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Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2026 Architect Associate (1Z0-1072-26) (1Z0-1072-26) (1Z0-1072-26) — Questions 226–300

404 questions total · 6 pages · All types, answers revealed

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226
MCQeasy

What happens to the resources inside a compartment when you delete the compartment itself?

A.All resources inside the compartment are automatically deleted along with it.
B.Resources become orphaned and are managed by the tenancy administrator group.
C.The compartment cannot be deleted until all resources within it are deleted or moved to another compartment.
D.Resources are automatically moved to the root compartment.
AnswerC

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure enforces a strict structural dependency that prevents the deletion of any compartment while it still contains active child resources. To satisfy this prerequisite, you must manually terminate every contained resource or migrate them to an alternative compartment using the console or API. Only when the resource count drops to zero does the API permit the parent compartment deletion request to proceed, safeguarding against accidental orphaned assets and cascading data loss.

Why this answer

OCI prevents deletion of a compartment that still contains resources. You must first delete or move every resource out of the compartment before the compartment itself can be deleted, which protects against accidental mass deletion.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests compartment lifecycle behavior — candidates assume cloud compartments behave like folders with cascade delete, but OCI explicitly blocks deletion until the compartment is empty.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because OCI does not cascade-delete resources when a compartment is removed — this would be dangerous and is explicitly prevented. Option B is wrong because resources are not orphaned or reassigned to a tenancy admin group; they remain in the compartment and block its deletion. Option D is wrong because resources are not automatically moved to the root compartment; movement must be performed explicitly by an administrator.

227
MCQmedium

You are setting up OCI DNS for a private domain `internal.corp`. You want instances within your VCN to query records in this private zone. What needs to be created and associated with the VCN?

A.A Public DNS Zone with an Internet Gateway
B.A Service Gateway pointing to the DNS service
C.A NAT Gateway with DNS forwarding rules
D.A Private DNS Zone associated with the VCN via a VCN view
AnswerD

A private DNS zone becomes resolvable inside a VCN only when attached through a VCN view, which binds the zone to the VCN's resolver. Creating the zone alone leaves instances unable to query internal.corp records.

Why this answer

OCI DNS private zones are resolved only within the VCNs they are associated with, and the association is made through a VCN view. You create a private zone for internal.corp, create or use a VCN view, and attach the zone to that view so instances in the VCN can query the records. This keeps internal names off the public internet and lets the VCN resolver answer queries for the private domain.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between public and private DNS zones, tricking candidates into choosing a public zone with an Internet Gateway when the requirement is internal-only resolution.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a public DNS zone is resolvable from the internet and requires an Internet Gateway for public access, which is the opposite of a private internal domain. Option B is wrong because a Service Gateway provides private access to Oracle services, not DNS resolution for a private zone. Option C is wrong because a NAT Gateway provides outbound internet access and does not handle DNS zone association or forwarding rules for private zones.

228
MCQeasy

An administrator wants to enforce strict access control based on resource metadata. They decide to use Tag-Based Access Control. Which of the following defines the correct prerequisite structure required before you can write a policy using tag values?

A.Create an IAM group, add users, assign free-form tags directly to the users, and write a policy.
B.Create a Dynamic Group, apply a tag namespace to the tenancy root, and assign compartment quotas.
C.Create a Tag Namespace, define a Tag Key within it, apply the tag to resources, and reference the tag in an IAM policy condition.
D.Define a Resource Principal, attach a tag to the instance, and create a cross-region replication policy.
AnswerC

Tag-based policies require the full chain: a namespace, a key inside it, the tag applied to the target resource, then a condition referencing that key and value. Skipping any step leaves the policy condition unresolvable.

Why this answer

Tag-based access control requires creating a Tag Namespace, defining Tag Keys within that namespace, applying the tags to resources or requests, and then using tag conditionals in IAM policies.

229
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO methods can be used to transfer data from an on-premises data center into OCI Object Storage? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Directly mounting an Object Storage bucket as a local Windows NTFS drive via SMB protocol
B.OCI Data Transfer Appliance for offline data migration
C.Attaching an Object Storage bucket as an LVM logical volume to an on-premises server
D.OCI Command Line Interface (CLI) using multipart upload
E.Using Block Volume Export to push data into Object Storage buckets automatically
AnswersB, D

OCI Data Transfer Appliance provides a secure physical storage device that you populate on-premises and ship to Oracle for direct ingestion into Object Storage, satisfying the constraint of migrating massive datasets where available network bandwidth is insufficient for online transfer. This offline mechanism bypasses internet latency and bandwidth limitations by securely encrypting your data locally on specialized high-capacity hardware before physical transit.

Why this answer

On-premises data can be uploaded to Object Storage via the OCI CLI/API over the public internet or private VCN connections (FastConnect), or shipped physically using Data Transfer Appliances.

230
MCQeasy

You need to store infrequently accessed data in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) with the lowest possible cost while maintaining data retrieval times within a few hours. Which storage tier should you choose?

A.Archive Storage
B.Block Volume
C.Standard Object Storage
D.Infrequent Access Object Storage
AnswerA

Archive Storage provides the lowest cost per gigabyte for infrequently accessed data within Oracle Cloud Infrastructure by design, perfectly satisfying the requirement for minimal expense. Although retrieval operations require a restoration period of up to several hours before access is granted, this operational constraint aligns directly with the stipulation that retrieval times must be maintained within a few hours. This makes it the most cost-effective tier for long-term data retention where immediate access is unnecessary.

Why this answer

Archive Storage is designed for long-term data retention at the lowest cost, with a retrieval time of up to 4 hours.

231
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE statements are true regarding OCI IAM groups? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.A user can belong to multiple groups.
B.Groups can be nested inside other groups to form a hierarchy.
C.Groups can own compartments directly without human members.
D.Federated identity provider groups can be mapped to OCI IAM groups.
E.Groups are used in policy statements to grant access permissions.
AnswersA, D, E

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Identity and Access Management permits a single user account to be associated with multiple groups simultaneously, satisfying the requirement that users are not restricted to a solitary administrative domain. This many-to-many relationship mechanism aggregates permissions effectively, allowing administrators to assign cumulative policies to a user without duplicating group memberships or creating redundant accounts, thereby streamlining access control across diverse compartments.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because OCI IAM allows a single user to be a member of multiple groups simultaneously, and the user inherits the union of all policies granted to those groups. Option D is correct because when you federate with an external identity provider (such as Microsoft Entra ID, Okta, or any SAML 2.0/OIDC IdP), the IdP's groups can be mapped to OCI IAM groups so that policy-based access is driven by the federated group membership. Option E is correct because OCI policies are written in the form 'Allow group <group_name> to <verb> <resource> in <compartment>', meaning groups—not individual users—are the principal subject used to grant access permissions.

Option B is not correct because OCI IAM groups cannot be nested; there is no group hierarchy, and membership is limited to users (or mapped federated groups), not other OCI groups. Option C is not correct because compartments are owned by the tenancy and managed via policies, not owned by groups; groups are merely collections of users used as policy subjects and cannot own resources directly.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that OCI groups can be nested like Active Directory groups, when in fact OCI IAM groups are flat and cannot contain other groups.

232
MCQmedium

How can you ensure that data in an Object Storage bucket remains unchanged for a specific period?

A.Encryption
B.IAM policies
C.Lifecycle policies
D.Retention Rules
AnswerD

Object Storage retention rules satisfy the specific constraint of maintaining data unchanged for a defined period by enforcing write-once-read-many (WORM) policies on buckets. When applied, these rules prevent any modifications or deletions of objects until the specified retention duration expires, ensuring strict regulatory compliance and data immutability without requiring manual intervention for each individual file.

Why this answer

Retention rules on a bucket prevent modifications or deletions for a defined duration.

233
MCQeasy

Which OCI storage service is best suited for hosting shared configuration files and home directories for hundreds of Linux compute instances simultaneously using the NFSv3 protocol?

A.OCI Object Storage
B.OCI File Storage Service
C.OCI Archive Storage
D.OCI Block Volume
AnswerB

OCI File Storage satisfies the requirement for a shared file system accessible by hundreds of Linux compute instances simultaneously because it implements the Network File System version 3 (NFSv3) protocol. This fully managed service provides a distributed file system that can be mounted concurrently across multiple Oracle Cloud Infrastructure compute nodes, making it the ideal architecture for sharing common configuration files and user home directories without file-locking conflicts or protocol mismatches.

Why this answer

OCI File Storage Service provides a shared, POSIX-compliant NFSv3 file system that can be mounted concurrently by hundreds of Linux compute instances, making it ideal for shared configuration files and home directories. It supports NFSv3 and NFSv4.1 and scales to thousands of clients per file system. This is the only OCI storage service designed for concurrent shared file access over NFS.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between block, file, and object storage—candidates must recognize that NFSv3 multi-client sharing maps only to File Storage, not Block or Object Storage.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because OCI Object Storage is an HTTP/REST-based object store, not a POSIX file system, and cannot be mounted natively via NFSv3 for shared home directories. Option C is wrong because Archive Storage is a cold-tier object storage class for long-term retention, not a shared file system. Option D is wrong because OCI Block Volume is a raw block device attached to a single instance (or shared only via specific clustered configurations), not a multi-client NFS file system.

234
MCQmedium

You want to use your own encryption keys for Object Storage. What feature should you use?

A.Public keys
B.IAM policies
C.OCI Vault
D.Encryption Gateway
AnswerC

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Vault is the correct feature because it satisfies the requirement to use customer-managed encryption keys for Object Storage buckets. OCI Vault integrates natively with Object Storage, allowing administrators to centrally manage and control the master encryption keys used to secure data at rest. By leveraging Vault, you maintain full lifecycle control over your keys—including rotation, creation, and scheduled deletion—instead of relying on default Oracle-managed keys, thereby fulfilling stringent security and compliance mandates.

Why this answer

OCI Vault allows you to manage keys for server-side encryption.

235
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE actions can an administrator perform to secure user accounts in OCI IAM? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Enforce Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) via security rules
B.Rotate or revoke API signing keys periodically
C.Disable all audit logging to hide administrative actions
D.Configure password policies governing complexity and expiration
E.Assign root compartment administrator privileges to all temporary contractors
AnswersA, B, D

Enforcing Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) via security rules in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Identity and Access Management directly satisfies the requirement to secure user accounts by adding an extra layer of verification beyond standard passwords. Administrators can configure identity provider policies and security rules to mandate MFA based on group membership, network location, or risk level, mitigating the risk of compromised credentials and ensuring robust access control across the cloud environment.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because OCI IAM lets administrators enforce Multi-Factor Authentication through security rules (sign-on policies) in an identity domain, adding a second authentication factor that protects accounts even if a password is compromised. Option B is correct because API signing keys are long-lived credentials; rotating them periodically and revoking unused or compromised keys limits the window in which a leaked private key can be abused against OCI APIs. Option D is correct because configuring password policies in OCI IAM to govern complexity, length, reuse, and expiration strengthens resistance to brute-force and credential-stuffing attacks.

Option C is not appropriate because disabling audit logging removes visibility into administrative actions and weakens security and compliance rather than securing accounts. Option E is not appropriate because granting root compartment administrator privileges to temporary contractors violates least privilege and dramatically increases the risk of unauthorized or accidental changes.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests IAM security best practices, and candidates may pick options that sound like security measures (like disabling logging) but actually weaken security — the correct answers always align with least privilege and defense-in-depth.

236
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE features are automatically managed by Oracle Autonomous Database without requiring manual DBA intervention?

Select 3 answers
A.Business requirement definition and data modeling
B.Performance tuning and indexing
C.Automated backups
D.Database patching and upgrades
E.Custom corporate application code development
AnswersB, C, D

Oracle Autonomous Database eliminates manual Database Administrator intervention by automatically managing performance tuning and indexing through built-in machine learning algorithms and continuous workload monitoring. The database engine dynamically creates, rebuilds, and drops indexes based on query execution patterns, while simultaneously maintaining optimal execution plans and memory allocation. This fully automated optimisation directly satisfies the stem requirement for automated performance management, ensuring peak operational efficiency without manual tuning.

Why this answer

Option B (Performance tuning and indexing) is correct because Oracle Autonomous Database uses automatic indexing and built-in performance tuning features such as Automatic SQL Tuning and SQL plan management to optimize workloads without DBA intervention. Option C (Automated backups) is correct because Autonomous Database automatically configures and performs backups, including retention and recovery capabilities, without manual scheduling. Option D (Database patching and upgrades) is correct because Autonomous Database automatically applies patches and performs upgrades during maintenance windows, minimizing manual DBA effort.

Option A is not correct because defining business requirements and designing data models are human design activities, not database self-management features. Option E is not correct because developing custom corporate application code is performed by developers and is outside the scope of Autonomous Database automation.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may select business or application-development activities as 'automated,' confusing database administration automation with broader IT or development responsibilities that remain human-driven.

237
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO types of traffic can be routed through an OCI Service Gateway?

Select 2 answers
A.General web browsing traffic to external websites like google.com
B.Traffic destined for an on-premises datacenter via FastConnect
C.Peer traffic to another VCN in a different region
D.Traffic to OCI Object Storage in the same region
E.Traffic to Oracle Autonomous Database in the same region
AnswersD, E

The Service Gateway provides private access to Oracle services without traversing the internet, and Object Storage in the same region is a supported service. Traffic stays on the Oracle network, satisfying the requirement for regional OCI service access.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because an OCI Service Gateway provides private access from a VCN to Oracle Services Network (OSN) services such as Object Storage in the same region, without requiring an Internet Gateway or NAT Gateway. Option E is correct because Autonomous Database is also an Oracle Services Network service reachable through the Service Gateway in the same region, keeping traffic on the Oracle network. Options A, B, and C are incorrect: general web browsing requires an Internet Gateway (or NAT Gateway for private subnets), on-premises connectivity via FastConnect uses a Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) with a FastConnect virtual circuit, and cross-region VCN peering uses Remote Peering Connections (RPCs) over a DRG, not a Service Gateway.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates confuse Service Gateway (Oracle services only, same region) with NAT Gateway (internet egress), DRG (on-premises/remote VCN), or Local/Remote Peering (VCN-to-VCN).

238
MCQmedium

You are configuring a Public Load Balancer in OCI. You want to ensure that incoming traffic is encrypted using TLS 1.3. Where do you configure the SSL certificate and TLS protocol version?

A.In the VCN route table settings
B.On the NAT Gateway configuration page
C.In the backend set health check policy
D.On the Load Balancer Listener configuration
AnswerD

TLS termination happens at the listener, where you attach the SSL certificate bundle and select the minimum TLS protocol version. Configuring TLS 1.3 there encrypts incoming client traffic before it reaches backend servers, satisfying the requirement without touching backend sets or health checks.

Why this answer

SSL certificates and TLS protocol preferences are configured on the Load Balancer Listener settings.

239
MCQmedium

You are designing an application that requires high availability across two Availability Domains (ADs). You want your OCI Public Load Balancer to span both ADs. Which configuration should you use?

A.Attach a NAT Gateway to both Availability Domains.
B.Configure an LPG between the two AD subnets.
C.Select subnets in two different Availability Domains during load balancer creation.
D.Deploy two separate load balancers and use an Internet Gateway to load balance between them.
AnswerC

A public load balancer's regional high availability comes from placing its primary subnet in one Availability Domain and a second subnet in another. Selecting subnets in two ADs gives the load balancer nodes in each, satisfying the cross-AD availability requirement.

Why this answer

When provisioning an OCI Public Load Balancer, you select a primary subnet in one AD and a secondary subnet in another AD to ensure high availability across ADs.

240
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO types of groups exist in OCI IAM? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Compartment security groups
B.Dynamic groups
C.Standard user groups
D.Virtual network groups
E.Billing resource groups
AnswersB, C

Dynamic groups automatically include compute instances matching defined rules, unlike identity-domain groups populated by user membership. They enable instance principals to call OCI services without stored credentials, which is a distinct group type in OCI IAM.

Why this answer

In OCI IAM, the two supported group types are dynamic groups (B) and standard user groups (C). Dynamic groups (B) are correct because they match compute instances (and other resources) using rules written against resource attributes, allowing those resources to be granted permissions as principals without individual credentials. Standard user groups (C) are correct because they are the ordinary groups that contain IAM users, and policies grant access to those users collectively by referencing the group.

The remaining options are not OCI IAM group types: compartment security groups (A) and virtual network groups (D) are not constructs in OCI IAM (network security is handled via NSGs and security lists), and billing resource groups (E) do not exist as an IAM group category.

Exam trap

The trap is inventing plausible-sounding group types (compartment security groups, virtual network groups) — candidates must remember OCI IAM has only two: standard user groups and dynamic groups.

241
MCQeasy

What is the scope of an OCI IAM policy by default when it is created in the root compartment (tenancy)?

A.It applies across the entire tenancy and all compartments within it.
B.It applies exclusively to the Identity and Access Management service.
C.It must be explicitly attached to each child compartment individually to take effect.
D.It applies only to the root compartment and cannot affect child compartments.
AnswerA

A policy created in the root compartment is tenancy-scoped: its statements apply across the entire tenancy and every compartment inside it, unless the statement itself names a narrower compartment. Placement in root therefore grants the broadest default reach.

Why this answer

An OCI IAM policy created in the root compartment (tenancy) applies across the entire tenancy and all compartments within it, because the root compartment is the top-level container and policies inherit downward. This is the default scope unless the policy statement explicitly narrows the location to a specific compartment.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests compartment inheritance, and candidates mistakenly believe policies must be attached to each child compartment — in OCI, a root compartment policy automatically applies to all descendants.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because IAM policies are not limited to the IAM service — they can govern any OCI resource type. Option C is wrong because policies do not need to be attached to each child compartment; a policy in the root compartment automatically covers all child compartments. Option D is wrong because root compartment policies do affect child compartments, which is the opposite of the correct behavior.

242
MCQmedium

You are troubleshooting a connection to a database instance in a private subnet. You need to verify if security list rules are blocking incoming traffic to port 1521. Which tool in OCI can you use to test reachability between an application instance and the database instance?

A.NAT Gateway packet tracer
B.OCI Network Path Analyzer
C.OCI Load Balancer health check
D.Service Gateway connectivity tester
AnswerB

Network Path Analyzer traces the route between a source and destination, evaluating security lists, network security groups and route tables hop by hop. It identifies which rule blocks TCP port 1521, satisfying the reachability test requirement.

Why this answer

OCI Network Path Analyzer is a diagnostic tool that analyzes network reachability between two endpoints in your VCN, checking route tables, security lists, and NSGs to determine if traffic can flow.

243
MCQmedium

You need to resize the boot volume of an existing OCI Linux compute instance to provide more disk space for application logs. What is the correct sequence of actions?

A.Modify the boot volume size in the OCI Console, then use OS-level commands (such as `resizepart` and `xfs_growfs`) to extend the file system.
B.Terminate the instance, detach the boot volume, attach it to another instance, expand it, and reattach it.
C.Reboot the instance; OCI automatically detects the new size and extends the file system partitions automatically.
D.Create a new block volume, mount it as the root directory, and delete the old boot volume.
AnswerA

Expanding the boot volume in the OCI Console only increases the block volume's underlying capacity; the guest OS partition and file system remain unchanged. Running `resizepart` grows the partition into the new space, and `xfs_growfs` extends the XFS file system online, satisfying the requirement for additional log space without downtime.

Why this answer

To expand a boot volume, you first update the boot volume size in the OCI Console, and then you must log in to the instance and extend the operating system partition and file system to recognize the new capacity.

244
MCQhard

Your security policy states that users must enable Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) to access production compartments. How can you enforce MFA for specific users in OCI IAM?

A.Configure a security rule (or sign-on policy) within Identity Domains to require MFA for specific groups upon authentication.
B.Enable MFA in the tenancy root compartment settings under Compartment Quotas.
C.Write an IAM policy with the condition where request.mfa = 'true'
D.Add a tag to the user account indicating that MFA is required.
AnswerA

Configuring a sign-on policy within Identity Domains enforces MFA at authentication, satisfying the requirement to challenge specific users before they reach production compartments. Group-based conditions let you target only the relevant users rather than applying MFA tenant-wide, and the policy evaluates at sign-in, so access is blocked until the second factor succeeds.

Why this answer

In OCI Identity Domains, MFA enforcement is configured through sign-on policies (also called authentication policies) that specify which groups must complete a second factor at sign-in. You create a sign-on policy, add a rule that requires MFA, and assign it to the target groups, so only those users are challenged. This is the supported, centralized way to enforce MFA for specific users or groups.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between authentication-time MFA enforcement (sign-on policies in Identity Domains) and authorization-time MFA conditions in IAM policies, causing candidates to pick the policy-condition answer when the question asks how to enforce MFA at sign-in.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the root compartment settings and Compartment Quotas have nothing to do with authentication; MFA is an Identity Domain feature, not a compartment-level setting. Option C is wrong because an IAM policy condition like 'request.mfa = true' is used to gate authorization after authentication — it does not enforce MFA enrollment or challenge users at sign-in. Option D is wrong because tags are metadata for organization and policy conditions, not an authentication enforcement mechanism.

245
MCQeasy

Which OCI compute shape family is designed specifically for general-purpose workloads, balancing CPU, memory, and network resources?

A.Dense I/O Shapes
B.HPC Shapes
C.Standard Shapes
D.GPU Shapes
AnswerC

Standard shapes allocate a balanced ratio of CPU, memory, and network bandwidth, which directly satisfies the general-purpose requirement in the stem. Unlike compute-optimised or memory-optimised families that skew one resource, standard shapes suit web servers, application servers, and similar mainstream workloads without over-provisioning any single dimension.

Why this answer

Standard Shapes are OCI's general-purpose compute family, offering a balanced ratio of CPU, memory, and network bandwidth suitable for web servers, application servers, and dev/test workloads. They use Intel, AMD, or Ampere processors and are the default choice when no specialized hardware profile is required.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates can distinguish 'general-purpose' from 'specialized' shape families — the trap is picking Dense I/O or HPC because they sound more powerful, when the question explicitly asks for balanced CPU/memory/network.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Dense I/O Shapes are optimized for high disk throughput and IOPS (e.g., big data, HPC storage nodes), not balanced general-purpose use. Option B is wrong because HPC Shapes use RDMA/roCE networking and high-frequency CPUs for tightly coupled parallel workloads like CFD and EDA, not everyday workloads. Option D is wrong because GPU Shapes are designed for AI/ML training, inference, and graphics rendering, providing GPU accelerators rather than a balanced CPU/memory/network profile.

246
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO metrics are available for monitoring OCI Public Load Balancers in OCI Monitoring service?

Select 2 answers
A.DatabaseCPUUtilization
B.BlockStorageIOPS
C.BackendSetHealthyInstanceCount
D.ComputeInstanceVCPUTime
E.BytesProcessed
AnswersC, E

*BackendSetHealthyInstanceCount* directly satisfies the requirement to monitor the operational status of backend servers associated with Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Public Load Balancers. This metric tracks the exact quantity of healthy backend servers currently registered within a specific backend set, enabling administrators to configure alarms and effectively gauge application availability. Because the OCI Monitoring service ingests this metric natively from the load balancer service, it serves as a primary indicator for traffic routing health and autoscaling triggers.

Why this answer

Option C (BackendSetHealthyInstanceCount) is correct because OCI Monitoring exposes this load balancer metric to report how many backend servers in a given backend set are passing health checks, which is essential for availability monitoring. Option E (BytesProcessed) is correct because the Load Balancer service publishes this metric to show the total volume of traffic processed by the load balancer, useful for throughput and capacity analysis. The other options are not load balancer metrics: DatabaseCPUUtilization (A) belongs to the Database service, BlockStorageIOPS (B) is a Block Volume metric, and ComputeInstanceVCPUTime (D) is a Compute instance metric, so none of them are available for OCI Public Load Balancers in Monitoring.

247
MCQhard

A company uses OCI Resource Manager to manage its cloud infrastructure using Terraform. A developer has modified a Terraform configuration file locally and needs to preview the changes that Resource Manager will make to the cloud environment before actually applying them. Which Resource Manager job type should be executed?

A.Plan Job
B.Apply Job
C.Import Job
D.Destroy Job
AnswerA

A Plan Job runs terraform plan against the configuration and state, producing an execution plan that previews the changes Resource Manager would make without modifying any cloud resources. Apply Jobs perform the actual changes, so they cannot serve as a preview.

Why this answer

A Plan Job in OCI Resource Manager runs 'terraform plan' against the configuration and current state, producing an execution plan that shows what resources will be added, changed, or destroyed — without making any changes. This is exactly the preview capability the developer needs before applying.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests Terraform workflow commands — candidates confuse Plan (preview) with Apply (execute) or Import (bring existing resources under management), especially when the question emphasizes 'preview changes.'

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because an Apply Job executes 'terraform apply' and actually provisions or modifies infrastructure — it does not preview. Option C is wrong because an Import Job brings existing OCI resources into Terraform state management; it does not preview changes to a configuration. Option D is wrong because a Destroy Job tears down all resources managed by the stack, which is the opposite of previewing.

248
MCQeasy

What is the maximum number of VCNs allowed per region in an OCI tenancy by default (subject to service limits)?

A.50 (default service limit)
B.1
C.Unlimited
D.5
AnswerA

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure enforces a default service limit of 50 Virtual Cloud Networks (VCNs) per region within a single tenancy to help manage resource allocation and prevent unintended architectural sprawl. This specific boundary directly satisfies the regional tenancy constraint queried in the stem. While administrators can request a service limit increase through the Oracle Cloud console if larger topologies are required, 50 remains the baseline ceiling established out-of-the-box for standard deployments.

Why this answer

The default service limit for VCNs per region in an OCI tenancy is typically 50, but can be increased upon request.

249
MCQmedium

A team is using OCI File Storage Service and needs to protect against accidental deletion of files by end users. Which feature should be implemented?

A.FSS Snapshots
B.Object Storage Lifecycle Policies
C.FSS Object Versioning
D.Block Volume Volume Groups
AnswerA

File Storage Service (FSS) snapshots provide a read-only, point-in-time view of a file system that can be scheduled or created manually to satisfy the requirement of protecting against accidental end-user deletion. Because snapshots are immutable and stored independently of the active file system data, users cannot modify or delete the snapshot contents even if they inadvertently remove the original files from the mount target. This mechanism allows administrators to effortlessly restore the exact state of the data as it existed prior to the user error.

Why this answer

File Storage Service supports snapshots, which are read-only, point-in-time versions of a file system that allow users to recover accidental deletions.

250
MCQeasy

When provisioning an Autonomous Database, what parameter determines the initial compute and storage capacity allocated to the database, which can be scaled independently later?

A.Block volume IOPS and Throughput MB/s
B.Number of database threads and PGA memory limits
C.RAM size in Gigabytes and CPU core clock speed
D.OCPU count and Storage size in Terabytes
AnswerD

Provisioning an Autonomous Database requires defining the OCPU count and the storage size in Terabytes to satisfy the prompt's requirement for initial compute and storage capacity. These two distinct parameters determine the baseline resource allocation upon creation while remaining fully independent, allowing administrators to scale compute via OCPUs or expand storage capacity dynamically at any time without downtime.

Why this answer

When provisioning an Autonomous Database, the two primary capacity parameters are the number of OCPUs (compute) and the storage size in terabytes. These are set at creation and can be scaled independently afterward — compute can be scaled up or down without downtime, and storage can be increased online. This decoupling is a core ADB design feature, so OCPU count and storage size in TB is the correct answer.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing infrastructure-level metrics (IOPS, RAM, clock speed) with the ADB service-level parameters (OCPUs and TB of storage) that customers actually configure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because block volume IOPS and throughput are underlying infrastructure metrics for Block Volumes, not the user-facing capacity parameters for Autonomous Database. Option B is wrong because database threads and PGA memory limits are internal Oracle process/memory settings, not provisioning parameters exposed in the ADB console or API. Option C is wrong because RAM size and CPU clock speed are physical host attributes managed by OCI, not the abstracted compute unit (OCPU) and storage values that customers configure.

251
MCQeasy

What is the function of the OCI IAM 'read' verb compared to 'inspect'?

A.Read allows users to modify resources, whereas inspect only allows viewing.
B.Read includes all inspect permissions plus the ability to get resource metadata and configuration details.
C.Read allows downloading data from Object Storage, whereas inspect allows uploading.
D.Read is more restrictive than inspect.
AnswerB

The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Identity and Access Management verb hierarchy grants progressively broader access, where the 'inspect' permission strictly limits a principal to listing and viewing basic resource metadata without accessing configuration details. By contrast, the 'read' verb encompasses every capability of 'inspect' while lifting this restriction to explicitly permit retrieving full resource configuration details and metadata. This satisfies the functional requirement in the stem to differentiate the broader metadata and configuration access level of 'read' from the purely enumerative scope of 'inspect'.

Why this answer

The 'read' verb includes all permissions of 'inspect' plus the ability to get full configuration metadata and details of resources.

252
MCQeasy

Which OCI service provides authoritative Domain Name System (DNS) management and allows you to host public and private DNS zones?

A.OCI Load Balancer
B.OCI VCN Resolver
C.OCI DNS
D.OCI Traffic Management
AnswerC

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure DNS is the designated managed service that directly satisfies the requirement for authoritative Domain Name System management by supporting the creation and hosting of both public-facing and internal, private DNS zones. It enables organisations to configure and propagate custom domain records securely across virtual cloud networks and external internet endpoints without deploying custom BIND servers.

Why this answer

OCI DNS is the managed Domain Name System service that enables customers to create and manage public and private DNS zones.

253
MCQhard

You have configured an Oracle Data Guard association between a primary Autonomous Database and a standby Autonomous Database. What happens to the standby database if the primary database experiences an unplanned regional outage?

A.The standby database remains permanently read-only and cannot accept write transactions.
B.The standby database automatically destroys itself and reprovisions in the primary region.
C.You can perform a failover operation in the OCI Console to promote the standby database to primary.
D.Data Guard automatically switches back to the primary database via split-brain prevention algorithms.
AnswerC

An unplanned regional outage on the primary Autonomous Database prevents automatic recovery because replication is asynchronous or regional infrastructure is unavailable, satisfying the constraint of a severe site failure. To restore database availability, you can manually execute a failover operation via the OCI Console or API. This process promotes the standby database to become the new primary, instantly establishing a new primary role and allowing client applications to resume read-write operations against the promoted database instance in the surviving region.

Why this answer

When the primary Autonomous Database experiences an unplanned regional outage, you can perform a failover operation in the OCI Console to promote the standby Autonomous Database to primary. This is the documented Data Guard failover workflow for Autonomous Database, allowing business continuity across regions. The standby does not automatically promote itself; an explicit failover action is required.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that Data Guard automatically fails over or switches back — candidates who assume full automation pick wrong answers.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the standby is not permanently read-only — it can be promoted to primary via failover, after which it accepts write transactions. Option B is wrong because the standby does not destroy itself and reprovision in the primary region; it remains in the standby region and is promoted in place. Option D is wrong because Data Guard does not automatically switch back to the primary via split-brain prevention — failover is a manual (or scripted) operation, and switchback requires a separate reinstate/switchover process.

254
MCQhard

An OCI customer has configured an IPSec VPN tunnel between their on-premises datacenter and an OCI DRG. The tunnel status in the OCI Console shows as 'DOWN'. The customer verifies that the public IP of the CPE is correct and internet connectivity works. What is the most likely cause of the tunnel being down?

A.Mismatched IKE security parameters (Phase 1 or Phase 2) or blocked UDP ports 500/4500 on the firewall.
B.The NAT Gateway is misconfigured.
C.The FastConnect virtual circuit is disabled.
D.The VCN subnet route table is missing a route to 0.0.0.0/0.
AnswerA

An IPSec tunnel stays DOWN when IKE Phase 1 or Phase 2 parameters differ between peers, or when UDP ports 500 and 4500 are blocked. Correct CPE addressing and internet connectivity do not help if negotiation cannot complete or the encrypted packets are filtered.

Why this answer

VPN tunnel down status is commonly caused by mismatched IKE security parameters (Phase 1/Phase 2 pre-shared key, encryption/authentication algorithms, Diffie-Hellman groups) or blocked UDP ports 500/4500 on local firewalls.

255
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting a performance issue on an OCI compute instance. You suspect that the instance is experiencing CPU throttling due to credits being exhausted. Which compute shape type are you most likely using?

A.HPC (High-Performance Computing) Shape
B.Standard AMD Flexible Shape with baseline OCPU performance enabled
C.Bare Metal Standard Shape
D.GPU Shape
AnswerB

Baseline OCPU performance on a Standard AMD flexible shape uses burst credits; exhausting them throttles the instance to the baseline fraction of each OCPU. This directly explains the observed CPU throttling, unlike fixed shapes or high-performance variants that never draw on credits.

Why this answer

Standard AMD Flexible Shapes with baseline OCPU performance enabled use a burstable model where the instance earns CPU credits and can burst above baseline, but throttles when credits are exhausted. This is the classic CPU-throttling scenario. HPC, Bare Metal, and GPU shapes are not credit-based and do not throttle in this manner.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the difference between burstable (credit-based) and non-burstable shapes — the trap is assuming all flexible shapes are burstable, or that throttling indicates a network issue rather than CPU credit exhaustion.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because HPC shapes are designed for high-performance, non-burstable workloads and do not use CPU credits. Option C is wrong because Bare Metal Standard shapes provide dedicated physical cores with no credit-based throttling. Option D is wrong because GPU shapes are optimized for GPU-accelerated workloads and do not use CPU credit throttling.

256
MCQhard

You are configuring a Lifecycle Policy for an Object Storage bucket. You want to automatically move objects older than 30 days to Archive Storage. What is the correct rule configuration?

A.Use the 'Delete' action with a 30-day threshold.
B.Use the 'Move' action to a new bucket.
C.Use the 'Archive' action with a 30-day threshold.
D.Use the 'Restore' action.
AnswerC

Object Storage Lifecycle Policies natively support transitioning objects directly to Archive Storage based on an age-based time threshold. Configuring the rule to target objects older than 30 days using the Archive action precisely satisfies the explicit requirement in the stem to automate the migration of data to the long-term cold storage tier without manual intervention.

Why this answer

The lifecycle policy uses JSON-based rules to define action, name filter, and age threshold.

257
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following features or actions are supported when managing OCI Custom Images? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.You can copy a custom image directly to another OCI region using native cross-region image copy features.
B.You can use a custom image as the boot source when creating an instance configuration for an instance pool.
C.Custom images automatically sync operating system patches from Oracle update servers daily.
D.You can export a custom image to an OCI Object Storage bucket.
E.You can directly mount and edit files inside a custom image using the OCI Console file manager.
AnswersA, B, D

OCI allows you to replicate custom images across tenancies and regions natively via the console, CLI, or API without manually exporting to Object Storage first. This direct cross-region copy capability directly satisfies the requirement for regional image management highlighted in the stem, enabling administrators to deploy standardized compute instances globally with minimal administrative overhead.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because OCI supports native cross-region image copy, allowing a custom image to be copied directly to another region via the Console, CLI (oci compute image copy), or API without manually exporting and importing. Option B is correct because a custom image can be specified as the boot source image when creating an instance configuration, which is then used by an instance pool to launch instances. Option D is correct because OCI lets you export a custom image to an Object Storage bucket, producing an OCI-format or QCOW2/VMDK file that can be downloaded and used elsewhere.

Option C is not supported because custom images are static artifacts; they do not automatically pull OS patches from Oracle update servers, so patching must be handled by the customer. Option E is not supported because OCI provides no Console file manager to mount and edit files inside an image; you must launch an instance from the image, modify it, and create a new image.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that custom images auto-patch or can be edited in-place via the Console — candidates who assume managed lifecycle features pick wrong options.

258
MCQhard

You manage an Autonomous Database instance and want to configure Auto-Scaling for storage. What is the behavior of storage auto-scaling when enabled?

A.It scales down storage during low usage windows to reduce monthly cloud billing.
B.It automatically deletes old backups to free up block storage when thresholds are reached.
C.It automatically adds OCPUs whenever storage utilization exceeds 80 percent.
D.It automatically expands storage space as needed without user intervention, up to three times the base storage size.
AnswerD

Storage auto-scaling on Autonomous Database grows allocated storage automatically as consumption approaches the limit, with no manual intervention, capped at three times the base storage size. This matches the stated behaviour and bounds the maximum expansion.

Why this answer

Storage auto-scaling on Autonomous Database automatically expands allocated storage when utilization approaches capacity, without downtime or manual intervention, and it can grow up to three times the base storage size. This is a one-way expansion — storage is never automatically shrunk — and it is billed only for the storage actually consumed. The feature is designed to prevent out-of-space errors during unpredictable workload spikes.

Exam trap

The trap is conflating storage auto-scaling with compute (OCPU) auto-scaling — candidates pick the OCPU answer because they remember '80 percent utilization' but forget that threshold belongs to compute, not storage.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Autonomous Database storage auto-scaling is expand-only; OCI does not automatically shrink storage during low-usage windows, and billing is based on provisioned/used storage rather than a dynamic downscale. Option B is wrong because auto-scaling does not delete backups; backup retention is governed by separate backup policies and RMAN settings, and deleting backups to free space would violate data protection requirements. Option C is wrong because OCPU auto-scaling is a separate feature that scales compute based on CPU utilization; storage auto-scaling does not add OCPUs, and the 80 percent threshold applies to CPU-based auto-scaling, not storage.

259
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of an OCI Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG)?

A.To provide public internet access for public subnets.
B.To load balance web requests across backend servers.
C.To provide access to regional Object Storage.
D.To provide a private connection between your VCN and on-premises networks or other VCNs.
AnswerD

A Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) acts as a virtual router that establishes private pathways to satisfy the requirement for secure, non-public connectivity between a Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) and external environments. By attaching a DRG to your VCN, you can aggregate routing for multiple connection types—such as FastConnect private circuits, IPSec VPN tunnels, and Remote Peering Connections between different VCNs—thereby enabling scalable, enterprise-grade traffic encapsulation without traversing the public internet.

Why this answer

An OCI Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) is a virtual router that provides a private path between a VCN and networks outside OCI, such as on-premises networks over FastConnect or Site-to-Site VPN, or other VCNs in the same or different regions. It is the attachment point for IPSec VPN, FastConnect virtual circuits, and remote peering, and it participates in dynamic routing protocols like BGP. This makes it the correct answer for private connectivity.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between the DRG and other gateways, tricking candidates into choosing Internet Gateway or Service Gateway when the requirement is private connectivity to on-premises or other VCNs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because public internet access for public subnets is provided by an Internet Gateway, not a DRG. Option B is wrong because load balancing is handled by the OCI Load Balancer or Network Load Balancer, not by a DRG. Option C is wrong because private access to regional Object Storage is provided by a Service Gateway, not a DRG.

260
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE features are provided natively by Exadata Cloud Service to deliver high performance and high availability for Oracle databases? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Automatic translation of PL/SQL code into native AWS Redshift SQL syntax.
B.Oracle Real Application Clusters (RAC) support for database high availability.
C.Exadata Smart Scan to offload SQL query processing to storage servers.
D.RDMA over Converged Ethernet (RoCE) network fabric for ultra-low latency internal cluster interconnects.
E.Client-managed hypervisor patching via direct SSH access to Dom0 dom0 hypervisor nodes.
AnswersB, C, D

Oracle Real Application Clusters (RAC) natively provides database high availability by enabling multiple cluster nodes to concurrently access a single shared database storage pool. If a single compute node or virtual machine experiences a hardware or software failure, transparent application failover reroutes active sessions to surviving nodes without service interruption. This architecture directly satisfies the stem's requirement for a native feature that delivers high availability.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because Exadata Cloud Service natively runs Oracle Real Application Clusters (RAC), allowing multiple database instances on separate database nodes to access shared storage, which delivers high availability through instance failover and transparent application continuity. Option C is correct because Exadata Smart Scan is a core Exadata storage-server feature that pushes SQL predicate filtering and column projection down to the cells, reducing data transferred to the database nodes and dramatically improving query performance for analytics and large scans. Option D is correct because Exadata systems use an RDMA over Converged Ethernet (RoCE) network fabric for the internal cluster interconnect between database and storage servers, providing the ultra-low latency and high bandwidth required for RAC cache fusion and Smart Scan traffic.

Option A is not provided natively by Exadata Cloud Service, since Exadata runs Oracle Database and does not translate PL/SQL into AWS Redshift SQL. Option E is not provided because Exadata Cloud Service is a managed service where Oracle, not the client, handles hypervisor and infrastructure patching; customers do not get direct SSH access to Dom0.

Exam trap

The trap is picking plausible-sounding but non-Exadata features (like cross-cloud SQL translation or customer-managed Dom0 access) instead of the three genuine Exadata architectural pillars.

261
MCQhard

An OCI architect configures a DRG with transit routing, connecting VCN-A and Vcn-B to the DRG. Both VCNs need to communicate with the on-premises datacenter connected via FastConnect. However, VCN-A instances can reach on-premises, but Vcn-B cannot. What is the most likely misconfiguration in the DRG?

A.The DRG attachment for Vcn-B is associated with a DRG route table that lacks the import route distribution for the on-premises network.
B.VCN CIDRs must be identical for transit routing to function.
C.FastConnect only supports a single VCN attachment at a time.
D.Vcn-B must use an Internet Gateway instead of a DRG.
AnswerA

Transit routing through a Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) relies on route tables and import distributions to propagate prefixes correctly between attachments. For VCN-B instances to reach the on-premises datacenter via FastConnect, the DRG attachment for VCN-B must be associated with a DRG route table that includes an import route distribution populated with the on-premises routes. Since VCN-A succeeds while VCN-B fails, the absence of this specific import configuration on VCN-B's route table prevents it from learning the required on-premises network paths.

Why this answer

In DRG transit routing, each VCN attachment is associated with a DRG route table, and that route table must import routes from the appropriate route distribution (e.g., the distribution containing on-premises routes learned via FastConnect). If VCN-B's attachment uses a route table that does not import the on-premises distribution, VCN-B has no route to on-premises even though VCN-A does.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming transit routing 'just works' once VCNs are attached to the DRG — candidates must remember that each attachment's DRG route table must explicitly import the route distribution containing the on-premises routes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because VCN CIDRs must be non-overlapping for transit routing to work — identical CIDRs would actually break routing, not enable it. Option C is wrong because a single FastConnect virtual circuit can connect to a DRG that serves many VCN attachments; FastConnect is not limited to one VCN. Option D is wrong because an Internet Gateway cannot provide private connectivity to on-premises — only a DRG (via FastConnect or VPN) can, so replacing the DRG attachment with an IGW would eliminate on-premises reachability entirely.

262
MCQeasy

What is the main benefit of using a 'Clone' of a block volume?

A.Creating an immediate, independent volume
B.Backup automation
C.Reducing storage usage
D.Moving to another region
AnswerA

Cloning a block volume utilises point-in-time metadata pointer architecture to instantly provision a new storage entity without requiring a full data copy operation. This satisfies the constraint of creating an immediate, independent volume because the storage service references existing data blocks instantaneously, allowing read and write operations to commence straight away on a fully decoupled resource, regardless of the source volume size.

Why this answer

A block volume clone creates an immediate, point-in-time copy of the volume that is fully independent of the source — you can attach it to another instance, modify it, or delete it without affecting the original. This is the defining benefit: instant, independent duplication for use cases like test/dev refreshes, data sharing, or pre-upgrade snapshots. It is not a backup mechanism, does not deduplicate or compress to save space, and is region-scoped, so it cannot serve as a cross-region migration tool.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing 'clone' with 'backup' — candidates see 'copy of a volume' and default to backup automation, missing that a clone is an immediately usable, independent volume rather than a recovery artifact.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because backup automation is the role of OCI Block Volume Backup Policies and the Backup service, not cloning — a clone is a live, usable volume, not a scheduled backup artifact. Option C is wrong because a clone consumes its own block storage capacity equal to the source volume's provisioned size; it does not deduplicate or reduce storage usage. Option D is wrong because block volume clones are created within the same region and availability domain as the source; moving data to another region requires cross-region replication or backup copy, not a clone.

263
MCQhard

You are managing an OKE cluster and need to restrict network traffic so that pods in Namespace A cannot communicate with pods in Namespace B. What Kubernetes object should you configure?

A.Kubernetes Horizontal Pod Autoscalers
B.OCI VCN Security Lists
C.OCI API Gateway Access Rules
D.Kubernetes Network Policies
AnswerD

Kubernetes Network Policies provide the namespace-level traffic isolation required to restrict communication between pods in Namespace A and Namespace B. By defining ingress and egress rules at the IP block or pod selector level, a Network Policy enforces fine-grained Layer 3 and Layer 4 security controls within an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE) cluster. This natively satisfies the network segregation constraint specified in the stem without requiring external service mesh configurations.

Why this answer

Kubernetes Network Policies are the native object for controlling pod-to-pod traffic within a cluster. By creating a NetworkPolicy in Namespace A that selects pods and defines ingress/egress rules, you can deny traffic to pods in Namespace B. This is enforced by the CNI plugin (e.g., OCI VCN-Native CNI on OKE), making Network Policies the correct answer.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that OCI VCN Security Lists can isolate Kubernetes namespaces, when only Kubernetes Network Policies operate at the pod/namespace level.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Horizontal Pod Autoscalers adjust replica counts based on metrics; they have nothing to do with network segmentation. Option B is wrong because OCI VCN Security Lists operate at the subnet/VNIC level and cannot distinguish Kubernetes namespaces or pod labels, so they cannot enforce namespace-to-namespace pod isolation. Option C is wrong because OCI API Gateway Access Rules govern API invocation, not intra-cluster pod traffic.

264
MCQeasy

When connecting securely to an Autonomous Database instance, what file must be downloaded from the OCI Console and provided to your database client applications?

A.An SSH private key (.pem)
B.Client Credentials Wallet (wallet.zip)
C.Oracle Wallet Manager Master Encryption Key
D.tnsnames.ora configuration text file only
AnswerB

The Client Credentials Wallet (wallet.zip) contains the mTLS certificates, private key, and tnsnames.ora entry required for mutual TLS authentication to the Autonomous Database. Downloading it from the OCI Console satisfies the stem's constraint of securely connecting database client applications, since the wallet supplies the credentials those clients present during the TLS handshake.

Why this answer

To connect securely to an Autonomous Database, you must download the Client Credentials Wallet (wallet.zip) from the OCI Console. This wallet contains the credentials and network configuration files (including tnsnames.ora, sqlnet.ora, and cwallet.sso) needed for secure TLS connections. It is required for both JDBC and other client connections.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing the Client Credentials Wallet with other security artifacts like SSH keys or TDE master keys, or thinking that only tnsnames.ora is needed.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an SSH private key is used for secure shell access to compute instances, not for database client connections. Option B is correct. Option C is wrong because the Oracle Wallet Manager Master Encryption Key is used for Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) key management, not for client connectivity.

Option D is wrong because while tnsnames.ora is part of the wallet, providing only that file is insufficient; the wallet also includes the necessary certificates and keys for secure connections.

265
MCQhard

You are configuring identity federation with an enterprise SAML 2.0 Identity Provider. After mapping the external IdP groups to OCI IAM groups, users successfully log in via SSO but receive an authorization error (404/Not Authorized) when trying to view any resources. What is the most likely cause?

A.The SAML assertion signature certificate has expired in the external IdP.
B.Federated users cannot access OCI without first creating local user accounts.
C.No IAM policies have been created granting permissions to the mapped OCI IAM groups.
D.The user's browser blocked the OCI redirection cookies.
AnswerC

Group mapping only synchronises identities; it grants no permissions. OCI authorises every action through IAM policies, so without a policy allowing the mapped groups to inspect or use resources, authenticated users hit NotAuthorized. The 404 confirms authentication succeeded but authorisation failed.

Why this answer

Successful SSO login with a subsequent authorization error means authentication worked but authorization did not. In OCI, federated users inherit permissions only through IAM policies attached to the OCI IAM groups they are mapped to; if no policies grant those groups access to the resources, users authenticate but see 'Not Authorized'. Creating the appropriate policies resolves the issue.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the authentication-versus-authorization boundary; candidates see 'SSO works' and assume the problem is in the IdP or certificate, missing that OCI requires explicit IAM policies for federated groups.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an expired SAML signing certificate would cause authentication to fail at the IdP or OCI federation level, not a post-login authorization error. Option B is wrong because federated users do not need local OCI user accounts; that is the entire point of federation, and creating local accounts would defeat the SSO model. Option D is wrong because blocked browser cookies would prevent the SSO redirect or session establishment, producing a login failure rather than a resource-level authorization error.

266
MCQeasy

Which of the following describes an OCI user group?

A.A collection of users who can be assigned IAM policies to govern access to OCI resources.
B.A network security group used to filter traffic between subnets.
C.A collection of compute instances grouped for auto-scaling.
D.A collection of compartments sharing a common budget.
AnswerA

OCI user groups function as logical containers that aggregate individual IAM users to simplify permission management. By attaching identity policies directly to a group rather than to individual accounts, administrators can efficiently govern access to OCI resources at scale. This mechanism satisfies the requirement for managing user permissions collectively, mirroring the group-based access control patterns found in Microsoft Entra ID, ensuring that all members inherit the same set of authorised privileges across the tenancy.

Why this answer

An OCI user group is a logical collection of IAM users that allows administrators to grant permissions to multiple users at once via IAM policies. Policies are written against groups, not individual users, which simplifies access management. Groups are the primary mechanism for assigning access to OCI resources.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing IAM groups with network security groups or instance pools, as all involve 'grouping' but serve entirely different purposes in OCI.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because network security groups (NSGs) are virtual firewalls that apply to VNICs and filter traffic, not collections of users. Option C is wrong because compute instances are grouped for auto-scaling using instance pools or instance configurations, not IAM user groups. Option D is wrong because compartments are logical containers for resources and budgets are separate cost-tracking constructs; neither is a collection of users.

267
MCQhard

You are configuring an autoscaling policy for an instance pool. You choose a schedule-based policy to scale out the pool to 20 instances every Monday at 8:00 AM. What happens if an instance within the pool fails due to hardware degradation during the weekend when the pool size is set to 5?

A.The instance pool automatically replaces the failed instance immediately to maintain the current desired capacity of 5.
B.The failed instance is left in a failed state until Monday at 8:00 AM when the scheduled scaling event runs.
C.The autoscaling configuration disables itself due to a health check failure.
D.The entire instance pool is shut down to prevent data corruption.
AnswerA

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure instance pools continuously monitor the health of member instances to ensure the desired capacity is maintained. Regardless of the schedule-based policy configured for Monday, the pool’s underlying health management mechanism detects hardware degradation and automatically triggers a replacement process. This ensures the pool satisfies the current capacity constraint of five instances throughout the weekend, as the autoscaling service prioritises maintaining the defined instance count independently of any future scheduled scaling events.

Why this answer

Instance pools continuously maintain their desired capacity by monitoring instance health and automatically replacing any instance that fails, regardless of whether a schedule-based autoscaling policy is active. The schedule only dictates when the desired count changes (e.g., scaling to 20 on Monday), not whether failed instances are replaced. Therefore, a hardware failure on the weekend triggers immediate replacement to keep the pool at its current desired size of 5.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming that a schedule-based autoscaling policy governs all pool behavior, when in reality instance pool self-healing (replacing failed instances) operates independently of autoscaling policies.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because it assumes the pool waits for the next scheduled scaling event to act on a failure, but instance pool health monitoring is independent of autoscaling schedules and replaces failed instances immediately. Option C is wrong because a single instance health check failure does not disable the autoscaling configuration; autoscaling policies remain active and only adjust desired capacity based on their own metrics or schedules. Option D is wrong because OCI never shuts down an entire instance pool in response to a single instance failure; the pool's purpose is to maintain availability by replacing unhealthy members.

268
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE characteristics of OCI Security Lists are correct?

Select 3 answers
A.Security list rules are stateful by default.
B.Security lists are applied at the subnet level.
C.Security lists support stateless rules as an option.
D.A subnet can have a maximum of only one security list.
E.Security lists can be assigned to individual VNICs independently of subnets.
AnswersA, B, C

Security lists in OCI are stateful, meaning return traffic for an allowed inbound connection is automatically permitted without a separate egress rule. This satisfies the question's requirement for a correct characteristic, unlike network security groups' stateless behaviour or the misconception that security lists are stateless.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because OCI security list rules are stateful by default, meaning return traffic for an allowed connection is automatically permitted without needing a corresponding inbound or outbound rule. Option B is correct because security lists are attached to a subnet, and their rules apply to all VNICs in that subnet. Option C is correct because OCI security lists allow you to configure rules as stateless, in which case you must explicitly define rules for both request and response traffic.

Option D is incorrect because a subnet can have multiple security lists associated with it, not just one. Option E is incorrect because security lists are bound at the subnet level, whereas network security groups (NSGs) are the construct that can be assigned to individual VNICs.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming security lists are VNIC-level like NSGs, or that only one security list can attach to a subnet — candidates conflate security lists with Network Security Groups.

269
Multi-Selecthard

You are managing a set of compute instances in OCI. You need to ensure that the instances can be moved to a different compartment without disrupting their operation. Which TWO statements are true regarding moving compute instances between compartments? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Moving a compute instance between compartments requires stopping the instance first.
B.When you move a compute instance, its attached block volumes are automatically moved to the same compartment.
C.Moving a compute instance to another compartment changes its OCID.
D.You must have permissions in both the source and destination compartments to move a compute instance.
E.You can move a compute instance to another compartment using the OCI Console or CLI.
AnswersD, E

To move a compute instance, you need appropriate permissions in both the source compartment (to manage the instance) and the destination compartment (to create resources). This ensures that you have authorization to perform the move operation across compartment boundaries.

Why this answer

Moving a compute instance between compartments is a metadata operation that does not require stopping the instance, and it can be done via Console or CLI. Additionally, you need permissions in both source and destination compartments. The instance's OCID remains the same, and attached volumes are not automatically moved.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that moving an instance also moves its attached resources or requires a restart, but neither is true.

270
MCQhard

You are designing a high availability architecture for a mission-critical Oracle Exadata Database Service. You need to ensure zero data loss and minimal downtime during planned hardware maintenance. Which Oracle feature should you leverage?

A.Rolling infrastructure maintenance combined with Real Application Clusters (RAC) and Data Guard
B.Manual database export using Data Pump during the maintenance window
C.OCI Load Balancer health checks with DNS failover
D.Cold backups taken right before maintenance window execution
AnswerA

Rolling infrastructure maintenance patches one component at a time while RAC keeps the database available across surviving nodes, and Data Guard provides synchronous zero-data-loss replication to a standby. Together they deliver zero data loss and minimal downtime during planned hardware maintenance.

Why this answer

Rolling infrastructure maintenance combined with RAC and Data Guard provides zero data loss and minimal downtime: RAC allows one node to remain available while another is patched, and Data Guard synchronizes a standby database for failover protection. Together they enable maintenance to proceed without taking the entire database offline. This is the standard Oracle-recommended approach for mission-critical Exadata deployments.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates confuse backup/recovery tools (Data Pump, cold backups) with true high-availability features (RAC, Data Guard, rolling maintenance) that deliver zero data loss and minimal downtime.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Data Pump export is a logical backup method that does not provide high availability or zero data loss during maintenance — it is a point-in-time data movement tool, not a failover mechanism. Option C is wrong because OCI Load Balancer health checks with DNS failover operate at the network layer and cannot protect database availability or prevent data loss during database maintenance. Option D is wrong because cold backups require the database to be shut down and provide only a recovery point, not continuous availability or zero data loss during the maintenance window.

271
MCQhard

An administrator created a private subnet and attached a route table with a rule pointing 0.0.0.0/0 to a NAT Gateway. However, instances in this subnet cannot download OS updates from external public repositories. What should the administrator check first?

A.Check if the instances have public IP addresses assigned.
B.Check if an Internet Gateway is also attached to the VCN.
C.Check the subnet security lists or NSGs for a matching egress rule allowing outbound traffic to the internet.
D.Check if a Service Gateway is attached to the VCN.
AnswerC

Stateful security lists or NSGs must permit outbound traffic; a missing egress rule blocks OS update downloads even when the NAT Gateway route exists. Checking egress rules first isolates the most common cause of this failure.

Why this answer

Security lists or NSGs associated with the private subnet must have an egress rule allowing outbound traffic to 0.0.0.0/0 (all ports or specific ports like 80/443). Without matching egress rules, traffic hitting the NAT gateway will be dropped.

272
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO statements are true regarding OCI IAM policy syntax scoping rules? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Compartment names in policy statements are case-insensitive and can be replaced by user OCIDs.
B.Policies are attached directly to individual users rather than groups.
C.Policies defined in a child compartment cannot grant permissions on resources in parent compartments.
D.Policies can grant permissions across completely unrelated tenancies without any endorsement or commitment.
E.When referencing nested compartments, the full hierarchical path separated by colons must be used if not a direct child.
AnswersC, E

OCI Identity and Access Management enforces a strict hierarchical inheritance model where permissions flow exclusively downward from parent compartments to child compartments. Consequently, a policy authored within a child compartment lacks the structural scope to override this boundary and grant access to resources residing higher up in the tenancy tree. This fundamental scoping rule satisfies the hierarchical constraint specified in the stem, ensuring that administrative delegation remains contained and cannot escalate privileges beyond the compartment's immediate ancestry.

Why this answer

Policies must specify a valid scope (compartment or tenancy) and correctly reference subjects and resources.

273
MCQhard

You need to ingest custom application logs from multiple compute instances into OCI Logging. What is the correct sequence of components you must configure within OCI?

A.Create a Notification Topic, add HTTP endpoints, and enable Audit logs.
B.Create a Log Group, install and configure the OCI Logging Unified Agent on the instances, and create a custom Log pointing to the agent configuration.
C.Create a Resource Manager stack, deploy a Terraform template, and configure an email subscription.
D.Create a Monitoring Alarm, configure OCI Events, and link them to an Object Storage bucket.
AnswerB

The Log Group organises storage, the Unified Agent collects and forwards instance logs, and a custom Log binds that agent configuration to the group. This sequence satisfies ingesting application logs from multiple compute instances into OCI Logging.

Why this answer

To ship custom logs from compute instances, you install the Unified Agent, configure a log group, and create a log resource associated with a unified agent configuration.

274
MCQmedium

You are configuring an Oracle Autonomous Database on dedicated Exadata infrastructure. The database must be isolated at the network level so that application clients reach it only through a private endpoint inside a VCN, with no public internet exposure at all. Which configuration should you choose when provisioning the Autonomous Database?

A.Configure a private endpoint access type and select the VCN, subnet, and optionally a network security group for the endpoint.
B.Configure a public endpoint access type and enable mutual TLS with a client certificate requirement.
C.Configure a private endpoint access type and disable the service gateway in the VCN to block all external traffic.
D.Configure a public endpoint access type and then add an access control list that restricts allowed client IP ranges.
AnswerA

Selecting private endpoint access when provisioning the Autonomous Database creates a private IP in the chosen VCN subnet, so all client connections stay inside the OCI network. This satisfies the isolation requirement because no public endpoint is exposed, and access can be further restricted with security lists or network security groups on that subnet.

Why this answer

Network isolation with zero public exposure on Autonomous Database is achieved by choosing the private endpoint access type, which places the database endpoint inside a VCN subnet and keeps all client traffic on the OCI network. Security lists or network security groups on that subnet then control which internal clients may connect, meeting the isolation requirement without exposing any public listener.

Exam trap

The trap here is believing that an access control list or mutual TLS on a public endpoint achieves private isolation, when the endpoint itself remains internet-reachable.

275
MCQhard

You are designing a PCI-DSS compliant architecture on OCI. You need to ensure that all data stored on compute instance boot volumes and block volumes is encrypted using customer-managed encryption keys rather than Oracle-managed keys. Where should you configure these keys?

A.Via IAM user password policies.
B.Directly in the guest OS kernel encryption configuration files (`/etc/fstab`).
C.In OCI Vault (Key Management), assigning a master encryption key to the volumes during creation or update.
D.In the VCN Security List encryption settings.
AnswerC

OCI Vault (Key Management) allows you to provision and control customer-managed master encryption keys to satisfy the strict PCI-DSS regulatory constraint requiring enterprise ownership of cryptographic material. By assigning these specific keys to compute instance boot volumes and block volumes during creation or update, you override default Oracle-managed encryption and ensure that all data-at-rest is secured using keys managed directly within your designated vault service.

Why this answer

To use customer-managed encryption keys for boot volumes and block volumes, you configure a master encryption key in OCI Vault (Key Management) and assign it to the volumes during creation or update. This ensures that data at rest is encrypted with keys the customer controls, satisfying PCI-DSS requirements for key management. OCI Vault integrates natively with Block Volume and Boot Volume services for this purpose.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates confuse network security constructs (Security Lists) or OS-level settings with OCI Vault key management — the correct answer is always OCI Vault for customer-managed encryption keys.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because IAM user password policies govern authentication credentials, not data-at-rest encryption keys for volumes. Option B is wrong because editing `/etc/fstab` in the guest OS configures file system mounts, not OCI-level volume encryption — encryption is handled by the Block Volume service, not the guest OS. Option D is wrong because VCN Security Lists control network traffic (ingress/egress rules), not encryption settings for storage volumes.

276
MCQmedium

You have a fleet of compute instances running in a private subnet. You want to patch their operating systems regularly using OCI OS Management service without exposing them to the public internet. What must be configured in your VCN?

A.A NAT Gateway with public IP attachment
B.An Internet Gateway with security list ingress rules
C.A Service Gateway and a route table rule pointing traffic destined for Oracle Services to the Service Gateway
D.A Local Peering Gateway connected to Oracle's internal network
AnswerC

A Service Gateway gives private-subnet instances access to Oracle Services Network endpoints, including OS Management, without traversing the internet. The route table rule directing Oracle Services traffic to that gateway is what satisfies the no-public-internet constraint.

Why this answer

To allow private instances to access Oracle services like OS Management or Object Storage without public internet access, you must configure a Service Gateway and a corresponding route table entry.

277
MCQmedium

You are creating an instance configuration from an existing compute instance that has two secondary data block volumes attached in addition to its boot volume. What happens to the data block volumes when you use this instance configuration to create an instance pool?

A.The instance pool creation fails because secondary block volumes are prohibited in instance pools.
B.The block volumes become shared network file systems across all pool members simultaneously in read-write mode.
C.Identical copies of the block volumes are automatically created and attached to every new instance in the pool.
D.Secondary block volumes are excluded from the instance pool configuration template; instance pools manage compute instances and boot volumes.
AnswerD

Instance configurations in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure capture the blueprint for compute instances, including the boot volume and compute shape, but deliberately exclude attached secondary data block volumes. When you provision an instance pool from this template, the constraint that secondary block volumes are omitted ensures that every newly scaled instance starts with only its boot volume. Consequently, administrators must manage data persistence separately from the elastic scaling lifecycle provided by the instance pool.

Why this answer

An instance configuration captures the compute instance's shape, image, metadata, and boot volume, but secondary (data) block volumes are not included in the template. When an instance pool is created from that configuration, each new instance is provisioned with only the boot volume; the attached data volumes are excluded. This is by design because block volumes cannot be safely cloned and attached to multiple instances simultaneously.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the assumption that everything attached to the source instance is replicated into the pool, when in fact instance configurations capture only boot volume and launch metadata, not secondary block volumes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because instance pool creation does not fail due to secondary block volumes — they are simply omitted from the template, so the pool builds successfully. Option B is wrong because block volumes are single-attach by default and cannot be shared read-write across multiple instances as a network file system; that describes a file system service, not block storage. Option C is wrong because OCI does not automatically clone block volumes for each pool member — that would require explicit block volume backups and clones, which the instance configuration does not perform.

278
MCQmedium

An administrator needs to scale up CPU cores for an existing Oracle Autonomous Transaction Processing database without causing application downtime. Which feature of Autonomous Database allows this?

A.Database migration via Oracle Zero Downtime Migration tool
B.Manual resizing through operating system configuration files
C.Autonomous Database Elastic Resource Scaling
D.Database cloning
AnswerC

Elastic resource scaling lets you increase CPU cores on an Autonomous Transaction Processing database online, with no downtime, because compute resources are decoupled from storage. This directly satisfies the no-downtime constraint, unlike scaling that requires a restart.

Why this answer

Autonomous Database Elastic Resource Scaling allows you to scale the number of OCPU cores (and optionally storage) up or down on a running Autonomous Transaction Processing database without any downtime. The scaling operation is performed online by Oracle's managed infrastructure, so active sessions and applications continue to run. This is the built-in feature specifically designed for the 'scale up CPU cores without downtime' requirement.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the distinction between scaling an existing Autonomous Database (Elastic Resource Scaling) and migrating or cloning it, so candidates who confuse 'scale up' with 'migrate' or 'clone' pick the wrong option.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Oracle Zero Downtime Migration is a tool for migrating on-premises or cloud databases to OCI/ADB, not for scaling resources of an already-running ADB. Option B is wrong because Autonomous Database is a fully managed service — administrators have no OS-level access to modify configuration files, and manual OS tuning is not how ADB resources are changed. Option D is wrong because cloning creates a new independent database copy; it does not scale the CPU of the existing database and would not satisfy a no-downtime scale-up requirement.

279
MCQmedium

An administrator needs to grant read-only access to all Object Storage buckets within a specific compartment named 'DataLake'. Which policy statement accomplishes this?

A.Allow group DataReaders to use buckets in compartment DataLake
B.Allow group DataReaders to inspect storage in tenancy
C.Allow group DataReaders to manage files in compartment DataLake
D.Allow group DataReaders to read object-family in compartment DataLake
AnswerD

Granting `read object-family` at compartment scope lets the DataReaders group list and read every bucket and object within DataLake, matching the read-only requirement. The `object-family` verb set covers buckets, objects and their metadata, while compartment-level placement confines access to DataLake alone, satisfying the stated constraint without granting write permissions.

Why this answer

The policy statement 'Allow group DataReaders to read object-family in compartment DataLake' grants read-only access to Object Storage buckets and objects within the DataLake compartment. The 'read' verb includes the ability to list and get objects, while 'object-family' covers buckets and objects. This precisely matches the requirement for read-only access to all buckets in that compartment.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the exact IAM verb and resource-type combinations, so candidates may choose 'use' or 'manage' thinking they are equivalent to read-only, when only 'read' provides the correct least-privilege access.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'use buckets' grants the ability to use buckets but does not include reading objects; 'use' is typically for associating resources, not data access. Option B is wrong because 'inspect storage in tenancy' grants metadata inspection across the entire tenancy, not read access to objects, and it is not scoped to the DataLake compartment. Option C is wrong because 'manage files' is not a valid OCI policy verb/resource combination for Object Storage; 'manage' grants full control, which exceeds read-only, and 'files' is not the correct resource type.

280
MCQmedium

Your organization wants to grant an external team of auditors read-only access to a specific compartment named FinanceAudits without creating individual IAM users for each auditor. You decide to use identity federation with a SAML 2.0-compliant Identity Provider (IdP). Which of the following steps is NOT required to achieve this?

A.Map the Identity Provider's user group to an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure IAM group.
B.Create an IAM policy granting the mapped OCI group read access to the FinanceAudits compartment.
C.Manually create individual IAM user accounts for each auditor in the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Console.
D.Configure the Identity Provider (IdP) metadata XML file in the OCI IAM identity provider console.
AnswerC

Satisfying the explicit requirement to avoid creating individual accounts for external auditors, federating via a SAML 2.0-compliant Identity Provider maps external user sessions directly to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure groups through identity provider policies and dynamic resource mappings. Provisioning local IAM users would contradict the core design of federated authentication, which delegates credential management and user lifecycle operations entirely to the external IdP such as Microsoft Entra ID or Okta, thereby rendering manual account creation completely unnecessary.

Why this answer

To federate an IdP, you must configure the IdP, create an IdP group, map that IdP group to an OCI group, and write a policy granting the OCI group access. You do not manually create local IAM users for the federated users.

281
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of OCI Identity Domains?

A.To manage DNS zones and DNS resolution records.
B.To provide comprehensive identity and access management capabilities such as user lifecycle management, MFA, and OAuth/SAML integration.
C.To manage physical server racks in Oracle Cloud regions.
D.To isolate database traffic across virtual cloud networks.
AnswerB

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Identity Domains directly satisfy the requirement for comprehensive identity and access management by extending traditional tenancy security into a unified administrative boundary. By consolidating user lifecycle management, multi-factor authentication, and standards-based federation protocols like OAuth and SAML into a single architecture, Identity Domains directly address the stem's constraint for centralised governance. This capability differentiates them from legacy native users and groups by offering enterprise-grade synchronisation, seamless third-party identity provider integration, and granular access controls across complex multi-cloud deployments.

Why this answer

OCI Identity Domains provide comprehensive IAM capabilities, including user lifecycle management, MFA, OAuth, SAML federation, and SCIM provisioning. They are the next-generation IAM model in OCI, replacing the legacy IAM service while maintaining compatibility. This matches option B.

Exam trap

The trap is thinking Identity Domains are only for identity federation — candidates forget they also handle user lifecycle, MFA, and OAuth, making them a full IAM suite.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DNS zones and resolution records are managed by OCI DNS, not Identity Domains. Option C is wrong because physical server racks are managed by Oracle's infrastructure teams, not by Identity Domains. Option D is wrong because database traffic isolation is handled by VCNs and security lists, not Identity Domains.

282
MCQmedium

You have an existing compute instance with a standard boot volume size of 47 GB. Your application requires 200 GB. You successfully increase the boot volume size to 200 GB in the OCI Console. However, when you run `df -h` inside the guest OS, it still shows 47 GB. What is the cause?

A.The guest OS partition and file system have not yet been resized to claim the expanded storage.
B.OCI does not support expanding boot volumes online; you must reboot the instance.
C.You must detach the boot volume and reattach it for the OS to notice the change.
D.Boot volumes have a hard cap of 50 GB unless converted to Block Volumes.
AnswerA

Expanding a boot volume in the Console only grows the block device; the guest OS partition table and file system remain at 47 GB until you extend the partition and resize the file system. The Console operation alone cannot propagate the change into the running OS.

Why this answer

While OCI resizes the physical storage block device at the hypervisor level, the guest operating system partition and file system must be manually or automatically extended to utilize the new space.

283
MCQmedium

Which encryption method is used by default for all Object Storage buckets?

A.AES-256 server-side encryption
B.RSA-4096 client-side encryption
C.No encryption by default
D.TLS 1.3 only
AnswerA

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage enforces Advanced Encryption Standard with 256-bit keys (AES-256) server-side encryption natively for all buckets and data objects by default. This automatic protection directly satisfies the requirement for zero-configuration, platform-managed security at rest without requiring manual key generation or bucket policy modifications from administrators.

Why this answer

OCI Object Storage automatically encrypts all data at rest using AES-256.

284
MCQeasy

What is the minimum OCPU allocation required when configuring an OCI Ampere A1 Compute flexible shape (VM.Standard.A1.Flex)?

A.4 OCPUs
B.2 OCPUs
C.1 OCPU
D.8 OCPUs
AnswerC

The VM.Standard.A1.Flex shape allows users to flexibly configure OCPU and memory resources for Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Ampere A1 Compute instances. To satisfy the minimum resource constraint mandated by the flexible shape architecture, you must allocate at least 1 OCPU. This baseline configuration permits workloads to scale incrementally up to the maximum limit supported by the tenancy or service limits, ensuring precise capacity planning for ARM-based deployments without over-provisioning hardware resources.

Why this answer

The OCI Ampere A1 Compute flexible shape (VM.Standard.A1.Flex) allows you to configure as little as 1 OCPU. This is the minimum because the shape is designed for granular, flexible allocation, and Oracle's documentation explicitly states that the minimum OCPU per instance is 1. Therefore, 1 OCPU is the correct answer.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the minimum and maximum limits of flexible shapes, and candidates may confuse the minimum with common default or recommended values, leading them to choose 2 or 4 OCPUs instead of the correct 1 OCPU.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 4 OCPUs is not the minimum; it is a common configuration but not the smallest allowed. Option B is wrong because 2 OCPUs is higher than the minimum; while it is a valid allocation, it is not the smallest possible. Option D is wrong because 8 OCPUs is far above the minimum and is often used for larger workloads, but the shape supports much smaller sizes.

285
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE features are supported by OCI Object Storage buckets?

Select 3 answers
A.Direct attachment to a Linux compute instance as a block storage device formatted with ext4.
B.POSIX-compliant file locking for multi-client NFS v3/v4 mounts directly from the bucket.
C.Object versioning to retain multiple variants of an object in the same bucket.
D.Cross-region replication to automatically copy objects to a bucket in another OCI region.
E.Encryption of data at rest using Customer-Managed Keys (CMK) via OCI Vault.
AnswersC, D, E

Object versioning in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage satisfies the requirement to retain multiple variants of an object within the same bucket. When this feature is enabled, uploading a new object with the same name as an existing one automatically creates a new version instead of overwriting the original data, generating a unique version ID for each iteration. This mechanism protects critical datasets against accidental overwrites or malicious deletions, allowing administrators to retrieve previous states directly from the storage bucket without external backups.

Why this answer

OCI Object Storage supports customer-managed encryption keys via Vault, cross-region replication, and versioning to protect against accidental overwrites or deletions.

286
Multi-Selecthard

An administrator is planning an Object Storage data archiving strategy. Which THREE characteristics apply to OCI Archive Storage? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.It has a minimum storage duration commitment of 90 days.
B.Objects in Archive Storage can be read directly via GET requests without prior restoration.
C.It provides the lowest cost per gigabyte for storage in OCI.
D.Data retrieval requires a restoration request that can take up to 4 hours.
E.It supports instant sub-second retrieval times for disaster recovery testing.
AnswersA, C, D

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Archive Storage is specifically designed for long-term data retention where access is infrequent, satisfying the administrator's requirement for a cost-effective archiving strategy. To enforce this intended use case for cold data, OCI imposes a strict minimum storage duration commitment of 90 days. If data is deleted or overwritten before this 90-day threshold has elapsed, a pro-rated early deletion charge is applied, which directly addresses the cost-optimisation constraint inherent in long-term data archiving planning.

Why this answer

Archive Storage is designed for long-term retention, offers the lowest storage cost, and requires data to be restored to the Infrequent Access or Standard tier before reading, with a restoration latency of up to 4 hours.

287
MCQmedium

You are managing an instance pool and want to ensure that instances are distributed evenly across multiple Availability Domains (ADs) in a multi-AD region to maximize high availability. How should you configure the instance pool placement?

A.Configure VCN route tables to load balance traffic across ADs.
B.Create separate instance pools for each AD and manually scale them.
C.Select multiple Availability Domains in the instance pool placement configuration.
D.Set the fault domain count to 10.
AnswerC

Configuring an instance pool to span multiple Availability Domains directly satisfies the requirement to distribute instances evenly across a multi-AD region for high availability. When you select multiple Availability Domains during the placement configuration, the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure control plane automatically balances new instance launches across the chosen domains. This mechanism prevents single-hardware-failure domains from impacting your entire application tier, ensuring fault tolerance and high availability as requested in the scenario.

Why this answer

In OCI, an instance pool's placement configuration lets you select one or more Availability Domains (and fault domains). Selecting multiple ADs distributes instances across those ADs, maximizing high availability. The pool automatically balances instances across the selected ADs.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between Availability Domains and Fault Domains; candidates may pick fault domain settings when the question asks for multi-AD distribution.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because VCN route tables control traffic routing, not instance placement across ADs. Option B is wrong because creating separate pools per AD requires manual scaling and does not provide a single pool with even distribution. Option D is wrong because fault domain count (max 3 per AD) controls placement within an AD, not across ADs, and 10 is not a valid fault domain count.

288
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE features are provided by File Storage Service?

Select 3 answers
A.Automatic tiering to Archive
B.NFSv3 support
C.Export options
D.Cross-region replication
E.File system snapshots
AnswersB, C, E

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure File Storage Service natively supports the Network File System version 3 (NFSv3) protocol, allowing traditional enterprise workloads and Linux-based compute instances to mount file systems directly over the network. This satisfies the requirement for standard protocol compatibility by enabling multiple clients to concurrently access shared storage using POSIX-compliant file locking and metadata operations, ensuring seamless integration for legacy applications migrating to the cloud.

Why this answer

Snapshots, NFS compatibility, and export options are key features of FSS.

289
Multi-Selectmedium

A network engineer is configuring a site-to-site IPSec VPN between an on-premises CPE and an OCI DRG. The engineer wants to ensure that the VPN connection is highly available and can survive a single CPE or tunnel failure. Which three components or configurations are required to achieve this? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.A redundant CPE on-premises with its own set of two IPSec tunnels to the DRG.
B.Two IPSec tunnels per CPE, each terminating on a different DRG IP address.
C.A single IPSec tunnel with a higher bandwidth setting to handle all traffic.
D.BGP routing enabled on the IPSec tunnels to dynamically exchange routes between on-premises and OCI.
E.An Internet Gateway attached to the DRG to provide a backup path for VPN traffic.
AnswersA, B, D

To survive a single CPE failure, a second on-premises CPE with its own pair of IPSec tunnels to the DRG is required. OCI supports multiple CPEs per IPSec connection, and each CPE can have its own redundant tunnels. Without a second CPE, a hardware failure at the primary CPE would take down all tunnels.

Why this answer

High availability for OCI site-to-site VPN requires two tunnels per CPE terminating on different DRG IP addresses, a redundant CPE with its own two tunnels, and BGP to dynamically route and fail over between them. Together these elements ensure that a single tunnel or CPE failure does not interrupt connectivity between on-premises and OCI.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a single IPSec tunnel with more bandwidth or an Internet Gateway can provide redundancy, when OCI VPN high availability depends on multiple tunnels and CPEs with dynamic routing.

290
MCQmedium

You are configuring an OCI Load Balancer and need to distribute incoming requests across backend servers based on the client's source IP address so that requests from the same client always go to the same backend server. Which load balancing policy should you choose?

A.Least Connections
B.Random
C.Weighted Round Robin
D.IP Hash
AnswerD

The IP Hash load balancing policy uses a hash-based algorithm derived from the client's source and destination IP addresses to route incoming requests. This technical mechanism directly satisfies the requirement to ensure that requests from the same client always reach the same backend server, maintaining session persistence based entirely on network layer identifiers without needing application-level cookies.

Why this answer

The IP Hash load balancing policy hashes the client's source IP address to route requests from the same client to the same backend server, ensuring session persistence.

291
MCQeasy

What is the default retention period for audit logs in OCI?

A.365 days
B.90 days
C.Unlimited
D.30 days
AnswerA

Audit logs in OCI are retained for 365 days by default, satisfying the question's requirement for the standard retention period without additional configuration. This fixed one-year window applies automatically to the Audit service, after which entries are purged unless archived separately to Object Storage.

Why this answer

Audit logs are retained for 365 days by default.

292
MCQmedium

You are planning IP address allocation for a multi-tier application in OCI. You create a VCN with CIDR 172.16.0.0/16. You need three subnets: web (100 hosts), app (200 hosts), and database (50 hosts). Which combination of subnet CIDRs is valid and non-overlapping?

A.Web: 10.0.1.0/24, App: 10.0.2.0/24, DB: 10.0.3.0/24
B.Web: 172.16.1.0/24, App: 172.16.2.0/24, DB: 172.16.3.0/26
C.Web: 172.16.0.0/15, App: 172.16.0.0/16, DB: 172.16.1.0/24
D.Web: 172.16.1.0/24, App: 172.16.1.0/24, DB: 172.16.3.0/24
AnswerB

Allocating the web subnet a 172.16.1.0/24 CIDR provides 256 addresses (254 usable), accommodating the required 100 hosts. The app subnet uses 172.16.2.0/24, yielding 254 usable IPs to satisfy the 200-host constraint. The database subnet uses 172.16.3.0/26, supplying 62 usable addresses for the 50 hosts. All three subnets fit strictly within the parent VCN CIDR of 172.16.0.0/16, remain entirely non-overlapping, and reserve the necessary Oracle Cloud Infrastructure network addresses per subnet.

Why this answer

Option B is the only combination where all three subnets fall inside the VCN CIDR 172.16.0.0/16 and do not overlap. Web (172.16.1.0/24) provides 256 addresses for 100 hosts, App (172.16.2.0/24) provides 256 addresses for 200 hosts, and DB (172.16.3.0/26) provides 64 addresses for 50 hosts — all within the /16 and mutually exclusive.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates verify that subnet CIDRs both fall inside the VCN CIDR and do not overlap — the trap is picking a combination that looks correctly sized but uses addresses outside the VCN range.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the subnets use 10.0.x.0/24 ranges, which lie outside the VCN CIDR 172.16.0.0/16 and therefore cannot be created in that VCN. Option C is wrong because 172.16.0.0/15 extends beyond the VCN's /16 boundary (it covers 172.16.0.0–172.17.255.255), and the /16 and /24 subnets overlap with each other. Option D is wrong because Web and App both use 172.16.1.0/24, which is an overlapping CIDR and is rejected by OCI.

293
MCQmedium

You need to share a file system between multiple OCI Compute instances across different availability domains. Which service should you use?

A.Local NVMe storage
B.Object Storage
C.Block Volume
D.File Storage Service
AnswerD

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure File Storage service utilises the Network File System (NFSv3) protocol to provide shared access from multiple compute instances simultaneously. This directly satisfies the requirement to share a file system across different availability domains because a File Storage file system is regional, existing independently within a specific region while being securely mountable by targets placed across any availability domain within that same region.

Why this answer

File Storage Service (FSS) is a shared file system that can be mounted across ADs in a region.

294
MCQeasy

Which OCI service is most appropriate for storing static website content?

A.File Storage
B.Block Volume
C.Archive Storage
D.Object Storage
AnswerD

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage provides an infinitely scalable, highly durable repository that natively supports public access and HTTP/HTTPS serving directly from a designated bucket. This directly satisfies the requirement for hosting static website content, as static assets such as HTML, CSS, and client-side JavaScript do not require compute processing or dynamic server-side rendering, allowing them to be served efficiently and cost-effectively at scale without provisioning virtual machines.

Why this answer

Object Storage is frequently used to host static website assets.

295
MCQmedium

An application running on OCI requires an Autonomous Transaction Processing (ATP) database with the ability to automatically scale compute resources up and down based on workload demand, without manual intervention. Which feature should you enable during or after database provisioning?

A.Dynamic Scaling Policy
B.Compute Autoscaling Groups
C.Auto Scaling
D.Elastic Resource Pools
AnswerC

Auto Scaling adjusts ATP compute (ECPUs) automatically in response to workload demand, satisfying the stem's requirement for scaling up and down without manual intervention. It operates independently of storage autoscaling, so it directly meets the no-intervention constraint.

Why this answer

Auto Scaling is the Autonomous Database feature that automatically scales compute resources up and down based on workload demand without manual intervention. It is enabled during or after provisioning and adjusts the number of OCPUs within the defined base and maximum limits.

Exam trap

The trap is selecting generic cloud autoscaling terms (Dynamic Scaling Policy, Autoscaling Groups, Elastic Resource Pools) instead of the exact Autonomous Database feature name, Auto Scaling.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'Dynamic Scaling Policy' is not the OCI Autonomous Database feature name; it resembles autoscaling terminology from other clouds or services. Option B is wrong because Compute Autoscaling Groups apply to OCI Compute instances, not to Autonomous Database compute scaling. Option D is wrong because 'Elastic Resource Pools' is not an Autonomous Database feature; it is a fabricated term that does not map to ATP autoscaling.

296
MCQmedium

You are deploying a Public Load Balancer in OCI to distribute incoming web traffic across multiple backend compute instances in different availability domains. You notice that backend health checks are failing. Which component's configuration should you check first to ensure health check probes can reach the backend instances?

A.The Service Gateway rules to enable Oracle Object Storage communication.
B.The Internet Gateway route table associated with the private subnets.
C.Security lists or Network Security Groups of the backend instances to allow traffic from the Load Balancer subnet.
D.The Dynamic Routing Gateway route table to ensure BGP routes are propagated.
AnswerC

Health check probes originate from the Load Balancer's subnet, so the backend instances' security lists or NSGs must permit inbound traffic from that source. Without an ingress rule allowing the probe traffic, health checks fail even though the load balancer itself is configured correctly.

Why this answer

Load Balancer backend health checks originate from the Load Balancer's subnet. Security Lists or NSGs attached to the backend instances must allow inbound traffic from the Load Balancer subnet on the backend application ports and health check ports.

297
MCQmedium

You have a web application behind an OCI Public Load Balancer. You want to restrict access so that only clients coming from a specific corporate external IP address range can access your application. Where should you configure this restriction?

A.Database security groups
B.Service Gateway route table
C.Load Balancer Access Control Rules (Rule Sets) or Security Lists on the Load Balancer subnet
D.NAT Gateway routing rules
AnswerC

Load balancer rule sets filter client traffic by source IP before it reaches backends, while security lists on the load balancer subnet restrict ingress. Either enforces the corporate IP range restriction at the network edge.

Why this answer

A Public Load Balancer in OCI supports Access Control Rules (Rule Sets) that allow or deny traffic based on source CIDR blocks, and Security Lists on the load balancer's subnet can also restrict ingress by source IP. Configuring the corporate IP range as an allow rule in the load balancer's rule set (or a security list ingress rule) restricts access at the network edge before traffic reaches the backend.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests where to enforce client IP restrictions — candidates pick database security groups or NAT gateway rules, confusing inbound client filtering with backend or outbound controls.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because database security groups apply to database resources, not to a public load balancer fronting a web application, and they do not filter client traffic to the load balancer. Option B is wrong because a Service Gateway route table controls access to OCI services (e.g., Object Storage) from a VCN, not inbound client access to a load balancer. Option D is wrong because NAT Gateway routing rules govern outbound traffic from private subnets to the internet, not inbound client restrictions.

298
MCQhard

You are deploying an Exadata Cloud Service instance and need to configure separate Virtual Machine clusters on the same Exadata rack. Which architectural feature enables this separation?

A.OCI Compartment boundaries
B.Exadata VM Clusters
C.Oracle Multitenant container databases with PDB isolation
D.Dynamic Routing Gateways (DRG)
AnswerB

Exadata VM Clusters provide the architectural separation, letting multiple independent VM clusters coexist on one Exadata rack with isolated compute, storage access and networking. This satisfies the requirement to configure separate clusters on the same physical infrastructure.

Why this answer

Exadata VM Clusters are the architectural construct that lets you carve a single Exadata Cloud Service rack into multiple isolated VM clusters, each with its own compute nodes, storage access, and network configuration. This is the supported mechanism for multi-tenant separation on the same physical rack.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing logical OCI constructs (compartments, DRGs) with the actual Exadata-specific isolation primitive — candidates who haven't studied Exadata architecture often pick 'compartments' as the isolation answer.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because OCI compartments are logical IAM/resource grouping constructs, not physical or network isolation boundaries for Exadata compute. Option C is wrong because Multitenant PDB isolation separates databases within a CDB, not VM clusters on the rack. Option D is wrong because a DRG is a VCN routing component for connectivity, not an Exadata rack partitioning feature.

299
MCQmedium

You are designing a Disaster Recovery architecture where VCN-1 in the Ashburn region needs to peer with VCN-2 in the Phoenix region. Which OCI networking construct is required to achieve this cross-region peering?

A.Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG)
B.Local Peering Gateway (LPG)
C.NAT Gateway
D.Internet Gateway
AnswerA

A Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) is required because local VCN peering only supports communication within the same region, whereas connecting VCN-1 in Ashburn to VCN-2 in Phoenix necessitates remote Vcn peering across different regions. The DRG acts as a router that provides a path for private traffic between disparate cloud regions, satisfying the geographical constraint of the design scenario by encapsulating and routing packets across the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure backbone.

Why this answer

Cross-region VCN peering in OCI requires a Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) in each VCN, with a remote peering connection (RPC) established between the two DRGs. The DRG is the virtual router that provides the path for traffic between VCNs in different regions. Local peering gateways only work within a single region, so they cannot satisfy this requirement.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between Local Peering Gateway (same-region only) and Dynamic Routing Gateway (required for cross-region peering) — candidates pick LPG because it also 'peers VCNs'.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a Local Peering Gateway (LPG) only peers VCNs within the same region and cannot span regions — it has no cross-region capability. Option C is wrong because a NAT Gateway provides outbound internet access for private subnets and does not peer VCNs at all. Option D is wrong because an Internet Gateway provides inbound/outbound connectivity to the public internet for a VCN, not private VCN-to-VCN peering across regions.

300
MCQeasy

Which OCI compute feature allows you to group multiple compute instances together into a low-latency, high-bandwidth physical placement group?

A.Dynamic Routing Groups
B.IAM Security Zones
C.Cluster Placement Groups
D.Autonomous Linux Pools
AnswerC

Cluster Placement Groups explicitly satisfy the requirement to group multiple compute instances within a low-latency, high-bandwidth physical placement group. This feature uses underlying Oracle Cloud Infrastructure network fabrics to position instances closely together on the same physical infrastructure, thereby minimising network round-trip time and maximising throughput for tightly coupled workloads such as high-performance computing (HPC) clusters or distributed databases that demand extreme network performance.

Why this answer

Cluster Placement Groups in OCI are a compute feature that logically groups compute instances within a single availability domain to provide low-latency, high-bandwidth network connectivity. They are designed for tightly coupled workloads like HPC, big data, and machine learning that require high-speed inter-node communication. By placing instances in close physical proximity, cluster placement groups minimize network latency and maximize throughput.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the distinction between compute features and networking/security features, so candidates may confuse 'placement groups' with 'dynamic routing groups' or 'security zones' due to similar-sounding terminology.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Dynamic Routing Groups are not a compute feature; they are related to networking (e.g., dynamic routing gateways) and do not group compute instances for low-latency placement. Option B is wrong because IAM Security Zones are a security and governance feature for isolating resources and enforcing policies, not for physical placement of compute instances. Option D is wrong because Autonomous Linux Pools refer to groups of Autonomous Linux instances managed by the Autonomous Linux service for patching and compliance, not for low-latency physical placement.

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