PK0-005 Project Life Cycle Practice Test 6 — 15 Questions

Question 1

A project manager is closing a project. Which TWO activities should be performed during project closure? (Select two.)

Accepted Answer

Obtain formal acceptance from the sponsor. During closure, obtaining formal acceptance from the sponsor and archiving project documents are key activities. Releasing resources and contract closure are also part of closure, but the question asks for two. The correct answers are formal acceptance and archiving documents.

Answer

Develop the risk register

Answer

Conduct feasibility study

Answer

Create the project charter

Question 2

A project manager is performing quantitative risk analysis. Which THREE of the following techniques are commonly used? (Select three.)

Accepted Answer

Monte Carlo simulation. Quantitative risk analysis techniques include expected monetary value (EMV), sensitivity analysis, and Monte Carlo simulation. Probability/impact matrix is qualitative, and SWOT analysis is a qualitative technique.

Answer

SWOT analysis

Answer

Probability and impact matrix

Question 3

Which TWO of the following are outputs of the monitoring and controlling process group? (Select two.)

Accepted Answer

Performance reports. Performance reports and change requests are typical outputs of monitoring and controlling. The project charter is an output of initiating, and the risk register is an output of planning.

Answer

Project charter

Answer

Risk register

Answer

Work breakdown structure

Question 4

During the initiating phase of a project, a project charter is created. Which of the following is typically included in a project charter?

Accepted Answer

Project purpose and high-level scope. The project charter includes the project purpose, objectives, high-level scope, budget, schedule, assumptions, constraints, and the authority of the project manager.

Answer

Detailed work breakdown structure

Answer

Risk register with identified risks

Answer

Earned value metrics

Question 5

A project manager is identifying stakeholders and analyzing their influence on the project. Using a power/interest grid, which group should the project manager 'manage closely'?

Accepted Answer

High power, high interest. Stakeholders with high power and high interest should be managed closely as they have significant influence and are highly interested in the project's outcome.

Answer

Low power, low interest

Answer

Low power, high interest

Answer

High power, low interest

Question 6

A project team is decomposing the project scope into work packages. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

Accepted Answer

To provide a hierarchical representation of all work required to complete the project deliverables. The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope of work to be carried out by the project team. It organizes and defines the total scope, with work packages at the lowest level representing deliverables that can be assigned, estimated, and managed.

Answer

To list all project risks and their responses

Answer

To identify the critical path of the project schedule

Answer

To define the communication channels among stakeholders

Question 7

In a network diagram using PDM, activity B can start only after activity A has finished. Which dependency type does this represent?

Accepted Answer

Finish-to-Start (FS). Finish-to-Start (FS) is the most common dependency, where the successor activity cannot start until the predecessor activity has finished.

Answer

Finish-to-Finish (FF)

Answer

Start-to-Finish (SF)

Answer

Start-to-Start (SS)

Question 8

A project has the following activities and dependencies: A (5 days), B (3 days, after A), C (4 days, after A), D (2 days, after B), E (6 days, after C), F (1 day, after D and E). What is the total float of activity C?

Accepted Answer

0 days. The critical path is A-C-E-F: 5+4+6+1=16 days. The path A-B-D-F: 5+3+2+1=11 days. The float for C is the difference between early start and late start. Since C is on the critical path, its total float is 0.

Answer

1 day

Answer

2 days

Answer

5 days

Question 9

A project manager is estimating the cost of a new software development project. Since the project is similar to a previous one, the manager uses the cost of the previous project as a basis, adjusting for known differences. Which cost estimation technique is being used?

Accepted Answer

Analogous estimation. Analogous estimation uses historical data from similar projects to estimate costs. It is often used when limited information is available about the current project.

Answer

Parametric estimation

Answer

Bottom-up estimation

Answer

Three-point estimation

Question 10

During risk management, a team identifies a risk with a 20% probability of occurrence and a potential cost impact of $50,000. What is the Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of this risk?

Accepted Answer

$10,000. EMV = Probability × Impact = 0.20 × $50,000 = $10,000. EMV is used to quantify risks in monetary terms.

Answer

$50,000

Answer

$40,000

Answer

$20,000

Question 11

A project team is in the storming stage of Tuckman's model. Which of the following behaviors is most likely to be observed?

Accepted Answer

Team members challenge each other's ideas. In the storming stage, team members may have conflicts and disagreements as they assert their opinions and struggle for positions. This is a natural part of team development.

Answer

Team members are polite and avoid conflict

Answer

Team members work together efficiently

Answer

Team members focus on completing tasks

Question 12

A project manager is developing a communication plan. Which of the following should be determined first?

Accepted Answer

The stakeholder communication needs. The first step in communication planning is to identify stakeholder communication needs, including what information they need, when, and how. This ensures that the plan addresses all requirements.

Answer

The communication methods to be used

Answer

The project's communication budget

Answer

The frequency of status reports

Question 13

During project execution, a vendor is hired to provide specialized services. The contract is structured so that the vendor is paid for all allowable costs plus a fixed fee. Which type of contract is this?

Accepted Answer

Cost-reimbursable contract. Cost-reimbursable contracts pay the seller for all legitimate costs plus a fee. A cost-plus-fixed-fee (CPFF) is a specific type where the fee is fixed, providing cost reimbursement plus a predetermined fee.

Answer

Time and Materials (T&M) contract

Answer

Lump-sum contract

Answer

Fixed-price contract

Question 14

A project manager receives a status report showing that the project's SPI is 0.9. What does this indicate?

Accepted Answer

The project is behind schedule. SPI (Schedule Performance Index) = EV / PV. An SPI less than 1 means the project is behind schedule. 0.9 indicates that for every planned unit of work, only 0.9 units have been completed.

Answer

The project is over budget

Answer

The project is on schedule

Answer

The project is ahead of schedule

Question 15

A change request to add a new feature has been submitted. After impact analysis, the change control board (CCB) approves the change. What should the project manager do next?

Accepted Answer

Implement the change and update baselines. After approval, the project manager must implement the change, which includes updating all relevant baselines (scope, schedule, cost) and communicating the change to stakeholders.

Answer

Reject the change request

Answer

Escalate to the sponsor

Answer

Conduct another impact analysis