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Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2026 Architect Associate (1Z0-1072-26) (1Z0-1072-26) (1Z0-1072-26) — Questions 151–225

404 questions total · 6 pages · All types, answers revealed

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151
MCQmedium

You are scaling up an Oracle Base Database System (VM) to add more storage to your existing database data disk group (+DATA). What is the correct procedure in the OCI Console?

A.Terminate the DB system, create a larger block volume, and attach it as root.
B.Create a clone of the database to a new shape with higher storage limits.
C.Edit the DB system storage size in the OCI Console to allocate more storage.
D.Log into the OS via SSH, format a new iSCSI disk, and manually add it to the ASM disk group using SQL*Plus.
AnswerC

Scaling the storage capacity of an Oracle Base Database System directly through the OCI Console triggers an automated workflow that expands the underlying block volumes and automatically rebalances the Automatic Storage Management (ASM) disk group. This procedure satisfies the constraint of adding storage to the existing +DATA disk group without requiring manual volume provisioning or database downtime. By modifying the DB system configuration, the service orchestrates the necessary infrastructure changes to integrate the additional capacity seamlessly into the existing storage architecture.

Why this answer

For an Oracle Base Database System (VM), storage can be scaled up by editing the DB system's storage size directly in the OCI Console, which expands the underlying ASM disk group (+DATA) without requiring a rebuild. OCI handles the block volume expansion and ASM rebalancing automatically. This is the supported, non-disruptive scaling path for adding storage to an existing DB system.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates overcomplicate the procedure, assuming manual ASM or OS-level disk operations are required, when OCI Console storage editing handles the expansion automatically.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because terminating the DB system destroys the database and its data — you cannot simply attach a larger block volume as root to expand +DATA, and this would not preserve the existing database. Option B is wrong because cloning to a new shape with higher storage limits creates a separate database rather than scaling the existing one in place, and it is unnecessary for a simple storage increase. Option D is wrong because manually formatting iSCSI disks and adding them to ASM via SQL*Plus is not the supported OCI Console procedure and bypasses the managed automation that OCI provides for storage scaling.

152
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of OCI compartments?

A.To replace Virtual Cloud Networks for internal subnetting.
B.To isolate physical data center hardware for specific customers.
C.To automatically replicate data across multiple OCI regions for disaster recovery.
D.To organize and isolate cloud resources for security, access control, and billing management.
AnswerD

Compartments provide the logical structure required to partition cloud resources, satisfying the requirement for granular security and administrative control. By acting as a boundary for Identity and Access Management policies, they enable administrators to restrict user permissions to specific resource sets. Furthermore, compartments facilitate precise cost tracking, as billing data is aggregated per compartment. This mechanism ensures that organisations can effectively isolate environments and manage governance requirements, functioning independently of external identity providers like Microsoft Entra ID when defining resource access boundaries.

Why this answer

Compartments are logical containers used to organize and isolate OCI resources. They enable fine-grained access control via IAM policies, simplify billing by allowing cost tracking per compartment, and provide a security boundary for resources. This matches option D exactly.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing compartments with network isolation constructs like VCNs — candidates may think compartments provide network segmentation, but they are purely logical for IAM and billing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because compartments are not a replacement for VCNs — VCNs handle network isolation, while compartments handle logical resource grouping and access control. Option B is wrong because compartments do not isolate physical hardware; OCI tenancies are already isolated at the physical layer. Option C is wrong because compartments do not replicate data across regions — replication is a feature of specific services like Object Storage or Block Volume, not compartments.

153
MCQmedium

A database administrator requires a Block Volume attached to an Oracle Linux compute instance to deliver ultra-high IOPS and throughput with minimal latency for a high-transaction workload. Which volume performance level should be selected?

A.Archive
B.Ultra High Performance
C.Lower Cost
D.Balanced
AnswerB

Ultra High Performance volumes provide the highest level of input/output operations per second and throughput available for block storage within Oracle Cloud Infrastructure. By utilising the maximum provisioned performance tiers, this selection effectively satisfies the requirement for a high-transaction workload demanding minimal latency. This performance level ensures that the compute instance maintains consistent, low-latency access to data, which is essential for database operations that would otherwise be constrained by the throughput limitations inherent in lower-tier volume configurations.

Why this answer

OCI Block Volume performance levels range from Lower Cost to Ultra High Performance. Ultra High Performance is designed for the most demanding workloads, delivering up to 225,000 IOPS and 4,800 MB/s throughput per volume with sub-millisecond latency, making it the correct choice for a high-transaction database requiring ultra-high IOPS and minimal latency.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the difference between Block Volume performance levels and Object Storage tiers — candidates may pick 'Archive' thinking it means high-performance archival, when it is actually a low-cost, low-performance Object Storage tier.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'Archive' is not a Block Volume performance level — it is a storage tier for Object Storage (Archive Storage) used for long-term retention, not for attached block volumes. Option C is wrong because 'Lower Cost' is a performance level optimized for cost, delivering only 2 IOPS/GB and 240 KB/s per GB — far too slow for a high-transaction workload. Option D is wrong because 'Balanced' provides moderate performance (up to 25,000 IOPS, 480 MB/s) and is suitable for general-purpose workloads, not ultra-high IOPS databases.

154
MCQmedium

You are configuring an OCI Public Load Balancer and notice that backend instances are marked as unhealthy. Upon inspecting the health check URL on the backend server via curl, it returns HTTP 200. What is the most likely reason the load balancer still reports them as unhealthy?

A.The VCN has an Internet Gateway attached.
B.The load balancer shape is set to 10 Gbps instead of 100 Mbps.
C.Security lists or NSGs on the backend instances are blocking traffic from the Load Balancer subnet on the listener/health check port.
D.The NAT Gateway is misconfigured.
AnswerC

Security lists and Network Security Groups (NSGs) act as virtual firewalls at the subnet and VNIC levels. Even though the backend application is fully operational and returns an HTTP 200 via a direct local curl command, misconfigured ingress rules on the backend instances will drop incoming health check probes originating from the load balancer subnet. Because the traffic cannot reach the application, the health check fails, directly explaining why the load balancer marks the instances as unhealthy despite their internal availability.

Why this answer

If backend servers return HTTP 200 locally but are unhealthy in the load balancer, security list rules or NSGs on the backend subnet are likely blocking incoming health check probes from the load balancer subnet.

155
MCQhard

An OCI administrator creates a subnet and associates a security list with it. An instance in this subnet cannot connect to an external API on HTTPS (port 443). The security list has an ingress rule for port 443, but no egress rules defined. Why is the connection failing?

A.Ingress rules apply to outbound connections.
B.The instance needs a public IP address to make outbound API calls.
C.Port 443 is blocked globally across all OCI regions.
D.The security list lacks an egress rule allowing outbound traffic to port 443 (or all ports), or the default egress rule was removed.
AnswerD

Security lists are stateful, but egress rules are still required for outbound traffic. With no egress rule permitting port 443 or all ports, the instance's outbound HTTPS connection is dropped before reaching the external API, regardless of the ingress rule.

Why this answer

By default, OCI Security Lists are stateful, meaning return traffic for ingress is automatically allowed. However, outbound (egress) traffic initiated by the instance requires an explicit egress rule (or a default egress rule allowing all traffic out) if egress rules are modified or restricted.

156
MCQhard

You are managing an OKE cluster and need to perform a major Kubernetes version upgrade. You want to minimize application downtime during the upgrade process of worker nodes. What feature should you configure on your node pools during upgrade?

A.Node pool rolling update settings with maxSurge and maxUnavailable configured
B.Pausing the Kubernetes API server while upgrading individual node kernels via SSH
C.Simultaneous termination of all worker nodes to force quick cluster recreation
D.Converting all worker nodes to serverless container instances
AnswerA

Configuring `maxSurge` and `maxUnavailable` within the node pool rolling update settings directly addresses the requirement to minimise application downtime. By defining these parameters, you control the precise rate at which new nodes are provisioned and old nodes are cordoned and drained. This mechanism ensures that sufficient capacity remains available to host existing workloads throughout the upgrade process, effectively satisfying the constraint of maintaining service availability while transitioning worker nodes to the newer Kubernetes version.

Why this answer

OKE node pools support rolling updates controlled by maxSurge and maxUnavailable, which allow new nodes to be added and old nodes drained/terminated in batches while maintaining application availability. This is the standard way to minimize downtime during a Kubernetes version upgrade of worker nodes.

Exam trap

The trap is thinking that any node replacement causes downtime, leading candidates to choose disruptive options like simultaneous termination or manual SSH upgrades instead of the built-in rolling update controls.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because pausing the Kubernetes API server and manually upgrading node kernels via SSH is not a supported or safe upgrade method and would disrupt cluster operations. Option C is wrong because terminating all worker nodes simultaneously causes complete application downtime and is not a rolling upgrade. Option D is wrong because converting worker nodes to serverless container instances is not a feature of OKE node pools and does not address version upgrades.

157
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE statements regarding OCI IPv6 implementation in VCNs are correct?

Select 3 answers
A.Security lists and NSGs support rules for IPv6 traffic filtering.
B.Subnets within an IPv6-enabled VCN can be assigned /64 IPv6 prefixes.
C.IPv6 is mandatory for all new VCN creation in OCI.
D.IPv6 addresses in OCI require a NAT Gateway for outbound internet access.
E.You can assign an IPv6 GUA (Globally Unique Address) prefix of /56 to your VCN.
AnswersA, B, E

Security lists and network security groups (NSGs) natively support IPv6 CIDR blocks, allowing administrators to define granular ingress and egress filtering rules for dual-stack VCNs. By specifying IPv6 addresses within these stateful or stateless rule sets, you satisfy the requirement for comprehensive traffic control across the OCI network fabric. This capability ensures that IPv6 traffic is subject to the same rigorous security posture as traditional IPv4 traffic, maintaining consistent policy enforcement across all virtualised cloud resources.

Why this answer

OCI supports IPv6 addressing. You can assign IPv6 CIDR blocks (/56) to your VCN, assign IPv6 subnets (/64) to subnets, and configure security rules and route tables for IPv6 traffic.

158
Multi-Selecthard

When designing a comprehensive tagging strategy in OCI, which THREE practices or features should you implement for effective governance and cost management? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Use IAM policies to control which user groups are permitted to update specific defined tag values.
B.Rely exclusively on Freeform Tags to eliminate administrative overhead for tag namespaces.
C.Use Defined Tags to organize and enforce a controlled namespace and key-value structure.
D.Configure OCI Notifications to convert tag keys into email subscriptions automatically.
E.Implement Tag Defaults to automatically apply specific tags to all resources created in a compartment.
AnswersA, C, E

Applying IAM policies to restrict tag updates satisfies the governance constraint by ensuring that only authorised personnel can modify defined tag values. By leveraging OCI’s identity-based access control, administrators prevent unauthorised users from tampering with metadata, which is essential for maintaining accurate cost-tracking and resource lifecycle management. This granular control mechanism effectively enforces organisational standards, ensuring that cost allocation remains reliable across the tenancy and preventing the data corruption that often occurs when tagging schemas are not strictly governed.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because IAM policies can be scoped to the tag-namespace and tag-key level (for example, using `Allow group X to use tag-namespaces in tenancy where request.principal...` and `inspect`/`use` verbs on defined tags), letting you restrict which user groups may create or update specific defined tag values, which is essential for governance and preventing unauthorized tag changes. Option C is correct because Defined Tags live in a tag namespace with a controlled, schema-like key-value structure, support validation and default values, and are the recommended mechanism for enforcing consistent, governed metadata across resources. Option E is correct because Tag Defaults are a compartment-level feature that automatically applies specified defined tags (and their values) to resources created in that compartment, ensuring new resources are tagged without relying on user discipline.

Option B is not correct because Freeform Tags have no namespace, no schema, and no access control at the tag level, so relying on them exclusively would undermine governance and enforcement rather than improve it. Option D is not correct because OCI Notifications is a publish/subscribe messaging service for topics and subscriptions; it does not automatically convert tag keys into email subscriptions, and no such native tag-to-email feature exists.

159
MCQhard

You are running an application on an OKE cluster. You want to ensure that specific pods belonging to a high-priority database caching tier are never scheduled onto the same worker node as each other to avoid a single node failure taking down the entire cache tier. What Kubernetes feature should you configure?

A.Persistent Volume Claims
B.Kubernetes Network Policies
C.Horizontal Pod Autoscaler
D.Pod Anti-Affinity
AnswerD

Pod anti-affinity allows you to define rules that prevent pods from being co-located on the same node based on labels. By configuring a `podAntiAffinity` rule with a `requiredDuringSchedulingIgnoredDuringExecution` constraint and a topology key of `kubernetes.io/hostname`, you ensure that the scheduler strictly avoids placing multiple pods from the high-priority database caching tier on a single worker node. This mechanism effectively satisfies the requirement to eliminate single points of failure, ensuring high availability even if an individual node experiences an outage.

Why this answer

Kubernetes pod anti-affinity allows you to specify rules that prevent pods with matching labels from being scheduled on the same node, availability domain, or fault domain.

160
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of OCI Object Storage?

A.High-performance cache
B.Database storage
C.Unstructured data storage
D.OS swap space
AnswerC

OCI Object Storage is designed to manage massive volumes of unstructured data by storing information as discrete objects rather than within a rigid hierarchical file system or relational database. This architecture satisfies the requirement for scalable, durable storage of binary large objects, logs, and media files. Unlike block storage, which relies on fixed-size volumes, this service provides a flat namespace that allows for virtually unlimited capacity, making it the optimal solution for data lakes and long-term archival needs within the cloud environment.

Why this answer

OCI Object Storage is a highly durable, scalable service designed for storing unstructured data such as images, videos, logs, backups, and documents. It uses a flat namespace with buckets and objects, accessed via REST APIs, and is not intended for block-level or database workloads. This makes 'unstructured data storage' the defining purpose.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between Object Storage (unstructured, HTTP/REST) and Block Volume (block-level, attached to compute) — candidates pick 'database storage' by assuming all storage is interchangeable.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Object Storage is not a low-latency cache — caching workloads require Block Volume or in-memory services, not an HTTP object store with higher access latency. Option B is wrong because database storage requires block-level volumes (Block Volume) or managed database services; Object Storage cannot host database files with the IOPS and consistency guarantees a DBMS needs. Option D is wrong because OS swap space requires block-level, low-latency storage attached to a compute instance — Object Storage is network-based and unsuitable for swap.

161
MCQeasy

An application requires an Oracle Autonomous Database that supports complex analytical queries, reporting, and high-throughput data warehousing workloads. Which workload type should you select during provisioning?

A.JSON Database
B.APEX
C.Data Warehouse
D.Transaction Processing
AnswerC

Selecting the Data Warehouse workload type enables the Autonomous Data Warehouse (ADW) service, which is specifically optimised for complex analytical queries and high-throughput data warehousing. This configuration prioritises parallel execution and columnar compression, effectively satisfying the requirement for intensive reporting workloads. By utilising these resource management profiles, the database engine automatically tunes memory allocation and concurrency settings to ensure that large-scale analytical operations perform efficiently, providing the necessary throughput for demanding data processing tasks.

Why this answer

The Data Warehouse workload type is optimized for complex analytical queries, reporting, and high-throughput data warehousing. It uses columnar storage, parallel execution, and other optimizations specifically for analytical workloads.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the workload type selection, and candidates confuse Data Warehouse with Transaction Processing or pick APEX/JSON thinking they are workload types.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because JSON Database is a workload type optimized for JSON document storage and querying, not for complex analytical queries and data warehousing. Option B is wrong because APEX is a low-code development platform, not a workload type for analytical processing. Option D is wrong because Transaction Processing is optimized for OLTP workloads with high concurrency and short transactions, not for complex analytical queries and data warehousing.

162
MCQmedium

You are configuring an OCI DNS Traffic Management steering policy with a Load Balancer steering strategy. What is the primary behavior of this policy type?

A.It routes all traffic to a single primary datacenter until manual failover occurs.
B.It routes users based strictly on their geographic location.
C.It distributes traffic across multiple endpoints according to assigned weights and health checks.
D.It routes traffic based on client ASN numbers.
AnswerC

Configuring an OCI DNS Traffic Management steering policy with a Load Balancer strategy directly satisfies the requirement to distribute incoming traffic proportionally across multiple endpoints based on user-defined weights, while simultaneously integrating health checks to route requests exclusively to healthy targets. This specific mechanism ensures fault tolerance and optimal resource utilisation by dynamically shifting traffic away from degraded endpoints while maintaining the configured weight-based distribution ratio for operational resources.

Why this answer

Load Balancer steering distributes traffic across a pool of endpoints based on specified weights and health status, similar to load balancing algorithms.

163
MCQhard

An OCI customer has an architecture where VCN-A, VCN-B, and VCN-C are connected to a central DRG in a Hub-and-Spoke topology. VCN-A needs to communicate with VCN-B, but VCN-C must be completely isolated from VCN-A. How should the DRG route tables and attachments be configured?

A.Configure NAT Gateways on all spoke VCNs.
B.Attach an Internet Gateway to VCN-C to block internal DRG traffic.
C.Use custom DRG route tables for each attachment, ensuring VCN-A's route table does not import routes from VCN-C's attachment.
D.Delete all subnets in VCN-C.
AnswerC

Configuring custom Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) route tables for each attachment enables precise control over traffic flow in a hub-and-spoke architecture. By tailoring the import and export routes for VCN-A, VCN-B, and VCN-C independently, you can ensure that VCN-A's route table does not import routes associated with VCN-C's attachment. This mechanism directly satisfies the strict isolation requirement stated in the stem, preventing any unwanted network communication between VCN-A and VCN-C while still permitting authorised connectivity.

Why this answer

To isolate VCN-C from VCN-A, you assign VCN-A and VCN-C attachments to separate DRG route tables. VCN-A's route table imports routes for VCN-B but does not import routes for VCN-C, and vice versa.

164
MCQmedium

You are managing an Oracle Base Database System and need to configure automated backups. By default, where does OCI store these automated backups?

A.A customer-managed File Storage Service (FSS) mount target
B.An Oracle-managed Object Storage bucket
C.The local root file system (/u01) of the database VM
D.A locally attached block volume separate from the database data disk
AnswerB

Oracle Base Database Systems utilise an Oracle-managed Object Storage bucket to satisfy the requirement for automated backups. When you enable this feature, the service automatically provisions and manages a hidden, internal bucket within your tenancy. This mechanism offloads the operational overhead of backup lifecycle management and storage configuration, ensuring that data is durably persisted outside the database host. By abstracting the underlying infrastructure, OCI provides a seamless, scalable repository that integrates directly with the database control plane for automated recovery operations.

Why this answer

By default, OCI stores automated backups of an Oracle Base Database System in an Oracle-managed Object Storage bucket. This bucket is provisioned and managed by Oracle, and customers do not need to configure FSS, local disk, or block volumes for default automated backups. The backups are retained according to the configured retention policy and can be restored via the Console or CLI.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates assume backups go to customer-visible storage like FSS or block volumes — the default is an Oracle-managed Object Storage bucket.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because FSS mount targets are customer-managed file systems, not the default location for automated database backups — using FSS would require explicit configuration and is not the default. Option C is wrong because storing backups on the local root file system (/u01) is not a default OCI behavior and would be risky due to limited space and lack of durability. Option D is wrong because a locally attached block volume is not the default backup destination; OCI uses Object Storage for durability and scalability.

165
MCQeasy

Your development team needs instances residing in a private subnet to download software patches and updates from the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Object Storage service without exposing those instances to the public internet. Which gateway should you configure?

A.Service Gateway
B.Internet Gateway
C.NAT Gateway
D.Local Peering Gateway
AnswerA

A service gateway provides private access to Oracle services such as Object Storage over the OCI network, so private-subnet instances reach it without internet exposure. It satisfies the no-public-internet constraint, unlike NAT gateway, which routes traffic to the public internet.

Why this answer

A Service Gateway routes traffic from a VCN to supported Oracle services, such as Object Storage, within the Oracle network fabric without going over the public internet.

166
MCQeasy

Which utility is used to authenticate and push custom container images built for OCI Functions to the Oracle Registry (OCIR)?

A.VCN Management Console
B.Terraform CLI
C.OCI Object Storage CLI
D.Docker CLI
AnswerD

Docker CLI serves as the standard interface for interacting with the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Registry, satisfying the requirement to authenticate and push custom container images. By utilising the `docker login` command with an OCI auth token, developers establish a secure session to the registry endpoint. This utility manages the image layering and transport protocols necessary to upload locally built containerised functions, ensuring they are correctly stored and accessible for deployment within the OCI Functions environment, regardless of external identity providers like Microsoft Entra ID.

Why this answer

Custom OCI Functions images are built as Docker images and pushed to OCIR using the Docker CLI after authenticating with `docker login <region>.ocir.io` using an OCI auth token. The Docker CLI is the standard tool for building, tagging, and pushing container images to any OCI-compliant registry, including OCIR.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates confuse OCIR with Object Storage — the trap is selecting 'OCI Object Storage CLI' because both are OCI storage services, but only Docker CLI can push to the Docker Registry v2 API that OCIR exposes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the VCN Management Console is a networking UI for subnets, route tables, and gateways — it has no role in container image workflows. Option B is wrong because Terraform CLI provisions infrastructure as code (including OCIR repos and Functions), but it does not build or push container images. Option C is wrong because the OCI Object Storage CLI manages buckets and objects, not container registry images — OCIR is a separate Docker Registry v2-compatible service.

167
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE configuration options are available when creating a new OCI Object Storage bucket? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Maximum IOPS provisioning limit
B.Object Versioning (Enabled or Disabled)
C.Encryption (Oracle-managed keys or Customer-managed keys in OCI KMS)
D.Storage Tier (Standard or Infrequent Access)
E.Automatic cross-region replication destination region
AnswersB, C, D

Object Versioning is a configurable setting during bucket creation that allows users to preserve, retrieve, and restore every version of every object stored in the bucket. By enabling this feature, you protect data against accidental deletions or overwrites, satisfying the requirement to select three valid configuration options available at the point of bucket provisioning. This mechanism maintains a history of object states, ensuring that previous iterations remain accessible even if the current version is modified or removed from the namespace.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because Object Versioning is a bucket-level setting chosen at creation time, allowing you to enable or disable the retention of multiple versions of objects to protect against accidental overwrites or deletions. Option C is correct because when creating a bucket you select the encryption type: Oracle-managed keys (the default) or customer-managed keys stored in OCI Vault (KMS), which determines how objects in the bucket are encrypted at rest. Option D is correct because the bucket's default storage tier can be set to Standard or Infrequent Access, and this tier applies to objects uploaded to the bucket unless overridden per object.

Option A is not a bucket creation setting, since IOPS/throughput limits are not provisioned for Object Storage buckets (that concept applies to block volume performance). Option E is not a creation option because cross-region replication is configured separately as a replication policy after the bucket exists, not as a parameter in the create-bucket workflow.

168
MCQhard

You are migrating a database that requires a consistent point-in-time snapshot of multiple volumes. What should you use?

A.Volume Groups
B.Individual volume backups
C.Storage Gateway
D.Object Storage replication
E.Clone the volumes
AnswerA

Volume Groups enable the creation of crash-consistent backups across multiple block storage volumes by orchestrating snapshots simultaneously. This mechanism satisfies the requirement for a consistent point-in-time snapshot of multiple volumes, ensuring that data integrity is maintained across the entire database deployment. By grouping these volumes, you eliminate the risk of data inconsistency that would otherwise occur if snapshots were triggered sequentially. This approach is essential for complex multi-volume database configurations where application-level synchronisation is not natively managed by the underlying storage infrastructure.

Why this answer

Volume Groups allow you to create a consistent point-in-time snapshot across multiple volumes simultaneously, which is essential for database consistency. Individual volume backups (B) are taken independently and may not be crash-consistent across volumes.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that individual volume backups or clones provide cross-volume consistency, when only Volume Groups guarantee a coordinated point-in-time snapshot.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because individual volume backups are taken per volume and do not guarantee a consistent point-in-time across multiple volumes, risking database corruption on restore. Option C is wrong because Storage Gateway is a hybrid storage service for connecting on-premises environments to OCI, not a mechanism for consistent multi-volume snapshots. Option D is wrong because Object Storage replication replicates objects, not block volumes, and is unrelated to database volume consistency.

Option E is wrong because cloning volumes creates copies but does not provide a coordinated point-in-time snapshot across multiple volumes.

169
MCQhard

An OCI customer has a VCN with CIDR 10.0.0.0/16 and wants to peer it with another VCN having CIDR 10.1.0.0/16. However, they also have an on-premises network connected via FastConnect using the CIDR 10.0.0.0/14. What routing challenge does this create?

A.The on-premises CIDR (10.0.0.0/14) subsumes the VCN CIDRs, creating overlapping prefix routing conflicts.
B.FastConnect does not support CIDRs larger than /16.
C.The Internet Gateway will drop all 10.x.x.x traffic.
D.Peered VCNs cannot use private IP addresses.
AnswerA

The on-premises /14 covers 10.0.0.0 through 10.3.255.255, which includes both VCN ranges. Because the DRG and FastConnect advertise this broader prefix, OCI cannot distinguish on-premises destinations from peered VCN destinations, so longest-prefix matching fails and traffic is misrouted or dropped.

Why this answer

The on-premises CIDR (10.0.0.0/14) encompasses both VCN CIDRs (10.0.0.0/16 and 10.1.0.0/16). This creates overlapping address spaces where the more specific VCN routes might conflict or cause unpredictable routing behavior between hybrid and cloud peers.

170
MCQmedium

You need to configure custom DNS resolution for instances within your OCI VCN so they can resolve hostnames of your on-premises datacenter servers. What should you configure in OCI?

A.A NAT Gateway configured with DNS proxy settings
B.A public DNS zone for your on-premises domain
C.An Internet Gateway with custom host file mappings
D.Custom DNS forwarders in the VCN Resolver pointing to on-premises DNS servers via the DRG
AnswerD

Configuring custom DNS forwarders in the VCN Resolver, pointing to the on-premises DNS servers reachable through the DRG, lets instances resolve on-premises hostnames. The VCN Resolver forwards queries it cannot answer internally to those specified servers.

Why this answer

OCI's VCN Resolver supports custom DNS forwarders that send queries for specific domains to on-premises DNS servers reachable through the DRG (over FastConnect or Site-to-Site VPN). This is the correct mechanism for hybrid DNS resolution where VCN instances need to resolve on-premises hostnames.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing outbound internet plumbing (NAT/IGW) with DNS resolution — candidates must recognize that hybrid DNS requires custom forwarders on the VCN Resolver routed via the DRG, not a gateway feature.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because NAT Gateways provide outbound internet access for private subnets and have no DNS proxy capability — they cannot forward DNS queries to on-premises servers. Option B is wrong because a public DNS zone hosts records for internet-facing names in OCI DNS; it does not enable VCN instances to query on-premises DNS servers. Option C is wrong because Internet Gateways route internet traffic and have no host-file or DNS-mapping feature — host file mappings are an OS-level construct, not an OCI gateway function.

171
MCQhard

An OCI customer has a primary database in Ashburn and a standby database in Phoenix. They need to replicate database traffic over a dedicated, highly secure private connection between the two regions. Which OCI networking architecture best achieves this requirement?

A.Attach DRGs to the VCNs in Ashburn and Phoenix and establish a Remote Peering Connection (RPC).
B.Route database traffic through regional Internet Gateways.
C.Use Local Peering Gateways (LPGs) between Ashburn and Phoenix.
D.Configure NAT Gateways with public IP tunneling across regions.
AnswerA

Establishing a Remote Peering Connection (RPC) between Dynamic Routing Gateways (DRGs) attached to the Virtual Cloud Networks (VCNs) in Ashburn and Phoenix enables secure, private inter-region traffic replication without traversing the public internet. This architecture directly satisfies the requirement for a dedicated and highly secure private connection across different Oracle Cloud Infrastructure regions, ensuring that database traffic between the primary and standby instances remains isolated and encrypted within OCI's backbone network.

Why this answer

To connect VCNs across two OCI regions privately, you attach a Dynamic Routing Gateway to each VCN and establish a Remote Peering Connection (RPC) between the DRGs. This creates a dedicated, encrypted private connection over Oracle's backbone network, ideal for cross-region database replication. This is the standard OCI inter-region VCN peering architecture.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing Local Peering Gateway (same-region) with Remote Peering Connection (cross-region) — candidates pick LPG for inter-region connectivity, which is technically impossible.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because routing database traffic through regional Internet Gateways exposes it to the public internet and does not provide a dedicated private connection. Option C is wrong because Local Peering Gateways only connect VCNs within the same region — they cannot span Ashburn and Phoenix. Option D is wrong because NAT Gateways provide outbound internet access for private subnets and do not support cross-region tunneling between VCNs.

172
MCQeasy

What is the maximum number of Internet Gateways allowed per Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) in OCI?

A.1
B.2
C.Unlimited
D.5
AnswerA

A VCN supports exactly one Internet Gateway, which provides bidirectional internet access for resources in public subnets via the route table. This hard limit means the gateway is attached once per VCN, satisfying the question's constraint on maximum count.

Why this answer

OCI allows only one Internet Gateway per Virtual Cloud Network (VCN). This is a hard limit set by the service to simplify routing and avoid conflicts. The Internet Gateway is a regional resource that provides a single point of internet access for the VCN, and multiple gateways are not supported.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests specific OCI service limits, and candidates may assume multiple Internet Gateways are allowed for redundancy or segmentation, but the limit is strictly one per VCN.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the limit is not 2; it is 1. Option C is wrong because the limit is not unlimited; OCI enforces a maximum of 1. Option D is wrong because the limit is not 5; it is 1.

173
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO types of tags are available in OCI?

Select 2 answers
A.Defined tags
B.Free-form tags
C.Compartment tags
D.System-defined tags
E.Global tags
AnswersA, B

Defined tags are one of the two tag types in OCI, created in a namespace with a defined schema and governed by IAM policies. They satisfy the requirement by providing structured, policy-controlled tagging alongside free-form tags.

Why this answer

In OCI, the two supported tag types are defined tags (Option A) and free-form tags (Option B). Defined tags use a namespace and a key/value pair, are created and managed through IAM tag namespaces, and can be enforced with tag defaults and security policies, which is why Option A is correct. Free-form tags are simple key/value pairs that any user with permission on the resource can apply without a predefined namespace, which is why Option B is correct.

The remaining options are not valid OCI tag types: compartments are logical containers for resources rather than tags, OCI does not expose a 'system-defined tags' category (system tags exist but are not a user-selectable tag type in this context), and there is no 'global tags' type in OCI.

174
MCQhard

You are using Storage Gateway to connect on-premises applications to OCI. How are file systems mapped?

A.Maps to Block Volumes
B.Maps to Object Storage buckets
C.Maps to File Storage targets
D.Maps to Archive Storage only
AnswerB

Storage Gateway functions as a file gateway by presenting a standard file system interface, such as NFS, to on-premises applications. It maps these file system directories directly to OCI Object Storage buckets, enabling seamless integration between local storage protocols and cloud-native object storage. This mechanism satisfies the requirement to bridge on-premises applications with OCI, as the gateway translates file-based I/O operations into object-based API calls, ensuring that data is persisted as objects within the designated bucket while maintaining a familiar file-level hierarchy for users.

Why this answer

Storage Gateway maps local file systems to OCI Object Storage buckets.

175
MCQeasy

Which OCI shape family is optimized for High-Performance Computing (HPC) workloads requiring high core counts and low-latency clustering?

A.Standard Micro Shapes
B.HPC Shapes
C.Burstable Instances
D.General Purpose Standard Shapes
AnswerB

HPC shapes utilise the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure cluster networking feature, which leverages Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA) over Converged Ethernet (RoCE) to bypass the host CPU stack. This specific architectural mechanism satisfies the low-latency clustering constraint by enabling direct memory-to-memory communication between compute instances. By minimising overhead and jitter, these shapes provide the high-bandwidth, sub-microsecond latency performance necessary for tightly coupled workloads, distinguishing them from standard general-purpose shapes that rely on traditional virtualised networking stacks.

Why this answer

OCI HPC shapes are purpose-built for High-Performance Computing, offering high core counts, large memory, and support for low-latency cluster networking (RDMA). They are the correct family for tightly-coupled HPC workloads.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates pick 'General Purpose' or 'Burstable' for HPC because they sound flexible — the key discriminator is the need for high core counts and RDMA clustering, which only HPC shapes provide.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Standard Micro Shapes are tiny, burstable-adjacent instances for light workloads, not HPC. Option C is wrong because Burstable Instances are designed for workloads with variable CPU needs and baseline performance, not sustained high-core HPC. Option D is wrong because General Purpose Standard Shapes balance CPU, memory, and networking for typical workloads but lack the core density and RDMA fabric of HPC shapes.

176
MCQeasy

A development team needs to deploy an application that requires exactly 6 OCPUs and 32 GB of memory. Which compute option best satisfies this requirement efficiently without wasting resources?

A.VM.Standard1.16
B.VM.Standard.E4.Flex configured with 6 OCPUs and 32 GB of RAM
C.BM.Standard.E3.128
D.VM.Standard2.8
AnswerB

Flexible shapes allow administrators to independently customise the number of OCPUs and the amount of memory allocated to a virtual machine. By selecting the VM.Standard.E4.Flex shape, the team can precisely provision exactly 6 OCPUs and 32 GB of RAM. This granular control directly satisfies the resource constraint specified in the stem, ensuring that the deployment remains cost-efficient by avoiding the over-provisioning typically associated with fixed-shape instances that force users to accept pre-defined hardware ratios.

Why this answer

Flexible shapes allow you to independently configure OCPUs and memory to match exact workload requirements.

177
MCQmedium

You are configuring a Data Guard association between a primary Oracle Base Database Service DB system and a standby DB system in a different availability domain. The primary database encounters a catastrophic failure. Which action must you perform to promote the standby database to primary using the OCI Console?

A.Perform a Switchover operation from the standby database details page.
B.Delete the Data Guard association and create a new primary database from a backup.
C.Perform a Failover operation from the standby database details page.
D.Run RMAN restore commands directly on the standby host operating system.
AnswerC

Failover promotes the standby when the primary is unavailable, which matches the catastrophic failure described. Unlike switchover, it requires no primary connectivity, so it works despite the outage. Initiating it from the standby's details page in the OCI Console satisfies the cross-availability-domain Data Guard scenario and restores write capability.

Why this answer

When the primary database has suffered a catastrophic failure and is unavailable, the correct OCI Console action is Failover from the standby database details page. Failover promotes the standby to primary without requiring the original primary to be online, which is exactly the scenario described. Switchover, by contrast, requires both databases to be healthy and is a planned role reversal.

Exam trap

The trap is the switchover-versus-failover distinction; candidates pick switchover because it sounds like the standard promotion path, but switchover requires a healthy primary and is invalid in a catastrophic failure scenario.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because switchover is a planned operation that requires the primary to be available and synchronized; it cannot be used when the primary has catastrophically failed. Option B is wrong because deleting the Data Guard association and rebuilding from backup discards the standby's synchronized data and is not how OCI promotes a standby. Option D is wrong because running RMAN restore commands directly on the host bypasses OCI's managed Data Guard orchestration and is not the Console-based promotion method.

178
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE options are available for creating a Resource Manager stack?

Select 3 answers
A.Copy from another compartment
B.Upload a .zip file
C.Use an OCI template
D.Connect to a Git repository
E.Import from a local database
AnswersB, C, D

Uploading a .zip file satisfies the requirement for creating a Resource Manager stack by allowing users to bundle a Terraform configuration file alongside its necessary variable definitions and supporting modules. This mechanism enables the deployment of complex infrastructure-as-code templates directly from a local machine or a repository archive. By processing the compressed directory, the service parses the root configuration to provision resources efficiently, ensuring that all dependencies are included within the single package to maintain consistency across the deployment lifecycle.

Why this answer

In OCI Resource Manager, a stack can be created by uploading a Terraform configuration as a .zip file (option B), which is the standard way to supply your own local Terraform code. Option C is correct because Resource Manager provides built-in OCI templates (and template-based workflows) that let you create a stack directly from a prebuilt template. Option D is correct because Resource Manager supports connecting a stack to a Git repository (via the Git configuration source) so Terraform configurations can be pulled from a repo.

Option A is not a valid stack-creation method because compartments are logical containers for resources, not a source you can copy a stack from. Option E is not valid because Resource Manager does not import stacks from a local database; it works with Terraform configurations, templates, or Git sources.

179
MCQeasy

An administrator needs to grant a group of database administrators the ability to manage Autonomous Databases in a specific compartment named DevComp. Which policy syntax is the most secure and adheres to the principle of least privilege?

A.Allow group DBA-Group to manage all-resources in tenancy
B.Allow user DBA-Group to manage autonomous-database in tenancy
C.Allow group DBA-Group to manage autonomous-database in compartment DevComp
D.Allow group DBA-Group to use databases in compartment DevComp
AnswerC

Granting `manage autonomous-database` scoped to the DevComp compartment limits the DBA-Group to full lifecycle control of Autonomous Databases there, without touching other compartments or resource types. This directly satisfies the least-privilege constraint, since broader verbs like `manage all-resources` or tenancy-wide scope would over-grant.

Why this answer

The policy 'Allow group DBA-Group to manage autonomous-database in compartment DevComp' grants the DBA group full management of Autonomous Databases scoped only to the DevComp compartment. This adheres to least privilege by limiting both the subject (a group, not a user) and the scope (a single compartment) while using the correct resource type 'autonomous-database' and the 'manage' verb needed to administer those databases.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between 'group' and 'user' principals, and between the 'use' and 'manage' verbs, tempting candidates toward overly broad tenancy-level policies.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because granting 'manage all-resources in tenancy' gives the group unrestricted control over every resource in the tenancy, violating least privilege. Option B is wrong because 'user DBA-Group' incorrectly treats a group as a user, and scoping to the tenancy is broader than necessary; policies must reference 'group' for group principals. Option D is wrong because 'use databases' is both an incorrect resource type for Autonomous Database and an insufficient verb for full management; 'use' does not grant the ability to create, delete, or fully administer autonomous databases.

180
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO protocols are supported for health checks by OCI Load Balancer backend sets?

Select 2 answers
A.SMTP
B.TCP
C.HTTP
D.FTP
E.SSH
AnswersB, C

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Load Balancer backend sets natively support Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) health checks, directly satisfying the protocol requirement specified in the stem for non-HTTP backend monitoring. When configured, the load balancer attempts a three-way TCP handshake with the designated backend server port at regular intervals. If the target server responds with a SYN-ACK packet, the health check passes, confirming the node is reachable and capable of servicing incoming connections, thereby fulfilling the transport-layer validation criteria.

Why this answer

OCI Load Balancer backend sets support health checks over TCP (option B), where the load balancer simply attempts a TCP connection to the backend server's specified port to confirm the port is open and accepting connections. They also support HTTP (option C), where the load balancer sends an HTTP request to a specified URL path and validates the response status code (e.g., 200 OK) to determine backend health. These two protocols cover both simple port-level checks and application-layer checks, which are the health check types exposed in the OCI Load Balancer backend set configuration.

SMTP (A), FTP (D), and SSH (E) are application protocols that are not offered as native health check protocol choices for OCI Load Balancer backend sets.

181
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE security features are enabled by default or configurable on an Oracle Autonomous Database? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Network Access Control Lists (ACLs) and private endpoints to restrict IP connectivity
B.Mandatory automated security patching and vulnerability updates applied by Oracle
C.Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) enabled by default for all user data
D.Manual customer management of operating system root access permissions
E.Disabling all network security controls to allow unrestricted global access
AnswersA, B, C

Network Access Control Lists and private endpoints satisfy the requirement for granular network perimeter security by restricting database connectivity to authorised IP addresses or specific Virtual Cloud Networks. These mechanisms function at the infrastructure layer to isolate the Autonomous Database from the public internet, ensuring that only traffic originating from trusted sources can reach the instance. By implementing these controls, administrators effectively harden the database environment against unauthorised access attempts, fulfilling the necessity for robust network-level security configurations within the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure ecosystem.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because Oracle Autonomous Database supports network ACLs and private endpoints (via Oracle Cloud Infrastructure VCN and private endpoint configuration) to restrict IP connectivity and keep traffic off the public internet. Option B is correct because Oracle autonomously applies mandatory security patches and vulnerability updates to the database and underlying infrastructure, removing that burden from the customer. Option C is correct because Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) is enabled by default on Autonomous Database, encrypting all user data at rest with Oracle-managed keys (with customer-managed keys optionally configurable).

Option D is not correct because customers do not manually manage OS root access on Autonomous Database; Oracle manages the operating system and infrastructure. Option E is not correct because disabling all network security controls to allow unrestricted global access is the opposite of the platform's secure-by-default posture and is not a supported security feature.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing 'managed service' with 'customer-managed security' — candidates who assume they must configure TDE or patching themselves pick options implying manual control, when Autonomous Database does these automatically.

182
MCQmedium

You need to be alerted only when the average CPU utilization of a cluster of instances exceeds 80% for 5 consecutive minutes. Which alarm feature achieves this?

A.Alarm duration and aggregation window
B.Event rule
C.Notification frequency
D.Threshold delay
AnswerA

Configuring the alarm duration and aggregation window allows you to define the evaluation period and threshold sensitivity required to meet the specific constraint of five consecutive minutes. By setting the aggregation window to one minute and the alarm duration to five periods, the system calculates the average CPU utilisation across the cluster for each interval. This mechanism ensures that an alert triggers only when the sustained average exceeds 80% throughout the entire specified duration, effectively filtering out transient spikes that do not meet your criteria.

Why this answer

OCI Monitoring alarms use a metric aggregation window and alarm duration to evaluate conditions over time. The aggregation window (e.g., 5 minutes) defines the interval over which the metric is averaged, and the alarm duration (e.g., 5 minutes) specifies how long the condition must persist before triggering. Setting both to 5 minutes with a threshold of 80% achieves the requirement.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests alarm configuration nuances — candidates confuse aggregation window (how data is averaged) with alarm duration (how long the condition must persist), or pick unrelated features like notification frequency or event rules.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because an Event rule responds to OCI events (e.g., resource state changes), not to metric thresholds like CPU utilization. Option C is wrong because notification frequency controls how often alerts are resent after an alarm fires; it does not define the evaluation period. Option D is wrong because 'threshold delay' is not a valid OCI alarm feature — the correct terms are aggregation window and alarm duration.

183
MCQeasy

You are designing a secure database architecture on OCI. Instances in a private subnet require outbound internet access to download operating system updates, but malicious actors must not be able to initiate inbound connections to these instances from the internet. Which component fulfills this requirement?

A.Local Peering Gateway
B.Internet Gateway
C.Dynamic Routing Gateway
D.NAT Gateway
AnswerD

A NAT Gateway facilitates outbound internet connectivity for instances within a private subnet while strictly preventing unsolicited inbound traffic from the public internet. By performing source network address translation, it allows instances to initiate requests to external update repositories while ensuring they remain unreachable to external malicious actors. This architecture satisfies the constraint of enabling necessary OS updates without exposing the private infrastructure to inbound connection attempts, maintaining a secure perimeter for your OCI database environment.

Why this answer

A NAT (Network Address Translation) Gateway allows private subnet instances to initiate outbound connections to the internet while preventing any unsolicited inbound internet traffic.

184
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO statements regarding OCI VCN Local Peering are correct?

Select 2 answers
A.Local peering requires an Internet Gateway in both VCNs.
B.The peered VCNs must reside in the same OCI region.
C.The VCN CIDR blocks must not overlap.
D.Peered VCNs must belong to the exact same compartment.
E.Traffic between locally peered VCNs traverses the public internet.
AnswersB, C

Local peering gateways facilitate communication between virtual cloud networks exclusively within the same OCI region, satisfying the fundamental geographic constraint defined in the question stem. Because these gateways operate at the regional level, they cannot bridge networks across different geographic areas, which would instead require a remote peering connection. This architectural limitation ensures that traffic remains contained within the regional boundary, providing a secure and performant method for internal routing between peered subnets without needing to integrate external identity providers like Microsoft Entra ID.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because OCI Local Peering Gateway (LPG) connections only work between VCNs that are in the same OCI region; cross-region connectivity requires Remote Peering via Dynamic Routing Gateways (DRGs) and a DRG attachment. Option C is correct because locally peered VCNs must have non-overlapping CIDR blocks, since overlapping address space would create ambiguous routing and the peering cannot be established. Option A is incorrect because local peering uses the LPG-to-LPG link and does not require an Internet Gateway in either VCN.

Option D is incorrect because peered VCNs can reside in different compartments within the same tenancy, as long as the required IAM policies permit the LPG creation and peering. Option E is incorrect because traffic between locally peered VCNs stays on the OCI private network and never traverses the public internet.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming Local Peering works across regions or requires internet exposure — candidates confuse LPG (same-region, private) with RPC (cross-region, private) and IGW (public internet).

185
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO statements are true about OCI IAM compartments? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Compartments can only contain Virtual Cloud Networks, nothing else.
B.Compartments can span multiple OCI regions globally.
C.Compartments are physical data center buildings.
D.Compartments replace IAM policies entirely.
E.Compartments are logical containers used to organize and isolate OCI resources.
AnswersB, E

Compartments function as logical containers that exist globally across all OCI regions within a tenancy, satisfying the requirement for cross-regional resource organisation. Unlike Microsoft Entra ID, where administrative boundaries often align with specific directory instances, OCI compartments provide a unified hierarchical structure that persists regardless of the physical region where resources are deployed. This global scope allows administrators to manage access policies and govern resources consistently across the entire OCI footprint without needing to replicate compartment structures for each individual geographic location.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because OCI compartments are global logical constructs: a compartment exists in the tenancy and is visible across all subscribed regions, so resources in different regions can be organized under the same compartment. Option E is correct because compartments are logical containers used to organize, group, and isolate OCI resources (compute, storage, networking, databases, etc.) and to scope IAM policies and quotas. Option A is wrong because compartments can hold virtually any OCI resource type, not only Virtual Cloud Networks.

Option C is wrong because compartments are logical, not physical; data centers are the physical facilities (regions and availability domains). Option D is wrong because compartments work together with IAM policies — policies are written against compartments to grant access, so they do not replace policies.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing OCI compartments with AWS accounts or VPCs — candidates assume compartments are region-scoped or network-only containers, when in fact they are global, logical, and can hold any resource type.

186
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following capabilities are provided by OCI Container Instances? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Automatic multi-master control plane high availability clustering
B.Advanced Kubernetes DaemonSet and StatefulSet orchestration controllers
C.Serverless container execution without managing underlying virtual machines
D.Full administrative SSH access to the underlying hypervisor host
E.Support for attaching block storage volumes for persistent data
AnswersC, E

OCI Container Instances provide a serverless compute service that abstracts the infrastructure layer, allowing users to run containers directly without the operational burden of provisioning or patching underlying virtual machines. This satisfies the constraint of serverless execution by delegating node management to the platform, which automatically handles resource allocation and scaling. By removing the requirement to configure or maintain the host operating system, the service streamlines deployment workflows and ensures that developers focus exclusively on containerised application logic rather than infrastructure maintenance.

Why this answer

OCI Container Instances provides serverless container execution, meaning you can run containers directly without provisioning or managing the underlying virtual machines or hosts, which is exactly what option C describes. Option E is also correct because Container Instances supports attaching OCI Block Volume storage to a container instance, allowing persistent data to survive beyond the container's lifecycle. Options A and B are incorrect because multi-master control plane HA clustering and Kubernetes DaemonSet/StatefulSet controllers are features of Kubernetes (e.g., OKE), not of the Container Instances service.

Option D is incorrect because Container Instances abstracts the underlying infrastructure and does not grant administrative SSH access to the hypervisor host.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the boundary between Container Instances and OKE — candidates incorrectly attribute Kubernetes features (control plane HA, DaemonSets, StatefulSets) to Container Instances.

187
MCQmedium

You are configuring a site-to-site VPN connection in OCI. During the tunnel setup, your on-premises firewall administrator asks for the pre-shared key (PSK). Where is the PSK defined or generated in OCI?

A.In the VCN Route Table settings
B.In the NAT Gateway security policies
C.On the Internet Gateway configuration page
D.During the IPSec connection tunnel creation in the OCI Console
AnswerD

The pre-shared key is entered when creating the IPSec connection and its tunnels in the OCI Console, then shared with the on-premises firewall administrator. It is not generated by CPE objects or DRG attachments, which hold no tunnel secrets.

Why this answer

When creating an IPSec tunnel in OCI, you can either provide your own pre-shared key or let OCI automatically generate one during the tunnel configuration.

188
Multi-Selectmedium

When designing network security in OCI, you can use Security Lists and Network Security Groups (NSGs). Which TWO statements accurately compare or contrast them?

Select 2 answers
A.You cannot use Security Lists and Network Security Groups together for the same VNIC.
B.Security Lists apply to all VNICs in a given subnet, while NSGs apply to a specifically selected set of VNICs.
C.Network Security Groups allow you to reference other NSGs as sources or destinations in rules.
D.Security Lists can reference other Security Lists by OCID across different VCNs.
E.Network Security Groups can only contain stateless rules, whereas Security Lists only contain stateful rules.
AnswersB, C

Security Lists operate at the subnet level, meaning their rules automatically apply to all Virtual Network Interface Cards (VNICs) residing within that specific subnet. In contrast, Network Security Groups utilise regional VNIC-only security groupings, allowing you to handpick a specifically selected set of VNICs regardless of their subnet placement. This fundamental architectural difference satisfies the constraint comparing the scope of application between subnet-wide security lists and targeted network security groups in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because Security Lists are subnet-scoped: every VNIC in a subnet automatically inherits the Security List rules attached to that subnet, whereas an NSG is a VNIC-scoped construct that applies only to the specific VNICs (in the same VCN) that you explicitly add to it. Option C is correct because NSG rules can use another NSG as the source or destination, which lets you write rules based on workload roles rather than hard-coded CIDR blocks. Option A is wrong because Security Lists and NSGs can be used simultaneously on the same VNIC, and OCI evaluates the union of their rules.

Option D is wrong because Security Lists cannot reference other Security Lists by OCID, and they are VCN-scoped, not cross-VCN. Option E is wrong because both Security Lists and NSGs support stateful rules (and NSGs also support stateless rules), so the claim that NSGs are only stateless and Security Lists only stateful is false.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that Security Lists and NSGs are mutually exclusive or that one is strictly 'better' — candidates wrongly pick Option A because they assume you must choose one mechanism, when in reality OCI evaluates both in a permissive union.

189
MCQmedium

A database application requires high-performance block storage with low latency. Which Block Volume performance tier should you select?

A.Balanced
B.Higher Performance
C.Lower Cost
D.Ultra High Performance
AnswerD

Ultra High Performance volumes utilise a dedicated, high-throughput architecture designed to minimise I/O latency for demanding database workloads. By providing the highest IOPS and throughput per gigabyte available within Oracle Cloud Infrastructure, this tier satisfies the requirement for high-performance block storage. It effectively eliminates the bottlenecks associated with standard tiers, ensuring consistent sub-millisecond latency for transactional applications that necessitate rapid data access. This performance level is essential for mission-critical databases where storage responsiveness directly impacts overall application throughput and system stability.

Why this answer

The Ultra High Performance tier is designed for extreme IOPS requirements for databases.

190
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO OCI resources are automatically tracked by the Audit service?

Select 2 answers
A.Browser cache
B.VCNs
C.Compute instances
D.User password history
E.Local OS files
AnswersB, C

Virtual Cloud Networks are categorised as OCI core infrastructure resources, meaning any create, update, or delete operation performed via the API, CLI, or Console is captured by the Audit service. Because the Audit service automatically logs all management-plane activity for core services without requiring manual configuration, VCNs satisfy the stem’s constraint regarding resources tracked by default. This ensures a persistent, immutable trail of configuration changes, which is essential for security auditing and compliance monitoring across your virtualised network environment.

Why this answer

Audit logs all API actions, regardless of the resource type.

191
MCQmedium

You are designing a secure web application architecture in OCI. You want to terminate TLS connections at the load balancer and inspect HTTP headers before routing traffic to backend web servers. Which OCI Load Balancer listener type should you configure?

A.ICMP listener
B.TCP listener
C.HTTP/HTTPS listener
D.UDP listener
AnswerC

Terminating TLS connections at the OCI Load Balancer requires an HTTP/HTTPS listener because it is the only listener type that decrypts incoming encrypted traffic, allowing the load balancer to parse application-layer data, inspect HTTP headers for security or routing decisions, and subsequently forward the unencrypted requests to the backend web servers.

Why this answer

To inspect HTTP headers and perform layer 7 load balancing (such as path-based routing or SSL termination with HTTP inspection), you must configure an HTTP/HTTPS listener.

192
MCQhard

You need to run an OCI Function that connects to an Oracle Autonomous Database secured within a private subnet. How should you configure the function to access the database securely without exposing it to the public internet?

A.Attach the function application to a private subnet within your VCN using VCN configuration.
B.Use an API Gateway with a public endpoint and route database queries through HTTP headers.
C.Configure a public IP address on the function execution environment.
D.Functions cannot access private subnets; you must use an internet gateway.
AnswerA

Attaching the function application to a private subnet places its traffic inside the VCN, letting it reach the Autonomous Database privately without public exposure. This satisfies the secure-access constraint by keeping all communication on the private network path.

Why this answer

Attaching the function application to a private subnet in your VCN lets the function's execution environment get an IP in that subnet and reach the Autonomous Database privately via the VCN's routing and security rules. This is the supported OCI Functions pattern for private resource access without public exposure.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that serverless functions cannot join a VCN — in OCI they can, and VCN configuration on the function application is the correct answer.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because routing database queries through HTTP headers via a public API Gateway still exposes a public endpoint and does not provide a private network path to the database. Option C is wrong because OCI Functions execution environments do not support attaching public IPs, and doing so would defeat the security requirement anyway. Option D is wrong because OCI Functions absolutely can access private subnets when configured with VCN networking — the claim that an internet gateway is required is false.

193
MCQeasy

Which service allows you to view the audit logs of all API calls made in your tenancy?

A.Notifications service
B.Audit service
C.Monitoring service
D.Events service
AnswerB

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Audit service automatically records all API calls made within a tenancy, satisfying the requirement to track administrative and user-driven activities. It captures events across all compartments, providing a comprehensive, immutable trail of resource modifications and access requests. Unlike identity-focused solutions such as Microsoft Entra ID, which manage authentication and authorisation, the Audit service specifically logs the execution of control plane operations, ensuring full visibility into the lifecycle of every cloud resource managed via the OCI API.

Why this answer

The Audit service (part of the Logging family) captures every API call made in the tenancy.

194
MCQmedium

What happens if you delete a versioned object in Object Storage?

A.An error is returned
B.A delete marker is created
C.The object is moved to Archive
D.The object is permanently deleted
AnswerB

Deleting a versioned object in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage does not permanently remove the data; instead, it places a delete marker on the object. This mechanism satisfies the versioning constraint by ensuring that the previous object version remains intact and retrievable. The system treats this marker as the current version, effectively hiding the original data from standard list operations while maintaining the full history. This approach allows users to restore the object by deleting the marker, distinct from how Microsoft Entra ID manages identity lifecycles.

Why this answer

A delete marker is placed on the object, preserving the version.

195
MCQeasy

Which OCI service is responsible for managing users, groups, compartments, and policies?

A.OCI Audit
B.Resource Manager
C.Security Advisor
D.Identity and Access Management (IAM)
AnswerD

Identity and Access Management (IAM) serves as the foundational OCI service for governing resource access, satisfying the stem's requirement for managing users, groups, compartments, and policies. Unlike Microsoft Entra ID, which functions primarily as an external identity provider, OCI IAM integrates directly into the cloud fabric to enforce granular authorisation via policy-based access control. It acts as the centralised authority for authentication and resource organisation, ensuring that every request within a compartment is validated against defined security principles and identity attributes.

Why this answer

Identity and Access Management (IAM) is the foundational OCI service responsible for authentication and authorization.

196
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO are common use cases for Archive Storage?

Select 2 answers
A.Real-time streaming
B.Regulatory data archiving
C.Backup retention
D.Frequent website access
E.Active database logs
AnswersB, C

Regulatory data archiving requires long-term retention of infrequently accessed information to satisfy strict compliance mandates. Archive Storage provides the necessary cost-efficiency for this scenario by utilising a low-cost, high-latency retrieval model designed for data that remains dormant for extended periods. Because these records are rarely retrieved, the trade-off of longer access times is acceptable, allowing organisations to manage massive datasets economically while ensuring data integrity and availability for future audits or legal requests.

Why this answer

Long-term regulatory compliance and data backups are standard use cases.

197
MCQmedium

You are setting up an autoscaling configuration for an instance pool. You want the pool to scale out when CPU utilization exceeds 80% and scale in when CPU utilization drops below 20%. What type of autoscaling policy should you create?

A.Event-driven autoscaling policy
B.Schedule-based autoscaling policy
C.Metric-based autoscaling policy
D.Manual capacity override policy
AnswerC

Metric-based autoscaling policies allow you to define specific performance thresholds, such as CPU utilisation, to trigger dynamic adjustments to instance pool capacity. By configuring these rules, the system continuously monitors the defined metric and automatically executes scale-out or scale-in actions when the values cross the 80% or 20% boundaries respectively. This mechanism directly satisfies the requirement to automate resource provisioning based on real-time workload fluctuations, ensuring the infrastructure maintains optimal performance without manual intervention or reliance on external identity providers like Microsoft Entra ID.

Why this answer

Metric-based autoscaling policies allow you to define rules based on metrics such as CPU or memory utilization to scale out or scale in instances automatically.

198
MCQmedium

Two VCNs (VCN-A and Vcn-B) reside in the same OCI region but in different compartments. You need to establish a low-latency, high-bandwidth connection between them using local VCN peering. Which component is NOT required for this setup?

A.Local Peering Gateway (LPG) in VCN-A
B.Internet Gateway attached to VCN-A
C.Route table rules pointing to the LPG
D.Local Peering Gateway (LPG) in VCN-B
AnswerB

Local VCN peering operates entirely within the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure software-defined networking fabric, routing traffic privately between virtual cloud networks without traversing the public internet. Because the communication stays strictly internal to the regional fabric to satisfy the high-bandwidth and low-latency requirements, an Internet Gateway is entirely superfluous. Internet Gateways are designed exclusively for bidirectional communication between a VCN and the public internet, meaning attaching one to VCN-A is neither necessary nor relevant for establishing a private, intra-region peering relationship with Vcn-B.

Why this answer

Local VCN peering requires a Local Peering Gateway (LPG) in each VCN, matching route table rules in both VCNs, and security rules permitting traffic. An Internet Gateway is not required because local peering traffic stays entirely within the Oracle backbone network.

199
MCQmedium

An auditor needs to verify all IAM policies across your entire tenancy to ensure compliance. Which policy statement allows a user in the 'Auditors' group to read all policies in the tenancy root?

A.Allow group Auditors to manage tenancy-resources in tenancy
B.Allow user Auditors to inspect security-rules in tenancy
C.Allow group Auditors to read policies in tenancy
D.Allow group Auditors to use iam-policies in compartment root
AnswerC

The statement 'Allow group Auditors to read policies in tenancy' grants read access to policy objects tenancy-wide, letting the Auditors group inspect every IAM policy for compliance. The 'in tenancy' scope is what extends visibility beyond a single compartment.

Why this answer

The verb 'read' in OCI IAM includes the ability to list and get details of a resource, and 'policies' is the correct resource-type for IAM policy objects. Scoping the statement to 'in tenancy' grants visibility across the entire tenancy root, which is exactly what an auditor needs to review all policies. The correct syntax is 'Allow group Auditors to read policies in tenancy'.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between 'inspect' and 'read' verbs and between resource-types like 'policies' versus 'iam-policies', causing candidates to pick a statement that either over-privileges or uses an invalid resource-type.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'manage tenancy-resources' is not a valid OCI resource-type and 'manage' would grant full create/update/delete control, far exceeding an auditor's read-only need. Option B is wrong because it targets a 'user' principal instead of the 'group' and references 'security-rules', which is a networking resource, not IAM policies. Option D is wrong because 'iam-policies' is not the correct resource-type name (the correct one is 'policies'), and 'use' does not grant the read/list access an auditor requires.

200
MCQhard

Your OKE cluster has a node pool running in a private subnet. A developer needs to troubleshoot a running node via SSH, but direct external SSH access is disabled. What is the recommended secure way to access the node?

A.Use the OCI Bastion service or a bastion host in a public subnet to tunnel SSH traffic to the private worker node.
B.Temporarily attach a public IP address to the worker node and connect via SSH.
C.Modify the VCN security list to allow inbound SSH from 0.0.0.0/0 to the private subnet.
D.Run `kubectl exec` with privileged mode to gain root access to the underlying node's operating system.
AnswerA

The OCI Bastion service creates a temporary, audited SSH session tunnelled to the private worker node without exposing it publicly. This satisfies the no-external-SSH constraint by brokering access through a controlled entry point rather than opening inbound ports.

Why this answer

The OCI Bastion service (or a self-managed bastion host in a public subnet) is the recommended secure method to reach a private worker node because it provides a controlled, auditable SSH tunnel without exposing the node to the internet. The Bastion service supports managed SSH sessions with time-limited, IAM-controlled access, satisfying least-privilege and zero-trust principles. This preserves the private subnet's isolation while still enabling developer troubleshooting.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates confuse 'private subnet' with 'no access needed' — the trap is picking the quick fix (public IP or 0.0.0.0/0 rule) instead of the architecturally correct bastion-based access pattern.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because attaching a public IP to a worker node exposes it directly to the internet, violating the private-subnet design and creating an attack surface that OCI security best practices explicitly discourage. Option C is wrong because opening SSH from 0.0.0.0/0 to a private subnet either has no effect (private subnets have no internet route) or, if a route exists, exposes the node to brute-force and exploitation from the entire internet. Option D is wrong because kubectl exec runs inside a container's namespace, not the node's host OS, and privileged mode does not grant host-level root shell access to the node's operating system.

201
MCQeasy

Which database edition is required when provisioning an Oracle Base Database System if you want to use advanced features like Oracle Multitenant (up to 3 PDBs without extra cost), Data Guard, and In-Memory?

A.Personal Edition
B.Standard Edition 2 (SE2)
C.Enterprise Edition (EE)
D.Express Edition (XE)
AnswerC

Enterprise Edition is the only Oracle Base Database System edition licensing Oracle Multitenant with up to three PDBs at no extra cost, plus Data Guard and In-Memory. Standard Edition 2 lacks these advanced options, so EE satisfies all three stated feature requirements.

Why this answer

Oracle Base Database System (Base DB) requires Enterprise Edition (EE) to unlock advanced features such as Oracle Multitenant (with up to 3 PDBs included at no extra cost), Active Data Guard, and Database In-Memory. EE is the only edition that licenses these options; SE2 and lower editions either lack them entirely or require costly add-ons. This makes EE the correct choice for any deployment needing Multitenant, Data Guard, and In-Memory together.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the assumption that any Oracle Database edition on OCI supports Multitenant and Data Guard, when in fact only Enterprise Edition does.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Personal Edition is a single-user desktop edition with no Multitenant, Data Guard, or In-Memory support and is not offered for Base Database System provisioning. Option B is wrong because Standard Edition 2 (SE2) does not include Oracle Multitenant (only one PDB is allowed), does not support Active Data Guard, and lacks Database In-Memory. Option D is wrong because Express Edition (XE) is a free, limited-footprint edition capped at 2 CPUs and 2 GB RAM, with no Multitenant, Data Guard, or In-Memory features.

202
MCQeasy

An OCI administrator needs to store large amounts of unstructured data that is accessed infrequently, but must be retained for compliance purposes for at least 5 years. Data retrieval times of up to 4 hours are acceptable. Which OCI Object Storage tier should be used?

A.Object Storage Standard Tier
B.Object Storage Infrequent Access Tier
C.Archive Storage Tier
D.File Storage Service
AnswerC

Archive Storage retains infrequently accessed data for long-term compliance at the lowest cost, and its retrieval latency of up to four hours satisfies the stem's stated tolerance. Unlike Standard or Infrequent Access tiers, Archive is purpose-built for data held for years without frequent reads, matching the five-year retention requirement precisely.

Why this answer

OCI Archive Storage is designed for data that is infrequently accessed and requires long retention periods, offering the lowest storage cost with a time-to-first-byte retrieval time of up to 4 hours.

203
MCQhard

An organization requires that all data uploaded to an Object Storage bucket must be automatically encrypted using a master encryption key managed by them in OCI Key Management (KMS), rather than Oracle-managed keys. How can this be enforced?

A.Apply an IAM policy stating that all PutObject API calls must pass customer secret keys in the header.
B.Configure the bucket during creation to use a Customer-Managed Key from OCI KMS.
C.Enable SSE-C (Server-Side Encryption with Customer-Provided Keys) on every individual file upload via CLI.
D.Write a custom OCI Functions script triggered by Object Storage events to re-encrypt objects using KMS.
AnswerB

Configuring the bucket with a Customer-Managed Key from OCI KMS ensures every uploaded object is encrypted with the organisation's own master encryption key, satisfying the requirement for customer-managed rather than Oracle-managed keys. The key is assigned at bucket creation, so encryption applies automatically to all objects without per-object configuration.

Why this answer

When creating a bucket, you can select 'Use Customer-Managed Keys' and choose your vault and master encryption key from OCI KMS.

204
MCQhard

You are implementing automated disaster recovery for your OCI compute instances. You configure automated backups for boot volumes and block volumes using volume groups. What is the primary advantage of using Volume Groups for backups?

A.Volume groups ensure point-in-time, coordinated crash-consistent or application-consistent backups across multiple attached volumes.
B.Volume groups automatically replicate data across different cloud providers.
C.Volume groups convert block volumes into high-performance local NVMe storage.
D.Volume groups eliminate all storage costs associated with snapshots.
AnswerA

Volume groups provide the capability to group multiple volumes into a single logical entity, which is essential for maintaining data integrity during disaster recovery. By triggering a snapshot at the volume group level, OCI ensures that all associated boot and block volumes are captured simultaneously. This coordinated mechanism satisfies the constraint of achieving crash-consistent or application-consistent backups, preventing data corruption that would otherwise occur if volumes were backed up independently and asynchronously across a multi-volume compute configuration.

Why this answer

Volume groups allow multiple block and boot volumes to be backed up together in a single, coordinated operation, producing point-in-time snapshots that are crash-consistent across all member volumes. This coordination is essential for multi-volume applications (e.g., database plus logs) where independent snapshots could capture inconsistent states.

Exam trap

The trap is attributing cross-cloud replication, storage tier conversion, or cost elimination to volume groups, when their actual value is coordinated, point-in-time, consistent backups across multiple volumes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because volume groups do not replicate data across cloud providers; OCI volume groups are for coordinated backup within OCI, and cross-cloud replication is not a feature. Option C is wrong because volume groups do not convert block volumes into local NVMe storage; they are a backup and management construct, not a storage tier transformation. Option D is wrong because volume groups do not eliminate storage costs; snapshots created via volume group backups still consume storage and incur charges.

205
MCQeasy

An administrator needs to create a new root compartment under the tenancy to separate billing and administrative resources for a newly acquired subsidiary. Where must the administrator perform this action in the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Console?

A.Billing & Cost Management -> Compartment Management
B.Identity & Security -> Compartments
C.Networking -> Virtual Cloud Networks -> Compartment Association
D.Governance & Administration -> Tenancy Explorer
AnswerB

Compartments are created and managed under Identity & Security in the Console, where the compartment hierarchy is defined. Creating the subsidiary's compartment there satisfies the requirement to establish a separate root compartment beneath the tenancy for billing and administrative isolation.

Why this answer

Compartments in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure are logical containers used to organize and isolate resources, and they are created and managed from the Identity & Security section of the OCI Console under the Compartments page. Creating a new root-level compartment under the tenancy is an identity and access management operation, so it lives in the Identity & Security navigation path. From there, an administrator with the appropriate tenancy-level policy can create the compartment and then attach policies and budgets to it.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between cost management and identity management, tricking candidates into choosing Billing & Cost Management because compartments are used for cost allocation, even though creation happens under Identity & Security.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Billing & Cost Management only shows cost and usage data and lets you set budgets; it does not create compartments, even though compartments are the unit of cost allocation. Option C is wrong because Networking -> Virtual Cloud Networks deals with VCNs, subnets, and gateways, and 'Compartment Association' is not where compartments are created — VCNs are merely placed into existing compartments. Option D is wrong because Governance & Administration -> Tenancy Explorer is a read-only view for browsing resources across compartments, not a creation interface for new compartments.

206
MCQhard

A company has an OCI VCN with a hub-and-spoke topology. The hub VCN is connected to on-premises through a FastConnect virtual circuit and a DRG. Two spoke VCNs are attached to the same DRG using local peering. Instances in spoke VCN A can reach on-premises, but instances in spoke VCN B cannot reach on-premises even though the DRG attachment exists. Route tables in both spoke VCNs contain a default route to the DRG, and security rules allow all required traffic. What is the most likely cause?

A.The FastConnect virtual circuit is configured with a single BGP session, so only one spoke VCN can use it at a time.
B.The DRG route table associated with spoke VCN B's attachment does not import the on-premises routes from the virtual circuit attachment.
C.The spoke VCN B CIDR overlaps with the on-premises CIDR, causing the DRG to drop the traffic.
D.Spoke VCN B's security list does not include an egress rule allowing traffic to the on-premises CIDR.
AnswerB

DRG route tables control which routes are imported from each attachment and which are advertised to it. If the DRG route table for spoke VCN B's attachment lacks an import rule or route distribution that includes the on-premises CIDRs learned from the FastConnect virtual circuit, the DRG will not forward spoke B traffic to on-premises. Spoke A works because its attachment's DRG route table imports those routes.

Why this answer

DRG route tables determine route import and advertisement per attachment. A spoke VCN can have a default route to the DRG in its VCN route table, but if the DRG route table associated with that spoke's attachment does not import the on-premises routes from the FastConnect virtual circuit, the DRG has no path to forward the traffic. Verifying the DRG route table import and route distribution configuration for each attachment resolves this asymmetry.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing only on the VCN route table and security rules while overlooking the DRG route table, which independently controls route import and advertisement for each attachment.

207
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO are true about cloning a block volume?

Select 2 answers
A.Clones must be same size
B.Clones are read-only
C.Clones are independent
D.Clones can be resized
E.Clones are linked to source
AnswersC, D

Block volume clones function as point-in-time, independent entities that maintain no dependency on the source volume’s lifecycle or data state. Once the cloning process completes, the new volume operates with its own unique metadata and storage capacity, allowing users to modify or delete the original source without affecting the clone. This architectural isolation satisfies the requirement for independent resource management, ensuring that data integrity remains preserved across separate storage objects regardless of any subsequent actions performed on the parent volume.

Why this answer

Clones are independent volumes and can be resized.

208
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of an OCI dynamic group?

A.To automatically scale compute instances based on CPU utilization metrics.
B.To automatically create compartments when new projects are initiated.
C.To group human users together based on their department or job function.
D.To allow OCI resources, such as compute instances, to be authenticated and authorized as principals in IAM policies.
AnswerD

A dynamic group matches OCI resources by defined rules, letting compute instances and other resources act as principals authenticated and authorised in IAM policies. This enables instance principals to call OCI APIs without storing credentials, satisfying the requirement for resource-level identity.

Why this answer

Dynamic groups allow cloud resources (such as compute instances) to be treated as principal actors, enabling them to make API calls to other OCI services without hardcoding credentials.

209
MCQeasy

An administrator wants to create a point-in-time, space-efficient replica of an existing Block Volume within the same availability domain. Which feature should be used to achieve this instantly?

A.Block Volume Clone
B.Block Volume Backup
C.Cross-Region Replication
D.Volume Group Backup
AnswerA

A Block Volume Clone creates an instant, point-in-time copy that is space-efficient because it initially shares blocks with the source volume, diverging only as data changes. This satisfies the same-availability-domain and instant replica constraints without a full data copy.

Why this answer

A Block Volume Clone creates an instant, point-in-time copy of an existing block volume within the same availability domain. It is space-efficient because it uses copy-on-write technology, so only changed blocks consume additional storage after the clone is created. This matches the requirement for an instant, space-efficient replica in the same AD.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the distinction between instant space-efficient clones and backups/replication, so candidates confuse 'point-in-time replica' with backup or cross-region copy.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a Block Volume Backup is a full point-in-time copy stored in Object Storage, not an instant space-efficient replica within the same AD, and restoring it requires creating a new volume. Option C is wrong because Cross-Region Replication asynchronously copies volumes to another region for DR, not an instant same-AD replica. Option D is wrong because a Volume Group Backup backs up a consistent set of volumes to Object Storage and is not an instant clone.

210
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of an OCI Local Peering Gateway (LPG)?

A.To route traffic to regional Oracle services.
B.To enable private communication between two VCNs in the same OCI region.
C.To connect an on-premises datacenter to a VCN.
D.To provide outbound internet access for private subnets.
AnswerB

An OCI Local Peering Gateway (LPG) directly satisfies the requirement for private communication between two Virtual Cloud Networks (VCNs) residing in the same OCI region. By establishing this targeted peering relationship, cloud resources across both VCNs can route traffic securely and privately over internal Oracle infrastructure without traversing the public internet, all while strictly adhering to the regional boundary constraint specified in the stem.

Why this answer

An LPG enables you to peer one VCN with another VCN in the same OCI region so that their instances can communicate privately.

211
MCQmedium

You are migrating an on-premises virtual machine image in QCOW2 format to OCI. Before you can launch compute instances from this image in OCI, what must you do with the file?

A.Convert the file to an ISO and mount it using the OCI Console virtual console.
B.Upload the image to an Object Storage bucket and import it as a custom image.
C.Attach the QCOW2 file to a VCN subnet as a storage gateway resource.
D.Upload the QCOW2 file directly to a compute instance boot volume via SSH.
AnswerB

Uploading the QCOW2 file to an Object Storage bucket allows the OCI Import Image service to access the binary data directly. Because OCI compute instances require native block volumes to boot, the import process must convert the QCOW2 format into an OCI-compatible custom image. This workflow satisfies the constraint of migrating an on-premises virtual machine image, as Object Storage acts as the necessary staging area for the backend conversion engine to initialise the new virtual disk within the OCI environment.

Why this answer

To migrate a QCOW2 image to OCI, you upload the file to an Object Storage bucket and then import it as a custom image via the OCI Console or CLI. OCI supports QCOW2 and VMDK formats for custom image import.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming you can upload an image directly to a compute instance or convert it to ISO — candidates who haven't done OCI image import often miss that Object Storage is the mandatory staging point.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because converting to ISO and mounting via virtual console is not a supported image import path — OCI imports disk images, not ISOs, for boot volumes. Option C is wrong because a VCN subnet is a network construct; you cannot attach a QCOW2 file to it as a storage gateway. Option D is wrong because you cannot upload a QCOW2 file directly to a boot volume via SSH — boot volumes are block devices, and the supported path is Object Storage import.

212
MCQhard

You are using Service Connector Hub to move data from Logging to Object Storage. What is the primary benefit of this approach?

A.It automatically indexes logs for searching
B.It replaces the need for a Log Group
C.It allows real-time execution of code on logs
D.It provides a managed, serverless pipeline for log archiving
AnswerD

Service Connector Hub functions as a fully managed, serverless integration service that automates the movement of log data from Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Logging to Object Storage. By abstracting the underlying infrastructure, this approach eliminates the need to manually provision or scale compute resources to handle log ingestion. This satisfies the requirement for an efficient archiving pipeline by providing a native, low-maintenance mechanism that ensures data durability without requiring complex custom code or persistent server management to maintain the transfer flow.

Why this answer

Service Connector Hub provides a managed way to move log data to durable storage for archiving.

213
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE tools or methods can be used to write and apply OCI IAM policies? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Editing local /etc/passwd files on compute instances
B.Direct SQL queries against the tenancy root database
C.OCI Console (Web UI)
D.OCI Resource Manager (Terraform)
E.OCI CLI and SDKs
AnswersC, D, E

The OCI Console provides a graphical interface that simplifies the creation and management of IAM policies by abstracting the underlying JSON syntax. It satisfies the requirement for a method to write and apply policies by allowing administrators to define statements directly within the browser, which the service then validates and persists to the OCI backend. This approach offers a user-friendly alternative to programmatic methods like the CLI or Terraform, ensuring that users can manage access control without needing to integrate external tools like Microsoft Entra ID.

Why this answer

Option C (OCI Console Web UI) is correct because the Console provides a built-in Policy Builder interface where administrators can author policy statements in the human-readable IAM policy language and apply them directly to a tenancy, compartment, or dynamic group. Option D (OCI Resource Manager) is correct because Resource Manager runs Terraform configurations, and OCI's Terraform provider includes the oci_identity_policy resource, allowing policies to be defined as code and applied through stacks. Option E (OCI CLI and SDKs) is correct because the OCI CLI exposes commands such as 'oci iam policy create' and 'oci iam policy update', and the SDKs provide equivalent programmatic APIs (e.g., CreatePolicy) for writing and applying IAM policies.

Option A is incorrect because /etc/passwd is a local Linux authentication file on compute instances and has no relationship to OCI IAM policy management. Option B is incorrect because there is no supported method to run direct SQL against a tenancy root database to manage IAM policies; IAM is managed through the documented OCI APIs, Console, CLI/SDKs, and Terraform.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the tools available for policy management, and candidates may incorrectly include OS-level or database-level methods, which are not valid for OCI IAM.

214
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO methods can be used to authenticate human users to the OCI Console? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Username and password with optional Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
B.SSH private keys (.ppk)
C.Pre-authenticated request URLs
D.Federated Single Sign-On (SSO) via a SAML 2.0 Identity Provider
E.API signing key PEM files uploaded via web browser
AnswersA, D

Standard OCI Identity and Access Management (IAM) user accounts rely on a native username and password combination to verify identity during the login process. By enabling Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA), administrators add a mandatory second layer of security, satisfying the requirement to authenticate human users to the OCI Console. This mechanism functions independently of external identity providers like Microsoft Entra ID, ensuring that local IAM users can successfully access the console through the primary authentication interface provided by the platform.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because OCI Console authentication for local (non-federated) users is performed with an OCI username and password, and MFA can be enabled to add a second factor such as a TOTP authenticator app. Option D is correct because OCI supports federated identity, allowing users to sign in to the Console through an external SAML 2.0 Identity Provider (IdP) using Single Sign-On instead of local credentials. Option B is incorrect because SSH private keys such as .ppk files are used for SSH access to compute instances, not for authenticating to the OCI Console.

Option C is incorrect because Pre-Authenticated Requests (PARs) are URLs that grant time-limited access to Object Storage resources, not Console user authentication. Option E is incorrect because API signing key PEM files are used to sign OCI API requests for programmatic access, not to log in to the Console via a web browser.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between authentication methods for human console access versus programmatic access, tricking candidates into selecting API keys or SSH keys for console login.

215
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO actions can be performed on an OCI Autonomous Database to manage or alter its compute and storage configurations after initial provisioning? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Manually configure Oracle Grid Infrastructure clusterware parameters on the underlying cluster nodes.
B.Scale up or down the number of OCPUs without downtime.
C.Manually repartition tablespaces using raw OS mount points attached to the DB node.
D.Modify the operating system kernel parameters using root user privileges.
E.Increase the storage capacity (in TB) online without interrupting database operations.
AnswersB, E

Autonomous Database architecture decouples compute from storage, allowing OCPUs to be scaled independently via the OCI control plane. This mechanism satisfies the requirement to alter compute configurations after initial provisioning without interrupting active sessions. By dynamically adjusting the underlying resource allocation through the service’s elastic infrastructure, administrators can modify processing power to meet fluctuating workload demands in real time. This seamless scaling operation ensures high availability, as the database engine remains online while the compute capacity is adjusted to match the specified configuration.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because OCI Autonomous Database supports online scaling of OCPUs (the ECPU/OCPU compute count) through the OCI Console, CLI, or API, and this scaling operation is performed without downtime while the database remains available. Option E is correct because Autonomous Database storage can be increased online in terabyte increments without interrupting database operations, allowing capacity growth as data volumes increase. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because Autonomous Database is a fully managed service: customers have no access to the underlying cluster nodes, cannot manually configure Oracle Grid Infrastructure clusterware, cannot attach raw OS mount points or repartition tablespaces at the OS level, and cannot modify kernel parameters with root privileges—Oracle handles all infrastructure and OS administration.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that Autonomous Database allows OS-level or clusterware administration, when in fact it is fully managed and only supports online OCPU scaling and storage expansion.

216
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting a container image pull failure in your OKE cluster. The error message indicates an authentication failure when trying to pull from the Oracle Container Registry (OCIR). What Kubernetes resource must be configured in your cluster namespace to allow pulling images from a private OCIR repository?

A.An OCI IAM Dynamic Group attached to the VCN security list.
B.A Persistent Volume Claim attached to the registry endpoint.
C.An API Gateway route rule with public auth bypass headers.
D.A Kubernetes Secret of type `dockerconfigjson` referenced via `imagePullSecrets` in the pod spec.
AnswerD

A `kubernetes.io/dockerconfigjson` Secret stores the OCIR credentials, and the kubelet presents them to the registry during the pull. Referencing it through `imagePullSecrets` in the pod spec satisfies the stem's requirement: authenticating against the private OCIR repository within that namespace.

Why this answer

To pull images from a private OCIR repository, Kubernetes needs credentials stored as a Secret of type `kubernetes.io/dockerconfigjson`, which is then referenced in the pod spec via `imagePullSecrets`. This Secret contains the OCIR username (typically the tenancy namespace/identity) and an auth token, allowing the kubelet to authenticate to OCIR during image pull. Without this Secret correctly referenced, the pod will fail with `ImagePullBackOff` or `ErrImagePull` due to authentication failure.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates confuse OCI IAM policies or VCN security constructs with Kubernetes-native image pull authentication — the correct answer is always the Kubernetes Secret of type dockerconfigjson.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because IAM Dynamic Groups and VCN Security Lists govern OCI-level network and identity permissions, not Kubernetes image pull authentication — they cannot supply registry credentials to the kubelet. Option B is wrong because a Persistent Volume Claim provides storage to pods, not registry authentication; it has no relationship to image pull credentials. Option C is wrong because API Gateway route rules with auth bypass headers are for HTTP API traffic routing, not for authenticating container runtime image pulls from OCIR.

217
MCQmedium

You are managing an Autonomous Database instance on shared infrastructure and need to restrict database access so that only clients connecting from a specific Corporate CIDR block (e.g., 192.168.10.0/24) can connect. How should you implement this?

A.Modify the SQL*Net configuration file (sqlnet.ora) stored in the database home.
B.Deploy an OCI Web Application Firewall (WAF) policy in front of the database port.
C.Attach a VCN Security List directly to the Autonomous Database service endpoint IP.
D.Configure an Access Control List (ACL) specifying the allowed IP CIDR block in the OCI Console.
AnswerD

Configuring an Access Control List (ACL) within the OCI Console directly addresses the requirement to restrict database access to a specific Corporate CIDR block. By defining permitted IP addresses at the infrastructure level, you enforce network-layer security that prevents unauthorised connection attempts from outside the specified range. This mechanism effectively satisfies the constraint of limiting connectivity to a single CIDR block, ensuring that only traffic originating from the trusted network can successfully reach the Autonomous Database instance on shared infrastructure.

Why this answer

Autonomous Database allows you to configure Access Control Lists (ACLs) using IP notations or Virtual Cloud Networks to restrict network access.

218
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO methods can be used to assign public IP addresses to OCI compute instances?

Select 2 answers
A.Dynamic public IP lease via DHCP
B.Static NAT Gateway public IP
C.Reserved public IP
D.Service Gateway public IP allocation
E.Ephemeral public IP
AnswersC, E

Reserving a public IP address involves allocating a persistent IPv4 address from Oracle's public IP pool and mapping it independently to a VNIC's private IP. This directly satisfies the requirement to assign a public IP address to an OCI compute instance while ensuring that the public identifier remains static and retained across instance lifecycle events, such as termination and relaunch, making it fully independent of the underlying VM state.

Why this answer

OCI supports Ephemeral public IPs (which exist for the lifetime of the instance) and Reserved public IPs (persistent public IPs that can be reassigned).

219
Multi-Selecthard

An architect is configuring an OCI Public Load Balancer to handle high volumes of incoming client traffic. Which THREE features or capabilities are supported by OCI Public Load Balancers?

Select 3 answers
A.Multiple backend sets associated with a single listener via rule sets
B.Native BGP routing directly from the Load Balancer IP to on-premises routers
C.Path-based routing rules to direct requests to different backend sets based on URL paths
D.SSL/TLS termination and certificate management
E.Automatic translation of IPv6 client traffic into native IPv4 backend compute instances without dual-stack configuration
AnswersA, C, D

Rule sets attach to a listener and let it select among multiple backend sets based on conditions such as path or host header, enabling content-based routing on one listener. This satisfies the high-volume requirement by distributing requests across several backend pools without provisioning extra listeners.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because OCI Load Balancer rule sets allow a single listener to route traffic to multiple backend sets based on conditions, enabling flexible traffic distribution for high-volume scenarios. Option C is correct because OCI Public Load Balancers support path-based routing rules (via rule sets) that inspect the URL path and forward requests to different backend sets, which is essential for multi-service architectures. Option D is correct because OCI Load Balancers natively support SSL/TLS termination, including uploading and managing certificates, offloading encryption from backend compute instances.

Option B is not correct because OCI Load Balancers do not run BGP with on-premises routers; BGP is used by OCI FastConnect or Site-to-Site VPN, not by the load balancer itself. Option E is not correct because OCI Load Balancers do not automatically translate IPv6 client traffic to IPv4 backends without dual-stack configuration; IPv6 support requires the load balancer and backend to be configured appropriately.

220
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO items are components of an OCI Alarm?

Select 2 answers
A.Load Balancer
B.Compartment ID
C.Policy
D.Metric
E.Notification
AnswersD, E

Metrics serve as the fundamental data source for OCI Alarms, satisfying the requirement to identify essential components of the monitoring framework. An alarm triggers based on a specific metric query, which evaluates time-series data points emitted by OCI resources. By defining a threshold against a selected metric, the service monitors performance or availability patterns. This mechanism ensures that the alarm system can effectively track resource health and notify administrators when pre-configured conditions are met, which is a core functional requirement for cloud observability.

Why this answer

Alarms consist of a metric and a notification trigger.

221
MCQeasy

A security analyst must prove which user deleted a specific Object Storage bucket two weeks ago, including the source IP address and the exact request time. Which OCI service and action should the analyst use?

A.Open the bucket's details page in the Console and review the bucket's lifecycle policy history
B.Query the Logging service for Object Storage bucket metrics in the compartment
C.Search the Audit service for the DeleteBucket event in the relevant compartment and inspect the event details
D.Review the compartment's tag defaults and cost-tracking tags for the deleted bucket
AnswerC

The Audit service records control-plane API calls such as DeleteBucket, capturing the principal, the request timestamp, and the originating IP address in the event details. Searching the compartment for that event type gives the analyst the evidence needed to identify who deleted the bucket and from where.

Why this answer

Control-plane actions like deleting a bucket are captured by the Audit service, which records the principal, event time, and source IP for each API request. Metrics, lifecycle policy history, and tags describe other aspects of the resource and never provide the request-level attribution required to identify the responsible principal.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing resource metadata and metrics with the request-level audit trail, which is the only place the acting principal and source IP are recorded.

222
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE of these are OCI storage services?

Select 3 answers
A.Block Volume
B.Database storage
C.Object Storage
D.Compute storage
E.File Storage
AnswersA, C, E

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Block Volume service provides persistent, high-performance block storage volumes that satisfy the requirement for scalable block-level storage in the cloud. It utilises a distributed architecture to deliver configurable performance levels, ranging from balanced to ultra-high input/output operations per second, ensuring secure and durable data attachment for compute instances via NVMe-based storage fabrics.

Why this answer

Object, Block, and File storage are the core OCI services.

223
MCQmedium

You need to perform a backup of a production Block Volume. What is the recommended strategy to ensure data consistency?

A.Block Volume Backup
B.RAID 0 striping
C.Object Storage replication
D.Manual file copy via SSH
AnswerA

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Block Volume backups natively trigger crash-consistent snapshots for individual volumes, but to satisfy the production requirement for application-consistent data without risking file corruption, you must quiesce the file system and flush memory buffers to disk prior to initiating the snapshot. This direct coordination between the operating system I/O subsystem and the cloud storage API guarantees that in-flight transactions are safely persisted, thereby resolving the data integrity constraint stipulated in the production scenario.

Why this answer

Creating a volume group backup or a block volume backup ensures point-in-time consistency.

224
MCQmedium

You are deploying a high-performance database workload on OCI that requires raw, low-latency NVMe drives for transaction logging. Which compute shape should you select?

A.BM.Standard3.64
B.VM.Standard.E4.Flex
C.BM.DenseIO2.52
D.BM.GPU3.8
AnswerC

DenseIO shapes provide locally attached NVMe storage, which satisfies the requirement for raw, low-latency performance necessary for high-frequency transaction logging. Unlike standard virtual machine shapes that rely on network-attached block storage, the BM.DenseIO2.52 instance exposes the physical NVMe drives directly to the operating system. This architecture eliminates the overhead of the network stack, ensuring the minimal I/O latency required for high-performance database workloads. By utilising bare metal hardware, you ensure dedicated access to these high-speed storage resources without contention from other tenants.

Why this answer

Bare Metal Dense I/O shapes include directly attached NVMe SSDs, providing extreme IOPS and low latency suitable for databases and transactional logs.

225
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE tools or methods can be used to load data into an Oracle Autonomous Database?

Select 3 answers
A.DBMS_CLOUD PL/SQL package (loading files from OCI Object Storage)
B.Direct raw disk block editing via FTP
C.Database Actions (SQL Developer Web data loading interface)
D.Oracle Data Pump (impdp)
E.Direct OS command line piping via 'cat' and SSH
AnswersA, C, D

The `DBMS_CLOUD` PL/SQL package provides the primary programmatic interface for ingesting data into an Autonomous Database by leveraging cloud-native integration with OCI Object Storage. By executing procedures such as `COPY_DATA`, users can securely load files directly from object storage buckets into database tables. This mechanism satisfies the requirement to load data efficiently, as it bypasses local client-side bottlenecks and utilises the high-speed backbone of the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure to perform bulk data ingestion operations directly within the database environment.

Why this answer

Option A (DBMS_CLOUD PL/SQL package) is correct because Autonomous Database provides the DBMS_CLOUD package to load files directly from OCI Object Storage (and other supported cloud storage) into tables using procedures such as DBMS_CLOUD.COPY_DATA. Option C (Database Actions / SQL Developer Web data loading interface) is correct because Database Actions is the built-in web-based toolset for Autonomous Database that includes a Data Load wizard for uploading CSV, XLSX, and other files into tables. Option D (Oracle Data Pump impdp) is correct because Autonomous Database supports Data Pump import/export, typically by placing dump files in OCI Object Storage and using DBMS_CLOUD or the impdp utility with the appropriate credentials and directory objects.

Option B is incorrect because direct raw disk block editing via FTP is not possible on Autonomous Database, which is a fully managed service that does not expose the underlying OS or storage. Option E is incorrect because direct OS command line piping via 'cat' and SSH is not available, as Autonomous Database does not grant SSH access to the underlying host.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates understand that Autonomous Database is fully managed with no OS/SSH access, ruling out any answer involving direct disk, FTP, or shell-level operations.

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