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Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2026 Architect Associate (1Z0-1072-26) (1Z0-1072-26) (1Z0-1072-26) — Questions 1–75

404 questions total · 6 pages · All types, answers revealed

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1
MCQmedium

What is the purpose of the 'Tags' feature in OCI resource management?

A.To apply cost tracking and logical grouping
B.To define IAM policies
C.To manage network traffic
D.To automate patch management
AnswerA

Applying metadata keys and values to OCI resources directly satisfies the administrative need for cost tracking and logical grouping. Free-form tags allow simple key-value association, whereas defined tags enforce governance through namespaces defined in Identity and Access Management, restricting who can apply specific values. This dual mechanism enables precise cost allocation reports within OCI Cost Analysis and simplifies bulk management across disparate compartments without altering the underlying resource hierarchy.

Why this answer

Tags allow you to organize and filter resources across compartments.

2
MCQmedium

You have an OCI compute instance configured with an autoscaling policy. The autoscaling configuration scales out your instance pool by 2 instances when CPU exceeds 75%. You notice that during a traffic surge, the pool scales out, but shortly after, it scales right back in, causing flapping. How can you prevent this behavior?

A.Increase the autoscaling cooldown period.
B.Disable instance health checks entirely.
C.Decrease the instance pool maximum limit to 1.
D.Change the VCN route table timeout.
AnswerA

Increasing the autoscaling cooldown period prevents flapping by enforcing a mandatory waiting time after a scale-out event before any subsequent scale-in evaluation can occur. During a traffic surge, metrics may fluctuate rapidly around the threshold; extending this duration ensures the instance pool remains stable and absorbs transient load spikes without prematurely terminating newly provisioned capacity, directly satisfying the requirement to stop the immediate scale-in behaviour observed in the stem.

Why this answer

Configuring an appropriate cooldown period (step delay) ensures that autoscaling waits a specified duration after a scaling event before evaluating metrics again.

3
MCQmedium

You are troubleshooting a connection issue to an OCI Compute instance behind a public Load Balancer. The security list for the load balancer allows traffic on port 443, but clients receive a connection timeout. Upon checking the backend instances, you notice their security lists do not allow incoming traffic from the load balancer subnet. What is the best practice fix?

A.Configure a NAT Gateway on the load balancer subnet.
B.Change the load balancer shape from Flexible to 100 Mbps.
C.Attach an Internet Gateway to the backend subnet route table.
D.Add a security rule in the backend subnet to allow traffic from the Load Balancer subnet CIDR on the application port.
AnswerD

Backend security lists must explicitly permit traffic from the load balancer's subnet CIDR on the application port, since OCI security lists are stateful and evaluate traffic against the source address. Adding this ingress rule satisfies the constraint that the backend subnet currently blocks the load balancer's health checks and forwarded client connections, resolving the timeout.

Why this answer

The best practice is to add a security rule in the backend subnet's security list (or network security group) to allow traffic from the load balancer subnet's CIDR on the application port. This ensures that the load balancer can forward traffic to the backend instances. The load balancer's security list allowing port 443 is necessary but not sufficient; the backend must also permit traffic from the load balancer.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that allowing traffic on the load balancer's security list is sufficient, when in fact the backend security rules must also permit traffic from the load balancer.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a NAT Gateway provides outbound internet access for private subnets and does not enable inbound traffic from a load balancer. Option B is wrong because changing the load balancer shape affects capacity and performance, not security rules; it does not resolve the timeout caused by missing backend security rules. Option C is wrong because attaching an Internet Gateway to the backend subnet route table would provide internet access but does not allow the load balancer to reach the backends; the issue is security list rules, not routing.

4
MCQhard

An administrator is managing an OCI File Storage Service file system and notices that storage consumption has grown significantly. They want to identify which directories and users are consuming the most space. How can this be accomplished?

A.View the Storage Consumption metric in OCI Monitoring service aggregated by directory path.
B.Check the Object Storage Metrics explorer for FSS bucket utilization.
C.Mount the file system on a compute instance and use standard Linux tools such as 'du' or quota management.
D.Enable FSS Analytics in the OCI Console under Storage Administration.
AnswerC

File Storage exposes a standard NFS mount, so mounting it on a compute instance and running Linux tools such as 'du' or quota reporting reveals per-directory and per-user consumption, since OCI provides no native usage breakdown.

Why this answer

OCI File Storage Service does not provide a native per-directory usage reporting dashboard within the console, but administrators can mount the file system and use standard Linux utilities (like du or quota tools if configured via NFS) to analyze storage consumption.

5
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of an OCI Virtual Cloud Network (VCN)?

A.To store backup files and unstructured object data.
B.To host public DNS domain names on the internet.
C.To provide a customizable, isolated virtual network in OCI for your cloud resources.
D.To execute serverless container functions.
AnswerC

An Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) acts as a software-defined abstraction layer that directly addresses the requirement for isolated resource deployment by establishing a dedicated, private network perimeter within the public cloud. By allowing administrators to define custom CIDR blocks, configure route tables, and manage security lists, a VCN satisfies the fundamental architectural constraint for tenant-level network isolation. This enables workloads to communicate securely while remaining logically segregated from other tenants and external networks.

Why this answer

A VCN is a customizable, private software-defined network that you set up in OCI, resembling a traditional physical network.

6
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO best practices should be followed when designing OCI IAM policies? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Scope policies to specific compartments rather than the tenancy root whenever feasible.
B.Hardcode API signing keys directly into public source code repositories.
C.Grant the minimum permissions necessary for users to perform their jobs (Principle of Least Privilege).
D.Always assign the 'manage all-resources' role to every user to simplify troubleshooting.
E.Use tenancy-wide administrative policies for all standard developers.
AnswersA, C

Scoping IAM policies to specific compartments rather than the tenancy root directly satisfies the principle of least privilege, which is a core security best practice in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure. By restricting permissions to the smallest necessary operational boundary, you limit the blast radius of compromised credentials or misconfigurations. Applying policies at the root compartment grants excessive, unneeded access across all child compartments, whereas compartment-level assignment ensures that principals can only manage or view resources within their designated administrative domain.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because scoping policies to specific compartments rather than the tenancy root follows the OCI best practice of limiting a policy's blast radius; policies written at the tenancy level apply to all compartments and resources, so granting access only where needed reduces unintended exposure. Option C is correct because the Principle of Least Privilege dictates granting only the minimum permissions required for a user's job, which in OCI means using narrowly defined verbs (inspect, read, use, manage) and specific resource types instead of broad grants. Option B is not correct because hardcoding API signing keys into public repositories exposes credentials and violates OCI security guidance to protect and rotate keys.

Option D is not correct because assigning 'manage all-resources' to every user grants excessive, tenancy-wide privileges and directly contradicts least privilege. Option E is not correct because tenancy-wide administrative policies for all standard developers over-privileges them; developer access should be scoped to the compartments and resources they actually need.

Exam trap

The trap is selecting convenience-oriented options (broad permissions, hardcoded keys) over security best practices — candidates must consistently choose least privilege and narrow scoping.

7
MCQmedium

You are setting up OCI Traffic Management Steering Policy with a Failover strategy. You have a primary endpoint in Ashburn and a secondary endpoint in Phoenix. If the primary endpoint fails, how does the steering policy handle incoming DNS queries?

A.It drops all DNS queries until Ashburn recovers.
B.It returns an NXDOMAIN error to the client.
C.It automatically routes all DNS queries to the secondary endpoint in Phoenix.
D.It round-robins queries between both endpoints equally.
AnswerC

Failover steering continuously health-checks the primary Ashburn endpoint; when probes fail, the policy marks it unhealthy and answers DNS queries with the Phoenix secondary's address instead. This satisfies the stem's requirement that traffic redirect automatically on primary failure, with no manual intervention or TTL-based client retry logic involved.

Why this answer

A Failover steering policy routes all traffic to the highest-priority healthy endpoint (Ashburn). If Ashburn fails health checks, it automatically fails over to the secondary endpoint (Phoenix).

8
MCQhard

An OCI architect is configuring a DRG to handle multiple VCN attachments. They want to ensure that VCN-1 can communicate with the on-premises network, but VCN-2 cannot. How should this be configured using DRG route tables?

A.Configure a NAT Gateway on VCN-2 to drop on-premises packets.
B.Associate VCN-1 and VCN-2 attachments with different DRG route tables, ensuring only VCN-1's route table imports routes from the on-premises attachment.
C.Place VCN-1 and VCN-2 in different OCI tenancies.
D.Attach VCN-2 to an Internet Gateway instead of the DRG.
AnswerB

DRG route tables control route import and attachment association independently, so placing VCN-1 and VCN-2 attachments in separate tables lets only VCN-1's table import the on-premises attachment's routes. VCN-2's table then lacks that route, blocking its on-premises communication.

Why this answer

DRG route tables control route import and distribution per attachment, so associating VCN-1 and VCN-2 attachments with different DRG route tables lets you selectively import the on-premises routes only into VCN-1's route table. VCN-2's attachment uses a route table that does not import the on-premises routes, so it has no path to the on-premises network. This is the standard OCI segmentation pattern for DRG v2.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that a NAT Gateway or Internet Gateway can filter traffic between VCNs and on-premises, when in fact DRG route tables are the correct mechanism for selective route propagation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a NAT Gateway provides outbound internet access for private subnets and cannot drop or filter on-premises packets; it has no role in DRG route selection. Option C is wrong because placing VCNs in different tenancies is an extreme, unnecessary isolation measure that breaks centralized management and does not address DRG route table configuration. Option D is wrong because attaching VCN-2 to an Internet Gateway instead of the DRG removes its DRG connectivity entirely and does not selectively block on-premises traffic while preserving other DRG paths.

9
MCQmedium

Your company uses Compute instances deployed across various departments to access OCI Object Storage buckets. Instead of storing API keys on the instances, you decide to use Instance Principals. Which of the following components is NOT required to configure Instance Principals for this workflow?

A.An individual IAM user account created for each compute instance to authenticate API calls.
B.Compute instances launched within OCI that support instance metadata services.
C.An IAM Policy that grants the Dynamic Group permission to access the Object Storage bucket.
D.A Dynamic Group that includes the target Compute instances based on matching rules.
AnswerA

Instance Principals eliminate the need to store static API keys or provision individual IAM user accounts for every compute instance. Instead of creating a dedicated user account per instance to authenticate API calls—which directly violates the requirement to avoid storing credentials on the instances—Oracle Cloud Infrastructure assigns a dynamic identity to the compute resource itself. This mechanism leverages the instance's underlying metadata service to securely obtain temporary security tokens, allowing applications to interact natively with OCI Object Storage without managing long-term credentials.

Why this answer

Instance Principals use dynamic groups to match instances based on tags or compartment OCIDs, and policies to grant permissions. Individual IAM users are never required or created for instance principals.

10
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE statements are true regarding Exadata Cloud Service architecture and capabilities? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.It combines Oracle Database software with Exadata database servers and storage servers in OCI.
B.Storage is managed using Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) across high-performance smart flash and disk storage.
C.It allows you to create multiple VM clusters on a single Exadata infrastructure rack.
D.It does not support Oracle Real Application Clusters (RAC).
E.It only supports single-instance databases with no option for high availability.
AnswersA, B, C

Exadata Cloud Service successfully integrates enterprise-grade Oracle Database software with high-performance Oracle Exadata database servers and storage servers deployed natively within Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI). This architecture directly satisfies the core requirement of the stem by combining the foundational hardware and software stack of Exadata with the elasticity and management capabilities of OCI, allowing database workloads to leverage scale-out database servers and intelligent storage servers featuring high-speed RDMA over Converged Ethernet networking.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because Exadata Cloud Service (ExaCS) in OCI is precisely the combination of Oracle Database software running on dedicated Exadata database servers and Exadata storage servers within Oracle Cloud Infrastructure. Option B is correct because Exadata storage is presented to the database through Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM), which stripes and mirrors data across the Exadata Smart Flash Cache and high-performance disk storage to deliver the platform's characteristic performance and redundancy. Option C is correct because a single Exadata infrastructure rack in OCI can host multiple VM clusters, each running its own Grid Infrastructure and databases, allowing consolidation and isolation on shared Exadata hardware.

Option D is not correct because ExaCS fully supports Oracle Real Application Clusters (RAC) for high availability and scalability. Option E is not correct because ExaCS supports both RAC and single-instance databases, and high availability is a core capability rather than something absent.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that Exadata Cloud Service is limited to single-instance databases without RAC, when RAC and multi-VM-cluster support are foundational to the platform.

11
MCQhard

You have an instance pool with 5 instances. You update the associated instance configuration with a new custom image containing security patches. How do you apply this new configuration to the existing instances in the pool?

A.Delete the instance pool and create a completely new pool, as instance configurations cannot be updated once linked.
B.Use the instance pool update action to trigger a rolling update or instance replacement with the new configuration.
C.Reboot each instance individually via the OS command line.
D.Attach the new custom image directly as a secondary boot volume to all running instances.
AnswerB

The instance pool update action performs a rolling replacement, provisioning new instances from the revised instance configuration while terminating old ones. This applies the patched custom image to all five existing instances without manual intervention, satisfying the stem's requirement to update them.

Why this answer

In OCI, when you update an instance configuration that is attached to an instance pool, the pool does not automatically apply the changes to existing instances. You must explicitly trigger an update on the instance pool, which initiates a rolling replacement of instances according to the pool's update policy (e.g., batch size, wait time). This replaces each instance with a new one built from the updated configuration, ensuring the new custom image and security patches are applied.

The update action is the designed mechanism for propagating configuration changes to a pool's instances.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that updating an instance configuration automatically updates existing instances in the pool, when in fact you must explicitly trigger a pool update to apply changes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because instance configurations can be updated and versioned; deleting the pool is unnecessary and disruptive. Option C is wrong because rebooting an instance does not apply a new image or configuration; it only restarts the existing OS. Option D is wrong because attaching an image as a secondary boot volume does not change the instance's boot source or apply the new configuration; instances boot from their primary boot volume, and secondary volumes are for data, not booting.

12
MCQmedium

An administrator needs to write a policy that grants a group read-only access to all databases across the tenancy. Which resource type should be specified in the policy?

A.database-family
B.db-resources
C.sql-databases
D.databases
AnswerA

The resource type `database-family` encompasses all database services within an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure tenancy, directly satisfying the requirement to grant access across the entire tenancy rather than to a single compartment or specific database instance. By defining the target as `database-family`, the policy evaluates permissions for autonomous databases, database systems, and related database resources globally. This broad scope enables administrators to efficiently provision read-only permissions using verbs like `inspect` or `read` across all existing and future database resources without needing to maintain individual compartment-level statements.

Why this answer

In OCI IAM policy syntax, 'database-family' is the aggregate resource type that encompasses all database-related resources, including Autonomous Databases, DB systems, and related database services. Granting read access to 'database-family' in the tenancy scope provides read-only visibility across all databases in the tenancy. This is the correct resource type to use when a policy must cover the entire database service family rather than a single database resource.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates know the exact OCI resource type names, tempting them to choose plausible-sounding but invalid types like 'databases' or 'db-resources'.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'db-resources' is not a valid OCI IAM resource type; OCI uses specific resource type names such as 'db-systems', 'autonomous-databases', and the aggregate 'database-family'. Option C is wrong because 'sql-databases' is not a recognized OCI IAM resource type — it resembles a generic SQL term rather than an OCI resource family. Option D is wrong because 'databases' is not a valid OCI IAM resource type; the correct aggregate is 'database-family', and using an invalid type causes the policy to have no effect.

13
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE storage options can be used with OCI Compute instances?

Select 3 answers
A.File Storage
B.Local SSD only
C.Block Volume
D.Tape drive
E.Object Storage
AnswersA, C, E

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure File Storage satisfies the requirement for a fully managed network-attached storage solution that can be mounted simultaneously across multiple OCI Compute instances using the industry-standard Network File System version 3 protocol. This capability addresses the compute storage constraint for shared, read-write file access over a virtual cloud network, enabling distributed applications and multi-instance workloads to securely share data concurrently within a designated availability domain without manual infrastructure provisioning.

Why this answer

Block Volume, File Storage, and Object Storage are standard.

14
MCQeasy

A media company stores millions of video files in an OCI Object Storage bucket. The files are accessed frequently for the first 30 days after upload, then rarely accessed but must remain immediately available for 90 days. After 90 days, the files are archived for compliance and can tolerate hours of retrieval latency. The storage administrator needs to minimize storage costs while meeting these access patterns. What should the administrator do?

A.Create a lifecycle policy that transitions objects directly from Standard to Archive after 30 days.
B.Use the OCI Storage Gateway to cache frequently accessed objects on-premises and tier the rest to Archive.
C.Create a lifecycle policy that transitions objects from Standard to Infrequent Access after 30 days, then to Archive after 90 days.
D.Enable object versioning on the bucket and manually move objects to Archive after 90 days.
AnswerC

This lifecycle policy matches the access pattern exactly: Standard for the first 30 days, Infrequent Access for the next 60 days, and Archive thereafter. OCI Object Storage lifecycle policies support multiple transition rules based on object age, and this sequence reduces cost by moving data to cheaper tiers as access frequency drops.

Why this answer

A lifecycle policy that transitions objects from Standard to Infrequent Access after 30 days and then to Archive after 90 days aligns with the access frequency and retrieval latency requirements. It automates cost reduction without manual intervention. The other options either skip the intermediate tier, fail to automate, or introduce irrelevant on-premises caching.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that Archive is suitable for data that must remain immediately available, or that versioning or Storage Gateway can automate tier transitions.

15
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE features are supported by OCI DNS Traffic Management Steering Policies?

Select 3 answers
A.Failover steering
B.Database connection pooling steering
C.Weighted round robin steering
D.Geolocation-based steering
E.Virtual machine hypervisor CPU steering
AnswersA, C, D

Failover steering is natively supported by Oracle Cloud Infrastructure DNS Traffic Management Steering Policies, satisfying the core architectural requirement for high availability and disaster recovery defined in the question stem. This feature continuously monitors the health of designated primary and secondary endpoints through configurable health checks. When a primary endpoint failure is detected, the traffic management policy automatically reroutes incoming DNS queries to the secondary failover resource without requiring manual intervention, thereby ensuring seamless service continuity and minimising downtime for critical cloud workloads.

Why this answer

OCI Traffic Management steering policies support weighted round robin, failover, geolocation, ASN, and load balancer steering.

16
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE statements regarding OCI Network Security Groups (NSGs) vs Security Lists are correct?

Select 3 answers
A.NSGs are mandatory for every subnet, while Security Lists are optional.
B.NSGs apply to a specific set of VNICs of your choice, whereas Security Lists apply to all VNICs in a subnet.
C.Security Lists can span across multiple VCNs, while NSGs cannot.
D.NSG rules can reference other NSGs as sources or destinations.
E.Both Security Lists and NSGs support stateful and stateless rules.
AnswersB, D, E

Network Security Groups achieve this by explicitly associating with individual VNICs through dedicated VNIC-to-NSG membership assignments, allowing administrators to group targets regardless of their subnet placement. Conversely, Security Lists function strictly at the subnet level, automatically applying their ingress and egress rules to every VNIC residing within that specific subnet. This satisfies the architectural constraint regarding targeting flexibility, enabling granular control over specific instances without necessitating subnet redesigns or additional subnets.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because an NSG is a virtual firewall attached to a chosen set of VNICs (you explicitly add VNICs to the NSG), while a Security List is applied at the subnet level and therefore governs every VNIC in that subnet. Option D is correct because NSG security rules can use other NSGs as the source or destination, which lets you write rules based on group membership rather than CIDR blocks. Option E is correct because both Security Lists and NSGs support stateful rules (return traffic automatically allowed) and stateless rules (return traffic must be explicitly allowed).

Option A is wrong because NSGs are optional and Security Lists are the default mechanism automatically associated with a subnet. Option C is wrong because Security Lists are scoped to a single VCN and cannot span multiple VCNs, just as NSGs are VCN-scoped.

17
MCQmedium

You are deploying a new web application on OCI. The application experiences unpredictable traffic spikes, and you want to ensure that the compute instances automatically scale based on CPU utilization. You have created an instance pool with a minimum of 2 and maximum of 10 instances. Which OCI service or feature should you use to achieve automatic scaling?

A.OCI Load Balancer
B.OCI Autoscaling
C.OCI Instance Pool
D.OCI Compute Instance Metrics
AnswerB

OCI Autoscaling automatically adjusts the number of instances in an instance pool based on metrics such as CPU utilization. It integrates with OCI Monitoring to define scaling policies, enabling dynamic response to traffic spikes. This is the correct service for automatic horizontal scaling of compute instances in OCI.

Why this answer

OCI Autoscaling is designed to automatically adjust the number of instances in an instance pool based on performance metrics like CPU utilization. It enables dynamic scaling to handle traffic spikes without manual intervention. The other options provide related functionality but do not perform automatic scaling.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the load balancer or instance pool with the autoscaling service, but only OCI Autoscaling provides the automatic scaling capability.

18
MCQhard

An administrator wants to ensure that a compute instance in a private subnet can communicate with other compute instances in a peered VCN, but cannot initiate outbound connections to the internet. Which combination of components correctly satisfies this requirement?

A.Local Peering Gateway (or DRG) and route table rules pointing to the peer VCN CIDR, with no NAT or Internet Gateway.
B.NAT Gateway and a route table pointing 0.0.0.0/0 to the peer VCN.
C.Service Gateway pointing to the peered VCN CIDR.
D.Internet Gateway attached to the private subnet route table.
AnswerA

Utilising a Local Peering Gateway (or Dynamic Routing Gateway) combined with specific route table entries enables seamless east-west traffic towards the peered Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) via its CIDR block, successfully satisfying the communication requirement. Simultaneously, omitting both an Internet Gateway and a NAT Gateway enforces the negative constraint of the scenario, preventing any outbound north-south traffic from the private subnet to the internet.

Why this answer

To allow peering without internet access, you need a peering connection (LPG or DRG) and proper route table rules pointing to the peer. You should omit any Internet Gateway or NAT Gateway to prevent internet access.

19
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO statements regarding OCI FastConnect virtual circuits are correct?

Select 2 answers
A.Only static routing is supported on FastConnect public virtual circuits.
B.A Private Virtual Circuit allows direct access to your VCN using private IP addresses.
C.You cannot attach a FastConnect virtual circuit to a Dynamic Routing Gateway.
D.FastConnect virtual circuits must traverse the public internet with IPSec encryption.
E.FastConnect requires BGP for dynamic routing across private virtual circuits.
AnswersB, E

A Private Virtual Circuit leverages private IP addresses to establish a secure, dedicated connection between your on-premises data centre and your Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Virtual Cloud Network (VCN). This mechanism directly satisfies the requirement for internal routing by bypassing the public internet entirely, allowing your workloads to communicate using private IPv4 or IPv6 address spaces without requiring public IP allocation or network address translation.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because a Private Virtual Circuit (PVC) on OCI FastConnect provides a private Layer 3 connection between your on-premises network and a VCN, letting you reach resources using their private IP addresses without traversing the public internet. Option E is correct because FastConnect virtual circuits use BGP to exchange routes dynamically between the customer edge (CE) router and the Oracle edge, enabling dynamic routing across private virtual circuits. Option A is wrong because FastConnect public virtual circuits support BGP dynamic routing, not only static routing.

Option C is wrong because a FastConnect virtual circuit is attached to a Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) to reach a VCN. Option D is wrong because FastConnect is a dedicated private connectivity service that does not traverse the public internet and does not require IPSec encryption.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that FastConnect uses the public internet or static routing — candidates may confuse it with VPN, which does traverse the internet and can use static routing.

20
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE actions occur or are required when migrating an OCI compartment containing resources to a new parent compartment? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.All compute instances in the compartment are automatically terminated and restarted.
B.Virtual Cloud Networks must be deleted before moving the compartment.
C.Policies that reference the moved compartment by path may need to be updated.
D.All child compartments and resources within the moved compartment are relocated along with it.
E.The user must have permissions to manage compartments in both the source and destination compartments/tenancy.
AnswersC, D, E

Moving a compartment changes its path, so any policy statement referencing the old path no longer matches the resources inside. Because OCI policies match on compartment path rather than a fixed identifier, you must update those statements to the new path to preserve access.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because IAM policies in OCI reference compartments by name/path (e.g., 'Allow group X to manage instance-family in compartment A:B'), so moving a compartment to a new parent changes its hierarchical path and any policy statements using that path must be updated to remain effective. Option D is correct because moving a compartment in OCI relocates the entire subtree — the compartment itself plus all of its child compartments and the resources contained within them — to the new parent, preserving the internal hierarchy. Option E is correct because the operation requires the caller to have the necessary compartment-management permissions at both the source and destination locations (typically manage compartments in the tenancy or relevant parent compartments) for the move to be authorized.

Option A is incorrect because moving a compartment does not terminate or restart compute instances; resources keep running and simply inherit the new policy path. Option B is incorrect because VCNs and other resources do not need to be deleted before a compartment move; they move along with the compartment.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that moving a compartment disrupts or restarts resources, or that VCNs must be deleted first — in reality the move is non-disruptive but requires policy path updates and dual-location permissions.

21
MCQeasy

Which OCI service feature enables you to run software containers without provisioning virtual machines or managing Kubernetes clusters, offering simple container execution?

A.Container Instances
B.Bare Metal Compute
C.Dedicated VM Hosts
D.Instance Pools
AnswerA

OCI Container Instances provides a serverless execution environment that directly satisfies the requirement to run software containers without provisioning underlying compute virtual machines or managing orchestrators like Kubernetes. By abstracting the infrastructure layer, this service allows you to deploy and scale container groups instantaneously via simple API calls or the console, removing administrative overhead and operational complexity for standalone container workloads.

Why this answer

OCI Container Instances is a serverless compute service that runs containers directly without requiring you to provision VMs or manage a Kubernetes control plane. You supply a container image and OCI handles the underlying infrastructure, making it the simplest container execution option. This matches the question's requirement exactly.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates conflate 'serverless containers' (Container Instances) with 'managed Kubernetes' (OKE) — the phrase 'without managing Kubernetes clusters' is the discriminator.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Bare Metal Compute provides dedicated physical servers — the opposite of serverless and far more management overhead. Option C is wrong because Dedicated VM Hosts give exclusive physical host tenancy for VMs, not a container runtime abstraction. Option D is wrong because Instance Pools manage groups of identical compute instances (VMs/bare metal), not container execution.

22
MCQeasy

Which feature of Autonomous Database allows you to create a point-in-time read-only or read-write copy of your database instantly without duplicating all the underlying physical data blocks?

A.Database Cloning
B.Database backup and restore
C.Manual RMAN duplicate command
D.Data Pump Export and Import
AnswerA

Database Cloning satisfies the requirement by leveraging metadata-based provisioning, which creates a point-in-time copy of the database instantaneously without duplicating underlying physical data blocks. By utilising shared storage architecture and sparse copy-on-write mechanisms, this feature enables the immediate generation of either read-only or read-write clones for tasks such as testing or development. This approach completely avoids the time and storage overhead typically associated with traditional full physical backups or manual data exports.

Why this answer

Database Cloning in Autonomous Database creates a point-in-time copy of the database using copy-on-write technology, so it does not physically duplicate all underlying data blocks at creation time. The clone is immediately available as read-only or read-write, depending on the option chosen.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming any copy mechanism (RMAN duplicate, Data Pump, backup/restore) qualifies as an 'instant clone' — only Database Cloning uses copy-on-write to avoid duplicating all physical blocks.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because backup and restore is a recovery mechanism that restores data to a point in time, not an instant lightweight clone that shares physical blocks. Option C is wrong because a manual RMAN duplicate performs a full physical copy of the database, which duplicates all data blocks and is far slower and more storage-intensive than Autonomous Database cloning. Option D is wrong because Data Pump Export/Import is a logical migration tool that extracts and reloads data, which is slow, requires staging, and does not provide an instant block-sharing clone.

23
MCQhard

You are designing a cross-tenancy architecture where Tenancy A needs to allow a specific group from Tenancy B to manage Object Storage buckets in a specific compartment within Tenancy A. What mechanism must be established in Tenancy A to enable this?

A.Create local user accounts in Tenancy A for every user in Tenancy B's group.
B.Establish a Remote VCN Peering connection between Tenancy A and Tenancy B.
C.Share the Object Storage bucket directly using pre-authenticated requests.
D.Define an IAM policy in Tenancy A endorsing the group from Tenancy B, and a policy in Tenancy B committing to the access.
AnswerD

Cross-tenancy access requires both sides: Tenancy A endorses Tenancy B's group via a policy, and Tenancy B commits to that access. This two-way handshake satisfies the stem's constraint that Tenancy A must establish the mechanism enabling Tenancy B's group.

Why this answer

Cross-tenancy access in OCI requires a two-sided policy arrangement: Tenancy A defines a policy that endorses (names) the group from Tenancy B, and Tenancy B defines a policy that commits its group to the access. Both policies must exist for the cross-tenancy authorization to take effect.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the two-sided nature of cross-tenancy IAM — candidates pick a single-sided policy or a networking/credential workaround instead of the required endorse-plus-commit policy pair.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because creating duplicate local users in Tenancy A defeats the purpose of cross-tenancy identity, creates credential sprawl, and is not the OCI-recommended mechanism. Option B is wrong because Remote VCN Peering is a networking construct for connecting VCNs across tenancies — it has nothing to do with IAM authorization for Object Storage. Option C is wrong because pre-authenticated requests (PARs) are time-limited URLs for anonymous or scoped access to a specific object or bucket, not a mechanism for granting a named group from another tenancy IAM permissions.

24
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO deployment options are available when provisioning an Oracle Autonomous Database? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Shared Exadata Infrastructure
B.Local on-premises hypervisor virtual machines
C.Standard OCI Block Volume multi-attach storage clusters
D.Dedicated Exadata Infrastructure
E.Bare metal single-tenant instances without Exadata infrastructure
AnswersA, D

Provisioning an Oracle Autonomous Database via Shared Exadata Infrastructure satisfies the deployment architecture constraint where multiple tenant workloads are consolidated onto pooled cloud resources managed entirely by Oracle. This model utilises multitenant resource sharing on dedicated Exadata racks, allowing users to rapidly spin up databases without provisioning dedicated hardware instances, thereby directly fulfilling the multi-tenant deployment requirement specified in the stem.

Why this answer

Option A (Shared Exadata Infrastructure) is correct because Oracle Autonomous Database can be provisioned on shared Exadata infrastructure, where the underlying Exadata hardware and Exadata Storage Server software are managed by Oracle and shared across multiple tenants while each database remains isolated. Option D (Dedicated Exadata Infrastructure) is also correct because Autonomous Database supports a dedicated deployment model in which the Exadata infrastructure is single-tenant and provisioned exclusively for one customer, typically via Oracle Exadata Cloud@Customer or dedicated region capacity. Option B is incorrect because Autonomous Database is an Oracle-managed cloud service and is not deployed on customer local on-premises hypervisor virtual machines.

Option C is incorrect because OCI Block Volume multi-attach storage clusters are not a supported deployment substrate for Autonomous Database; the service runs on Exadata infrastructure. Option E is incorrect because Autonomous Database is built on Exadata infrastructure, so a bare metal single-tenant instance without Exadata infrastructure is not an available deployment option.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that Autonomous Database can run on non-Exadata infrastructure or on-premises hypervisors, when in fact only Shared and Dedicated Exadata Infrastructure are valid deployment options.

25
MCQeasy

Which type of compute shape provides the lowest cost per core for general-purpose workloads by utilizing ARM-based Ampere processors?

A.VM.Standard.A1.Flex
B.VM.Standard.E4.Flex
C.BM.DenseIO2.52
D.VM.Standard3.Flex
AnswerA

Ampere ARM-based processors utilise a power-efficient architecture designed specifically to scale out general-purpose workloads linearly while drastically reducing infrastructure expenditure. By leveraging these native ARM cores, the `VM.Standard.A1.Flex` shape directly satisfies the stem's requirement for the lowest cost per core, providing flexible memory and CPU allocation that optimises resource utilisation without paying the traditional licensing and thermal premiums associated with x86-64 alternatives.

Why this answer

VM.Standard.A1.Flex is OCI's Arm-based Ampere Altra compute shape, offering the lowest cost per core for general-purpose workloads. It provides flexible OCPU and memory configurations and is significantly cheaper than x86 equivalents, making it the correct answer for cost-sensitive ARM workloads.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests shape families by processor architecture, so candidates who pick an x86 Flex shape (E4, Standard3) instead of the Arm-based A1 miss the ARM requirement.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because VM.Standard.E4.Flex is an x86 AMD EPYC shape, not ARM-based, and costs more per core than A1. Option C is wrong because BM.DenseIO2.52 is a bare-metal x86 shape optimized for dense local NVMe storage, not a low-cost general-purpose ARM shape. Option D is wrong because VM.Standard3.Flex is an x86 Intel Ice Lake shape, again not ARM-based and priced higher per core than A1.

26
MCQhard

An OCI customer has a VCN with CIDR 10.0.0.0/16. They have deployed a Kubernetes cluster (OKE) where worker nodes are placed in a private subnet. The cluster requires internal service discovery and pod-to-pod communication across different worker subnets. What is required in the subnet route table to support standard OKE cluster networking?

A.A default 'local' route covering the VCN CIDR (10.0.0.0/16) pointing to 'local' target
B.A route pointing to a NAT Gateway for every pod CIDR
C.A Service Gateway for container image downloads
D.A route pointing 0.0.0.0/0 to an Internet Gateway
AnswerA

The VCN's implicit local route, covering 10.0.0.0/16 with target 'local', lets worker nodes in different private subnets exchange pod and service traffic. Without it, cross-subnet communication within the VCN fails, breaking standard OKE cluster networking.

Why this answer

Standard OKE subnets require intra-VCN routing, which is automatically handled by the default local route (10.0.0.0/16 pointing to 'local'), ensuring all subnets within the VCN can communicate freely.

27
MCQhard

An enterprise architecture spans three VCNs in the same OCI region: VCN-Hub (10.0.0.0/16), VCN-Spoke1 (10.1.0.0/16), and VCN-Spoke2 (10.2.0.0/16). You attach all three VCNs to a single Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG). You need to route traffic from Spoke1 to Spoke2 via the Hub VCN (service inspection model). Which DRG feature allows you to achieve this transit routing setup?

A.Local Peering Gateways with cross-region peering attachments
B.DRG route tables and import/export route distribution maps
C.Virtual Circuit FastConnect multipath routing
D.Internet Gateway route translation rules
AnswerB

DRG route tables with import and export distribution maps let you control route propagation between attachments, enabling Spoke1 traffic to transit the Hub VCN before reaching Spoke2. This satisfies the service inspection requirement, which plain VCN attachments cannot achieve.

Why this answer

DRG route tables allow you to customize how traffic flows between attachments. By using DRG attachments and custom route tables on the DRG, you can route traffic from Spoke1 to the Hub VCN attachment, and then from the Hub back out to Spoke2.

28
MCQmedium

You are migrating a legacy application to OCI. The application relies heavily on multicast network traffic to synchronize state between backend nodes. Which OCI networking feature should you configure to support multicast?

A.Attach a NAT Gateway configured for multicast translation.
B.Configure an Internet Gateway with multicast proxy enabled.
C.Enable multicast routing on the Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG).
D.OCI VCNs do not support IP multicast; the application must be redesigned to use unicast.
AnswerD

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Virtual Cloud Networks operate on standard IP routing principles and fundamentally do not support Internet Protocol multicast traffic. Because the legacy application relies on multicast for backend state synchronisation—satisfying the specific constraint in the stem—this network-layer limitation means the architecture cannot be lifted and shifted directly. Consequently, developers must re-architect the application communication model to utilise unicast or publish-subscribe messaging patterns before migrating workloads into OCI.

Why this answer

OCI Virtual Cloud Networks (VCNs) operate at Layer 3 and do not support IP multicast traffic. Application architectures must be redesigned to use unicast or alternative synchronization mechanisms.

29
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements are true regarding OCI IP addresses and VNICs?

Select 2 answers
A.Private IP addresses are permanent and can never be unassigned from a VNIC.
B.A VNIC can only belong to one subnet at a time, but can span multiple VCNs.
C.VNICs in private subnets can be assigned public IP addresses directly.
D.Every VNIC is assigned at least one primary private IP address.
E.A VNIC can have multiple secondary private IP addresses assigned to it.
AnswersD, E

Virtual Network Interface Cards in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure operate on a fundamental architectural constraint requiring every active VNIC to possess a primary private IPv4 address at creation. This mandatory allocation binds the virtual interface directly to a subnet within a Virtual Cloud Network, enabling essential internal routing and communication across the cloud topology. Therefore, stating that every VNIC is assigned at least one primary private IP address directly satisfies the core requirement specified in the stem regarding foundational IP and VNIC mechanics.

Why this answer

Every VNIC has a primary private IP address assigned from its subnet CIDR block, and can optionally have secondary private IP addresses and public IP addresses (ephemeral or reserved).

30
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions should you take to troubleshoot an OCI compute instance that has become completely unresponsive and unreachable over SSH? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Delete the VCN and recreate all networking subnets.
B.Log into the physical data center and connect a physical keyboard to the server rack.
C.Reinstall the OCI tenancy IAM security policies.
D.Access the instance via the Serial Console connection to inspect system logs and kernel messages.
E.Check OCI Monitoring metrics to determine if CPU, memory, or network utilization caused a bottleneck or crash.
AnswersD, E

When an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure compute instance becomes completely unresponsive and unreachable over standard network channels such as SSH, establishing an out-of-band communication channel is essential for root-cause analysis. Accessing the instance via the Serial Console connection bypasses the guest operating system's network stack entirely, allowing you to directly view kernel panics, bootloader sequences, and system logs streamed straight from the hypervisor. This satisfies the constraint of diagnosing an unreachable instance without relying on functioning network interfaces or Secure Shell daemons.

Why this answer

Option D is correct because the OCI Serial Console provides out-of-band access to the instance's console even when SSH and networking are unresponsive, allowing you to inspect boot messages, kernel panics, and system logs to diagnose the hang. Option E is correct because OCI Monitoring metrics (CPU utilization, memory, network traffic) can reveal resource exhaustion or a bottleneck that caused the instance to become unresponsive, guiding further troubleshooting. Option A is wrong because deleting the VCN and recreating subnets is a destructive networking change that would not fix a compute-level hang and would disrupt other resources.

Option B is wrong because OCI compute instances are cloud-hosted; customers have no physical access to the data center or server racks. Option C is wrong because reinstalling IAM security policies addresses authorization issues, not an unresponsive instance, and would not restore SSH or console access.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests troubleshooting steps for unresponsive instances, and candidates incorrectly choose physical access or drastic network changes instead of using Serial Console and Monitoring.

31
MCQmedium

You are managing a Kubernetes cluster on OCI (OKE) and need to upgrade the Kubernetes control plane version. What happens to the existing worker nodes when you perform a control plane upgrade?

A.The cluster becomes completely inaccessible, and all pods are evicted permanently.
B.Control plane upgrades are blocked until all worker nodes are upgraded first.
C.All worker nodes are automatically terminated and recreated with the new version.
D.Worker nodes continue to run workloads, but you must manually or via node pool upgrades bring them to the matching version.
AnswerD

Control plane upgrades in OKE replace the managed API server components while worker nodes remain untouched, so existing pods keep running on their current kubelet version. The stem's requirement is version parity: nodes do not auto-upgrade, so you must reconcile them through node pool upgrades or manual cycling to match the new control plane.

Why this answer

When you upgrade the Kubernetes control plane on OKE, the existing worker nodes are not automatically upgraded. They continue running workloads, but you must upgrade them separately — either manually or by upgrading the node pool — to match the control plane version. This is the correct behavior for OKE control plane upgrades.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the assumption that upgrading the control plane automatically upgrades worker nodes, when in fact they are upgraded independently.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the cluster remains accessible during a control plane upgrade; OKE performs a rolling upgrade of control plane components with minimal disruption. Option B is wrong because OKE allows control plane upgrades before worker nodes; in fact, the control plane must be upgraded first or in parallel, not blocked by worker nodes. Option C is wrong because worker nodes are not terminated automatically; they persist until you initiate a node pool upgrade.

32
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO pieces of information are required when configuring an OCI IAM Identity Provider for SAML federation? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The physical rack serial number in the data center
B.The SAML 2.0 metadata XML file provided by the external Identity Provider
C.The root compartment database sysadmin password
D.A unique name for the Identity Provider within OCI IAM
E.The local VCN CIDR block
AnswersB, D

Importing the SAML 2.0 metadata XML file directly satisfies the requirement for configuration data because it automatically supplies the external Identity Provider's entity ID, single sign-on service URL, and X.509 signing certificate in a single structured payload. This removes the need for manual endpoint entry, allowing Oracle Cloud Infrastructure IAM to immediately establish a trusted trust relationship and correctly parse incoming Security Assertion Markup Language assertions from systems like Microsoft Entra ID or Okta.

Why this answer

Configuring a SAML 2.0 IdP requires the IdP metadata XML file (or metadata URL) and a name for the IdP in OCI.

33
MCQeasy

What is the primary benefit of using OCI Container Instances compared to managing containers on OCI Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE)?

A.Container Instances offer lower pricing for long-running enterprise microservices than OKE.
B.Container Instances allow direct access to bare metal hypervisors.
C.Container Instances support multi-cluster service meshes and advanced ingress controllers.
D.Container Instances allow you to run containers directly without managing servers, clusters, or orchestrators.
AnswerD

OCI Container Instances provide a serverless compute model that abstracts away underlying infrastructure management, directly satisfying the operational constraint of avoiding server, cluster, and orchestrator overhead. Unlike OCI Container Engine for Kubernetes, which requires explicit configuration of worker nodes, node pools, and complex control-plane scaling, Container Instances allow you to deploy container groups directly onto hypervisor-isolated bare metal infrastructure. This design removes operational maintenance tasks such as OS patching, cluster upgrades, and node lifecycle management, offering a streamlined approach for running standalone container workloads.

Why this answer

OCI Container Instances is a serverless container runtime that lets you launch a container directly without provisioning or managing any compute host, cluster, or orchestrator. It is designed for simple, short-lived or bursty workloads where the overhead of running and patching an OKE cluster is not justified. This directly matches option D, which describes the core value proposition of the service.

Exam trap

The trap here is conflating 'serverless containers' with 'cheaper Kubernetes'; candidates pick the pricing option because they assume serverless always means lower cost, when the real differentiator is the absence of cluster management.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Container Instances is not positioned as a cheaper alternative for long-running enterprise microservices; OKE with reserved capacity or autoscaling is typically more cost-effective at scale, and Container Instances bills per-second for the underlying compute. Option B is wrong because Container Instances abstracts the hypervisor entirely; customers never get direct access to bare metal hypervisors, and bare metal is a separate OCI Compute shape offering. Option C is wrong because multi-cluster service meshes and advanced ingress controllers are Kubernetes/OKE features; Container Instances has no cluster, no service mesh, and no ingress controller concept.

34
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE actions should you take when preparing a custom Linux VM image for export and import across OCI tenancies or regions? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Embed tenancy administrator API signing keys in plaintext within `/etc/passwd`.
B.Remove persistent network interface rules (such as udev network interface mapping rules).
C.Format all root partitions using proprietary Windows NTFS file systems.
D.Ensure cloud-init is installed and properly configured to handle first-boot initialization.
E.Verify that the image format is either QCOW2 or RAW before exporting to Object Storage.
AnswersB, D, E

Removing persistent network interface rules, such as `udev` persistent net generator rules, directly satisfies the cross-tenancy and cross-region export constraint by preventing the VM image from binding its network interface configuration to the MAC address of the source hypervisor. When you import the image into a target OCI tenancy or region, the new virtual machine is provisioned with a different MAC address. Retaining old `udev` rules causes the guest operating system to fail to map the primary VNIC correctly, resulting in complete loss of network connectivity upon first boot.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because persistent udev network interface mapping rules (e.g., /etc/udev/rules.d/70-persistent-net.rules) bind NIC names to MAC addresses of the source environment; removing them lets the imported VM re-enumerate interfaces and get the correct names in the new tenancy or region. Option D is correct because cloud-init performs first-boot initialization such as setting hostname, injecting SSH keys, configuring networking, and running user-data, which is essential for the instance to be reachable and properly configured after import. Option E is correct because OCI accepts custom images in QCOW2 or RAW format when exporting to or importing from Object Storage, so the image must be in one of these supported formats.

Option A is wrong because embedding tenancy administrator API signing keys in plaintext in /etc/passwd is a severe security violation and is never a valid preparation step. Option C is wrong because Linux root partitions use native Linux filesystems such as ext4, XFS, or Btrfs, not the proprietary Windows NTFS format.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that any VM image can be imported as-is, when in fact OCI requires specific format (QCOW2/RAW), cloud-init, and removal of hardware-specific udev rules.

35
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE components are required when setting up OCI Functions to build, push, and deploy a serverless function? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.An active File Storage Service mount target attached directly to the function registry
B.A dedicated Bare Metal compute instance running Kubernetes master nodes
C.The Fn Project CLI tool installed on your machine or cloud shell
D.An OCI Functions Application acting as a logical grouping
E.An Oracle Container Registry (OCIR) repository to store container images
AnswersC, D, E

The Fn Project CLI tool provides the essential command-line interface required to initialise, build, and push function container images to the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Registry. This utility satisfies the requirement for a local or cloud-based development environment to manage the lifecycle of serverless code. Without this specific binary, developers cannot package their source code into OCI-compliant images or execute the necessary API calls to deploy functions, making it a fundamental prerequisite for the entire serverless deployment workflow.

Why this answer

Option C is correct because the Fn Project CLI (fn) is the primary tool used to initialize, build, push, and deploy functions to OCI Functions, and it must be installed on the developer's machine or used via OCI Cloud Shell. Option D is correct because an OCI Functions Application is a logical grouping of functions that provides the namespace and configuration context in which functions are created and deployed. Option E is correct because OCI Functions packages each function as a Docker container image, and that image must be pushed to and stored in an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Registry (OCIR) repository before it can be deployed.

Option A is not required because File Storage Service mount targets are unrelated to the function build/push/deploy workflow and are not attached to a function registry. Option B is not required because OCI Functions is a fully managed serverless service; customers do not provision or manage Bare Metal instances or Kubernetes master nodes themselves.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates know OCI Functions is serverless — the trap is picking answers that imply you must manage Kubernetes or bare metal infrastructure, which contradicts the serverless model.

36
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO statements are true regarding the behavior of dynamic groups and instance principals? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Instance principals only function when connected to an on-premise Active Directory domain controller.
B.Dynamic groups require human users to manually approve every API call made by the instance.
C.Compute instances must have static username and password credentials configured in their environment variables.
D.Instance principals allow compute instances to make API calls to OCI services securely without storing credentials on the instance.
E.Dynamic groups are used to group instances together so IAM policies can grant them permissions.
AnswersD, E

Instance principals leverage OCI Security Token Service (STS) to issue short-lived X.509 certificates automatically managed by the control plane, satisfying the core security requirement to authenticate compute instances to OCI services securely without embedding static API keys, passwords, or configuration files directly on the local file system.

Why this answer

Instance principals allow compute instances to make API calls securely without managing credentials, authorized via dynamic groups and policies.

37
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO networking services or features in OCI can be used to restrict incoming traffic to specific compute instances?

Select 2 answers
A.Security Lists
B.Service Gateway
C.Dynamic Routing Gateway
D.Network Security Groups (NSGs)
E.Internet Gateway
AnswersA, D

Security Lists function as virtual firewalls at the subnet level, enforcing ingress and egress rules that filter packets based on source IP, destination port, and protocol. By applying these stateful rules to the subnet associated with your compute instances, you directly satisfy the requirement to restrict incoming traffic. This mechanism provides granular control over network traffic flow, ensuring that only authorised connections reach the specific instances while blocking all other unauthorised attempts at the network boundary.

Why this answer

Security Lists (at the subnet level) and Network Security Groups (at the VNIC level) are the two primary virtual firewall features used in OCI to control ingress and egress traffic.

38
MCQhard

You are managing a large OKE cluster and notice that pods are failing to schedule because the worker nodes have run out of ephemeral storage. What is the most robust architectural solution to address this?

A.Change the VCN MTU size from 9000 to 1500.
B.Attach a Block Volume to the Kubernetes control plane nodes.
C.Restart the Kubernetes API server.
D.Increase the size of the worker node boot volumes in the node pool configuration or add node pools with larger boot volumes.
AnswerD

Ephemeral storage on OKE worker nodes is backed by the boot volume, so enlarging boot volumes in the node pool configuration raises the kubelet's allocatable ephemeral-storage capacity, letting pods schedule again. This addresses the constraint at its source rather than per-pod workarounds.

Why this answer

Pods failing to schedule due to exhausted ephemeral storage on worker nodes are best addressed by increasing the boot volume size of the worker nodes in the node pool configuration, or by adding node pools with larger boot volumes. Ephemeral storage on OKE worker nodes is backed by the boot volume, so expanding it directly increases the capacity available to pods for emptyDir, logs, and container writable layers. This is the most robust architectural fix because it addresses the root capacity constraint.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates confuse network MTU tuning with storage capacity issues, leading them to pick the MTU change as a fix for ephemeral storage exhaustion.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because changing VCN MTU from 9000 to 1500 affects network packet fragmentation and throughput, not ephemeral storage capacity, and would not resolve scheduling failures. Option B is wrong because attaching a Block Volume to Kubernetes control plane nodes is not a supported or relevant action; control plane nodes are managed by OCI and do not run user pods. Option C is wrong because restarting the Kubernetes API server does not add storage capacity and would only temporarily disrupt scheduling without fixing the underlying resource exhaustion.

39
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting a custom OCI compute image that fails to boot properly after launching an instance. The instance gets stuck in a pre-boot state. Where can you view serial console logs to diagnose the low-level boot sequence and kernel panic messages?

A.Object Storage boot bucket logs
B.OCI Logging service via custom log agents
C.OCI Compute Instance Serial Console connection
D.OCI Monitoring service under instance metrics
AnswerC

Accessing the OCI Compute Instance Serial Console connection is necessary because the instance is stuck in a pre-boot state and cannot reach the operating system level, preventing standard SSH access or the Oracle Cloud Agent from functioning. The serial console establishes a direct terminal connection to the underlying hypervisor's virtual serial port, bypassing network configuration and guest OS limitations. This enables you to interact with GRUB, observe early-stage kernel initialisation, and diagnose low-level boot sequence errors or kernel panics during custom image troubleshooting.

Why this answer

The OCI Compute Instance Serial Console connection provides access to the instance's serial console, which captures low-level boot messages, GRUB output, and kernel panic messages before the OS networking stack is up. This is the correct place to diagnose a custom image that fails in a pre-boot state. It works even when the instance has no network connectivity or SSH access.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests troubleshooting tools by offering Logging and Monitoring as plausible answers; candidates forget that pre-boot failures occur before any agent or metric pipeline can run, leaving the serial console as the only viable source.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Object Storage boot buckets do not exist as a logging mechanism; boot volumes are block storage, not object storage, and they do not emit serial logs. Option B is wrong because OCI Logging with custom log agents requires the OS to be running and the agent installed, which is impossible when the instance is stuck pre-boot. Option C is correct.

Option D is wrong because OCI Monitoring instance metrics report CPU, memory, and network statistics, not boot sequence or kernel messages.

40
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE factors should you evaluate when determining whether to use an Oracle Base Database System versus Exadata Cloud Service?

Select 3 answers
A.Requirement for MySQL compatibility in the Oracle database kernel
B.Need for Exadata-specific features such as Smart Scan and Hybrid Columnar Compression
C.Whether the operating system must be Microsoft Windows or Linux
D.Workload performance, I/O throughput, and scalability requirements
E.Budget and cost constraints, as Exadata infrastructure has a higher entry cost than single VM base systems
AnswersB, D, E

Exadata-specific storage optimisations directly address the architectural requirement for advanced data processing capabilities, satisfying the evaluation factor concerning workloads that demand enterprise-grade performance features. Oracle Exadata Cloud Service incorporates smart storage servers capable of offloading SQL processing from database nodes directly to the storage tier via Exadata Smart Scan, alongside Hybrid Columnar Compression (HCC) for substantial storage reduction. Standard Oracle Base Database Systems utilise conventional storage volumes and lack these hardware-accelerated optimisations, making this feature dependency a primary differentiator when you evaluate database platform architectures.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because Exadata Cloud Service is the only platform that delivers Exadata-specific capabilities such as Smart Scan, Storage Indexes, and Hybrid Columnar Compression, so a requirement for those features forces the Exadata choice. Option D is correct because Exadata's scale-out architecture, RDMA over Converged Ethernet (RoCE) fabric, and NVMe flash provide far higher I/O throughput and scalability than a single-VM Oracle Base Database System, making workload performance and growth the primary technical discriminator. Option E is correct because Exadata infrastructure carries a substantially higher entry cost (dedicated Exadata quarter/half racks or Exadata Cloud@Customer) than a base system built on a single VM or bare-metal shape, so budget and cost constraints directly influence the decision.

Option A is not a valid factor because MySQL compatibility is not a kernel feature of Oracle Database and is irrelevant to choosing between these two Oracle Database services. Option C is not a valid factor because both Oracle Base Database System and Exadata Cloud Service run on Oracle Linux (and Exadata is not offered on Microsoft Windows), so the OS choice does not differentiate them.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates confuse OS or database-engine compatibility with the actual differentiators — the real decision factors are Exadata-specific features, workload performance/scalability, and cost.

41
MCQeasy

You need to create a compute instance in OCI that requires a specific custom image. You have already imported the custom image into OCI. Which compute instance launch option allows you to select this custom image?

A.Shape
B.Boot volume
C.Virtual cloud network
D.Image
AnswerD

During instance launch, the Image source option lets you choose from platform images, custom images, or marketplace images. Selecting your imported custom image here ensures the instance boots with your desired configuration. This is the correct place to specify a custom image.

Why this answer

When launching a compute instance, the Image source option is where you select the operating system image, including custom images. The other options configure different aspects of the instance, such as networking or hardware, but not the image.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the boot volume option with image selection, but the image must be chosen explicitly in the image source section.

42
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE attributes can be evaluated in an OCI dynamic group matching rule for compute instances? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.The operating system user password hash
B.Compartment OCID (instance.compartment.id)
C.Instance OCID (instance.id)
D.Tags applied to the instance (tag.namespace.tagkey)
E.The public IP address of the user launching the instance
AnswersB, C, D

The `instance.compartment.id` attribute satisfies the requirement to evaluate compute instance attributes within a dynamic group matching rule by referencing the Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) OCID of the compartment where the resource resides. OCI Identity and Access Management (IAM) evaluates this attribute directly against the metadata of incoming requests, enabling administrators to construct precise rules that group all compute instances launched within a specific compartment, thereby streamlining access policies based on resource topology.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because instance.compartment.id is a valid variable in OCI dynamic group matching rules, allowing rules to match compute instances based on the OCID of the compartment they reside in. Option C is correct because instance.id is a supported variable that matches a specific compute instance by its OCID. Option D is correct because tag.namespace.tagkey is a valid matching-rule variable, enabling rules to match instances based on defined tags applied to them.

Option A is incorrect because dynamic group matching rules cannot evaluate operating system user password hashes, as these are not OCI resource metadata. Option E is incorrect because the public IP address of the user launching the instance is not a supported attribute in dynamic group matching rules.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests whether candidates know that dynamic group rules match on the instance's own attributes (OCID, compartment OCID, tags) — not on the launcher's IP, OS credentials, or other external properties.

43
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE things must be configured to use Logging Analytics?

Select 3 answers
A.Load Balancer
B.Database instance
C.Log Source
D.Log Group
E.Entity
AnswersC, D, E

To satisfy the requirement of parsing unstructured or semi-structured log data into meaningful fields within Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Logging Analytics, configuring a Log Source is mandatory. A Log Source defines the parser, such as regular expressions or grok patterns, and the associated entity type, dictating how raw payload strings are translated into structured columns for querying and dashboard visualisation. Without defining and assigning this mapping rule, the service cannot ingest or interpret incoming telemetry from your configured log groups.

Why this answer

Logging Analytics requires a log group, a log source, and an entity.

44
MCQhard

You manage an instance pool backed by an autoscaling configuration. The pool reaches its maximum limit of 10 instances due to a traffic spike. A hardware maintenance event triggers a retirement notification for one of the instances in the pool. How does OCI Instance Pools with Autoscaling handle this retired instance?

A.The instance is terminated, and a new instance is provisioned to replace it, temporarily exceeding the maximum limit if necessary until scaling rules scale it back down.
B.The instance is terminated and not replaced because the pool is already at its maximum limit.
C.The instance is replaced automatically by the instance pool to maintain the operational state, managing lifecycle events independently of active autoscaling metrics.
D.The autoscaling configuration must be manually edited to increase the max limit before the instance can be replaced.
AnswerC

Instance pools manage the lifecycle of instances to ensure the target number of instances are operational, substituting retired instances seamlessly.

Why this answer

Instance pools automatically replace unhealthy or retired instances to maintain the desired capacity. If an instance is retired, the pool provisions a new instance to replace it, even if autoscaling has reached its maximum size, because minimum/desired capacity rules take precedence over instance retirement recovery.

45
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of an OCI NAT Gateway?

A.To allow private subnet instances to initiate outbound connections to the internet while blocking inbound connections.
B.To peer two VCNs in the same region.
C.To allow inbound internet traffic to reach private database instances securely.
D.To connect on-premises datacenters to OCI VCNs.
AnswerA

An Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Network Address Translation (NAT) Gateway satisfies the constraint of allowing private subnet instances to initiate outbound connections to the internet while blocking unsolicited inbound connections. It achieves this by performing source network address translation on traffic originating from resources lacking public IP addresses, rewriting their private IP addresses to the gateway's public IP address for egress routing. Crucially, stateful firewall tracking ensures that only return traffic associated with established outbound sessions is permitted back through, effectively shielding internal workloads from external threats.

Why this answer

A NAT Gateway enables instances in a private subnet to initiate outbound connections to the internet (e.g., for software patches) without accepting inbound connections from the internet.

46
MCQhard

Which service should you use to migrate physical data centers to OCI via physical hardware shipping?

A.Storage Gateway
B.Data Transfer Service
C.FastConnect
D.Object Storage replication
AnswerB

Migrating entire physical data centres involves transferring massive volumes of enterprise data where network bandwidth is either too constrained or too slow to make online transmission viable. The Data Transfer Service satisfies this specific throughput constraint by allowing organisations to securely copy data onto physical storage appliances provided by Oracle, which are then physically shipped to an OCI data centre for ingestion. This hardware-shipping mechanism bypasses internet latency limitations entirely, making it the optimal choice for large-scale data migration projects.

Why this answer

Data Transfer Service uses physical appliances to move data.

47
MCQeasy

An OCI administrator needs to ensure that infrequently accessed data stored in an Object Storage bucket automatically transitions to Archive Storage after 90 days to reduce costs. Which feature should the administrator configure?

A.Object Storage Replication Policy
B.Object Storage Lifecycle Policy
C.OCI Data Transfer Service
D.Block Volume Backup Policy
AnswerB

A lifecycle policy defines rules that automatically transition objects between storage tiers, such as moving infrequently accessed data to Archive Storage after 90 days. It satisfies the stem's requirement for automatic, cost-reducing tiering without manual intervention.

Why this answer

Object Storage Lifecycle Policy rules can be created to automatically transition objects from Standard storage to Infrequent Access or Archive Storage based on a specified number of days since creation or modification.

48
MCQeasy

What is the function of the OCI IAM 'inspect' verb?

A.It allows users to inspect security vulnerabilities on compute instances.
B.It allows users to create, update, and delete resources.
C.It allows users to list resources of a given type without viewing their contents or configuration details.
D.It allows users to download object storage bucket files.
AnswerC

The 'inspect' verb in OCI Identity and Access Management satisfies the precise requirement to enumerate resources without exposing sensitive metadata by granting permission solely to list resources of a specified type. Unlike the 'read' verb, which permits viewing full configuration details and resource contents, or 'use' and 'manage' which allow operational changes, 'inspect' operates strictly at the metadata enumeration layer. This aligns directly with the stem constraint, enabling users to verify resource existence and identifiers across compartments while enforcing the principle of least privilege regarding detailed object properties.

Why this answer

The OCI IAM 'inspect' verb grants permission to list resources of a given type — for example, seeing that a compute instance exists — but it does not permit viewing the resource's contents, configuration, or metadata. It is the lowest-privilege verb in the OCI verb hierarchy, sitting below 'read'. This makes it ideal for scenarios where a user needs inventory visibility without access to sensitive configuration details.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the misconception that 'inspect' and 'read' are interchangeable, when in fact 'inspect' only lists resources and 'read' is required to view their contents or configuration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'inspect' is an IAM authorization verb, not a vulnerability-scanning feature; OCI uses Cloud Guard and Vulnerability Scanning Service for that purpose. Option B is wrong because create, update, and delete operations require the 'manage' verb, not 'inspect'. Option D is wrong because downloading object storage files requires 'read' or 'use' on the 'objects' resource-type, not the 'inspect' verb.

49
MCQmedium

You want to notify an external HTTP endpoint whenever an alarm fires. What should you do?

A.Create a custom script in Cloud Shell
B.Create an HTTPS subscription for the Topic
C.Use a Service Connector to push data
D.Configure an Event rule
AnswerB

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Notifications service natively integrates with HTTPS endpoints by supporting subscription types that deliver JSON-formatted alarm payloads directly over the web. To satisfy the requirement of notifying an external HTTP endpoint, creating an HTTPS subscription on the designated OCI Notification Topic establishes a secure, protocol-compliant web-hook mechanism. This configuration ensures that when an alarm transitions to a firing state, the service automatically initiates a POST request to the specified URL, transmitting the complete event metadata without requiring intermediary bridging services or custom polling scripts.

Why this answer

Create a subscription for your notification topic using the HTTPS protocol.

50
MCQmedium

Your development team needs to access an Autonomous Transaction Processing (ATP) database instance securely over the internet. What artifact must be downloaded and distributed to clients to establish a secure, encrypted connection?

A.A Client Credentials Wallet (wallet.zip) file
B.An Identity and Access Management (IAM) API signing key
C.An SSH Private Key (.ppk) file
D.A Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) master key file
AnswerA

The Client Credentials Wallet (wallet.zip) contains the mTLS certificates, private key, and connection strings ATP requires for encrypted internet access. Downloading it from the OCI Console and distributing it to clients satisfies the stem's secure-connection constraint, since Autonomous Transaction Processing enforces mutual TLS rather than password-only authentication.

Why this answer

To connect to an Autonomous Transaction Processing (ATP) database over the internet with encryption, clients must use a Client Credentials Wallet (wallet.zip). This wallet contains the credentials, connection strings (tnsnames.ora, sqlnet.ora), and the SSL/TLS certificates required for mutual TLS (mTLS) authentication. It is downloaded from the OCI Console and distributed to each client that needs secure access.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the distinction between authentication artifacts — candidates confuse IAM signing keys (for OCI API) with wallet files (for database mTLS), or assume SSH keys are used for database access.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because an IAM API signing key is used for authenticating to OCI APIs (e.g., oci-cli, SDKs), not for database connections. Option C is wrong because an SSH private key is for secure shell access to compute instances, not for Oracle Net database connections. Option D is wrong because the TDE master key is managed internally by Oracle and never downloaded or distributed to clients — it encrypts data at rest, not connections in transit.

51
MCQhard

Your development team deployed a three-tier application in an OCI VCN. You need to restrict database instances so they only accept incoming traffic from specific application instances, regardless of which subnet the application instances reside in. Which OCI networking feature should you use?

A.Local Peering Gateway (LPG) access control lists
B.Security Lists associated with the database subnet
C.Network Security Groups (NSGs)
D.Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) security policies
AnswerC

NSGs apply security rules to a set of VNICs you choose, independent of subnet CIDR, so database instances accept traffic only from the named application instances wherever they reside. Security lists cannot express this, as they act at subnet level.

Why this answer

Network Security Groups (NSGs) allow you to group VNICs of a similar security posture (like the application tier) and apply security rules to them, independent of subnet boundaries.

52
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO characteristics apply to the OCI File Storage Service (FSS)?

Select 2 answers
A.FSS is designed exclusively for single-instance high-performance computing (HPC) boot volumes.
B.Data in FSS is encrypted at rest by default.
C.FSS file systems can be natively mounted across multiple OCI regions simultaneously over the public internet.
D.Snapshots created in FSS consume additional baseline storage that must be explicitly pre-allocated.
E.File systems automatically grow and shrink dynamically as files are added or deleted, without requiring manual capacity provisioning.
AnswersB, E

OCI File Storage Service encrypts all file systems at rest by default using AES-256, with keys managed by Oracle or customer-managed via the Vault service. This satisfies the stem's requirement for a genuine FSS characteristic, since encryption is applied automatically at creation without any manual configuration.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because OCI File Storage Service encrypts all file system data at rest by default using Oracle-managed keys, with the option to use customer-managed keys in Vault, so no extra configuration is needed to get encryption. Option E is correct because FSS file systems are elastic: they automatically expand and shrink as data is written or deleted, and you are billed only for the storage actually used rather than a pre-provisioned capacity. Option A is wrong because FSS is a shared, network-attached NFS file system, not a block storage service for single-instance HPC boot volumes (that role belongs to Block Volume).

Option C is wrong because an FSS file system is mounted within its own region and availability domain via a mount target; it is not natively mounted across multiple regions simultaneously over the public internet. Option D is wrong because FSS snapshots are space-efficient and consume storage only for changed data, and they do not require pre-allocated baseline capacity.

53
MCQmedium

You want to deploy an OCI Function and test it locally on your developer workstation before pushing it to Oracle Functions Registry. Which command in the fn CLI initializes a new function project template?

A.fn deploy --local
B.fn build local
C.fn create function
D.fn init
AnswerD

The `fn init` command directly satisfies the requirement to initialise a new function project template on your developer workstation prior to deployment. By appending the `--runtime` flag alongside a specified language such as Python, Java, or Node.js, this command generates the foundational boilerplate structure, including the `func.yaml` configuration file, necessary source code files, and a `requirements` or dependency file. This local scaffolding mechanism allows developers to build, run, and test serverless functions locally using the Fn Project CLI before pushing the container image to the Oracle Functions Registry.

Why this answer

The 'fn init' command initializes a new function project by scaffolding the required directory structure, including func.yaml, func.py (or other runtime handler), and requirements.txt. It is the first step before building or deploying a function with the fn CLI.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the exact fn CLI subcommands, and candidates confuse 'fn init' (scaffold project) with 'fn create' (create app/function in OCI) or 'fn deploy' (push to registry).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'fn deploy --local' deploys an already-initialized function to a local Fn server, not initialize a new project template. Option B is wrong because 'fn build local' is not a valid fn CLI command for project initialization; build compiles the function image but requires an existing project. Option C is wrong because 'fn create function' is not the correct syntax for scaffolding a new project; the fn CLI uses 'fn init' for project creation and 'fn create app' for application creation.

54
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are valid deployment models for Oracle Autonomous Database in OCI?

Select 2 answers
A.Autonomous Database on Local Block Storage
B.Autonomous Database on Local On-Premises Linux Server
C.Autonomous Database on Shared Infrastructure
D.Autonomous Database on Standalone Bare Metal VM
E.Autonomous Database on Dedicated Exadata Infrastructure
AnswersC, E

Oracle Autonomous Database on Shared Infrastructure successfully satisfies the deployment model requirement by utilising multitenant container database architecture, where compute and storage resources are pooled and shared across multiple tenant workloads. This model achieves high resource utilisation and elastic scaling on OCI by abstracting underlying infrastructure management while maintaining strict logical isolation between different database tenants.

Why this answer

Option C, Autonomous Database on Shared Infrastructure, is correct because Oracle offers ADB in a shared (serverless) deployment model where the Exadata infrastructure and database are managed by Oracle and shared across tenants, with the customer only provisioning the database. Option E, Autonomous Database on Dedicated Exadata Infrastructure, is also correct because Oracle provides a dedicated deployment model where the customer provisions an Exadata Cloud@Customer or dedicated Exadata infrastructure in OCI, giving isolated, single-tenant Exadata hardware for the Autonomous Database. Options A and D are not valid because Oracle does not offer ADB on local block storage or on a standalone bare metal VM as named deployment models.

Option B is not valid because Autonomous Database is not deployed on a customer's local on-premises Linux server; on-premises deployment is only available via Exadata Cloud@Customer, not a generic Linux server.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between deployment models and infrastructure types, leading candidates to select options that sound plausible but are not official Oracle offerings, such as 'Local Block Storage' or 'Standalone Bare Metal VM'.

55
MCQmedium

You are deploying an application on OCI Functions. The function requires external Python packages that are not part of the standard library. How should you include these dependencies?

A.Install them manually via SSH on the function's underlying compute node after deployment.
B.Include the dependencies in the requirements.txt file within the function directory before building and deploying.
C.Upload the packages as objects to Object Storage and configure the function to download them at runtime.
D.Store them in an OCI Vault and reference them as environment variables.
AnswerB

OCI Functions builds the deployment image from the function directory, installing packages listed in requirements.txt. Declaring external Python packages there ensures the build step resolves and bundles them, making the dependencies available at runtime without manual vendoring.

Why this answer

OCI Functions builds a container image from your function code and installs dependencies listed in requirements.txt during the build phase. Placing external Python packages in requirements.txt ensures they are bundled into the deployment artifact and available at runtime. This is the standard, supported method for including non-standard libraries.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests serverless dependency management — candidates propose runtime downloads or manual installs, not realizing that requirements.txt is the build-time bundling mechanism.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because OCI Functions is a serverless platform; you cannot SSH into the underlying compute nodes, and any manual changes would be lost on scale or redeploy. Option C is wrong because downloading packages at runtime adds latency, requires network access and IAM policies, and is not the intended dependency mechanism. Option D is wrong because OCI Vault stores secrets, not Python packages, and environment variables cannot hold package binaries.

56
MCQhard

Your security team has implemented a policy that restricts access to Object Storage to requests originating from a specific dynamic group. However, a developer test script fails with a 403 Forbidden error even though the script runs on an instance in that dynamic group. Upon inspecting audit logs, you find that the API call was made using user credentials rather than instance principals. Why did the authorization fail?

A.The compute instance must have port 443 blocked in its security list for instance principals to function.
B.Object Storage buckets do not support dynamic group access control.
C.User credentials override dynamic group policies entirely.
D.Dynamic group policies apply to instance principal or resource principal authentication, not API calls made using individual user credentials.
AnswerD

Dynamic group membership authorises only instance principal or resource principal calls. Because the script authenticated with user credentials, the principal was the developer's user, not the instance, so the dynamic group policy never matched and Object Storage returned 403.

Why this answer

Dynamic group policies in OCI are evaluated only when the request is authenticated using instance principals (or resource principals), which derive identity from the instance's metadata and certificates. When the developer script uses a user's API key or auth token, the request is authorized against that user's IAM policies, not the dynamic group's. Since the user has no matching policy granting object read/write, the request returns 403 Forbidden.

The dynamic group membership is irrelevant to user-credential API calls.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that being on an instance that belongs to a dynamic group automatically grants the dynamic group's permissions to any process on that instance, when in fact the request must be signed with instance principal credentials for the policy to apply.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because port 443 is the standard HTTPS port used for OCI API calls and must be open for instance principals to work at all — blocking it would break all API traffic, not enable authorization. Option B is wrong because Object Storage fully supports dynamic group access control via IAM policies that reference dynamic groups in the policy statement. Option C is wrong because user credentials do not 'override' dynamic group policies; rather, dynamic group policies simply do not apply to user-authenticated requests — the two authorization paths are separate and evaluated independently.

57
MCQmedium

You are managing an OCI VCN and want to monitor all dropped packets due to security list violations across all subnets. Which OCI feature should you enable?

A.Service Gateway audit logs
B.Internet Gateway access logs
C.NAT Gateway traffic logging
D.OCI VCN Flow Logs configured to capture rejected traffic
AnswerD

OCI VCN Flow Logs directly satisfy the requirement to monitor dropped packets caused by security list violations because you can specifically configure them to capture rejected traffic. By capturing metadata about IP traffic traversing your VCN subnets and filtering for `REJECT` action states, this feature provides the precise visibility needed to audit security posture and troubleshoot blocked connections across all subnets without capturing the actual payload data.

Why this answer

OCI VCN Flow Logs capture traffic information including dropped/rejected packets due to security list or NSG blocks when configured to log 'REJECT' or 'ALL' traffic.

58
MCQmedium

You are configuring security for an Oracle Base Database Service instance in a private subnet. Which OCI networking construct should you configure to allow the database to download software patches from Oracle Object Storage without traversing the public internet?

A.Internet Gateway
B.Local Peering Gateway
C.Service Gateway
D.NAT Gateway
AnswerC

A service gateway provides private access from the VCN to Oracle services such as Object Storage, keeping patch downloads off the public internet. It satisfies the private-subnet requirement without exposing the database to internet routing or requiring a NAT gateway.

Why this answer

A Service Gateway in OCI provides private access from a VCN to Oracle services like Object Storage, so the database can download patches without using the public internet or a NAT gateway. Traffic stays on the Oracle network backbone, satisfying the private-subnet requirement.

Exam trap

The trap is choosing NAT Gateway because it also provides outbound access — but NAT routes over the public internet, whereas the question demands traffic that does not traverse it, which only Service Gateway satisfies.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an Internet Gateway provides bidirectional public internet access and would expose the private subnet's traffic to the public path. Option B is wrong because a Local Peering Gateway connects two VCNs in the same region, not a VCN to Oracle services. Option D is wrong because a NAT Gateway gives outbound internet access — it works but routes traffic over the public internet, which the question explicitly wants to avoid.

59
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following statements are true regarding OCI Compute Flexible Shapes? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Flexible shapes are only available for Bare Metal instances and cannot be used with Virtual Machines.
B.Flexible shapes support both AMD EPYC and Ampere ARM processor architectures.
C.Once a flexible compute instance is launched, its OCPU and memory allocations can never be modified.
D.You can independently adjust the number of OCPUs and the amount of memory when launching a flexible instance.
E.Flexible shapes require a fixed ratio of 8 GB of RAM per 1 OCPU.
AnswersB, D

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Compute Flexible Shapes successfully satisfy the architectural diversity constraint specified in the stem by providing native support across multiple processor platforms. Specifically, these shapes allow administrators to provision virtual machine instances powered by either AMD EPYC x86 processors or Ampere Altra ARM-based processors within the same flexible framework. This enables workloads to be optimised for either x86 compatibility or ARM energy-efficiency while retaining the ability to independently configure CPU core counts and memory allocations to match exact resource requirements.

Why this answer

Flexible shapes allow independent scaling of OCPUs and memory. They are available for both AMD and Ampere processor architectures across VM instances.

60
Multi-Selecthard

You are managing an Oracle Base Database Service DB system on OCI. The DB system hosts a production database, and you must configure Oracle Data Guard so the standby database can take over automatically with no data loss. The primary and standby must be in different availability domains of the same region, and you want to minimize manual intervention during a switchover. Which TWO configuration choices should you make? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Manually build the standby with RMAN duplicate and register it in the broker without an OCI Data Guard association.
B.Set the Data Guard protection mode to Maximum Performance with ASYNC transport.
C.Place the standby in a different region and rely on cross-region redo transport for the no-data-loss guarantee.
D.Configure a Data Guard association using the OCI Console or CLI, which creates the standby and broker configuration automatically.
E.Set the Data Guard protection mode to Maximum Availability with SYNC transport.
AnswersD, E

OCI provides a Data Guard association workflow that provisions the standby database, sets up the broker configuration, and establishes the redo transport between the two DB systems. Using this managed association removes manual broker setup steps and ensures the standby is created in the chosen availability domain, which directly supports the automated switchover requirement.

Why this answer

Automatic, zero-data-loss takeover in a single region is achieved by pairing Maximum Availability protection with SYNC transport and by letting OCI create and manage the Data Guard association. The managed association provisions the standby in the required availability domain and configures the broker, while Maximum Availability with SYNC ensures every committed transaction exists on the standby before the primary acknowledges it, so a switchover or failover loses nothing.

Exam trap

The trap here is choosing Maximum Performance with ASYNC because it sounds fastest, when the scenario's no-data-loss requirement actually demands Maximum Availability with SYNC.

61
MCQeasy

Which verb grants the most comprehensive set of permissions (inspect, read, use, and manage) on a given resource type in an OCI IAM policy?

A.use
B.read
C.manage
D.inspect
AnswerC

The manage verb in OCI IAM policies encompasses the full permission set — inspect, read, use, and manage — on a resource type. It therefore grants the most comprehensive access, including the ability to create, update, and delete resources.

Why this answer

The 'manage' verb is the most powerful verb in OCI IAM policies, encompassing inspect, read, use, and full management capabilities.

62
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO options are valid ways to organize resources in OCI? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Windows Registry hives
B.Compartments
C.Active Directory organizational units synced directly to resource folders
D.Physical server chassis slots
E.Tags (Freeform and Defined)
AnswersB, E

Compartments act as logical, highly customisable isolation boundaries within an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure tenancy, directly satisfying the requirement to organise resources. They allow administrators to group related cloud assets—such as compute instances, databases, and networks—to streamline access management. By applying Identity and Access Management policies to specific compartments rather than the entire root tenancy, security teams can effectively enforce the principle of least privilege, making this structural mechanism essential for resource organisation.

Why this answer

Option B (Compartments) is correct because compartments are the fundamental logical construct in OCI for organizing and isolating resources, forming a hierarchy under a tenancy that supports policy-based access control and quota management. Option E (Tags, both Freeform and Defined) is correct because OCI tagging lets you attach metadata key-value pairs to resources for organization, cost tracking, and automation, with Defined tags governed by tag namespaces and Freeform tags being simpler user-applied labels. The unmarked options do not belong: Windows Registry hives (A) are an OS-level configuration store unrelated to OCI resource organization, Active Directory organizational units synced directly to resource folders (C) is not an OCI feature since OCI IAM does not map AD OUs to resource folders, and physical server chassis slots (D) describe hardware placement, not a logical OCI resource-organization mechanism.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing on-premises directory or OS constructs (AD OUs, Registry hives) with OCI's native logical hierarchy — candidates must recognize that only Compartments and Tags are OCI resource-organization primitives.

63
MCQmedium

An administrator needs to back up a critical Oracle Database running on an OCI Block Volume. The database spans across three separate block volumes that must be backed up simultaneously to ensure crash consistency. What is the most efficient feature to use?

A.Object Storage Multipart Upload
B.OCI Volume Groups
C.Individual Block Volume Backups triggered sequentially
D.FSS Snapshots
AnswerB

OCI Volume Groups directly satisfy the requirement to back up multiple block volumes simultaneously by allowing administrators to group multiple volumes and create crash-consistent point-in-time backups across all attached disks concurrently. This feature ensures data integrity for multi-volume databases without requiring manual scripting or downtime to coordinate individual volume snapshots.

Why this answer

Volume Groups allow you to group multiple block volumes together and perform coordinated operations like backups, clones, and cross-region replications simultaneously.

64
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE statements regarding OCI NAT Gateway behavior are correct?

Select 3 answers
A.NAT Gateways require compute instances to have public IP addresses.
B.Instances behind a NAT Gateway can initiate outbound connections to the internet.
C.NAT Gateways scale automatically to meet traffic demands.
D.NAT Gateways replace the need for an Internet Gateway in public subnets.
E.External hosts on the internet cannot initiate inbound connections to private instances through a NAT Gateway.
AnswersB, C, E

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure NAT Gateway architecture is specifically designed to allow private subnet instances to initiate outbound connections to the public internet for software updates and patches. This satisfies the fundamental routing constraint that private instances require internet access without exposing their private IP addresses to inbound unsolicited traffic from external sources. The gateway performs Source Network Address Translation by mapping private source IP addresses to the public IP address of the NAT Gateway itself, enabling seamless egress while strictly maintaining ingress security.

Why this answer

NAT Gateways allow private subnet instances to initiate outbound connections to the internet, they scale automatically, and they do not accept inbound connections initiated from the internet.

65
MCQmedium

You want to create a custom gold image of a Linux compute instance containing specific security configurations and pre-installed agents. Which OCI feature should you use?

A.Block Volume Backup
B.Custom Image
C.Boot Volume Clone
D.Instance Configuration
AnswerB

A custom image captures the boot volume of a configured Linux instance, preserving security hardening and pre-installed agents, then lets you launch new instances from that exact baseline. This satisfies the requirement for a reusable gold image rather than reconfiguring each instance manually.

Why this answer

A Custom Image in OCI is created by capturing the boot volume of an existing compute instance, which preserves the operating system, installed applications, security configurations, and agents. This image can then be used to launch new instances that are pre-configured with the desired state. Unlike backups or clones, a custom image is specifically designed for creating standardized templates for instance deployment.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the confusion between backups, clones, and custom images, where candidates might think a boot volume clone or block volume backup can serve as a reusable template for launching instances, but only a custom image provides that capability.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Block Volume Backup only creates a point-in-time copy of a block volume for data protection and disaster recovery; it cannot be used to launch new instances directly. Option C is wrong because Boot Volume Clone creates a copy of a boot volume that can be attached to an instance, but it is not a reusable image template for launching multiple instances. Option D is wrong because Instance Configuration is a template that defines the shape, image, and metadata for an instance pool, but it does not capture the actual contents of a running instance; it only references an existing image.

66
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE components can be attached to an OCI Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG version 2)?

Select 3 answers
A.Virtual Cloud Networks (VCNs)
B.Internet Gateways
C.Local Peering Gateways (LPGs)
D.IPSec VPN tunnels
E.FastConnect virtual circuits
AnswersA, D, E

Virtual Cloud Networks (VCNs) attach directly to an OCI Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG version 2) via VCN attachments, satisfying the core architectural requirement for routing traffic between your cloud networks and on-premises environments or other VCNs. This attachment mechanism utilises DRG route tables to forward packets dynamically across the transit routing framework, enabling seamless network connectivity without relying on legacy local peering gateways.

Why this answer

A DRG version 2 can attach Virtual Cloud Networks (VCNs) via a DRG attachment, which is the standard way to connect a VCN to the DRG for routing traffic to on-premises or other networks, so option A is correct. It can also terminate IPSec VPN tunnels through a DRG attachment of type IPSec tunnel, enabling Site-to-Site VPN connectivity between on-premises networks and OCI, making option D correct. FastConnect virtual circuits can be attached to a DRG version 2 as well, allowing private dedicated connectivity between on-premises networks and OCI, so option E is correct.

Internet Gateways are attached to VCNs, not to DRGs, so option B is incorrect. Local Peering Gateways (LPGs) are used for VCN-to-VCN peering within the same region and attach to VCNs, not to DRGs, so option C is incorrect.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the distinction between components that attach to a VCN versus those that attach to a DRG, causing candidates to incorrectly select Internet Gateways or LPGs as DRG attachments.

67
MCQeasy

Which service is best used to monitor a public-facing website endpoint for availability?

A.Events service
B.Notifications service
C.Monitoring service
D.Health Checks
AnswerD

Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Health Checks directly satisfy the requirement to monitor a public-facing website endpoint for availability by performing automated, periodic probe requests from globally distributed vantage points. This mechanism verifies HTTP and HTTPS reachability, response codes, and latency from multiple geographic locations simultaneously. By actively testing the external endpoint over the public internet, Health Checks provide reliable uptime metrics and alerting capabilities specifically tailored for external web services, distinguishing them from internal-only monitoring tools.

Why this answer

Health Checks monitor endpoints from various global locations.

68
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are valid ways to secure an Object Storage bucket?

Select 2 answers
A.Disk-level formatting
B.Kernel hardening
C.IAM policies
D.RAID configuration
E.Bucket policies
AnswersC, E

Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies utilise fine-grained statements containing subjects, resources, and verbs to enforce principle-of-least-privilege access control at the compartment or tenancy level. This satisfies the requirement to secure an Object Storage bucket by enabling administrators to programmatically define precisely which users or groups can read, write, or manage bucket contents without exposing underlying storage endpoints publicly.

Why this answer

Bucket policies and IAM policies are the primary ways to secure access.

69
MCQhard

You are using File Storage and want to mount it to an instance. What is the necessary network step?

A.Open NFS ports in security list
B.Enable DHCP
C.Open port 80
D.Install iSCSI initiator
AnswerA

Mounting an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure File Storage service to a compute instance requires network traffic to traverse Network File System protocols, which fundamentally rely on specific TCP and UDP ports. To satisfy the stem constraint of successfully establishing the mount operation, you must configure the associated security list to permit inbound and outbound traffic over TCP and UDP ports 2048, 2049, and 2050, alongside port 111 for the Remote Procedure Call binder. Without these explicit firewall rules, the instance cannot communicate with the mount target endpoints.

Why this answer

You must allow ingress for NFS and Network Status Monitor traffic on the subnet's security list.

70
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE of the following are benefits of using OCI Object Storage?

Select 3 answers
A.Supports SQL queries natively
B.High durability
C.Latency lower than NVMe
D.IAM integration
E.Scalability
AnswersB, D, E

OCI Object Storage provides exceptional durability by redundantly replicating all stored data across multiple fault domains within a region, and synchronously across availability domains in multi-AD regions. This architectural design satisfies the high durability requirement specified in the question stem. Data integrity is continuously monitored using checksums, and corrupted data is automatically detected and healed using redundant copies, ensuring that enterprise workloads maintain long-term information resilience without risk of silent data loss.

Why this answer

Durability, scalability, and integration with IAM are key benefits.

71
MCQeasy

An Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) architect needs to provision a web application that must be accessible directly from the public internet. Which component must be attached to the Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) to allow inbound traffic from the internet?

A.Service Gateway
B.Dynamic Routing Gateway
C.Internet Gateway
D.NAT Gateway
AnswerC

An Internet Gateway provides the bidirectional path for traffic between the VCN and the public internet, satisfying the requirement for direct inbound public access. Without it, instances in the VCN cannot receive connections from external clients, regardless of subnet route tables or security rules.

Why this answer

An Internet Gateway is a routing component that connects the edge of a VCN with the public internet, enabling bidirectional communication for public resources.

72
MCQmedium

An administrator configured a Network Security Group (NSG) and a Security List for a compute instance in a subnet. The Security List denies port 443 inbound, but the NSG associated with the instance's primary VNIC explicitly allows port 443 inbound from any source. What will happen when external traffic attempts to access the instance on port 443?

A.Traffic will be blocked due to the default stateless nature of NSGs.
B.Traffic will be dropped because both components must explicitly allow the traffic for it to pass.
C.Traffic will be dropped because Security Lists take precedence over Network Security Groups.
D.Traffic will be allowed because Security List and NSG rules are additive.
AnswerD

Traffic is allowed if permitted by either a Security List or an associated Network Security Group.

Why this answer

OCI security rules are evaluated additively. If either the Security List or the applicable NSG allows the traffic, the traffic is permitted. Therefore, port 443 traffic will be allowed.

73
MCQmedium

When creating a volume backup, what is the 'Incremental' option?

A.Deletes the old backup
B.Compresses the volume
C.Backs up only new data
D.Backs up the entire volume
AnswerC

Incremental backups capture only blocks changed since the previous backup, rather than the full volume each time. This reduces storage consumption and backup duration while still allowing full restoration when combined with the base backup.

Why this answer

Incremental backups only copy data that has changed since the last backup.

74
MCQhard

You have an Oracle Exadata Database Service on Dedicated Infrastructure. You need to scale the storage server grid independently of the compute servers to accommodate a massive data ingestion project. How should you accomplish this?

A.Add additional storage servers (storage cells) to the Exadata infrastructure resource.
B.Migrate the database to a Bare Metal DB system with larger local NVMe drives.
C.Scale up the Exadata VM cluster shape by adding more OCPUs.
D.Attach OCI Block Storage volumes directly to the Exadata database nodes via iSCSI.
AnswerA

Oracle Exadata Database Service on Dedicated Infrastructure decouples compute and storage resources at the Exadata infrastructure level, directly satisfying the requirement to scale the storage server grid independently. Adding additional storage servers (storage cells) to the existing Exadata infrastructure resource expands storage capacity and I/O throughput without necessitating the provisioning of additional database compute nodes, perfectly accommodating massive data ingestion workloads while maintaining resource efficiency and hardware isolation.

Why this answer

Exadata Database Service on Dedicated Infrastructure allows independent scaling of storage servers and compute servers. To increase storage capacity and IOPS independently, you add storage cells to the Exadata infrastructure resource, which expands the ASM disk group without changing the compute node count.

Exam trap

1Z0-1072-26 often tests the independent scaling model of Exadata, and candidates incorrectly assume that adding OCPUs to the VM cluster also adds storage capacity or that external block volumes can be attached to Exadata nodes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because migrating to a Bare Metal DB system with larger local NVMe drives changes the platform entirely and does not scale the existing Exadata storage grid independently; it also loses Exadata smart scan and storage offload benefits. Option C is wrong because scaling the VM cluster shape by adding OCPUs scales compute, not storage, and does not address the data ingestion capacity requirement. Option D is wrong because attaching OCI Block Storage volumes via iSCSI to Exadata database nodes is not a supported or recommended way to scale Exadata storage; Exadata storage is provided by dedicated storage cells managed by ASM and Exadata software.

75
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO networking components are required when establishing an OCI Site-to-Site VPN connection using dynamic routing (BGP)?

Select 2 answers
A.Dynamic Routing Gateway (DRG) configured with BGP ASN
B.Internet Gateway attached to private subnets
C.Local Peering Gateway (LPG)
D.Customer-Premises Equipment (CPE) object
E.NAT Gateway for BGP packet translation
AnswersA, D

Establishing an OCI Site-to-Site VPN utilising dynamic routing via the Border Gateway Protocol specifically requires a Dynamic Routing Gateway configured with a BGP Autonomous System Number. This satisfies the dynamic routing constraint in the stem, as the DRG acts as the virtual router endpoint on the Oracle side, terminating the IPSec tunnels while running BGP sessions to dynamically exchange route advertisements and maintain path redundancy between your on-premises data centre and the virtual cloud network.

Why this answer

Site-to-Site VPN with dynamic routing requires a CPE object, a DRG attached to the VCN, an IPSec connection with tunnels configured, and BGP ASN configuration on both the OCI side and CPE side.

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