PK0-005 Basics of IT Infrastructure and IT Project Management Practice Test 4 — 15 Questions

Question 1

A project to implement a new storage solution. The team is evaluating iSCSI vs Fibre Channel. Which factor is most important for choosing iSCSI over Fibre Channel?

Accepted Answer

Lower cost. iSCSI is generally chosen over Fibre Channel primarily because it leverages existing Ethernet infrastructure, which significantly reduces hardware and operational costs. Fibre Channel requires specialized switches, host bus adapters (HBAs), and cabling, whereas iSCSI can run on standard network interface cards (NICs) and switches, making it a more cost-effective solution for many organizations.

Answer

Longer distance support

Answer

Higher performance

Answer

Better security

Question 2

A company is migrating to a new ERP system. The project manager needs to ensure minimal downtime during cutover. Which deployment strategy should be recommended?

Accepted Answer

Parallel. The parallel deployment strategy is recommended because it allows the old and new ERP systems to run concurrently during cutover, enabling users to validate the new system while maintaining operations on the legacy system. This minimizes downtime by providing a fallback option if issues arise, ensuring business continuity during the migration.

Answer

Big bang

Answer

Pilot

Answer

Phased

Question 3

A project to upgrade network switches. Which TWO factors should the project manager consider when selecting switches? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

PoE support. Option B (PoE support) is correct because Power over Ethernet determines whether the switch can deliver electrical power alongside data over Ethernet cabling to devices such as IP phones, wireless access points, and cameras, which is a critical technical requirement when selecting switches for a network upgrade. Option C (Number of ports) is correct because port count directly dictates how many devices the switch can connect, and it must match the current and planned device density of the network to avoid running out of capacity or overspending on unused ports. The unmarked options do not belong: switch color (A) is purely cosmetic and has no bearing on network functionality, warranty period (D) is a commercial consideration rather than a core technical selection factor, and brand name (E) is a subjective preference that does not by itself determine whether the switch meets the project's requirements.

Answer

Switch color

Answer

Warranty period

Answer

Brand name

Question 4

A project to implement a new backup solution. Which THREE components are essential for a comprehensive backup strategy? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Retention policy. A retention policy (A) is essential because it defines how long each backup generation is kept and when it can be expired or overwritten, which directly governs recoverability to specific points in time and compliance with data-retention requirements. Backup scheduling (D) is essential because it determines the frequency and timing of full, incremental, or differential jobs, ensuring the RPO (recovery point objective) is actually met. Off-site storage (E) is essential because it provides geographic separation from the primary site, protecting backups against site-wide disasters such as fire, flood, or ransomware that could destroy locally stored copies. Compression (B) is only an optimization that reduces storage and bandwidth consumption, and replication (C) is a redundancy/availability technique; neither is required for a backup strategy to be comprehensive, since backups can function without them.

Answer

Compression

Answer

Replication

Question 5

A company is deploying a new web server. Which TWO security measures should the project manager include in the project plan? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Firewall rules. Option D (Firewall rules) is correct because a web server exposed to a network must have firewall rules that restrict inbound traffic to only the required ports (e.g., TCP 80/443) and block unauthorized access, which is a fundamental security control for protecting the server. Option E (TLS certificate) is correct because it enables HTTPS encryption, ensuring data in transit between clients and the web server is protected via TLS, which is essential for securing web communications and preventing eavesdropping or tampering. Option A (UPS) is incorrect because an uninterruptible power supply addresses availability and power continuity, not security. Option B (Load balancer) is incorrect because it primarily provides availability, scalability, and traffic distribution rather than being a security measure. Option C (RAID array) is incorrect because RAID provides disk redundancy and fault tolerance for data availability, not protection against security threats.

Answer

UPS

Answer

Load balancer

Answer

RAID array

Question 6

A project manager is selecting a data center for a new application that requires high availability and disaster recovery. Which type of data center arrangement is most appropriate?

Accepted Answer

Active-active. An active-active data center arrangement is most appropriate for high availability and disaster recovery because it distributes application traffic across multiple geographically dispersed data centers, all of which are actively serving requests. If one site fails, traffic is seamlessly redirected to the remaining active sites, ensuring near-zero downtime and no data loss. This configuration supports automatic failover and load balancing, which are critical for meeting stringent recovery time objectives (RTO) and recovery point objectives (RPO).

Answer

Single site

Answer

Active-passive

Answer

Colocation

Question 7

A project team is deploying new servers in a virtualized environment. The project scope includes performance monitoring. Which tool should the team configure to baseline CPU and memory usage?

Accepted Answer

Hypervisor management console. The hypervisor management console (e.g., vCenter for VMware or Hyper-V Manager) provides built-in performance monitoring and historical data collection for virtualized servers, allowing the team to baseline CPU and memory usage directly from the virtualization layer. This is the correct tool because it captures resource utilization at the hypervisor level, which is essential for establishing performance baselines in a virtualized environment.

Answer

SNMP trap receiver

Answer

Load balancer

Answer

Network analyzer

Question 8

A project manager needs to ensure that the IT infrastructure project complies with industry standards for data security. Which document should the project team reference?

Accepted Answer

Regulatory compliance checklist. (Regulatory compliance checklist) is correct because it provides a list of required standards and regulations that the project must comply with for data security. Option A (Service level agreement) defines service levels and performance metrics, not security compliance. Option C (Memorandum of understanding) is an agreement between organizations outlining terms and responsibilities, not a compliance document. Option D (Acceptable use policy) governs user behavior and acceptable use of systems, not project infrastructure compliance.

Answer

Service level agreement

Answer

Memorandum of understanding

Answer

Acceptable use policy

Question 9

An organization is deploying a new storage area network (SAN). Which of the following is a key consideration for ensuring high performance?

Accepted Answer

Network latency. Network latency is a key consideration for SAN performance because SANs rely on low-latency, high-speed block-level storage protocols such as Fibre Channel (FC) or iSCSI. High latency can cause significant delays in I/O operations, directly impacting throughput and application responsiveness, especially in environments with synchronous replication or high transaction rates.

Answer

Cable color

Answer

Storage capacity

Answer

Number of users

Question 10

A project involves integrating an on-premises IT infrastructure with a public cloud provider. The project team must ensure secure connectivity. Which of the following should be implemented?

Accepted Answer

VPN. A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is the correct choice because it creates an encrypted tunnel over the public internet between the on-premises infrastructure and the public cloud provider, ensuring secure connectivity. Technologies like IPsec or TLS-based VPNs authenticate both endpoints and encrypt all traffic, preventing eavesdropping and tampering during transit.

Answer

DNS

Answer

NAT

Answer

VLAN

Question 11

A project manager is evaluating potential IT infrastructure projects. Which two project selection methods consider financial return? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Cost-benefit analysis. Cost-benefit analysis (A) is a financial project selection method because it compares the total expected costs of a project against its total expected benefits, typically expressed in monetary terms, to determine whether the investment yields a positive net return. Payback period (B) is also a financial method because it calculates how long it takes for the cumulative cash inflows from a project to recover the initial investment, directly measuring financial return timing. Expert judgment (C) is not inherently financial; it relies on the experience and knowledge of subject matter experts and can be applied to any selection criterion. Weighted criteria (D) and scoring model (E) are multi-criteria decision techniques that may include financial factors but are not exclusively or primarily financial return methods, as they typically combine weighted qualitative and quantitative factors into a single score.

Answer

Expert judgment

Answer

Weighted criteria

Answer

Scoring model

Question 12

A company is implementing a new backup solution for its mixed environment of legacy and modern servers. The backup server is connected to the same network segment as production traffic. During initial testing, some backups fail intermittently, especially during peak hours. The backup logs show timeouts. The project manager is asked to identify the most likely cause and recommend a solution. Which of the following is the best course of action?

Accepted Answer

Isolate backup traffic on a separate VLAN to reduce network congestion.. The backup server is on the same network segment as production traffic, causing congestion during peak hours. Backup timeouts indicate that the backup traffic is competing with production traffic for bandwidth, leading to packet loss or delays. Isolating backup traffic on a separate VLAN reduces network congestion by logically separating the traffic, ensuring dedicated bandwidth for backups and preventing interference with production operations.

Answer

Upgrade the backup software to the latest version.

Answer

Increase the backup window to allow more time.

Answer

Replace legacy servers with modern hardware.

Question 13

A project to migrate on-premises email to a cloud-based service is nearing completion. After the final cutover, some users report that emails sent to certain domains are not being delivered. The project team checks the mail servers and finds no errors. The project manager reviews the DNS records and discovers that the MX records were not updated to point to the new service. What should the team do first?

Accepted Answer

Update the DNS records and wait for propagation.. The root cause is that the MX records in DNS still point to the old on-premises mail server, so sending mail servers cannot route messages to the new cloud service. Updating the MX records to point to the new service and waiting for DNS propagation (typically 1–48 hours depending on TTL) is the correct first step because it restores proper email routing at the DNS level. No server-side errors exist, so the issue is purely a DNS configuration problem.

Answer

Configure manual email forwarding rules.

Answer

Set up an SMTP relay on the old server.

Answer

Revert the migration to the on-premises system.

Question 14

A large organization is deploying a new ERP system. The infrastructure team provisions a cluster of virtual machines for the application and a separate database server. During load testing with typical user loads, the database server shows high I/O wait times. The storage administrator confirms that the storage array has sufficient capacity and the disks are healthy. The hypervisor shows no CPU or memory pressure. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the high I/O wait?

Accepted Answer

Misconfigured RAID level, such as using RAID 5 for a write-intensive workload.. RAID 5 uses parity-based striping, which incurs a write penalty (each write requires four I/O operations: read old data, read old parity, write new data, write new parity). For a write-intensive workload like an ERP database, this overhead causes high I/O wait times even when disks are healthy and capacity is sufficient. The correct answer is C because the misconfigured RAID level directly explains the observed symptom.

Answer

Network bandwidth saturation between the database and application servers.

Answer

Insufficient memory on the database server causing paging.

Answer

CPU overutilization on the database server.

Question 15

A project manager is overseeing a data center migration. The new infrastructure must support high availability and scalability. Which TWO components are essential for achieving these goals?

Accepted Answer

Load balancer. Option B (Load balancer) is correct because a load balancer distributes incoming traffic across multiple servers, eliminating a single point of failure at the application tier and enabling horizontal scaling by allowing additional servers to be added to the pool as demand grows. Option D (Redundant power supplies) is correct because dual/redundant PSUs (often connected to separate PDUs and UPS circuits) ensure that the failure of one power feed or supply does not take down a server, which is a foundational requirement for high availability in a data center. Option A (RAID 0) is incorrect because it provides striping for performance with no redundancy, so any single disk failure destroys the array, which is the opposite of high availability. Option C (IP addressing scheme) is incorrect because, while necessary for network communication, an addressing scheme by itself does not deliver high availability or scalability. Option E (Single point of failure) is incorrect because it is precisely what high-availability design must eliminate, not a component that achieves it.

Answer

RAID 0

Answer

IP addressing scheme

Answer

Single point of failure