Kubernetes deployment strategy and configuration parameter should you utilize?

A.RollingUpdate strategy with maxSurge and maxUnavailable configured
B.Horizontal Pod Autoscaler with metric-based CPU triggers
C.Static Pod assignment via node selectors
D.Recreate strategy with immediate termination of all old pods
AnswerA

RollingUpdate replaces pods incrementally, so the deployment never drops all replicas at once. maxSurge caps extra pods created above the desired count, while maxUnavailable caps pods that may be down during the rollout, together satisfying the zero-downtime constraint.

Why this answer

The RollingUpdate strategy is Kubernetes' native mechanism for replacing pods incrementally so that some old replicas remain available while new ones come up, enabling zero-downtime deployments. The maxSurge parameter controls how many extra pods above the desired count can be created during the rollout, and maxUnavailable controls how many pods below the desired count can be temporarily unavailable. Tuning both ensures capacity is maintained throughout the update.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing autoscaling (HPA) with deployment strategy — candidates see 'scaling' and 'zero downtime' and pick HPA, missing that the question asks specifically about rolling deployments of pod versions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Horizontal Pod Autoscaler adjusts replica count based on metrics like CPU; it does not orchestrate the replacement of pod versions and therefore does not by itself provide rolling deployments. Option C is wrong because static pod assignment via node selectors only constrains scheduling to specific nodes — it has nothing to do with deployment strategy or zero-downtime updates. Option D is wrong because the Recreate strategy terminates all old pods before starting new ones, which causes downtime and directly contradicts the zero-downtime requirement.

345
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE actions occur when you terminate an OCI compute instance? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.The compute instance virtual machine is permanently destroyed.
B.You are given the option to preserve or delete the boot volume.
C.The primary VNIC and its assigned private IP addresses are deleted.
D.All attached data block volumes are automatically deleted by default.
E.All custom images created from the instance are automatically deleted.
AnswersA, B, C

Terminating an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure compute instance initiates a permanent deletion sequence where the underlying virtual machine architecture and its hypervisor-allocated resources are fully dismantled. This satisfies the lifecycle constraint in the stem requiring the absolute destruction of the compute instance itself, rather than a temporary stop state. Consequently, the instance metadata, ephemeral storage, and virtual machine attachments are irrecoverably purged from the host hardware, ensuring no residual compute footprint remains in the tenancy.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because terminating an OCI compute instance permanently destroys the virtual machine instance itself; the instance cannot be recovered after termination. Option B is correct because during termination OCI presents a choice to either preserve or permanently delete the boot volume, allowing you to keep the boot volume for later use. Option C is correct because the instance's primary VNIC is deleted along with its assigned private IP addresses when the instance is terminated.

Option D is incorrect because attached data block volumes are not deleted by default; they are preserved unless you explicitly select the option to delete them. Option E is incorrect because custom images created from the instance are independent resources and are not automatically deleted when the instance is terminated.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the assumption that all attached storage and derived images are deleted with the instance — candidates who over-generalize termination behavior pick wrong options.

346
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of an OCI IAM policy statement?

A.To specify who can access what resources in OCI and at what level of granularity.
B.To establish routing tables for internet gateways.
C.To configure automated backup schedules for block storage volumes.
D.To define firewall rules for IP traffic filtering across VCN subnets.
AnswerA

A policy statement is the authorisation rule itself: it names a subject (group or dynamic group), a verb set (inspect, read, use, manage), and a compartment-scoped resource family, thereby defining who can access what and at which granularity.

Why this answer

OCI IAM policy statements are the core authorization mechanism in OCI. Each statement follows the syntax 'Allow <subject> to <verb> <resource-type> in <location> where <conditions>', which defines who (users or groups) can perform which actions (inspect, read, use, manage) on which resources (instances, buckets, VCNs) within a compartment or tenancy. This granular control is exactly what option A describes.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates confuse IAM policy statements with networking or storage configuration constructs, so distractors describe legitimate OCI features (route tables, backup policies, security lists) that simply belong to different services.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because routing tables for internet gateways are configured within VCN route tables, not IAM policies — IAM has no networking function. Option C is wrong because automated backup schedules for block volumes are configured via the Block Volume backup policy feature, not IAM policy statements. Option D is wrong because firewall rules for IP traffic filtering are implemented through VCN security lists and network security groups, which are networking constructs unrelated to IAM authorization.

347
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO components are involved when routing traffic from an OCI private subnet to an on-premises datacenter via FastConnect?

Select 2 answers
A.Internet Gateway
B.Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG)
C.Subnet Route Table with a rule pointing on-premises CIDR to the DRG
D.Local Peering Gateway
E.NAT Gateway
AnswersB, C

The Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) acts as the essential transit hub that satisfies the requirement to route traffic between an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure private subnet and an on-premises datacenter over a FastConnect virtual circuit. Acting as a virtual router, the DRG establishes the necessary path for private IP traffic to traverse the boundary between the VCN and the customer-premises equipment, bridging the cloud network with the external corporate network infrastructure.

Why this answer

Traffic from a private subnet to on-premises via FastConnect requires a route table rule pointing to the Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG), and the FastConnect virtual circuit terminating on that DRG.

348
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO default resource types are available in every new OCI tenancy? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.A fully configured Autonomous Data Warehouse
B.A 10TB Object Storage archive bucket
C.The tenancy root compartment
D.Default administrators group and initial tenancy administrator user
E.A pre-configured Kubernetes production cluster
AnswersC, D

Every newly provisioned Oracle Cloud Infrastructure tenancy inherently creates the tenancy root compartment—the foundational top-level container (also known as the root compartment or tenancy itself) that directly satisfies the mandatory architectural constraint requiring an overarching structural parent for all subsequent resources, policies, and sub-compartments within the environment.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because every new OCI tenancy is created with a single root compartment that serves as the top-level container for all resources and cannot be deleted. Option D is correct because OCI automatically provisions a default group named Administrators and an initial tenancy administrator user during tenancy creation, and this user is the first identity that can manage the tenancy. Option A is incorrect because Autonomous Data Warehouse instances are not created by default and must be provisioned by the customer.

Option B is incorrect because Object Storage buckets, including archive-tier buckets, are not pre-created in a new tenancy. Option E is incorrect because Kubernetes clusters, including production clusters, are not pre-configured and must be created by the user.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that new OCI tenancies come with pre-provisioned services like Autonomous Data Warehouse or Object Storage buckets, confusing free-tier offerings with default resources.

349
MCQmedium

You are configuring a Site-to-Site VPN connection in OCI. Your on-premises firewall requires you to specify the Oracle VPN IP address and configure IPSec tunnel parameters. Where do you find the Oracle VPN public IP addresses in the OCI Console?

A.In the NAT Gateway configuration settings
B.In the IPSec Connection details page under the DRG
C.In the FastConnect Virtual Circuit overview
D.In the VCN Details page under Internet Gateway
AnswerB

Navigating to the IPSec connection details page beneath the Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) reveals the assigned Oracle public IP addresses for both tunnels. This directly satisfies the on-premises firewall requirement by exposing the specific external tunnel endpoints needed to establish the peer-to-peer security associations and complete the IPSec configuration.

Why this answer

When you create an IPSec connection under the DRG details, OCI automatically provisions two redundant VPN tunnels, displaying their respective public IP addresses in the IPSec Connection details page.

350
MCQmedium

A platform team runs a compute cluster in a single OCI region. They need a dashboard that charts CPU utilization for every instance in a specific compartment and automatically includes new instances launched into that compartment next week, without anyone editing the widget later. Which OCI Monitoring feature should they use for the metric widget?

A.A saved search against the Audit service filtered by the compute instance resource type
B.Individual metric charts pinned to each instance OCID, grouped into a dashboard
C.An alarm definition on the CpuUtilization metric with a threshold and a notification topic
D.A metric query scoped to the compartment with the resource dimension aggregated using the mean statistic
AnswerD

Scoping the metric query to the compartment rather than to individual OCIDs means the query is evaluated dynamically at render time. Any instance that appears in that compartment later is automatically included, and aggregating by the resource dimension plots one line per instance without manual edits.

Why this answer

A dashboard metric widget that queries by compartment and aggregates on the resource dimension is evaluated dynamically, so instances added to the compartment later appear automatically with one line each. Hard-coding OCIDs, using Audit records, or relying on an alarm all fail to produce an auto-updating utilization chart.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming a dashboard widget must reference each instance by OCID, when compartment-scoped metric queries with the resource dimension are inherently dynamic.

351
MCQmedium

You are configuring an Object Storage bucket and want to ensure that if an object is accidentally overwritten or deleted, previous versions can still be retrieved. Which feature should you enable?

A.Cross-Region Replication
B.Object Versioning
C.Object Storage Lifecycle Management
D.Bucket Retention Rules
AnswerB

Object Versioning satisfies the requirement to protect against accidental data loss by maintaining multiple variants of an object within a single bucket. When this feature is enabled, OCI assigns a unique version ID to every object update or deletion, ensuring that previous states remain accessible rather than being permanently overwritten. This mechanism provides a robust recovery path for overwritten data, effectively decoupling the current object state from its historical lifecycle and preventing irreversible data destruction during routine management tasks.

Why this answer

Object Versioning preserves multiple variants of an object in the same bucket, protecting against accidental overwrites and deletions.

352
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are valid Object Storage tiers in OCI?

Select 2 answers
A.Fast Storage
B.Temporary Storage
C.Cold Storage
D.Archive
E.Standard
AnswersD, E

Archive storage operates as a valid OCI tier designed for long-term data retention of infrequently accessed data that requires extended retention periods with minimal retrieval costs. This tier satisfies the requirement to identify legitimate OCI storage classes by providing a high-durability, low-cost solution for backups and historical archives, balancing significantly reduced storage pricing against longer, asynchronous retrieval latency times when data restoration is eventually triggered.

Why this answer

Standard and Archive are the primary tiers in OCI Object Storage.

353
MCQeasy

Which OCI Object Storage feature enables users without an OCI account to securely download or upload a specific object via a generated URL with a defined expiration time?

A.OCI IAM Federation
B.API Signing Keys
C.Object Storage Public Access Buckets
D.Pre-Authenticated Requests (PAR)
AnswerD

Pre-Authenticated Requests (PAR) provide a unique URL that grants access to a specific object or bucket without requiring the user to hold an OCI identity or authenticate via Microsoft Entra ID. This mechanism satisfies the constraint of enabling access for users without an OCI account by offloading authorisation to the URL itself. By defining an expiration time during creation, administrators securely control the temporal window for uploads or downloads while bypassing the need for standard IAM credentials.

Why this answer

Pre-authenticated requests (PAR) provide a way to let users securely access or upload a specific object or bucket without requiring credentials, using a unique URL with an expiration time.

354
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO components are required to configure an OCI Site-to-Site VPN with redundant tunnels?

Select 2 answers
A.Service Gateway
B.Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) attached to the VCN
C.Local Peering Gateway (LPG)
D.NAT Gateway
E.Customer-Premises Equipment (CPE) object representing your on-premises gateway IP
AnswersB, E

The Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) serves as the mandatory virtual router at the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure end of the connection, directly satisfying the architectural constraint for routing traffic between the Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) and the on-premises customer premises equipment. To support redundant tunnels, the DRG acts as the central termination point that aggregates multiple IPSec tunnel endpoints, allowing OCI to establish high-availability routing paths and dynamically handle failover events via Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) sessions.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because the Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) is the OCI-side virtual router that must be attached to the VCN to terminate the IPSec tunnels of a Site-to-Site VPN; without a DRG there is no OCI endpoint for the VPN. Option E is correct because the Customer-Premises Equipment (CPE) object represents the public IP address of your on-premises VPN gateway, and it is a required building block referenced when creating the IPSec connection that forms the redundant tunnels. The Service Gateway (A) is only for private access to OCI services such as Object Storage, the Local Peering Gateway (C) connects VCNs within the same region, and the NAT Gateway (D) provides outbound internet access for private subnets — none of these terminate or represent an IPSec VPN endpoint, so they are not required for a Site-to-Site VPN.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing other OCI gateways (Service, NAT, LPG) with the components required for Site-to-Site VPN — candidates must remember that DRG and CPE are the essential building blocks.

355
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO resource types can be managed using OCI IAM policies? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.object-family
B.employee-badge-readers
C.corporate-laptop-hardware
D.instance-family
E.office-wifi-routers
AnswersA, D

Object-family represents a valid resource-type category within the OCI IAM policy framework, specifically governing access to buckets and objects stored in OCI Object Storage. By including this as a resource-type, administrators can define granular permissions for data operations such as reading, writing, or managing lifecycle policies. This satisfies the stem’s requirement to identify manageable OCI resource types, as it functions as a primary grouping mechanism for service-level authorisation, distinct from identity management solutions like Microsoft Entra ID which operate at the external authentication layer.

Why this answer

OCI IAM policies govern access to virtually all OCI resources, including compute and object storage.

356
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting a slow-running query on an Exadata Cloud Service database. You suspect that smart scan is not being utilized by the storage cells. Which Exadata feature enables offloading SQL processing operations like filtering and projections directly to the storage servers?

A.Oracle Database In-Memory Column Store
B.Exadata Smart Scan (Storage Offload)
C.Hybrid Columnar Compression (HCC)
D.Automatic Storage Management (ASM) Mirroring
AnswerB

Exadata Smart Scan satisfies the requirement to accelerate the slow-running query by offloading data-intensive SQL processing operations—specifically filtering and projections—directly to the Exadata storage cells. Instead of transferring massive volumes of unneeded rows across the interconnect to the database compute nodes, the storage servers process the SQL predicates locally and return only the matching subset of data. This architectural offloading drastically reduces I/O latency and CPU utilisation, directly resolving the performance bottleneck described in the scenario.

Why this answer

Exadata Smart Scan is the storage-offload feature that pushes predicate filtering, column projection, and certain joins down to the Exadata storage cells, so only relevant rows and columns return to the database nodes. This dramatically reduces I/O and CPU load on the compute tier, which is why a query that fails to offload runs noticeably slower.

Exam trap

The trap is conflating any Exadata performance feature (In-Memory, HCC) with storage offload — only Smart Scan actually pushes SQL processing to the cells, and the exam expects you to distinguish acceleration mechanisms.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the In-Memory Column Store is a compute-side feature that keeps data in memory in columnar format — it accelerates analytics but does not offload work to storage cells. Option C is wrong because Hybrid Columnar Compression reduces storage footprint and I/O volume but does not perform SQL processing on the cells. Option D is wrong because ASM Mirroring is a storage redundancy mechanism, not a query-processing offload technology.

357
MCQeasy

Which OCI service provides a POSIX-compliant file system?

A.Archive Storage
B.Object Storage
C.Block Volume
D.File Storage Service
AnswerD

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure File Storage Service utilises the Network File System (NFS) protocol, which inherently provides the POSIX-compliant file system required by the stem. By supporting standard file-level operations, permissions, and hierarchical directory structures, it ensures full compatibility with legacy and modern applications that rely on POSIX semantics. Unlike object storage, which uses flat namespaces, this service maintains the stateful metadata and locking mechanisms necessary to satisfy the specific constraint of POSIX compliance for shared file access across multiple compute instances.

Why this answer

File Storage Service provides a standard NFS-based, POSIX-compliant file system.

358
MCQeasy

Which OCI networking component acts as a virtual firewall at the subnet level?

A.Internet Gateway
B.Security List
C.Dynamic Routing Gateway
D.Service Gateway
AnswerB

Security lists function as virtual firewalls by enforcing ingress and egress rules at the subnet level, directly satisfying the constraint specified in the question stem. By applying stateful or stateless security rules to all virtual network interface cards associated with a subnet, they provide a centralised mechanism to control traffic flow. This architecture ensures that security policies are consistently applied to every resource within that specific subnet, effectively acting as the primary perimeter defence for network traffic entering or leaving the segment.

Why this answer

Security Lists act as virtual firewalls that apply to all VNICs within a given subnet.

359
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO editions of Oracle Database are generally available for provisioning when creating an Oracle Base Database System in OCI?

Select 2 answers
A.Standard Edition 2 (SE2)
B.Enterprise Edition (EE)
C.Oracle Database Lite Edition
D.Oracle Database Express Edition (XE) Cloud Managed
E.Community Edition SQL Server
AnswersA, B

Oracle Database Standard Edition 2 (SE2) directly satisfies the edition constraint for provisioning an Oracle Base Database System on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure. When deploying a virtual machine or bare metal database system, users must select from officially supported database editions, and SE2 is one of the core licensing tiers available alongside Enterprise Edition. It provides a cost-effective solution for workloads requiring up to a specified CPU core limit, fulfilling the fundamental provisioning requirement for standard database deployments.

Why this answer

When provisioning an Oracle Base Database System in OCI, the two generally available database editions offered are Standard Edition 2 (SE2) and Enterprise Edition (EE). Option A, Standard Edition 2 (SE2), is correct because Oracle Base Database Service supports SE2 as a lower-cost edition suitable for standard workloads. Option B, Enterprise Edition (EE), is correct because it is the flagship edition that provides advanced features like multitenant, partitioning, and Data Guard, and is a standard provisioning choice on OCI Base Database.

The unmarked options do not belong: Oracle Database Lite Edition (C) is a discontinued lightweight database for mobile/embedded use, Oracle Database Express Edition (XE) Cloud Managed (D) is not an OCI Base Database provisioning edition, and Community Edition SQL Server (E) is a Microsoft product unrelated to Oracle Database.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming any Oracle edition can be provisioned on OCI — candidates pick XE or Lite because they recognize the names, but only SE2 and EE are valid for Base Database Service.

360
MCQmedium

An administrator wants to allow a group of developers to view and manage Event Service rules and notifications. Which resource types should be used in the IAM policy?

A.Allow group DevOps to use pub-sub in compartment AppComp
B.Allow group DevOps to manage messaging-family in tenancy
C.Allow group DevOps to manage events, notifications in compartment AppComp
D.Allow group DevOps to inspect triggers in compartment AppComp
AnswerC

Granting permissions to manage both event rules and notifications simultaneously requires targeting the correct resource types within the specified compartment. This statement directly satisfies the administrative requirement by invoking the `events` and `notifications` resource types for the `DevOps` group within `AppComp`, ensuring developers can comprehensively configure event-driven architectures and alert pipelines without needing broader tenancy-wide privileges.

Why this answer

The OCI Events service and Notifications service use 'events' and 'notifications' as their resource types.

361
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE components are involved in OCI File Storage Service?

Select 3 answers
A.Export
B.File system
C.Bucket
D.Backup gateway
E.Mount target
AnswersA, B, E

An export defines the point of access within a mount target, mapping a specific file system directory to network clients using the Network File System protocol. This satisfies the requirement for components integral to the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure File Storage Service architecture, as clients cannot access file data without a correctly configured export defining the path and security rules.

Why this answer

File systems, mount targets, and exports are the main components.

362
MCQmedium

When creating an OCI Function application, you must select one or more subnets. What type of subnets should you choose if your function needs to call external public APIs over the internet?

A.Subnets with a Service Gateway only
B.Subnets configured strictly as local peering endpoints
C.Subnets with no route table entries
D.Subnets associated with a NAT Gateway or Internet Gateway route table
AnswerD

Functions in a private subnet reach public APIs only when the subnet's route table directs egress through a NAT gateway; an internet gateway suits public subnets. This satisfies the stem's requirement for calling external public APIs over the internet.

Why this answer

For an OCI Function to call external public APIs over the internet, the subnet it runs in must have a route to the internet — either through a NAT Gateway (for private subnets, outbound-only) or an Internet Gateway (for public subnets). The route table associated with the function's subnet must contain a rule directing 0.0.0.0/0 to one of these gateways. Without such a route, the function has no path to external endpoints.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Service Gateway (OCI-internal traffic) with NAT/Internet Gateway (public internet traffic) — candidates pick Service Gateway thinking it provides general internet access.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Service Gateway only provides access to OCI services (e.g., Object Storage, Streaming) via the Oracle Services Network — it does not route traffic to the public internet. Option B is wrong because local peering endpoints connect VCNs within the same region; they do not provide internet egress. Option C is wrong because a subnet with no route table entries has no path anywhere, including the internet, so the function could not reach external APIs at all.

363
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE actions can you perform on a block volume?

Select 3 answers
A.Resize the volume
B.Mount as a website
C.Clone the volume
D.Convert to object storage
E.Create a backup
AnswersA, C, E

Block volumes in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure support online and offline resizing to dynamically increase storage capacity without disrupting active attachments or requiring volume detachment. This capability directly satisfies the requirement to modify an existing resource attribute specified in the stem. Administrators can scale up performance tiers and volume sizes simultaneously, ensuring that applications constrained by storage limits can accommodate growing data workloads seamlessly.

Why this answer

Backups, clones, and resizing are common operations for block volumes.

364
MCQmedium

You want to deploy a Windows compute instance in OCI using your own custom software pre-installed. What is the recommended workflow to achieve this?

A.Upload your local virtual machine disk (VMDK/VHD) directly to a compute instance as a running process.
B.Launch an instance from a standard Windows image, install your software, create a custom image from the boot volume, and use it to launch new instances.
C.Run a bash script via user data on every new instance launch to download and install the software every time.
D.Use Block Volume backups as direct instance templates without creating custom images.
AnswerB

Launching a standard Windows image allows you to manually configure the environment and install custom software packages directly onto the operating system. Once configured, capturing this state via OCI's custom image feature satisfies the requirement for pre-installed software by creating a reusable template of the boot volume. This snapshot preserves all registry entries, files, and applications, enabling you to rapidly provision fully configured Windows compute instances without repeating the manual installation process.

Why this answer

The recommended OCI workflow for deploying Windows instances with custom software is to launch a standard Windows instance, install and configure the software, then create a custom image from the boot volume and use that image for future launches. This captures the fully configured state and ensures consistent, repeatable deployments.

Exam trap

The trap is choosing ad-hoc methods like user-data scripts or direct disk uploads instead of the standard custom image workflow, which is the supported and recommended way to deploy pre-configured instances.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because you cannot upload a local VMDK/VHD directly to a running compute instance as a process; disk images must be imported as custom images via Object Storage and the image import workflow, not attached to a running instance. Option C is wrong because running a user-data script on every launch to download and install software is slow, error-prone, and not the recommended approach for pre-installed custom software; it also increases boot time and failure points. Option D is wrong because block volume backups are not instance templates; they cannot be used directly to launch instances—custom images are the correct artifact for instance provisioning.

365
MCQmedium

Which file system protocol does OCI File Storage Service support?

A.FTP
B.iSCSI
C.NFSv3
D.SMB
AnswerC

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure File Storage Service relies on Network File System version 3 to facilitate secure, high-performance file sharing across multiple compute instances simultaneously. By implementing this specific industry-standard protocol, the service directly satisfies the protocol constraint stipulated in the stem, enabling Linux-based clients to mount the cloud-managed file systems natively using standard mount commands and standard POSIX file system semantics without requiring proprietary agents.

Why this answer

FSS is based on the NFSv3 protocol.

366
MCQhard

You are managing an Oracle Base Database System (DB System) on OCI and need to minimize downtime during a planned operating system patching cycle. Which action should you perform to achieve this for a 2-node RAC DB System?

A.Apply the patch simultaneously to both nodes to ensure the cluster remains synchronized.
B.Take a full manual backup, terminate the DB System, and reprovision with the new patched image.
C.Perform a rolling patch on one node at a time using the OCI console or CLI.
D.Convert the 2-node RAC to a Single Instance database, patch it, and convert it back.
AnswerC

Rolling patching applies updates to one RAC node at a time while the other continues serving traffic, so the database stays available throughout the operating system patch cycle. This directly minimises downtime for the 2-node RAC DB System.

Why this answer

For a 2-node RAC DB System on OCI, a rolling patch applies the OS update to one node at a time while the other node continues serving database traffic, so the RAC cluster maintains availability throughout the patching cycle. The OCI console and CLI expose this as a patching option that orchestrates the node-by-node sequence and waits for each node to rejoin the cluster before proceeding. This is the standard, supported method to minimize downtime for planned OS maintenance on multi-node RAC systems.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that 'synchronized' patching means applying patches to all nodes at once, when in fact RAC availability depends on patching nodes sequentially so the surviving node keeps the service online.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because patching both nodes simultaneously takes the entire RAC cluster offline, causing full database downtime and defeating the purpose of a rolling patch. Option B is wrong because terminating and reprovisioning the DB System destroys the existing system and requires restoring from backup, resulting in extended downtime and data-loss risk far greater than a rolling patch. Option D is wrong because converting a 2-node RAC to Single Instance is a disruptive reconfiguration that itself requires downtime and is not a supported patching strategy.

367
MCQhard

You have configured a FastConnect dedicated circuit using a Provider model, but your on-premises routers cannot reach OCI VCN instances. BGP status is showing as 'Idle'. What is the most likely cause?

A.The route table on the VCN subnet does not have a route to 0.0.0.0/0.
B.The Security List on the DRG attachment blocks ICMP traffic.
C.BGP peering IP addresses or Autonomous System Numbers (ASNs) are misconfigured between the Oracle router and on-premises router.
D.The public subnet has an incorrect Internet Gateway route.
AnswerC

Misconfigured BGP peering IPs or ASNs prevent the TCP session from establishing, leaving BGP in Idle rather than Active or Established. Since the Provider model already delivers Layer 2 connectivity, the fault lies at Layer 3 peering configuration between the Oracle and on-premises routers, matching the stem's Idle status.

Why this answer

BGP status 'Idle' typically indicates that the BGP peer IP configuration is incorrect, or there is an issue with the virtual circuit provisioning state, or access control lists/firewalls are blocking TCP port 179.

368
MCQmedium

You are migrating workloads to OCI and need to route traffic between two VCNs that reside in the same tenancy but in different regions (Ashburn and Phoenix). Which OCI component is required to establish this cross-region connection?

A.Internet Gateway
B.Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG)
C.Local Peering Gateway (LPG)
D.NAT Gateway
AnswerB

Routing traffic between Virtual Cloud Networks across different regions, such as Ashburn and Phoenix, requires a Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) because VCN local peering is strictly limited to a single region. The DRG acts as a virtual router that connects your VCN to remote peering connections or Oracle Cloud Infrastructure FastConnect circuits, enabling secure, low-latency communication across geographically separated cloud environments within the same tenancy.

Why this answer

Cross-region VCN peering requires a Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) attached to each VCN, configured with a remote peering connection between the two DRGs.

369
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting a federated user login issue where users authenticate successfully through your corporate SAML IdP, but upon redirection to OCI, they encounter an error stating that no matching user account or group mapping exists. What is the most likely misconfiguration?

A.The user's password in OCI IAM has expired and must be reset.
B.The API signing key of the IdP metadata XML file needs to be rotated daily.
C.OCI requires manual creation of local user profiles for every federated login attempt.
D.The group mapping rule in the OCI Identity Provider configuration does not match the incoming group claim in the SAML assertion.
AnswerD

Successful SAML authentication followed by a no-matching-account error indicates the group mapping rule in the Identity Provider configuration does not match the incoming group claim, so Microsoft Entra ID cannot map the federated user to an OCI account or group.

Why this answer

In OCI federation, the external SAML IdP asserts group membership via a group claim, and OCI maps those asserted groups to OCI IAM groups through group mapping rules configured on the Identity Provider. If the incoming group claim value does not match any configured mapping rule, OCI cannot resolve the user to an OCI group and returns the 'no matching user account or group mapping' error. The fix is to align the IdP's group claim attribute and values with the OCI IdP group mapping configuration.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates understand that federated authentication failures after successful IdP login are almost always group-mapping or attribute-claim mismatches, not password or key issues.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because federated users do not have OCI-local passwords — authentication is delegated to the IdP, so an OCI password expiry is irrelevant to a SAML login failure. Option B is wrong because SAML metadata signing certificates are rotated on a scheduled basis (typically annually or per IdP policy), not daily, and an invalid signature would produce a signature-validation error, not a group-mapping error. Option C is wrong because OCI does not require manual creation of local user profiles for federated users; users are provisioned just-in-time via the SAML assertion and mapped to groups through mapping rules.

370
Multi-Selecthard

An operations team wants a single OCI alarm to notify them when average CPU utilization across a compartment's web tier exceeds 80 percent for a sustained period, and to stop notifying once the condition clears. The team also wants to avoid duplicate pages during short spikes. Which two configurations satisfy these requirements? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Configure the alarm to use the COUNT statistic so any single instance crossing the threshold fires the tier alarm
B.Create a separate alarm for each instance OCID and rely on the Notifications service to deduplicate the resulting messages
C.Configure the alarm to evaluate the mean statistic aggregated over the compartment's web tier resources
D.Set the alarm's notification frequency to repeat every minute regardless of state so operators always see current values
E.Set the alarm metric interval to one minute and the trigger rule to fire after the threshold is breached for a specified number of consecutive evaluation periods
AnswersC, E

Aggregating the CpuUtilization metric with the mean statistic across the compartment defines average utilization for the tier rather than per-instance values. This produces the single condition the team wants to monitor, so one alarm can represent the whole web tier instead of many per-instance alarms.

Why this answer

A compartment-scoped metric query with the mean statistic defines the tier-wide average the team cares about, and a trigger rule requiring several consecutive breaching evaluation periods enforces the sustained condition while ignoring brief spikes. Per-instance alarms, forced repeat notifications, and the COUNT statistic all increase noise or measure the wrong quantity.

Exam trap

The trap here is believing Notifications performs deduplication across many per-instance alarms, when sustained conditions are actually handled by the alarm's trigger rule breach duration.

371
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE operations can be performed on an Oracle Base Database System from the OCI Console?

Select 3 answers
A.Modify the operating system kernel source code
B.Scale storage size
C.Directly modify Oracle internal data dictionary tables
D.Create manual backups
E.Apply database and grid infrastructure patches
AnswersB, D, E

Managing storage capacity dynamically is fully supported through the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Console for Oracle Base Database Systems, satisfying the requirement to scale storage size independently of compute resources. Database administrators can seamlessly increase the allocated storage for existing file systems without incurring downtime or requiring a manual node restart, as the control plane automates the underlying block volume expansion and volume group adjustments behind the scenes.

Why this answer

Option B (Scale storage size) is correct because the OCI Console for Oracle Base Database Service lets you scale the storage of the DB system, increasing the usable data storage capacity allocated to the database. Option D (Create manual backups) is correct because the console provides backup management where you can create on-demand (manual) backups of the database in addition to configuring automatic backups. Option E (Apply database and grid infrastructure patches) is correct because the console exposes patching operations that apply database and Grid Infrastructure patches to the DB system.

Option A is not a supported operation since customers cannot modify the operating system kernel source code of the managed DB system, and Option C is not allowed because direct modification of Oracle internal data dictionary tables is unsupported and would corrupt the database.

Exam trap

The trap is overestimating what the console exposes — candidates may think they can modify OS kernels or data dictionary tables because they have 'admin' access, but OCI Base Database System is a managed service that restricts such low-level operations.

372
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions can you perform on an OCI Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) after it has been created?

Select 2 answers
A.Rename the underlying VCN OCID
B.Modify the primary CIDR block of the VCN
C.Create new subnets within the VCN
D.Add secondary CIDR blocks to the VCN
E.Convert a regional subnet into an Availability Domain-specific subnet
AnswersC, D

Subnets can be added to an existing VCN at any time, since the VCN's CIDR blocks define the address space from which new subnets are carved. This is a supported post-creation action, unlike changing the VCN's CIDR blocks or its compartment.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because a VCN is a container for subnets, and you can always create additional subnets (regional or AD-specific) within an existing VCN after creation, as long as the CIDR ranges fall within the VCN's address space. Option D is correct because OCI allows you to associate secondary CIDR blocks with an existing VCN to expand its address space, which is useful for peering or adding workloads without recreating the VCN. Option A is incorrect because an OCID is an Oracle-assigned immutable identifier and cannot be renamed.

Option B is incorrect because the primary CIDR block of a VCN is fixed at creation and cannot be modified (only secondary CIDRs can be added). Option E is incorrect because a subnet's type (regional vs. AD-specific) is determined at creation and cannot be converted afterward.

373
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO statements are true regarding OCI Identity Domains? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Identity Domains replace Virtual Cloud Networks entirely.
B.Identity Domains support advanced features like OAuth, SAML integration, and passwordless authentication.
C.Every tenancy is restricted to having exactly one Identity Domain that cannot be changed.
D.Identity Domains store compute instance virtual disk images.
E.Identity Domains act as containers for managing users, groups, and security settings.
AnswersB, E

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Identity Domains natively incorporate robust IAM frameworks that satisfy the requirement for advanced authentication mechanisms. By integrating standards-based protocols such as OAuth for delegated authorization, Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) for single sign-on federation, and FIDO2-compliant passwordless authentication, Identity Domains provide the sophisticated security features specified in the stem. This ensures enterprises can seamlessly transition away from legacy credentials while maintaining granular, standards-compliant access control across both cloud-native applications and external identity providers like Microsoft Entra ID.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because OCI Identity Domains are built on Oracle Identity Cloud Service (IDCS) technology and natively support advanced identity features such as OAuth 2.0, OpenID Connect, SAML 2.0 federation, and passwordless authentication (e.g., FIDO2/WebAuthn). Option E is correct because an Identity Domain is fundamentally a container that holds and manages identity resources — users, groups, dynamic groups, app roles, policies, and security settings — for a tenancy or a specific set of resources. Option A is wrong because Identity Domains are an IAM construct and have nothing to do with networking; Virtual Cloud Networks are separate networking resources and are not replaced by Identity Domains.

Option C is wrong because a tenancy can have multiple Identity Domains (the default domain plus additional domains, subject to limits), and they can be created, modified, or deleted. Option D is wrong because storing compute instance virtual disk images is the role of OCI Block Volume and Object Storage services, not Identity Domains.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that a tenancy can have only one Identity Domain — candidates may confuse the default domain with a hard limit, but multiple domains are supported.

374
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE factors influence Block Volume performance?

Select 3 answers
A.Object versioning
B.Bucket replication setting
C.Instance shape
D.Volume size
E.Performance tier
AnswersC, D, E

The instance shape directly dictates the maximum volume performance limits available to a compute resource, specifically constraining input/output operations per second (IOPS) and throughput. Because Oracle Cloud Infrastructure binds Block Volume attachment performance metrics directly to the chosen compute shape's capabilities, selecting an appropriate instance shape is essential to satisfy the maximum performance ceilings required by the workload.

Why this answer

Volume size, performance tier, and instance attachment affect throughput and IOPS.

375
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO statements are true regarding OCI VCN Flow Logs?

Select 2 answers
A.Flow logs capture information about traffic flowing through VNICs in your VCN.
B.Flow logs are only supported on public subnets.
C.Flow logs automatically encrypt your database data at rest.
D.Flow logs require an Internet Gateway to export logs out of the VCN.
E.You can configure flow logs to capture accepted traffic, rejected traffic, or both.
AnswersA, E

Flow logs operate by capturing network traffic metadata directly at the virtual network interface card (VNIC) level within a Virtual Cloud Network. This mechanism satisfies the requirement to monitor traffic flowing through specific endpoints, providing visibility into allowed or rejected packets based on security list and network security group rules. By logging these interactions at the VNIC, administrators gain granular insights into connectivity patterns, which remains a fundamental capability distinct from identity-based auditing services like Microsoft Entra ID.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because OCI VCN Flow Logs capture metadata about IP traffic traversing the VNICs (VNIC-level flow data) within a VCN, including source/destination IPs, ports, protocol, and action. Option E is correct because when creating a flow log you can set the capture filter to log accepted traffic, rejected traffic, or all traffic, giving you flexibility in what security-relevant events are recorded. The unmarked options are incorrect: flow logs are not limited to public subnets (they work with any subnet/VNIC), they do not encrypt database data at rest (that is handled by OCI Block Volume/Bucket encryption and TDE for databases), and they do not require an Internet Gateway to export logs since flow logs are delivered to OCI Object Storage or OCI Streaming via the service's internal path.

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