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Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2026 Architect Associate (1Z0-1072-26) (1Z0-1072-26) (1Z0-1072-26) — Questions 76–150

404 questions total · 6 pages · All types, answers revealed

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76
MCQmedium

You have deployed an OCI VCN with a CIDR of 192.168.0.0/16. You want to peer this VCN with another VCN that has a CIDR of 192.168.64.0/18. Will this local peering succeed?

A.Yes, as long as both VCNs are in the same compartment.
B.No, because VCNs must have identical CIDR sizes to peer.
C.No, because the VCN CIDR blocks overlap.
D.Yes, because the second VCN CIDR is a subnet of the first.
AnswerC

Local VCN peering in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure requires non-overlapping CIDR blocks to ensure proper routing of network traffic. In this scenario, the first VCN uses the CIDR block 192.168.0.0/16, which fully encompasses the second VCN's CIDR block of 192.168.64.0/18. Because the IP address ranges overlap, the OCI networking control plane cannot establish unambiguous routing paths between the virtual cloud networks, thereby causing the peering attempt to fail.

Why this answer

Local peering between VCNs requires that their CIDR blocks do not overlap. Here, VCN1 has 192.168.0.0/16, which includes all addresses from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255. VCN2 has 192.168.64.0/18, which falls entirely within that range (192.168.64.0 to 192.168.127.255).

Therefore, the CIDR blocks overlap, and local peering will fail.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests CIDR overlap rules for VCN peering, and candidates may mistakenly think that a subnet CIDR within a larger VCN CIDR is acceptable, but any overlap prevents peering.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because being in the same compartment is not sufficient; non-overlapping CIDRs are required. Option B is wrong because VCNs do not need identical CIDR sizes; they can be different as long as they don't overlap. Option D is wrong because even though the second CIDR is a subnet of the first, that is precisely why peering fails—overlapping CIDRs are not allowed.

77
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE statements are true about OCI federation with SAML 2.0 Identity Providers? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Users authenticate against the external Identity Provider, not OCI IAM.
B.Federated users do not require local passwords stored in OCI IAM.
C.External IdP groups are mapped to OCI IAM groups to determine authorization.
D.Federated users cannot access OCI via the CLI or SDKs.
E.Federation requires manual creation of local user profiles for every employee on day one.
AnswersA, B, C

Federated authentication relies on the external SAML 2.0 Identity Provider—such as Microsoft Entra ID or Okta—to handle credential verification and session initiation directly. Because OCI IAM delegates authentication responsibility via SAML assertions, users supply their credentials to the IdP rather than to Oracle Cloud Infrastructure. This direct delegation satisfies the core architectural constraint that authentication occurs externally, ensuring that OCI never processes or stores user passwords while still granting authorised access based on signed assertions.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because in OCI SAML 2.0 federation, authentication occurs at the external Identity Provider (IdP), which issues the SAML assertion that OCI IAM consumes to establish the session. Option B is correct because federated users are authenticated by the external IdP, so OCI IAM does not store or require a local password for them. Option C is correct because OCI IAM maps external IdP groups to OCI IAM groups, and those OCI IAM group memberships drive authorization via policies.

Option D is incorrect because federated users can access OCI through the Console, CLI, and SDKs using token-based or browser-based federation flows. Option E is incorrect because federation avoids manually creating local user profiles for every employee; users are provisioned or mapped through the IdP integration.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming federation limits access to the console only — candidates forget that federated users can use CLI/SDKs via token-based auth, and that local user profiles are not required.

78
MCQeasy

What is the maximum number of Fault Domains typically available within a single OCI Availability Domain?

A.1
B.Unlimited
C.3
D.10
AnswerC

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure restricts Availability Domains to a maximum of three Fault Domains, satisfying the specific architecture constraint outlined in the question stem regarding regional high availability distribution. Each Fault Domain represents a logical grouping of hardware and infrastructure—comprising independent power sources, top-of-rack switches, and physical servers—designed to prevent correlated hardware failures. By distributing compute instances across these three distinct domains, workloads remain isolated from single points of physical failure within the data centre facility.

Why this answer

OCI Availability Domains are divided into three Fault Domains by default, providing anti-affinity for high availability across physical hardware within an AD.

79
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE gateways can be attached to a Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) in OCI?

Select 3 answers
A.FastConnect Virtual Circuits
B.Local Peering Gateways
C.Site-to-Site VPN (IPsec tunnels)
D.Internet Gateways
E.Virtual Cloud Networks (VCN attachments)
AnswersA, C, E

FastConnect virtual circuits attach to a DRG, providing private dedicated connectivity between on-premises networks and the VCN. The DRG also accepts IPSec VPN connections and remote peering connections to other regions, forming the three supported attachment types.

Why this answer

In OCI, a Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) is a virtual router that provides a path for private traffic between a VCN and destinations outside the VCN, and it can be attached to FastConnect Virtual Circuits (option A), which are the private virtual connections provisioned over an Oracle FastConnect partner or dedicated connection, enabling private connectivity between on-premises networks and OCI. A DRG can also be attached to Site-to-Site VPN (option C), where IPsec tunnels terminate on the DRG to provide encrypted connectivity between on-premises networks and the VCN. Additionally, a DRG can be attached to Virtual Cloud Networks (option E) via VCN attachments, which is the fundamental attachment that connects a VCN to the DRG so that traffic can be routed between the VCN and the other attached gateways.

Local Peering Gateways (option B) are used to peer VCNs within the same region and attach to VCNs, not to a DRG, and Internet Gateways (option D) provide public internet access for a VCN and attach directly to a VCN, not to a DRG.

80
MCQmedium

You are troubleshooting a web application where users are reporting intermittent connection failures when accessing your OCI Public Load Balancer. You check the load balancer metrics and notice that the `DroppedConnections` metric is spiking. What is the most likely cause?

A.The load balancer has reached its maximum bandwidth or connection rate limit, or backend instances are overwhelmed.
B.The NAT Gateway is misconfigured.
C.The VCN route table is missing a default route.
D.The DNS record has an incorrect TTL.
AnswerA

The `DroppedConnections` metric spikes when the OCI Public Load Balancer hits its provisioned bandwidth or maximum connection rate limits, or when backend application servers cannot process incoming requests fast enough. When demand exceeds these operational thresholds, the load balancer actively drops new connections to maintain stability, directly accounting for the intermittent connection failures reported by users.

Why this answer

The DroppedConnections metric on an OCI Load Balancer increments when the load balancer cannot accept or complete a connection — typically because it has hit its bandwidth or new-connections-per-second limit, or because backend servers are too slow to respond and connections time out. Intermittent user-facing failures combined with a spiking DroppedConnections metric point directly to capacity saturation on the load balancer or its backends. NAT Gateway, route table, and DNS TTL issues would produce different symptoms (total unreachability, routing failures, or stale resolution) rather than intermittent drops under load.

Exam trap

The trap is anchoring on network plumbing (NAT, routes, DNS) when the metric name itself — DroppedConnections — points to load balancer or backend capacity limits; candidates overthink the infrastructure instead of reading the metric.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a misconfigured NAT Gateway affects outbound internet access from private subnets; it has no bearing on inbound connections through a public load balancer and would not surface as DroppedConnections. Option C is wrong because a missing default route in the VCN route table would cause complete routing failure for the affected subnet, not intermittent connection drops measured at the load balancer. Option D is wrong because an incorrect DNS TTL causes stale or delayed DNS resolution — clients would fail to resolve the LB address or hit an old IP, but the load balancer's own DroppedConnections metric would not spike as a result.

81
Multi-Selecthard

Your OCI environment requires secure hybrid connectivity using an IPsec VPN over a Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG). Which THREE parameters or components must be correctly configured to ensure successful IPsec VPN tunnel establishment?

Select 3 answers
A.IPsec connection tunnels configured with appropriate pre-shared keys (PSK) and cryptographic parameters
B.A Local Peering Gateway (LPG) bridging the VPN tunnel to the database subnet
C.An Internet Gateway attached to the private subnets handling the VPN traffic
D.A Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) attached to the target VCN
E.Customer-Premises Equipment (CPE) object referencing the public IP address of your on-premises router
AnswersA, D, E

Successful IPsec VPN tunnel establishment over a Dynamic Routing Gateway requires matching pre-shared keys and precise cryptographic parameters, including Internet Key Exchange (IKE) version, encryption algorithms, and integrity algorithms on both the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure side and the customer-premises equipment. Without these cryptographic parameters aligning exactly, Phase 1 and Phase 2 security associations cannot be negotiated, directly satisfying the secure hybrid connectivity constraint specified in the stem.

Why this answer

Establishing an IPsec VPN tunnel requires a Customer-Premises Equipment (CPE) object representing your on-premises router public IP, a DRG attached to your VCN, and IPsec connection tunnels configured with correct static or BGP routing and pre-shared keys.

82
MCQhard

You are configuring an Exadata Cloud Service (ExaCS) instance and need to ensure maximum isolation and security for your database infrastructure. Which architectural layer provides tenant isolation at the hypervisor level in ExaCS?

A.Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) security lists and network security groups
B.Storage Server Cell software zones
C.Exadata Database Vault compartment boundaries
D.Oracle VM or KVM guest virtualization (domU)
AnswerD

Oracle VM or KVM guest virtualisation (domU) delivers hypervisor-level tenant isolation, satisfying the stem's requirement for maximum isolation in ExaCS. Each guest domain runs its own kernel, separated by the hypervisor from other tenants, unlike shared-database or schema-level approaches. This hard boundary prevents cross-tenant access at the virtualisation layer.

Why this answer

In Exadata Cloud Service (ExaCS), tenant isolation at the hypervisor level is provided by Oracle VM or KVM guest virtualization (domU). Each customer's database infrastructure runs in isolated virtual machines (domU) on the Exadata hardware, managed by a hypervisor (dom0). This ensures that tenants are separated at the virtualization layer, preventing cross-tenant access.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between network security (VCN, security lists) and hypervisor-level isolation, tricking candidates into selecting network-centric options when asked about tenant isolation at the hypervisor level.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because VCN security lists and network security groups provide network-level security, not hypervisor-level tenant isolation. Option B is wrong because Storage Server Cell software zones are related to Exadata storage configuration, not hypervisor isolation. Option C is wrong because Exadata Database Vault compartment boundaries are about database access control and compartmentalization within the database, not hypervisor-level isolation.

83
MCQmedium

You need to ensure that a resource's cost can be tracked. What must you do after defining a tag?

A.Enable it as a cost-tracking tag
B.Attach it to a budget
C.Apply it to the compartment
D.Add it to the tenancy policy
AnswerA

Defining a tag alone in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure is insufficient for financial monitoring because raw metadata does not automatically integrate with billing systems; you must explicitly enable the defined tag namespace and key as a cost-tracking tag. This specific technical activation step satisfies the requirement to track resource costs by instructing the billing engine to aggregate usage data against that specific metadata key, transforming a standard organisational label into a measurable financial reporting dimension.

Why this answer

You must navigate to the Cost Analysis page and enable the tag as a cost-tracking tag.

84
MCQhard

An architect needs to perform a point-in-time recovery (PITR) on an Oracle Base Database Service DB system using the OCI Console. What is a prerequisite constraint when selecting a recovery timestamp?

A.Point-in-time recovery is only supported via SQL*Plus and cannot be initiated from the OCI Console.
B.The target timestamp must be aligned precisely with the exact minute of the last incremental backup.
C.The database must first be converted to an Autonomous Database before PITR can be executed.
D.The timestamp must be within the retention window of the automated backups and archive log backups.
AnswerD

PITR replays archived redo logs over a restored backup, so the chosen timestamp must fall inside the retention window covering both automated backups and archive log backups. Selecting a point beyond that window leaves no continuous log chain to roll forward, making recovery impossible.

Why this answer

Point-in-time recovery on Oracle Base Database Service relies on automated backups plus archived redo logs to reconstruct the database to a chosen moment. The selected timestamp must fall within the retention window configured for those backups and archive logs; if the timestamp is older than the retention period, the required redo is no longer available and recovery cannot proceed. This is the fundamental prerequisite constraint when choosing a recovery timestamp in the OCI Console.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that PITR requires exact alignment with backup timestamps or is unavailable in the Console, when the real constraint is the backup and archive log retention window.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because PITR can be initiated directly from the OCI Console for Base Database Service; it is not limited to SQL*Plus. Option B is wrong because the target timestamp does not need to align with the exact minute of an incremental backup; PITR uses archive logs to roll forward to any point within the retention window, not just backup boundaries. Option C is wrong because converting to Autonomous Database is not a prerequisite for PITR on Base Database Service; PITR is a native capability of the DB system itself.

85
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE options are available when configuring health checks for an OCI Instance Pool to monitor instance health? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Object Storage bucket upload speed health checks
B.Automatic database transaction replication health checks
C.Instance Health (monitoring infrastructure status and Oracle Cloud Agent)
D.Custom TCP health checks
E.Custom HTTP or HTTPS health checks
AnswersC, D, E

Instance Health leverages both the underlying virtualization infrastructure status and the Oracle Cloud Agent to evaluate the operational state of individual compute nodes. By continuously assessing these two distinct telemetry layers, this mechanism directly satisfies the requirement to monitor instance health within an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Instance Pool. If either the physical infrastructure fails or the core guest agent becomes unresponsive, the pool orchestrator detects the degradation and automatically initiates replacement procedures to maintain the desired service capacity.

Why this answer

Instance pools support multiple health check types, including Instance Health (checking hypervisor and agent status), Custom HTTP/HTTPS health checks, and Custom VNIC-based TCP health checks.

86
MCQhard

An OCI architect configures a Hub-and-Spoke architecture using DRG version 2. Hub VCN contains security appliances. Spoke VCN-A needs to inspect all outbound internet traffic through the security appliances in the Hub VCN before it hits the Internet Gateway. How should the Spoke VCN route table be configured?

A.Configure the Spoke VCN route table with 0.0.0.0/0 pointing to the DRG, and configure the DRG to route traffic to the Hub VCN security appliance.
B.Attach an Internet Gateway directly to the Spoke VCN private subnet.
C.Configure a NAT Gateway in every spoke VCN.
D.Use a Local Peering Gateway for internet inspection.
AnswerA

Pointing the spoke's default route at the DRG sends all internet-bound traffic into the hub. The DRG route table then forwards it to the hub VCN attachment, where the security appliances inspect it before it reaches the internet gateway.

Why this answer

To direct spoke internet traffic through a firewall appliance in the hub VCN, the spoke VCN subnet route table must have a route for 0.0.0.0/0 pointing to the DRG attachment, and the DRG route table routes that traffic to the hub security appliance VNIC.

87
MCQeasy

You are designing an OCI VCN and need to allow resources in a private subnet to access Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Object Storage in the same region without traversing the public internet. Which gateway should you create and configure?

A.Dynamic Routing Gateway
B.Internet Gateway
C.NAT Gateway
D.Service Gateway
AnswerD

A service gateway provides private access to Oracle services such as Object Storage without leaving the OCI network, satisfying the no-public-internet constraint. It is regional, so resources in the private subnet reach Object Storage in the same region over the Oracle backbone, with route table and security rules permitting the traffic.

Why this answer

A Service Gateway provides access to Oracle Services Network (such as Object Storage) from a private subnet without requiring an Internet Gateway or NAT Gateway.

88
MCQeasy

An enterprise workload requires a fully managed Oracle Autonomous Data Warehouse with dedicated infrastructure to guarantee isolation from other tenants. Which deployment architecture should you select when provisioning this database?

A.Autonomous Data Warehouse on Dedicated Exadata Infrastructure
B.Autonomous Data Warehouse on Shared Exadata Infrastructure
C.Exadata Cloud@Customer without Autonomous operations
D.Oracle Base Database Service on Dedicated Exadata
AnswerA

Autonomous Data Warehouse on Dedicated Exadata Infrastructure provisions the database on an Exadata system reserved solely for your tenancy, so compute and storage are not shared with other customers. This directly satisfies the stem's isolation requirement, unlike Serverless, which runs on shared infrastructure despite being fully managed.

Why this answer

Autonomous Database on Dedicated Exadata Infrastructure provides a dedicated database environment that gives you an isolated Exadata infrastructure exclusively for your organization.

89
MCQmedium

You are configuring an OCI Load Balancer and want to redirect all incoming HTTP traffic on port 80 to HTTPS on port 443. How should you achieve this?

A.Change the security list egress rules.
B.Configure a Listener Rule Set with an HTTP-to-HTTPS redirect rule.
C.Use a Service Gateway to forward port 80 to 443.
D.Attach a NAT Gateway to port 80.
AnswerB

Listener rule sets apply actions at the listener level. An HTTP-to-HTTPS redirect rule returns a 301 response directing clients from port 80 to port 443, achieving the redirect without a separate backend or additional listener configuration.

Why this answer

OCI Load Balancers support rule sets, including HTTP redirect rules, allowing you to create a rule that redirects incoming HTTP traffic to HTTPS.

90
MCQeasy

Which tool or command-line utility is primarily used to build, test, and push OCI Functions container images to the Oracle Functions Registry?

A.terraform
B.oci-cli
C.fn CLI
D.kubectl
AnswerC

The `fn` command-line interface (CLI) is the primary developer tool specifically engineered to manage the entire lifecycle of Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) serverless functions. It directly satisfies the requirement to build, test locally, and push OCI Functions container images to the Oracle Functions Registry by interacting seamlessly with the Fn Project API and local Docker daemon. Through straightforward commands such as `fn build`, `fn test`, and `fn push`, developers can package function code into OCI-compliant container images and authenticate and upload them directly to the target Oracle Registry repository without manual intervention.

Why this answer

The fn CLI (Fn Project command-line tool) is the primary utility for OCI Functions development. It handles the full lifecycle: 'fn init' scaffolds a function, 'fn build' creates the Docker container image, 'fn test' runs it locally, and 'fn deploy' pushes the image to the configured Docker registry (OCIR) and registers the function with the OCI Functions service. OCI's Fn service is built on the open-source Fn Project, so the fn CLI is the native tool.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the distinction between OCI management tools — candidates confuse oci-cli (API/resource management) with fn CLI (function build/deploy lifecycle), picking oci-cli because it is the 'official' OCI tool.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Terraform is an infrastructure-as-code provisioning tool used to declare OCI resources (including Functions applications), but it does not build, test, or push container images. Option B is wrong because the oci-cli manages OCI API resources (compute, networking, functions metadata) but has no container build/push capability. Option D is wrong because kubectl is the Kubernetes control tool and OCI Functions is not a Kubernetes-based service — it runs on Fn Project infrastructure.

91
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE aspects of a Terraform stack can you modify in a Resource Manager job?

Select 3 answers
A.Logging level
B.Identity Domain
C.Resource compartment
D.Terraform Version
E.Variables
AnswersA, D, E

Resource Manager jobs in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure allow you to configure and update the logging level for a Terraform stack execution to control the verbosity of diagnostic information captured during job runs. This capability directly addresses the requirement to modify operational aspects of a Terraform stack through a Resource Manager job, enabling administrators to tailor output detail for troubleshooting deployment failures without altering the underlying infrastructure code.

Why this answer

You can change variables, the terraform version, and the logging level in a job.

92
MCQhard

An enterprise has multiple VCNs peered to a central hub VCN using a DRG. A security auditor notes that Vcn-A can communicate with Vcn-C because transit routing is enabled on the DRG. The security policy dictates that Vcn-A must never communicate with Vcn-C. How can you block this specific inter-VCN traffic while keeping other routes intact?

A.Attach a NAT Gateway to the hub VCN.
B.Modify the DRG route tables and import/export route distributions to prevent Vcn-A and Vcn-C from exchanging routes.
C.Delete the Internet Gateway from Vcn-A.
D.Change the subnet CIDR of Vcn-C so it no longer overlaps.
AnswerB

DRG route tables control which routes each attachment imports and exports. By restricting import/export distribution between the Vcn-A and Vcn-C attachments, their prefixes are never exchanged, so no route exists between them while other attachments keep their routes.

Why this answer

In DRG version 2, you can create custom DRG route tables and fine-tune import/export route distributions to prevent specific attachments from learning each other's routes, thereby blocking unwanted transit paths.

93
MCQmedium

Your development team wants to automatically trigger a serverless function whenever a new object is uploaded to an OCI Object Storage bucket. Which OCI service acts as the foundational router to capture this object upload event and invoke the function?

A.OCI Monitoring Service
B.OCI Logging Service
C.OCI Events Service
D.OCI Resource Manager
AnswerC

OCI Events Service captures Object Storage create-object events via rules and routes them to targets such as Functions, acting as the event router. It satisfies the requirement to trigger a serverless function on upload automatically.

Why this answer

The OCI Events service enables you to create automation based on the lifecycle changes of resources in OCI, such as Object Storage creations.

94
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements are true regarding OCI VCN subnets?

Select 2 answers
A.Subnets can span across multiple different VCNs.
B.Subnets can be designated as either public or private upon creation.
C.Every subnet must have an Internet Gateway attached directly to it.
D.Subnets can be regional, spanning all Availability Domains in a region.
E.A subnet's CIDR block can be modified after it is created.
AnswersB, D

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Virtual Cloud Networks require every subnet to be explicitly designated as either public or private during its creation, directly satisfying the requirement to identify the specific architectural states available for subnets. Public subnets are associated with an Internet Gateway to allow inbound and outbound internet traffic, whereas private subnets prohibit direct internet access. This binary classification is immutable regarding its scope type post-creation, enforcing strict network security boundaries from the outset of resource provisioning.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because when you create an OCI VCN subnet you must choose its type as either public or private, which determines whether resources in it can have public IP addresses and be reached from the internet via an Internet Gateway. Option D is correct because OCI subnets are regional resources that can span all Availability Domains within a region, unlike subnets in some other clouds that are tied to a single AD. Option A is incorrect because a subnet belongs to exactly one VCN and cannot span multiple VCNs.

Option C is incorrect because an Internet Gateway is attached to the VCN, not to individual subnets, and private subnets do not require one. Option E is incorrect because a subnet's CIDR block is fixed at creation and cannot be modified afterward.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests subnet characteristics, and candidates may incorrectly believe that subnets can span VCNs or that CIDR blocks can be modified, but both are false.

95
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO methods can be used to securely connect to a private OCI compute instance that does not have a public IP address? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Accessing the instance via Object Storage pre-authenticated requests
B.OCI Bastion Service
C.A bastion host (jump server) deployed in a public subnet with SSH tunneling
D.Changing the instance subnet to public temporarily while debugging
E.Direct RDP or SSH over the Internet Gateway without any intermediate host
AnswersB, C

OCI Bastion Service provides a managed, secure access pathway for target resources that lack public IP addresses, directly satisfying the requirement to reach a private compute instance without exposing it to the public internet. By establishing an ephemeral SSH session through a fully managed service, it removes the operational overhead and security risks associated with maintaining traditional public-facing jump hosts. It acts as a protocol-compliant intermediary that restricts traffic strictly to authorised users via IAM policies and designated CIDR block allowlists.

Why this answer

Option B (OCI Bastion Service) is correct because it is a managed, time-limited, IAM-controlled service that creates a secure SSH session to a private compute instance without requiring a public IP, using the Bastion plugin and a session created via the OCI Console, CLI, or API. Option C (a bastion host/jump server in a public subnet with SSH tunneling) is correct because the jump server has a public IP while the private instance does not, and SSH port forwarding (ssh -J or ProxyCommand) tunnels traffic through the jump host over the private subnet, keeping the target instance unreachable from the internet. Option A is wrong because Object Storage pre-authenticated requests (PARs) only grant temporary access to buckets/objects, not interactive shell or RDP access to a compute instance.

Option D is wrong because moving the instance to a public subnet exposes it to the internet and is not a secure method, plus it may require reconfiguring route tables and security lists. Option E is wrong because direct SSH/RDP over an Internet Gateway requires a public IP and exposes the instance to the internet without any intermediate host, which is exactly what the scenario forbids.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates know that private instances cannot be reached via IGW even with a public IP — the trap is selecting 'temporarily make the subnet public' as a quick fix, which is both insecure and operationally wrong.

96
MCQeasy

An OCI administrator needs to be notified via email whenever CPU utilization on a critical production compute instance exceeds 90% for a sustained period of 5 minutes. Which combination of services should the administrator configure to achieve this?

A.OCI Logging Analytics and OCI Notifications service.
B.OCI Resource Manager and OCI Monitoring service.
C.OCI Monitoring service (to create an alarm on the CpuUtilization metric) and OCI Notifications service (to send the email).
D.OCI Events service (to listen for CPU threshold events) and OCI Email Delivery service (to dispatch the email).
AnswerC

OCI Monitoring evaluates the CpuUtilization metric against a 90% threshold sustained for 5 minutes, firing the alarm; OCI Notifications then delivers the email via a topic subscription. Together they satisfy both the metric condition and the email delivery requirement.

Why this answer

To be notified via email when CPU utilization exceeds 90% for 5 minutes, you need OCI Monitoring to create an alarm on the CpuUtilization metric with the specified threshold and duration, and OCI Notifications to send the email via a topic subscription. Monitoring evaluates the metric and triggers the alarm, which publishes to the Notifications topic, delivering the email.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between OCI Monitoring (for metric alarms) and OCI Events (for state-change events), tricking candidates into selecting Events for CPU threshold alerts.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because OCI Logging Analytics is for log analysis, not for metric-based alarms; it does not monitor CPU utilization metrics. Option B is wrong because OCI Resource Manager is for infrastructure as code (Terraform) management, not for monitoring or notifications. Option D is wrong because OCI Events service listens for state changes (e.g., instance lifecycle events), not for metric thresholds like CPU utilization; CPU alarms are handled by Monitoring, not Events.

97
MCQmedium

Which type of storage is required for Boot Volumes?

A.File Storage
B.Object Storage
C.Ephemeral Storage
D.Block Volume
AnswerD

Block volumes provide the low-latency, persistent block-level access required for operating system kernels to initialise and execute boot sequences. Unlike object storage, which lacks the necessary file system structure for mounting root partitions, block storage allows the hypervisor to present the volume as a local disk. This satisfies the fundamental requirement for persistent, bootable storage by enabling the instance to maintain its state and configuration across reboots, ensuring the compute resource can successfully load its environment independently of Microsoft Entra ID authentication processes.

Why this answer

Boot volumes are special block volumes used to boot compute instances.

98
MCQmedium

You are migrating an on-premises Oracle database to an OCI Autonomous Database using Oracle Data Pump. Which wallet-related file must be downloaded and used by the client utility to establish a secure connection to the Autonomous Database?

A.Database Connection Wallet (Credentials zip file)
B.OS-level password shadow file
C.Public SSH Key pair
D.Keystore and ciphers configuration file
AnswerA

The Credentials zip file, known as the Database Connection Wallet, contains the TLS certificates and connection strings Data Pump requires. Downloading it from the Autonomous Database console lets the client utility authenticate securely over TCPS, satisfying the secure-connection constraint.

Why this answer

To connect a client utility such as Oracle Data Pump to an Autonomous Database, you must download the Database Connection Wallet (Credentials zip file) from the OCI Console. This wallet contains the tnsnames.ora, sqlnet.ora, and keystore files needed to establish a secure TLS connection to the Autonomous Database. The client references the wallet directory via the TNS_ADMIN environment variable or connection string.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing SSH keys or generic keystores with the Autonomous Database wallet — candidates may pick the SSH key because they think 'secure connection' means SSH, but database clients require the specific Credentials zip wallet.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the OS-level password shadow file is a local Unix authentication file and has no role in connecting to Autonomous Database. Option C is wrong because an SSH key pair is used for secure shell access to compute instances, not for database client connections to Autonomous Database. Option D is wrong because a generic keystore and ciphers configuration file is not the OCI-provided wallet; the Autonomous Database wallet is a specific zip containing the required credentials and network configuration.

99
MCQeasy

Which type of Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Database service provides full access to Oracle Database features and root access to the underlying database operating system, while OCI manages the physical hardware and hypervisor?

A.Autonomous JSON Database
B.Base Database
C.Autonomous Database
D.NoSQL Database
AnswerB

Base Database gives you full Oracle Database feature access plus root OS access on the database host, while OCI still owns the physical hardware and hypervisor. That split satisfies the stem's demand for both root control and Oracle-managed infrastructure, unlike Autonomous Database, which restricts OS access.

Why this answer

Oracle Base Database Service (Base DB) provides full access to Oracle Database features and gives you root access to the underlying database operating system, while OCI manages the physical hardware and hypervisor. This distinguishes it from Autonomous Database, which abstracts OS access entirely. Thus, Base Database is the correct answer.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the distinction between Base Database (OS access, full features) and Autonomous Database (fully managed, no OS access), catching candidates who assume all OCI database services are autonomous.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Autonomous JSON Database is a fully managed, serverless service for JSON workloads with no OS access and a limited feature set. Option C is wrong because Autonomous Database is fully managed with no root OS access and restricts certain features. Option D is wrong because NoSQL Database is a separate key-value/document store, not an Oracle Database with OS access.

100
MCQhard

An OCI administrator creates a subnet route table with a route rule pointing 0.0.0.0/0 to an Internet Gateway. However, compute instances in this subnet cannot reach the internet. Upon checking the instance details, you notice the instances have private IP addresses only and no public IP assigned. What is missing?

A.The compute instances need a public IP address (ephemeral or reserved) assigned to their VNICs.
B.The VCN CIDR block must be changed to /8.
C.A Service Gateway must be attached to the VCN.
D.A NAT Gateway must be attached to the public subnet.
AnswerA

A route to an Internet Gateway only enables egress for instances that already hold a public IP on their VNIC. With private IPs alone, traffic cannot be NAT-translated, so assigning an ephemeral or reserved public IP satisfies the internet-reachability constraint.

Why this answer

Instances in a public subnet require a public IP address (ephemeral or reserved) in addition to the subnet's route to the Internet Gateway in order to communicate bi-directionally with the public internet.

101
Multi-Selecthard

When configuring federation with an external Identity Provider (IdP) such as Microsoft Azure AD or Okta using SAML 2.0, which THREE tasks must be completed in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Download the Identity Provider metadata XML file from your IdP.
B.Create an Identity Provider record in the OCI console and upload the IdP metadata XML.
C.Enable multi-factor authentication (MFA) exclusively by modifying local OCI user security settings.
D.Manually create individual IAM users in OCI and assign them local passwords matching their enterprise credentials.
E.Map the IdP groups to OCI IAM groups to assign appropriate permissions via policies.
AnswersA, B, E

Downloading the IdP metadata XML supplies the signing certificate, entity ID and SSO endpoint that Oracle Cloud Infrastructure's SAML 2.0 federation configuration requires to validate assertions and redirect authentication requests. Without importing this metadata, OCI cannot establish the trust relationship, so the task satisfies the stem's federation setup requirement.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because OCI federation requires the IdP's SAML 2.0 metadata XML, which contains the IdP entity ID, SSO endpoint URL, and signing certificate needed to establish trust. Option B is correct because you must create an Identity Provider record in the OCI console (Identity > Federation) and upload that metadata XML so OCI can validate SAML assertions from the external IdP. Option E is correct because after federation, IdP groups must be mapped to OCI IAM groups so that OCI policies grant the appropriate permissions to federated users.

Option C is not required for federation because MFA is typically enforced at the external IdP, not by modifying local OCI user security settings. Option D is incorrect because federated users are provisioned just-in-time via SAML assertions and do not need local OCI passwords matching enterprise credentials.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that MFA or local user creation is required in OCI for federated users, when in fact those tasks are handled by the external IdP and federation eliminates local user management.

102
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of OCI IAM federation?

A.To allow users authenticated by an external Identity Provider to access OCI resources using single sign-on (SSO).
B.To replicate compute instances across multiple cloud providers.
C.To share VCN routing tables between different tenancies.
D.To synchronize Object Storage buckets across different regions.
AnswerA

OCI IAM federation establishes a trust relationship with an external Identity Provider, so users authenticated there receive OCI tokens via SAML 2.0 or OIDC without separate OCI credentials. This satisfies the stem's single sign-on requirement, letting externally authenticated users access OCI resources through identity propagation rather than duplicated local accounts.

Why this answer

Federation enables external identity providers (like Microsoft Entra ID or Okta) to authenticate users seeking access to OCI without requiring local OCI user accounts.

103
MCQeasy

You are configuring an OCI Public Load Balancer to distribute incoming HTTP traffic to backend compute instances. Which backend set configuration is required to verify the health of the instances?

A.Health check policy defining protocol, port, and optional URL path
B.A NAT Gateway attached to the backend server subnet
C.A security list allowing all incoming traffic from the internet
D.An active Service Gateway
AnswerA

The load balancer needs a health check policy on the backend set to probe each instance; it defines the protocol, port and optional URL path used to determine whether a backend is healthy and eligible to receive traffic.

Why this answer

Load balancer health checks regularly probe backend servers using specific protocols, ports, and paths to verify that instances are available and healthy.

104
MCQmedium

You have created an instance configuration from a running compute instance. You now want to use this instance configuration to create an instance pool. Which parameter must you specify during the creation of the instance pool?

A.The custom OS username and SSH password
B.The external DNS provider settings
C.The placement (subnets and availability domains/fault domains) and the number of instances
D.The new root password for the boot volumes
AnswerC

An instance configuration stores the instance's shape and image but not its placement or count, so the pool definition must supply the subnet, availability or fault domain, and desired instance quantity. These parameters determine where and how many instances launch.

Why this answer

When creating an instance pool from an instance configuration, you must specify the target availability domains or fault domains and the subnet(s) where the instances will be deployed, along with the desired number of instances.

105
MCQmedium

You need to restore an Oracle Base Database System to a specific point in time using incremental backups and archived redo logs. Which tool should you use at the OS level if you are managing the recovery manually?

A.Data Pump (impdp)
B.Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
C.OCI Block Storage Volume Snapshots
D.SQL*Loader
AnswerB

Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN) provides the precise OS-level toolset required to coordinate incremental backups with archived redo logs for manual point-in-time recovery. It directly satisfies the operational constraint of restoring an Oracle Base Database System through native database channels, intelligently sequencing the application of base incremental images and subsequent redo streams without manual file-matching overhead.

Why this answer

Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN) is the Oracle-native tool for performing point-in-time recovery using incremental backups and archived redo logs. It is the only tool listed that can apply incremental backups and redo logs to roll a database forward to a specific SCN or timestamp.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing logical backup/restore tools (Data Pump, SQL*Loader) with physical recovery tools (RMAN) — candidates who haven't done Oracle recovery often pick Data Pump because it's the most familiar utility.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Data Pump (impdp) is a logical export/import utility for schemas and tables, not for physical point-in-time recovery with redo logs. Option C is wrong because OCI Block Storage Volume Snapshots capture the block volume state but cannot perform Oracle-aware point-in-time recovery using archived redo logs. Option D is wrong because SQL*Loader is a bulk data loading tool, not a recovery tool.

106
MCQhard

You are setting up a File Storage mount target. What is required at the subnet level?

A.A NAT Gateway
B.A Public IP
C.A Service Gateway
D.An IP address within the subnet
AnswerD

Mounting a File Storage target necessitates a dedicated private IP address from the chosen subnet’s CIDR block to facilitate network communication. This requirement satisfies the subnet-level constraint by ensuring the mount target possesses a unique identity within the virtual cloud network to route NFS traffic effectively. Without this specific IP allocation, the storage service cannot establish a functional endpoint for client instances to mount the file system, as the network interface must be addressable within the local subnet's routing domain.

Why this answer

An OCI File Storage mount target is a virtual network interface (NIC) that resides in a specific subnet within a VCN, and it must be assigned an available private IP address from that subnet's CIDR block. The mount target is what NFS clients connect to over TCP/2049, so it needs a routable private IP within the VCN. Without a free IP in the subnet, the mount target cannot be created.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates confuse the networking prerequisites for different OCI services — mount targets need only a private IP in a subnet, but candidates incorrectly reach for NAT/Service Gateways because those are common in other OCI networking questions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a NAT Gateway is only needed for outbound internet access from private subnets — it has nothing to do with creating a mount target, which is an internal VCN resource. Option B is wrong because a public IP is not required; mount targets use private IPs and are accessed over the VCN's internal network (or via FastConnect/VPN/peering), never directly from the internet. Option C is wrong because a Service Gateway is used to access OCI public services like Object Storage or the OCI API from a private subnet without traversing the internet — File Storage mount targets do not require a Service Gateway to function.

107
MCQmedium

An application running on an OCI compute instance needs to share a POSIX-compliant file system concurrently across multiple compute instances residing in different subnets of the same VCN. Which storage service is best suited for this requirement?

A.Block Volume
B.Object Storage
C.File Storage Service
D.Local NVMe
AnswerC

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure File Storage utilises the Network File System (NFS) protocol to provide a fully managed, POSIX-compliant file system. It satisfies the requirement for concurrent access across multiple compute instances by supporting simultaneous mounting from various subnets within a Virtual Cloud Network. This architecture enables multiple clients to read and write to the same shared data volume concurrently, ensuring the necessary interoperability for distributed applications that require a shared, consistent file-level storage interface across the entire network topology.

Why this answer

File Storage Service (FSS) provides a durable, scalable, enterprise-grade network file system that can be accessed concurrently by thousands of compute instances using the standard NFS v3.0 protocol across availability domains and subnets within a VCN.

108
MCQeasy

What is the primary benefit of using Oracle Autonomous Database's autoscaling feature for CPU and storage?

A.It automatically pauses billing when the database is idle for more than one hour.
B.It automatically converts your database from Transaction Processing to Data Warehouse workloads.
C.It automatically migrates the database to a different cloud region during high load.
D.It automatically increases OCPU or storage capacity when workload spikes, and scales down when demand drops.
AnswerD

Oracle Autonomous Database dynamically adjusts resources to satisfy the explicit constraint of handling fluctuating workloads without manual intervention. When processing demands spike, the autoscaling mechanism automatically allocates up to three times the base OCPUs—or seamlessly expands storage capacity—to maintain consistent application performance. Once the workload subsides, the system automatically scales down the OCPU allocation to the baseline, ensuring you only pay for the compute resources actively utilised.

Why this answer

Autoscaling in Autonomous Database automatically increases OCPU count (up to 3x the base) when CPU utilization is high and scales back down when demand drops, without manual intervention. This provides performance elasticity for variable workloads while controlling cost.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the difference between autoscaling (dynamic resource adjustment) and auto-stop/auto-start (idle pausing), and candidates incorrectly select the billing-related option thinking it describes autoscaling.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because auto-pausing billing when idle is a separate feature (auto-stop/auto-start) and is not what autoscaling does; autoscaling adjusts resources, not billing state. Option B is wrong because workload type (Transaction Processing vs Data Warehouse) is chosen at provisioning and cannot be automatically converted by autoscaling. Option C is wrong because autoscaling does not migrate the database to another region; region migration is a manual operation and unrelated to CPU/storage scaling.

109
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following statements regarding OCI Instance Configurations and Instance Pools are correct? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Instance configurations can only be created from scratch using JSON templates, never from an existing running instance.
B.An instance configuration defines the blueprint (shape, image, metadata) used to provision instances in an instance pool.
C.Instance pools can only contain instances of different shapes and operating systems.
D.Autoscaling policies cannot be attached to instance pools.
E.Instance pools can be resized manually or scaled automatically using autoscaling rules.
AnswersB, E

An instance configuration acts as a reusable template that securely captures all necessary provisioning parameters—such as the compute shape, custom image OCID, boot volume size, and metadata—satisfying the requirement for a centralized blueprint. When associated with an instance pool, this configuration guarantees that every compute instance is provisioned identically and reliably at scale, directly fulfilling the structural definition demanded by the question stem.

Why this answer

Instance configurations act as templates for creating instance pools, and instance pools can be scaled manually or automatically via autoscaling configurations.

110
MCQeasy

Which OCI service acts as a centralized dashboard to view health status of all OCI services in your region?

A.Audit service
B.Monitoring service
C.Service Health Dashboard
D.OCI Health Check
AnswerC

The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Service Health Dashboard directly satisfies the requirement for a centralised dashboard to view the health status of all OCI services in your region by aggregating real-time operational data, scheduled maintenance events, and service outages across the entire tenancy into a single pane of glass. Unlike localized alarms or resource-specific metrics, this global telemetry tool provides a consolidated, region-wide operational status without requiring manual configuration of individual monitoring agents, thereby fulfilling the exact visibility constraint specified in the stem.

Why this answer

The OCI Status page or Health dashboard provides a global view of service status.

111
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of an OCI Internet Gateway?

A.To provide private access to regional Oracle Object Storage.
B.To provide bi-directional communication between a VCN and the public internet for public subnets.
C.To connect on-premises datacenters to OCI over dedicated circuits.
D.To route traffic between two VCNs in the same region.
AnswerB

An Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Internet Gateway directly satisfies the requirement for bi-directional communication by acting as a scalable router between a Virtual Cloud Network and the public internet. It enables instances within public subnets to initiate outbound connections while simultaneously allowing inbound traffic originating from the internet to reach those instances, provided the associated route tables and security lists are configured correctly. Without this specific component, resources assigned to public subnets would remain entirely isolated from external public networks despite having public IP addresses.

Why this answer

An Internet Gateway provides a path for bi-directional communication between your VCN and the public internet.

112
MCQhard

Your organization has a requirement to allow users from a trusted partner company to authenticate to your OCI tenancy using Microsoft Entra ID (Azure AD) as the Identity Provider. Which component must be configured first in OCI before setting up the federation trust relationship?

A.Configure an Identity Provider (IdP) in OCI IAM by importing the SAML 2.0 metadata from the external IdP.
B.Provision local user accounts in OCI IAM for every partner employee.
C.Write a tenancy-wide policy allowing all external users to manage tenancy resources.
D.Create an API signing key pair for each partner user in OCI IAM.
AnswerA

Federation requires OCI to trust the external IdP, so you must first register an Identity Provider in OCI IAM by importing the partner's SAML 2.0 metadata. That establishes the trust anchor before any identity provider or federation trust relationship can be configured.

Why this answer

Before OCI can trust an external IdP such as Microsoft Entra ID, you must create an Identity Provider resource in OCI IAM and import the SAML 2.0 metadata XML from the external IdP. This establishes the federation trust by registering the IdP's entity ID, SSO URL, and signing certificate. Only after this IdP resource exists can you configure group mapping rules and grant federated users access via policies.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the ordering of federation setup, tempting candidates to jump to policy creation or local user provisioning when the mandatory first step is importing the IdP metadata.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because federated users are not provisioned as local OCI accounts; they are created just-in-time from the SAML assertion, so pre-provisioning local accounts defeats the purpose of federation. Option C is wrong because writing a tenancy-wide policy allowing all external users to manage resources is both a security anti-pattern and premature — policies are needed only after the IdP and group mappings are configured, and they should be scoped to specific groups. Option D is wrong because API signing keys are used for programmatic CLI/SDK authentication by local users, not for SAML federation; federated users authenticate via the browser-based SAML flow and do not need API keys for Console access.

113
MCQmedium

When using File Storage Service, how do you restrict access to the file system to specific instances?

A.OS-level permissions only
B.IAM Policies only
C.Bucket Policies
D.Export Options
AnswerD

Export options enable granular control over file system access by defining specific IP addresses or CIDR blocks within the mount target configuration. By specifying the exact source network or individual instance addresses, you restrict access to authorised clients only. This mechanism satisfies the requirement to limit connectivity to specific instances, as the File Storage Service enforces these rules at the network layer, ensuring that only permitted compute resources can successfully mount and interact with the exported file system.

Why this answer

Export Options in FSS allow you to define access rules by IP or CIDR.

114
MCQmedium

You are configuring a Site-to-Site VPN connection and need to test connectivity between an on-premises host and an OCI compute instance. The ping fails. You check the security lists and notice that ICMP traffic is blocked. Which rule type must you add to the security list to allow incoming ping requests?

A.A Service Gateway rule for ping requests
B.An Egress rule allowing TCP port 80
C.A NAT Gateway rule for ICMP translation
D.An Ingress rule allowing ICMP traffic (Type 8, Code 0 or All)
AnswerD

Allowing incoming ping requests requires an Ingress rule because security lists are stateful firewalls operating at the subnet level in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure. The stem states that ICMP traffic is blocked and ping fails, which directly addresses the ingress direction constraint for incoming Internet Control Message Protocol packets originating from the on-premises host. Specifically permitting ICMP Type 8 (Echo Request) and Code 0 (or all types/codes) enables the destination OCI compute instance to receive and respond to the diagnostic probes across the established Site-to-Site VPN tunnel.

Why this answer

To allow ping (ICMP Type 8, Code 0 for Echo Request) into a subnet, you must add a stateful Ingress Security List rule specifying ICMP as the protocol.

115
MCQeasy

Which Autonomous Database deployment model runs on dedicated Exadata infrastructure residing in a customer's OCI tenancy, providing maximum isolation?

A.Exadata Cloud at Customer (ExaCC)
B.Autonomous Database on Shared Infrastructure
C.Oracle Base Database System
D.Autonomous Database on Dedicated Exadata Infrastructure
AnswerD

Autonomous Database on Dedicated Exadata Infrastructure satisfies the requirement for maximum isolation by provisioning the database engine directly on single-tenant Exadata hardware residing within your specific Oracle Cloud Infrastructure tenancy. This deployment model removes resource sharing with other tenants at the compute, memory, network, and storage layers, thereby delivering the stringent security boundaries and dedicated performance needed for enterprise workloads requiring physical segregation.

Why this answer

Autonomous Database on Dedicated Exadata Infrastructure (Autonomous Dedicated) provides a completely dedicated database environment within a dedicated Exadata rack.

116
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements are correct regarding OCI Block Volume backups and clones?

Select 2 answers
A.Block volume backups are stored directly in File Storage Service file systems.
B.Block volume backups require manual deletion of the parent volume before the backup can be restored.
C.Block volume backups can be restored as new volumes in any Availability Domain within the same region.
D.Block volume clones can be created instantly without waiting for a full backup to complete.
E.A block volume clone can be attached to compute instances in a different Availability Domain than the source volume.
AnswersC, D

Block volume backups are regional artefacts, so restoring them is not confined to the source Availability Domain. You can create the new volume in any AD within the same region, which satisfies the stem's requirement of cross-AD restoration.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because OCI Block Volume backups are regional constructs: a backup taken from a volume in one Availability Domain can be restored as a new block volume in any Availability Domain within the same region (though not across regions unless copied). Option D is correct because block volume clones leverage the Block Volume service's instant, space-efficient copy-on-write capability, so a clone can be created immediately from a source volume without requiring a completed backup first. Option A is incorrect because backups are stored in Object Storage (OCI Object Storage buckets), not in File Storage Service file systems.

Option B is incorrect because restoring a backup creates a new volume and does not require deleting the parent/source volume. Option E is incorrect because a block volume clone is an AD-local copy and must reside in the same Availability Domain as the source volume, so it cannot be attached to instances in a different AD.

117
MCQeasy

What is the maximum number of Availability Domains (ADs) in a typical multi-AD OCI region?

A.1
B.3
C.5
D.2
AnswerB

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure regions featuring multiple fault-isolated zones are engineered with a strict architecture comprising exactly three Availability Domains. This specific numerical constraint directly satisfies the multi-AD region design requirement specified in the stem, ensuring balanced infrastructure distribution, high availability, and independent power and cooling across distinct hardware groupings.

Why this answer

Standard multi-AD OCI regions contain exactly 3 Availability Domains.

118
MCQmedium

What is the primary benefit of enabling 'Versioning' on an Object Storage bucket?

A.Faster data access
B.Lower storage costs
C.Improved data security
D.Recovery from accidental deletion
AnswerD

Enabling versioning ensures that when an object is deleted, the system creates a delete marker rather than permanently removing the data. This mechanism allows administrators to restore previous object states by simply removing the marker, directly addressing the requirement for recovery from accidental deletion. By maintaining a comprehensive history of every modification and removal, the bucket provides a robust safeguard against human error, ensuring that data remains retrievable even after an overwrite or an unintended delete command has been executed.

Why this answer

Versioning protects against accidental overwrites or deletions by keeping historical versions.

119
MCQeasy

Which type of Oracle database deployment provides full administrative privileges (SYS and SYSTEM access) at the operating system and database level in OCI?

A.Autonomous JSON Database
B.Oracle Autonomous Database
C.Oracle Database Serverless Cloud Service
D.Oracle Base Database System (Virtual Machine or Bare Metal)
AnswerD

Oracle Base Database System provides complete administrative control by granting root-level access to the underlying operating system alongside full SYS and SYSTEM database privileges. This architecture satisfies the strict requirement for total administrative autonomy at both the host and database tiers, differentiating it from managed services like Autonomous Database where operating system access is restricted. Consequently, administrators can directly configure the database environment, manage local storage, and modify operating system parameters to meet specific enterprise workloads.

Why this answer

Oracle Base Database System (also called Base Database Service) runs on a dedicated VM or Bare Metal shape and gives the customer full OS-level and database-level administrative control, including SYS/SYSTEM access and root/sudo on the host. This is the only OCI database deployment among the options that provides that level of privileged access. Autonomous Database variants deliberately restrict OS and SYSDBA-level access to preserve their self-managing model.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that Autonomous Database still allows SYS/SYSTEM or OS-level access — candidates who assume 'Autonomous' means 'more capable' pick the wrong answer.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Autonomous JSON Database is a fully managed, serverless document-centric service that does not expose OS or SYS/SYSTEM privileges to the customer. Option B is wrong because Oracle Autonomous Database (ADB) is a self-driving, self-securing, self-repairing service where customers cannot log in as SYS or access the underlying OS — administrative tasks are abstracted away. Option C is wrong because 'Oracle Database Serverless Cloud Service' is not a distinct OCI offering that grants full admin privileges; serverless models by definition hide the OS and restrict privileged database roles.

120
MCQmedium

An administrator wants to ensure that users belonging to the 'Contractors' group can only access OCI resources during normal business hours (Monday through Friday, 9 AM to 5 PM). Which policy feature should be used?

A.Write a policy with the condition: where request.time.hour between '09:00' and '17:00'
B.Configure an IAM security policy rule using the schedule builder in the OCI Console.
C.Use the 'time-window' parameter in the dynamic group matching rule.
D.OCI IAM policies do not support time-of-day or day-of-week conditions; this must be managed via external IdP federation policies or session token lifetimes.
AnswerD

OCI IAM policies evaluate only principal, verb, resource and request conditions; they have no time-of-day or day-of-week predicates. The stem's business-hours restriction therefore cannot be expressed in policy and must be enforced through external IdP federation or session token lifetimes.

Why this answer

OCI IAM policies do not support time-of-day or day-of-week conditions in policy statements. There is no 'request.time.hour' condition or schedule builder in IAM policy grammar. Time-based access restrictions must be enforced outside IAM — for example, through external IdP federation policies, session token lifetimes, or application-level controls.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that OCI IAM supports time-based conditions like 'request.time.hour' — candidates assume AWS-style condition keys exist in OCI, but OCI policy grammar has no time variables.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'request.time.hour' is not a valid OCI IAM policy condition variable — OCI does not expose time-of-day conditions in policy grammar. Option B is wrong because the OCI Console has no IAM security policy schedule builder; IAM policies are static statements without scheduling. Option C is wrong because 'time-window' is not a parameter in dynamic group matching rules — dynamic groups match on resource attributes, not time.

121
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of an OCI API signing key?

A.To encrypt data at rest inside Object Storage buckets.
B.To establish IPsec VPN tunnels between corporate datacenters and OCI VCNs.
C.To cryptographically sign API requests made by OCI SDKs, CLI, or REST API clients.
D.To authenticate users logging into the OCI web-based Console.
AnswerC

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure requires cryptographic authentication for programmatic requests to verify the identity of the caller. To satisfy the requirement for secure API access, a public and private key pair must be generated. The private key is retained securely by the user and is used locally to sign the HTTP request headers cryptographically. OCI then validates this signature against the corresponding public key uploaded to the user's IAM profile, ensuring that requests made via the CLI, SDKs, or REST API clients are authentically authorised.

Why this answer

An OCI API signing key is an RSA key pair used to cryptographically sign API requests made by OCI SDKs, CLI, and REST clients. The public key is uploaded to the user's OCI profile, and the private key signs each request so the OCI service can verify the caller's identity via the signature.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between API signing keys (for programmatic API authentication) and other cryptographic material like Vault encryption keys or VPN pre-shared keys — candidates must match the key type to its actual purpose.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because data-at-rest encryption in Object Storage is handled by OCI's encryption keys (managed or customer-managed via Vault), not by API signing keys. Option B is wrong because IPsec VPN tunnels are established using pre-shared keys or certificates configured in the VPN service, not API signing keys. Option D is wrong because Console login authentication uses username/password plus MFA or federation, not API signing keys — signing keys are for programmatic API access.

122
MCQeasy

Your development team needs to perform automated regression testing against a production copy of an Autonomous Transaction Processing (ATP) database. Which feature allows you to create a point-in-time, space-efficient copy of the production database instantly?

A.Autonomous Database Clone (Thin Clone)
B.Cross-Region Object Storage Export
C.Autonomous Database Data Guard
D.Oracle RMAN Duplicate Database
AnswerA

An Autonomous Database Clone configured as a Thin Clone satisfies the requirement for a space-efficient, point-in-time copy by leveraging metadata-only inheritance. Instead of duplicating all underlying data blocks, a Thin Clone shares the base database storage blocks and only allocates new storage for subsequent writes. This architectural mechanism allows developers to instantly provision multiple independent writable copies of the production Autonomous Transaction Processing database without incurring the heavy storage costs or latency associated with traditional full physical clones, making it ideal for automated regression testing.

Why this answer

Autonomous Database Clones allow you to create either a full clone or a metadata-only thin clone instantly for development and testing purposes.

123
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements are true regarding OCI Storage Gateway? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.It provides native block-level SAN connectivity over Fibre Channel.
B.It runs as a virtual machine on-premises, such as on Oracle VM or VMware.
C.It can only be used with Archive Storage for instant data retrieval.
D.It replaces the need for Object Storage buckets in the cloud entirely.
E.It translates file operations (NFS) into Object Storage REST API calls.
AnswersB, E

OCI Storage Gateway functions as a software appliance deployed as a virtual machine within an on-premises environment. By supporting hypervisors like Oracle VM and VMware, it satisfies the deployment constraint requiring local infrastructure integration to bridge on-premises file systems with OCI Object Storage. This architecture allows administrators to manage data movement seamlessly without requiring a direct connection to Microsoft Entra ID, ensuring that existing virtualisation hosts can effectively cache and transfer data to the cloud while maintaining local access performance.

Why this answer

Storage Gateway is a cloud storage gateway that runs on-premises, translating file storage protocols (NFS) to object storage REST APIs.

124
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE actions are required to successfully set up an Alarm?

Select 3 answers
A.Define a Metric query
B.Create a Notification Topic
C.Create an IAM user for the metric
D.Subscribe to the Notification Topic
E.Configure a Service Gateway
AnswersA, B, D

Defining a metric query is a mandatory foundational action when configuring an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Monitoring alarm, directly satisfying the requirement to establish the data source and evaluation criteria. An alarm cannot function without a specific target stream to monitor, which is achieved by selecting a compartment, namespace, metric, and any necessary dimensions or mathematical expressions to poll. This query determines the exact telemetry data that the evaluation window assesses against your defined threshold to trigger notifications.

Why this answer

To set up an alarm, you must have a metric, a notification topic, and a subscription to that topic.

125
MCQhard

You are planning disaster recovery for an Exadata Database Service on Dedicated Infrastructure. You need to configure Oracle Active Data Guard with real-time apply. What unique capability does Active Data Guard provide over standard Data Guard?wirtschaft

A.It replicates data at the block level across heterogeneous database engines (e.g., PostgreSQL to Oracle).
B.It allows read-only queries to run on the physical standby database while real-time redo apply is active.
C.It automatically shards the primary database tables across multiple standby regions.
D.It allows read-write operations on the standby database while synchronizing with the primary.
AnswerB

Active Data Guard uniquely solves the requirement to access standby data during disaster recovery by enabling read-only operations on a physical standby database while concurrently applying redo data in real time. Standard Data Guard restricts the standby database to mount state or recovery-only operations, preventing user access during log application. By leveraging this capability, you can offload reporting workloads and perform backups directly from the standby environment without interrupting the continuous recovery process.

Why this answer

Oracle Active Data Guard extends standard Data Guard by allowing the physical standby database to be open in read-only mode while redo apply (including real-time apply) continues. This means reporting, ad-hoc queries, and read-only workloads can be offloaded to the standby without interrupting the apply process. Standard Data Guard requires the standby to be mounted (not open) for redo apply, so it cannot serve queries.

Active Data Guard thus provides both disaster recovery and read scalability from the same standby.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the distinction between standard Data Guard and Active Data Guard, and candidates may incorrectly assume that any standby can be queried or that Active Data Guard enables read-write operations, when in fact it only allows read-only queries while redo apply is active.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Active Data Guard does not perform block-level replication across heterogeneous database engines; it is Oracle-to-Oracle physical replication, and heterogeneous replication is not a feature of Data Guard. Option C is wrong because automatic sharding across standby regions is not a Data Guard capability; sharding is a separate Oracle Database feature (Oracle Sharding) and does not involve standby databases in that manner. Option D is wrong because Active Data Guard standbys remain read-only; they do not allow read-write operations while synchronizing with the primary.

Read-write on a standby would require a different technology such as GoldenGate or a logical standby with specific configurations, but not Active Data Guard.

126
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE actions can be performed on compartments in OCI? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Assign a private IP address directly to a compartment
B.Create nested child compartments up to 6 levels deep
C.Convert a compartment into a virtual cloud network
D.Delete an empty compartment
E.Move a compartment to a new parent compartment
AnswersB, D, E

Compartments in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) support a hierarchical structure that allows administrators to practise effective resource organisation and access control by creating nested child compartments. Specifically, the architecture permits compartments to be nested up to six levels deep beneath a root compartment. This exact structural constraint satisfies the requirement identified in the stem regarding the depth limitation of compartment hierarchies within an OCI tenancy.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because OCI compartments support hierarchical nesting, allowing child compartments to be created up to six levels deep beneath the tenancy root, which helps model organizational structures and isolate resources. Option D is correct because an empty compartment can be deleted; OCI requires that all resources inside it be removed or moved first, since a compartment must be empty before deletion. Option E is correct because OCI allows moving a compartment to a new parent compartment within the same tenancy, which changes its position in the hierarchy while preserving its resources and policies.

Option A is not correct because private IP addresses are assigned to VNICs or resources such as compute instances, not to compartments, which are logical containers for governance and resource grouping. Option C is not correct because a compartment is an identity and access management construct and cannot be converted into a virtual cloud network (VCN); VCNs are separate networking resources created within a compartment.

Exam trap

The trap is treating compartments as network or compute objects — candidates may pick options that assign IPs or convert compartments into VCNs, but compartments are purely logical IAM/cost containers with only structural operations (nest, move, delete).

127
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO types of targets can be specified in an OCI VCN route table rule?

Select 2 answers
A.Block Volume
B.NAT Gateway
C.Identity and Access Management (IAM) Policy
D.Object Storage Bucket
E.Internet Gateway
AnswersB, E

A NAT Gateway serves as a valid routing target within an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Virtual Cloud Network route table rule, satisfying the requirement to direct outbound-only internet traffic for resources residing in private subnets. When instances without public IP addresses initiate connections to the wider internet, the route table matches the destination CIDR block (typically 0.0.0.0/0) and forwards the traffic to the Network Address Translation gateway, which translates private IP addresses to a public IP address for external communication while blocking unsolicited inbound connections.

Why this answer

Route table targets in OCI include Internet Gateways, NAT Gateways, Service Gateways, Dynamic Routing Gateways, Local Peering Gateways, and private IPs of VNICs (such as firewalls).

128
MCQhard

An administrator wishes to enable Autonomous Data Guard for an Autonomous Database on Dedicated Exadata Infrastructure. What is the primary benefit of enabling this feature?

A.It automatically provisions a standby database and handles failover and switchover operations to ensure high availability.
B.It allows read-write operations simultaneously on both primary and standby databases across regions.
C.It automatically shards tables across two different cloud regions to speed up write operations.
D.It reduces cloud storage billing by compressing redundant backup blocks on the standby instance.
AnswerA

Enabling Autonomous Data Guard on Dedicated Exadata Infrastructure directly satisfies the requirement for automated high availability and disaster recovery by provisioning a remote standby database and orchestrating both role transitions and failovers without manual intervention. This mechanism ensures zero data loss and minimal downtime for mission-critical workloads hosted on dedicated Exadata resources, securely managing the synchronization between primary and peer databases within the cloud architecture.

Why this answer

Autonomous Data Guard is Oracle's managed standby solution for Autonomous Database on Dedicated Exadata Infrastructure. When enabled, Oracle automatically provisions and maintains a standby database in a separate availability domain or region, and it orchestrates role transitions (switchover for planned maintenance, failover for unplanned outages) without manual intervention. This delivers high availability and disaster recovery with an RPO near zero and minimal administrative overhead.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that Data Guard enables active-active read-write on both databases or that it is a sharding/compression feature, when it is strictly a standby-based HA/DR mechanism.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Autonomous Data Guard standbys are read-only (or mounted) and do not accept read-write workloads simultaneously with the primary; there is no multi-primary write capability. Option C is wrong because sharding is a separate Oracle feature (Oracle Sharded Database) and has nothing to do with Data Guard; Data Guard replicates, it does not shard. Option D is wrong because Data Guard is a replication/HA feature, not a storage compression or billing optimization mechanism; it does not reduce storage charges by compressing backup blocks.

129
MCQmedium

How do you ensure data integrity for uploads to Object Storage?

A.Encryption
B.Versioning
C.HTTPS
D.MD5 checksum
AnswerD

Object Storage automatically generates and verifies an MD5 hash when you upload a file. By calculating the checksum of the payload during transmission and comparing it against the value computed upon receipt, the service guarantees that data has not been corrupted or altered in transit. This direct verification mechanism satisfies the requirement to ensure data integrity during uploads, as any mismatch in the checksum triggers an error, preventing the storage of incomplete or corrupted files.

Why this answer

MD5 checksums are used to verify data integrity during uploads to Object Storage by comparing the checksum of the uploaded object with the local file. If the checksums match, the data was transferred without corruption. OCI Object Storage supports MD5 checksums for upload validation, making it the correct mechanism for ensuring integrity.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between confidentiality mechanisms (encryption, HTTPS) and integrity mechanisms (checksums), tempting candidates to pick encryption or HTTPS when integrity verification is required.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because encryption protects confidentiality, not integrity—it does not detect corruption or tampering during transfer. Option B is wrong because versioning preserves multiple versions of an object but does not verify that a given upload is intact. Option C is wrong because HTTPS secures data in transit (confidentiality and some integrity via TLS), but it does not provide end-to-end verification that the stored object matches the source file; MD5 checksums do.

130
MCQhard

You need to migrate a 10 TB Oracle Database from an on-premises data center to OCI Base Database Service with minimal downtime. Which migration tool leverages Oracle Data Guard to achieve near-zero downtime?

A.SQL Developer database copy wizard
B.Oracle Data Pump export and import
C.OCI Object Storage manual file copy using multipart uploads
D.Oracle Zero Downtime Migration (ZDM) with physical migration method
AnswerD

ZDM's physical migration method uses Oracle Data Guard to replicate the database to OCI while the source remains online, then performs a fast switchover. This satisfies the stem's near-zero downtime constraint for the 10 TB migration.

Why this answer

Oracle Zero Downtime Migration (ZDM) with the physical migration method uses Oracle Data Guard to replicate the on-premises database to OCI Base Database Service, keeping the source and target synchronized until a planned switchover. This minimizes downtime to only the final switchover window, which is typically seconds to minutes even for a 10 TB database. Logical methods (Data Pump) would require a full export/import cycle and much longer downtime.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the distinction between logical migration tools (Data Pump, SQL Developer) and physical migration tools (ZDM with Data Guard) for minimal downtime, so candidates who overlook the 'near-zero downtime' requirement may incorrectly choose Data Pump.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SQL Developer's database copy wizard is a lightweight logical copy tool intended for small schemas and development use, not for migrating multi-terabyte production databases with minimal downtime. Option B is wrong because Data Pump export/import is a logical migration that requires the source to be quiesced during export and the target to be fully loaded before cutover, resulting in hours of downtime for a 10 TB database. Option C is wrong because manually copying database files to Object Storage does not provide any mechanism to keep the source and target synchronized or to perform a controlled switchover, and it is not a supported migration path for Base Database Service.

131
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE features are core capabilities of the OCI Audit service? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Automatically recording API calls for all OCI services within a tenancy.
B.Enabling retention configuration of audit log data to meet compliance requirements.
C.Triggering auto-scaling groups based on real-time memory usage metrics.
D.Real-time execution of Terraform infrastructure code modifications.
E.Providing a searchable history of who made API calls, from which IP, and when.
AnswersA, B, E

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Audit automatically logs all API calls made across your tenancy without requiring manual configuration, directly satisfying the requirement for comprehensive activity tracking. Every interaction originating from console actions, command-line interfaces, software development kits, or programmatic requests is captured as an event. These logs provide essential security visibility, governance, and compliance auditing by recording who executed an operation, the resource targeted, and the timestamp of the event.

Why this answer

OCI Audit automatically records calls to all supported OCI public API endpoints, supports querying via Log Explorer, and retains logs for a specified period.

132
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE security best practices should be implemented when deploying and managing OCI Functions? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Using dynamic groups and IAM policies to grant functions least-privilege access to other OCI resources
B.Attaching function applications to private subnets within a VCN when connecting to private backend services
C.Storing database credentials and API keys in OCI Vault rather than hardcoding them in source code
D.Hardcoding tenancy administrator credentials in environment variables for easy access
E.Disabling authentication on API Gateways triggering functions to allow open public access
AnswersA, B, C

Granting least-privilege access is a core security requirement when deploying serverless architectures. By defining dynamic groups based on function OCIDs and writing precise Identity and Access Management policies, you restrict functions to interacting exclusively with the specific OCI resources they require for execution. This mechanism prevents overly permissive access scopes, directly satisfying the requirement to implement robust least-privilege principles within cloud-native application environments.

Why this answer

Security best practices for functions include using dynamic groups and IAM policies for least-privilege resource access, storing sensitive strings in OCI Vault, and deploying functions in private subnets with VCN integration.

133
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO characteristics distinguish Exadata Cloud Service (ExaCS) from standard Oracle Base Database Systems?

Select 2 answers
A.Requirement to run exclusively on Windows Server operating systems
B.Exclusive reliance on standard OCI Block Volume iSCSI storage
C.Support for Hybrid Columnar Compression (HCC)
D.Inclusion of intelligent storage servers supporting Smart Scan capability
E.Inability to use Oracle Real Application Clusters (RAC)
AnswersC, D

Hybrid Columnar Compression (HCC) is exclusively supported on Exadata infrastructure because it relies heavily on the unique hardware architecture of Exadata storage servers, such as storage cell offload processing. Standard Oracle Base Database Systems utilise traditional block storage volumes—such as Oracle OCI Block Volume—which lack the specialised Exadata storage cells required to process and decompress HCC-compressed data blocks directly at the storage tier. Therefore, the architectural inclusion of HCC storage capabilities directly distinguishes Exadata Cloud Service from standard database systems, satisfying the hardware-dependent feature constraint specified in the question.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because Exadata Cloud Service runs on Exadata engineered systems, whose storage servers and database nodes support Hybrid Columnar Compression (HCC) for both OLTP and data warehousing workloads, whereas standard Oracle Base Database Systems on OCI use regular block storage that does not provide the same Exadata-optimized HCC capabilities. Option D is correct because ExaCS includes Exadata intelligent storage servers that offload SQL processing via Smart Scan, a feature unique to the Exadata architecture that is not available in standard Oracle Base Database Systems. Options A, B, and E are incorrect: ExaCS does not require Windows Server (it runs Oracle Linux), it does not rely solely on standard OCI Block Volume iSCSI storage (it uses Exadata's internal storage servers), and it fully supports Oracle Real Application Clusters (RAC), which is in fact a core capability of Exadata deployments.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming ExaCS is just a bigger Base Database System — candidates miss that Smart Scan and HCC are architectural features unique to Exadata's intelligent storage, and they may incorrectly think ExaCS lacks RAC support.

134
MCQhard

You are designing a disaster recovery strategy for an OCI compute instance. You need to replicate boot volume backups to a secondary region. How should you accomplish this?

A.Configure a local peering gateway between the two regions' boot storage endpoints.
B.Boot volume backups cannot be copied across regions; you must recreate the instance manually.
C.Use the OCI Console or CLI to copy the boot volume backup to the destination region.
D.Attach the boot volume backup as an Object Storage bucket and sync via FTP.
AnswerC

Boot volume backups in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure are region-specific resources, meaning they cannot natively be accessed outside their creation region for disaster recovery purposes. Utilising the OCI Console or CLI allows you to directly copy an existing boot volume backup across tenancy regions. This explicit cross-region copy mechanism satisfies the stem's requirement to replicate backups to a secondary region, ensuring data availability for disaster recovery even if the primary region experiences an outage.

Why this answer

Boot volume backups can be copied across regions using the cross-region copy feature in the OCI Console or CLI, allowing you to restore them as boot volumes in another region.

135
MCQeasy

Which OCI service is best suited for real-time monitoring of CPU and Memory utilization on a Compute instance?

A.Resource Manager
B.Logging service
C.Events service
D.Monitoring service
AnswerD

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Monitoring service directly satisfies the requirement for real-time observation by ingesting telemetry data via standard metrics emitted automatically by compute instances. It processes high-frequency CPU and memory utilization statistics without requiring manual metric configuration, enabling operators to set alarms, build dynamic dashboards, and automate scaling responses based on live performance thresholds.

Why this answer

The Monitoring service automatically collects standard metrics for Compute instances.

136
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions can be performed on an active OCI Block Volume without detaching it from the compute instance? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Change the volume from Balanced performance tier to Higher Performance tier
B.Delete the block volume while it is attached
C.Migrate the volume to a different availability domain
D.Increase the volume size (resizing)
E.Convert a block volume into a File Storage Service mount target
AnswersA, D

OCI Block Volumes support dynamic performance scaling, allowing users to modify the performance tier while the volume remains attached to an active compute instance. This capability satisfies the stem's constraint by enabling seamless resource adjustment without requiring an unmount or detach operation. By updating the volume performance unit (VPU) settings via the console or API, the underlying storage infrastructure reconfigures throughput and IOPS in real-time, ensuring that production workloads maintain continuous availability while scaling to meet fluctuating performance demands.

Why this answer

OCI Block Volumes support live resizing and dynamic performance tier adjustments without requiring volume detachment.

137
MCQmedium

You are using the Events service to trigger a Function. What is a required step before this can work?

A.Attach a load balancer
B.Enable HTTP access on the function
C.Grant 'use' permissions on the function to the Events service
D.Create a Service Connector
AnswerC

The Events service assumes a service principal when invoking a Function, so it must be granted explicit 'use' permission on the function itself. Without this policy statement, the rule fires but invocation is denied by IAM, so the trigger silently fails.

Why this answer

Before the OCI Events service can trigger a Function, you must grant the Events service permission to invoke the function. This is done by creating a policy that allows the Events service principal to use the function. Without this authorization, the Events service cannot call the function, and the rule will fail.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the assumption that creating an Events rule is enough to trigger a Function, but the trap is forgetting the required IAM policy that grants the Events service permission to invoke the function.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a load balancer is not required for Events to trigger a Function; Functions are invoked directly via the Events service. Option B is wrong because enabling HTTP access on the function is not a prerequisite; Functions can be invoked internally without public HTTP endpoints. Option D is wrong because a Service Connector is used for streaming data from a source to a target (e.g., Object Storage to Streaming), not for event-driven function invocation.

138
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE conditions can be evaluated using conditional clauses in OCI IAM policies? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Source IP address of the API request (request.ip)
B.The user's corporate salary bracket
C.Target resource defined tags (target.tag)
D.Source subnet OCID of the API request (request.subnet.id)
E.The local weather conditions in the data center region
AnswersA, C, D

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Identity and Access Management evaluates the source IP address of an API request by leveraging the `request.ip` conditional variable within policy statements. This mechanism directly satisfies the requirement to filter access based on network locations, allowing administrators to restrict permissions using CIDR block matching. By incorporating `request.ip` into a conditional clause, security teams can enforce perimeter-based access control, ensuring that authenticated principals can only execute API operations when their requests originate from authorised corporate networks or trusted subnet ranges.

Why this answer

OCI IAM policy conditions support variables that describe the request and the target resource, so option A is correct because request.ip lets a policy evaluate the source IP address of the API call, for example to restrict access to a corporate CIDR range. Option C is correct because target.tag allows conditions on the defined tags of the resource being accessed, enabling tag-based authorization such as allowing access only when target.tag.Namespace.Key equals a specific value. Option D is correct because request.subnet.id evaluates the OCID of the source subnet from which the request originates, which is useful for limiting access to workloads in a trusted VCN subnet.

Option B is not correct because OCI IAM has no condition variable for a user's corporate salary bracket, and option E is not correct because local weather conditions in a data center region are not exposed as IAM policy condition variables.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates can distinguish valid OCI condition variables (request.ip, request.subnet.id, target.tag) from fabricated ones (salary bracket, weather) — the exam expects memorization of the actual condition variable names.

139
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE statements regarding OCI VCN Route Tables are correct?

Select 3 answers
A.Each subnet in a VCN must be associated with a route table.
B.Route tables perform firewall packet inspection like Network Security Groups.
C.A subnet can be associated with multiple route tables simultaneously.
D.A single route table can be associated with multiple subnets.
E.Route rules support specific CIDRs as well as the default destination 0.0.0.0/0.
AnswersA, D, E

Every subnet within an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Virtual Cloud Network must be explicitly associated with a single route table to determine how traffic is directed away from that subnet. This strict association requirement satisfies the mandatory architectural rule that no subnet can exist in a routing vacuum; if a subnet is not explicitly linked to a custom route table during or after creation, it automatically falls back to the VCN's default route table, ensuring continuous network reachability.

Why this answer

Route tables contain rules that map destination CIDR blocks to target gateways. Each subnet must be associated with a route table, and route tables can be shared across multiple subnets.

140
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following statements regarding OCI Network Security Groups (NSGs) are correct?

Select 2 answers
A.An NSG can contain VNICs from multiple different subnets within the same VCN.
B.Every subnet must have at least one NSG associated with it by default.
C.NSG rules can reference other NSGs as the source or destination.
D.NSGs can span across multiple different VCNs in the same region.
E.NSGs replace Security Lists entirely and Security Lists are deprecated.
AnswersA, C

Network Security Groups decouple security rule enforcement from subnet topology by grouping virtual network interface cards (VNICs) across multiple subnets within the same Virtual Cloud Network. Unlike security lists, which apply strictly at the subnet level, an NSG evaluates traffic for any designated VNIC regardless of its specific subnet assignment. This architectural flexibility satisfies the core requirement that a single security policy can span diverse subnets inside a shared VCN boundary, allowing administrators to efficiently manage fine-grained access control for tiered application components without needing redundant rule configurations.

Why this answer

NSGs apply only to a specified set of VNICs and are independent of VCN subnets. They support both stateful and stateless rules.

141
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO actions can an OCI administrator perform on user accounts? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Manage group memberships for the user
B.Modify the physical hardware serial number of the user's laptop
C.Deactivate or block a user account
D.Configure the user's home Wi-Fi router security settings
E.Directly access the user's corporate email inbox
AnswersA, C

Administrators control user access permissions within Oracle Cloud Infrastructure by modifying group memberships directly from the Identity and Domains service. Because OCI does not support applying policies directly to individual user accounts, administrators must assign users to specific groups to grant permissions. This mechanism directly satisfies the requirement to manage user accounts by dictating how authorization and group-based access control are applied across tenancies.

Why this answer

In OCI Identity and Access Management (IAM), an administrator can manage group memberships for a user (Option A), adding or removing the user from IAM groups so that the policies attached to those groups grant the appropriate permissions. An administrator can also deactivate or block a user account (Option C) — in OCI this is done by setting the user's lifecycle state to INACTIVE (or deleting the user), which immediately prevents the user from authenticating to the tenancy. Options B, D, and E are not OCI IAM operations: OCI does not manage physical laptop hardware serial numbers, does not configure a user's home Wi-Fi router, and does not give administrators direct access to a user's corporate email inbox.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates confuse OCI IAM's cloud-scoped administrative actions with endpoint or application-level management tasks that IAM simply cannot perform.

142
MCQeasy

What is the primary way to access an Object Storage bucket via a private endpoint?

A.Internet Gateway
B.NAT Gateway
C.Service Gateway
D.DRG
AnswerC

Service Gateways provide a dedicated virtual path within the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure backbone, enabling private connectivity to Object Storage without traversing the public internet. By routing traffic through this gateway, you satisfy the constraint of accessing resources via a private endpoint while maintaining network isolation. This mechanism ensures that data transfers remain within the internal network fabric, effectively bypassing public gateways and ensuring that your cloud architecture adheres to strict security requirements for private data exfiltration prevention.

Why this answer

A Service Gateway allows private access from a VCN to Object Storage.

143
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO protocols are supported for OCI Site-to-Site VPN IPSec tunnels?

Select 2 answers
A.BGP over SSL
B.IKEv1
C.HTTPS tunneling
D.SNMPv3
E.IKEv2
AnswersB, E

Internet Key Exchange version 1 (IKEv1) is natively supported by Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Site-to-Site VPN, fulfilling the stem's requirement for standard IPSec tunnel establishment protocols. This protocol operates in aggressive or main mode to establish a secure Security Association (SA) and negotiate cryptographic parameters between the customer premise equipment and the Oracle dynamic routing gateway. By supporting IKEv1 alongside version 2, Oracle ensures broad compatibility with legacy on-premises firewalls and routers that lack IKEv2 capabilities, thereby satisfying the dual-protocol support constraint mandated for establishing reliable hybrid cloud connectivity.

Why this answer

OCI Site-to-Site VPN IPSec tunnels support IKEv1 (Option B) and IKEv2 (Option E) as the Internet Key Exchange protocols used to negotiate the IPSec security associations, with IKEv2 being the recommended default for new tunnels because it offers improved security and performance. IKEv1 is also supported for backward compatibility with older on-premises VPN devices. BGP over SSL (Option A) is not an IPSec tunnel protocol; BGP is a routing protocol that can run over the tunnel, but SSL is unrelated to IPSec IKE negotiation.

HTTPS tunneling (Option C) is not used for OCI IPSec VPNs, and SNMPv3 (Option D) is a network management protocol, not a tunnel negotiation protocol.

144
MCQmedium

When provisioning an Oracle Base Database Service DB system, which storage management software is used underneath to provide high performance and reliable storage volumes?

A.Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
B.ZFS Storage Appliance software
C.EXT4 journaling file system
D.Linux Logical Volume Manager (LVM)
AnswerA

Oracle Base Database Service DB systems use Oracle Automatic Storage Management to stripe and mirror data across available block volumes, delivering the high performance and redundancy the scenario requires. ASM is the storage management layer beneath the DB system.

Why this answer

Oracle Base Database Service (formerly Bare Metal and VM DB Systems) uses Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) as the underlying storage management software. ASM provides striping, mirroring, and rebalancing across available block volumes, delivering high performance and reliability for the database files.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests Oracle-specific storage technologies — candidates pick generic Linux tools (LVM, EXT4) or unrelated Oracle products (ZFS) instead of recognizing ASM as the database-aware storage manager for Base Database Service.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because ZFS Storage Appliance is a separate Oracle storage product (ZFS Storage ZS series) used for NAS/SAN, not the internal storage management for Base Database Service DB systems. Option C is wrong because EXT4 is a general-purpose Linux file system and does not provide the Oracle-specific striping/mirroring and database-aware features of ASM. Option D is wrong because LVM is a generic Linux volume manager; while it can manage volumes, Oracle Base Database Service uses ASM for database storage, not LVM.

145
MCQeasy

What is required for a human user to authenticate programmatically against OCI using the CLI, SDKs, or API?

A.A SSH key pair generated specifically for IAM authentication.
B.A password and an MFA token code.
C.An API signing key pair (PEM format) and its corresponding fingerprint.
D.A pre-authenticated request URL.
AnswerC

Programmatic OCI access via CLI, SDKs or API authenticates requests using API key signing, so a PEM-format key pair plus its fingerprint must be uploaded to the user's profile. Console passwords and auth tokens serve different purposes.

Why this answer

Programmatic access to OCI for a human user requires an API signing key pair in PEM format, with the public key uploaded to the user's IAM account and the corresponding fingerprint recorded. The CLI, SDKs, and direct API calls use the private key to sign requests, and OCI validates the signature against the uploaded public key.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing interactive console authentication (password + MFA) or SSH keys with the API signing key pair required for programmatic OCI access.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SSH key pairs are used for secure shell access to compute instances, not for IAM API authentication. Option B is wrong because a password plus MFA is used for interactive console sign-in, not for programmatic CLI/SDK/API calls. Option D is wrong because a pre-authenticated request (PAR) is a time-limited URL for accessing Object Storage or similar resources, not a mechanism for authenticating a user to the OCI API.

146
MCQmedium

Which service is the best choice for storing thousands of small, frequently accessed image files?

A.Archive Storage
B.Block Volume
C.File Storage
D.Object Storage
AnswerD

Object Storage provides a flat namespace architecture that excels at handling massive quantities of unstructured data, effectively satisfying the requirement for storing thousands of small files. Unlike hierarchical file systems that suffer from metadata overhead and performance degradation as directory depth increases, this service maintains consistent low-latency access times regardless of scale. By leveraging highly distributed indexing, it ensures that frequently accessed image files remain readily available, providing the necessary throughput and scalability for high-frequency retrieval operations within the cloud infrastructure.

Why this answer

Object Storage is optimized for high-scale, flat-namespace object storage.

147
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE features are associated with OCI Dedicated Virtual Machine Hosts? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Visibility into host-level resource capacity and placement control
B.Exclusive physical hardware tenancy isolation where no other tenants share the physical server
C.The ability to place multiple virtual machine instances across the dedicated physical host
D.Automatic multi-cloud replication across AWS and Azure physical datacenters
E.The ability to convert the dedicated host directly into a Kubernetes master node without OS reinstallation
AnswersA, B, C

Dedicated Virtual Machine Hosts provide tenants with physical server isolation, which directly satisfies the requirement for granular placement control. By allowing users to select specific hardware configurations and manage the underlying host capacity, this service offers visibility into resource utilisation that is unavailable in multi-tenant environments. This architectural design ensures that workloads are pinned to specific physical infrastructure, enabling organisations to meet stringent compliance or performance mandates that necessitate dedicated hardware oversight rather than relying on shared resource pools.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because OCI Dedicated Virtual Machine Hosts give you visibility into the host's total and available CPU/memory capacity and let you control instance placement on that specific host. Option B is correct because a dedicated host provides exclusive physical hardware tenancy isolation, meaning no other OCI tenants share the underlying physical server. Option C is correct because you can launch and place multiple VM instances on the same dedicated physical host, subject to its capacity.

Option D is incorrect because OCI Dedicated Virtual Machine Hosts do not provide automatic multi-cloud replication across AWS and Azure datacenters. Option E is incorrect because a dedicated host cannot be converted directly into a Kubernetes master node without OS reinstallation.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates invent features (multi-cloud replication, K8s conversion) that sound plausible but do not exist for Dedicated VM Hosts — stick to documented capabilities.

148
MCQmedium

You are troubleshooting a deployment failure in Resource Manager. Where can you see the detailed Terraform output logs?

A.Events logs
B.Job logs
C.Audit logs
D.Cloud Shell logs
AnswerB

Job logs provide the granular execution details generated by the Terraform provider during the provisioning process, which is essential for diagnosing deployment failures in Resource Manager. When an infrastructure-as-code operation fails, these logs capture the standard output and error streams, allowing administrators to pinpoint specific configuration syntax errors or provider-level resource conflicts. By reviewing these logs within the console, you can isolate the exact step where the deployment halted, satisfying the requirement to identify the root cause of the failure.

Why this answer

In OCI Resource Manager, when a Terraform job (plan, apply, or destroy) runs, the detailed Terraform output—including stdout, stderr, and any error messages—is captured in the Job logs. These logs are accessible from the Job details page in the OCI Console or via the CLI/API. They provide the exact Terraform execution trace needed to diagnose deployment failures.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the distinction between OCI logging services (Audit, Events) and job-specific logs, so candidates mistakenly choose Audit or Events logs for Terraform output.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Events logs in OCI track resource lifecycle state changes (e.g., instance created, bucket deleted) and do not contain Terraform execution output. Option C is wrong because Audit logs record API calls and user actions for compliance and security, not the internal Terraform run details. Option D is wrong because Cloud Shell logs pertain to the Cloud Shell session itself (e.g., command history, terminal output) and are not where Resource Manager job output is stored.

149
MCQeasy

What is the maximum number of Route Tables allowed per Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) in OCI?

A.Exactly 1
B.Exactly 2
C.Zero
D.Multiple (subject to service limits)
AnswerD

OCI permits multiple route tables per VCN, bounded only by service limits rather than a fixed cap. Each subnet associates with one route table, so multiple tables let you apply distinct routing rules to different subnets within the same VCN, satisfying the scenario's requirement for flexible per-subnet routing.

Why this answer

While there is a generous service limit, multiple route tables can be created and associated with different subnets within a VCN.

150
MCQmedium

Which tool provides a graphical way to manage Object Storage lifecycle policies?

A.OCI CLI
B.API Explorer
C.Web Console
D.Terraform
AnswerC

The Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Web Console provides a visual interface that satisfies the requirement for a graphical management tool. By navigating to the Object Storage bucket details, administrators can define, edit, and monitor lifecycle policy rules directly through the browser. This environment abstracts the underlying API calls and JSON configurations, allowing users to manage data retention and archival transitions intuitively without needing to write scripts or interact with the command-line interface.

Why this answer

The OCI Web Console provides the interface for lifecycle policy management.

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