PK0-005 Project Life Cycle — 50 Questions

Question 1

Which document formally authorizes the project and assigns the project manager?

Accepted Answer

Project charter. The project charter is the formal document that officially authorizes the existence of a project and grants the project manager the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. It is typically issued by the project sponsor or initiating entity and serves as the project's birth certificate, linking the project to the organization's strategic objectives.

Answer

Business case

Answer

Project scope statement

Answer

Project plan

Question 2

During the executing phase, a vendor delivers a product that does not meet the specifications outlined in the SOW. Which document should the project manager reference first to address this issue?

Accepted Answer

Statement of Work (SOW). The SOW (Statement of Work) defines the deliverables, specifications, and performance criteria. It is the primary reference to verify compliance. The contract includes legal terms but the SOW details the technical requirements.

Answer

Procurement contract

Answer

Risk register

Answer

Project charter

Question 3

Which of the following is a key input to the change control process when a change request is submitted?

Accepted Answer

Impact analysis. An impact analysis is a required input to the change control process because it evaluates how the proposed change will affect scope, schedule, cost, risk, quality, and resources before the Change Control Board approves or rejects it. Without impact analysis, the CCB cannot make an informed decision. It is produced as part of the change request evaluation and directly feeds the approve/defer/reject decision.

Answer

Final project report

Answer

Lessons learned

Answer

Performance measurement baseline

Question 4

Which document is used to formally accept the project deliverables and signify project closure?

Accepted Answer

Formal acceptance. Formal acceptance is the documented sign-off by the customer or sponsor confirming that project deliverables meet requirements and are accepted, which is the trigger for project closure. It is the artifact that signifies the project's outputs are approved and the project can be closed.

Answer

Project charter

Answer

Scope statement

Answer

Lessons learned

Question 5

A project manager is reviewing the project schedule. Activity A has an early start (ES) of day 1 and an early finish (EF) of day 5. Activity B has an ES of day 6 and an EF of day 10. Activity C has a duration of 2 days and depends on both A and B. What is the total float of Activity B if the project must be completed by day 12?

Accepted Answer

0 days. Activity B has an early start (ES) of day 6 and early finish (EF) of day 10, so its duration is 5 days (days 6-10). Activity C depends on both A and B and has a duration of 2 days. The project must be completed by day 12. The critical path is determined by the longest path. Activity A finishes on day 5, Activity B finishes on day 10. Activity C can start after both A and B finish, so its earliest start is day 11 (since B finishes on day 10, and assuming next day start). Activity C would then finish on day 12 (day 11 + 2 days - 1 = day 12). Therefore, the project finish is day 12, which matches the deadline. Activity B's early finish is day 10, and its late finish is determined by the latest it can finish without delaying the project. Since Activity C must start by day 11 to finish by day 12, Activity B must finish by day 10. Thus, Activity B has zero total float.

Answer

2 days

Answer

1 day

Answer

3 days

Question 6

A project manager is analyzing the network diagram and identifies that Activity X has a late start (LS) of day 10 and an early start (ES) of day 8. Which TWO statements are true about Activity X? (Select two.)

Accepted Answer

The activity can be delayed by up to 2 days without affecting the project completion date.. The total float (slack) of an activity is calculated as LS − ES, so for Activity X it is 10 − 8 = 2 days; therefore option E ("The total float is 2 days") is correct. A positive total float of 2 days means the activity can slip by up to 2 days without delaying the project finish date, which makes option B ("The activity can be delayed by up to 2 days without affecting the project completion date") correct as well. Option A is wrong because activities on the critical path have zero total float, not 2 days. Option C is wrong because a total float of −2 days would require LS to be less than ES (e.g., LS = 6, ES = 8), which contradicts the given values. Option D is wrong because free float is defined as the amount of delay before affecting the early start of the next activity (FF = ES of successor − EF of this activity), and the question provides no successor data; total float of 2 days does not imply free float of 2 days.

Answer

The activity is on the critical path.

Answer

The total float is -2 days.

Answer

The activity has free float of 2 days.

Question 7

During project execution, a stakeholder requests a change to the project scope. What is the first step the project manager should take?

Accepted Answer

Submit a change request to the change control board. In project management, any change to scope must go through the Perform Integrated Change Control process. The first formal step is to submit a change request to the change control board (CCB), which evaluates the impact on scope, schedule, cost, and quality before approving or rejecting it. This ensures changes are assessed systematically rather than implemented ad hoc.

Answer

Inform the sponsor of the change

Answer

Implement the change immediately

Answer

Update the project baseline

Question 8

Which TWO of the following are outputs of the monitoring and controlling process group? (Select two.)

Accepted Answer

Performance reports. Performance reports (D) are a key output of the Monitoring and Controlling process group, as they consolidate status, progress, and forecast information (e.g., earned value metrics like CPI and SPI) to communicate project performance to stakeholders. Change requests (E) are also produced during Monitoring and Controlling whenever variances, defects, or new requirements are identified, and they then flow into Perform Integrated Change Control for approval. The project charter (A) is an output of the Initiating process group, not Monitoring and Controlling. The risk register (B) is primarily created in Planning (Identify Risks) and updated throughout, but it is not a defining output of Monitoring and Controlling. The work breakdown structure (C) is a Planning output created in Create WBS, so it does not belong here.

Answer

Project charter

Answer

Risk register

Answer

Work breakdown structure

Question 9

A project has the following activities and dependencies: A (5 days), B (3 days, after A), C (4 days, after A), D (2 days, after B), E (6 days, after C), F (1 day, after D and E). What is the total float of activity C?

Accepted Answer

0 days. Activity C is on the critical path. The path A-C-E-F takes 5+4+6+1 = 16 days, while A-B-D-F takes 5+3+2+1 = 11 days. Since the project duration is 16 days and C lies on this longest path, its total float is zero.

Answer

1 day

Answer

2 days

Answer

5 days

Question 10

During the planning phase, a project team is selecting risk response strategies for identified risks. Which THREE are valid risk response strategies?

Accepted Answer

Mitigate. Mitigate (B) is a valid risk response strategy because it reduces the probability and/or impact of a threat by taking proactive actions, such as adding controls or redundancy. Avoid (C) is valid because it eliminates the threat entirely by changing the project plan or scope so the risk no longer applies. Transfer (E) is valid because it shifts the financial impact of a threat to a third party, typically through insurance, warranties, or outsourcing contracts. The unmarked options do not belong: Ignore (A) is not a recognized risk response strategy, since risks should be actively addressed rather than disregarded, and Enhance (D) is a positive risk (opportunity) response strategy, not a threat response strategy.

Answer

Ignore

Answer

Enhance

Question 11

A project team is in the storming stage of Tuckman's model. Which behavior is most likely observed?

Accepted Answer

Team members question the project manager's authority and disagree on tasks.. In Tuckman's model, the storming stage is characterized by conflict, power struggles, and disagreement as team members assert their positions and challenge authority. Questioning the project manager's authority and disagreeing on tasks is the textbook storming behavior. This stage follows forming (polite orientation) and precedes norming (cohesion) and performing (high productivity).

Answer

Team members disengage as the project ends.

Answer

Team members are polite and avoid conflict.

Answer

Team members work collaboratively and efficiently.

Question 12

Which contract type places the most cost risk on the seller?

Accepted Answer

Fixed-price. A fixed-price contract places the most cost risk on the seller because the seller agrees to deliver the scope for a set price regardless of actual costs. If costs overrun, the seller absorbs the loss; if costs are lower, the seller profits. This transfers cost risk from the buyer to the seller.

Answer

Cost-reimbursable

Answer

Time and materials (T&M)

Answer

Cost-plus-fixed-fee

Question 13

A project has three activities on the critical path: A (5 days), B (10 days), C (5 days). Activity D (8 days) has a total float of 3 days. If activity B is delayed by 2 days, what is the new project duration?

Accepted Answer

22 days. The original critical path duration is A (5) + B (10) + C (5) = 20 days. Activity D has a total float of 3 days, meaning it can be delayed by up to 3 days without affecting the project end date. If activity B is delayed by 2 days, the critical path becomes 5 + (10+2) + 5 = 22 days. Since the delay is on the critical path, the project duration increases by 2 days, resulting in 22 days.

Answer

21 days

Answer

20 days

Answer

23 days

Question 14

A project manager is identifying response strategies for a risk that could impact the project schedule. Which TWO options are risk response strategies? (Select TWO.)

Accepted Answer

Transfer. The standard risk response strategies for threats include avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept, and escalate. For opportunities, the strategies include exploit, enhance, share, accept, and escalate. In this case, 'Transfer' and 'Avoid' are both valid threat response strategies. 'Enhance' is for opportunities only, 'Ignore' is not a recognized strategy, and 'Escalate' is a standard strategy, but the question requires selecting exactly two, and Transfer and Avoid are correct.

Answer

Ignore

Answer

Enhance

Answer

Escalate

Question 15

A project has a cost performance index (CPI) of 1.2 and a schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.9. Which of the following is true?

Accepted Answer

The project is under budget and behind schedule.. CPI = EV / AC. A CPI greater than 1 means the project is under budget (getting more value per dollar spent). SPI = EV / PV. An SPI less than 1 means the project is behind schedule (earning less value than planned). Therefore, CPI=1.2 and SPI=0.9 indicate under budget and behind schedule.

Answer

The project is over budget and behind schedule.

Answer

The project is over budget and ahead of schedule.

Answer

The project is under budget and ahead of schedule.

Question 16

A project manager is updating the risk register and plans to respond to a high-priority risk. Which THREE are examples of proactive risk response strategies?

Accepted Answer

Mitigate. Mitigate (B) is a proactive risk response because it takes action in advance to reduce the probability and/or impact of a threat before it occurs. Avoid (C) is proactive because it changes the project plan or scope to eliminate the threat entirely, such as removing the risky activity or adopting a proven alternative approach. Transfer (D) is proactive because it shifts the financial or ownership exposure to a third party in advance, typically through insurance, warranties, or fixed-price contracts. Exploit (A) and Accept (E) are not among the marked correct answers here: exploit is a strategy for positive risks (opportunities) rather than the high-priority threat response being addressed, and accept is generally a passive response that acknowledges the risk without taking proactive action unless it is active acceptance with a contingency plan.

Answer

Exploit

Answer

Accept

Question 17

A project manager is creating a project schedule. Which THREE items are typically included in a schedule baseline?

Accepted Answer

Approved start and end dates for activities. The schedule baseline is the approved version of the schedule model, so it includes the approved start and end dates for activities (B), which serve as the authorized timeline against which actual performance is compared. It also includes activity dependencies (C), since the logical relationships (e.g., finish-to-start, start-to-start) that sequence activities are part of the approved schedule model that forms the baseline. Milestones (E) are likewise included because they are significant schedule points or events (often with zero duration) that are approved and tracked as part of the baseline. Actual start and end dates (A) are not part of the baseline; they are recorded during execution and compared against the baseline, not contained within it. Resource assignments (D) belong to the resource management plan and activity resource requirements rather than the schedule baseline itself, which focuses on approved dates, dependencies, and milestones.

Answer

Actual start and end dates

Answer

Resource assignments

Question 18

A project team is in the Performing stage of Tuckman's model. Which TWO behaviors are characteristic of this stage?

Accepted Answer

The team focuses on achieving project goals.. In the Performing stage, the team is functioning effectively, with established trust and processes. Interdependence and focus on goals are key characteristics.

Answer

Team members are polite but unsure of their roles.

Answer

Team members resolve conflicts openly and constructively.

Answer

Team members are independent and rely on the project manager for guidance.

Question 19

A project manager is identifying stakeholders for a new product launch. She uses a power/interest grid to categorize stakeholders. For which ONE quadrant should the project manager apply the strategy of 'Manage Closely'?

Accepted Answer

High power, high interest. In the power/interest grid, the 'Manage Closely' strategy is applied to stakeholders who have both high power and high interest. These stakeholders are the most critical to the project's success because they can significantly influence the project and are deeply invested in its outcome. The project manager should engage them regularly, keep them informed, and involve them in decision-making to ensure their needs are met and to leverage their support.

Answer

Medium power, medium interest

Answer

High power, low interest

Answer

Low power, low interest

Answer

Low power, high interest

Question 20

During project executing, the team is developing a communication plan. Which THREE factors should the project manager consider when determining the communication needs of stakeholders?

Accepted Answer

The method of communication (e.g., email, meetings). Option B is correct because the communication method (e.g., email, meetings, reports) directly shapes how information is delivered and must match stakeholder needs and project complexity. Option C is correct because a stakeholder's power/interest level determines how much and what type of communication they require, per stakeholder analysis techniques. Option D is correct because the frequency of communication (daily, weekly, milestone-based) is a core element of the communication management plan and must be tailored to stakeholder expectations. Option A is not appropriate because the plan should serve stakeholder needs, not the project manager's personal preference. Option E is not a primary determinant of stakeholder communication needs; team size may affect logistics but not the stakeholder communication requirements themselves.

Answer

The project manager's preferred communication style

Answer

The number of project team members