PK0-005 Practice Exam 56 — 20 Questions

Question 1

A project manager is reviewing the key components of a project management plan. Which THREE of the following are typically included in a project management plan?

Accepted Answer

Schedule baseline. The schedule baseline (C) is a key component of the project management plan because it is the approved version of the project schedule that serves as a reference point against which actual progress is measured. It includes start and end dates for activities, milestones, and dependencies, and any changes to it must go through formal change control.

Answer

Risk register

Answer

Issue log

Question 2

During a sprint planning meeting, the development team estimates user stories using story points. They each have a set of cards with values like 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13. After discussing a story, all team members simultaneously reveal their chosen card. What technique are they using?

Accepted Answer

Planning poker. Planning poker is a consensus-based estimation technique where team members use cards with story point values and reveal their estimates simultaneously.

Answer

Affinity estimating

Answer

Expert judgment

Answer

Three-point estimating

Question 3

A project manager is creating the WBS. Which THREE of the following are characteristics of a well-constructed WBS?

Accepted Answer

Each level represents a smaller detail of the level above. WBS should be deliverable-oriented, decomposed to manageable level, and follow 100% rule.

Answer

Organized by project phases

Answer

Includes administrative tasks not in scope

Question 4

A company is managing multiple projects simultaneously. One project focuses on upgrading the IT infrastructure, another on developing a new customer portal, and a third on training staff on new software. These projects are grouped together because they all contribute to the same strategic goal of digital transformation. According to CompTIA Project+, how is this grouping best described?

Accepted Answer

Program. A program is a group of related projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually.

Answer

Project

Answer

Operations

Answer

Portfolio

Question 5

A project manager is managing a construction project. The scope is well-defined, but the customer is open to minor changes during execution. Which methodology is most suitable?

Accepted Answer

Hybrid. Hybrid allows for some flexibility while maintaining a planned approach. Predictive would be too rigid, agile too flexible, and Kanban is an agile framework.

Answer

Predictive

Answer

Kanban

Answer

Agile

Question 6

A project manager is performing schedule compression because the project is behind schedule. The team decides to start a follow-on activity before its predecessor is fully completed. This approach increases the risk of rework. Which schedule compression technique is being used?

Accepted Answer

Fast-tracking. Fast-tracking involves overlapping sequential activities, which increases risk. Crashing involves adding resources to the critical path, which increases cost. Both are schedule compression techniques, but the description matches fast-tracking.

Answer

Crashing

Answer

Critical chain method

Answer

Resource leveling

Question 7

A construction project is in the execution phase. The project manager receives a report that the concrete supplier has delivered substandard material that does not meet specifications. The project is on a tight schedule, and rejecting the material will cause a two-week delay. The supplier is the only one available within the required timeframe. What should the project manager do FIRST?

Accepted Answer

Document the nonconformance and initiate a change request for schedule adjustment.. Documenting the nonconformance and initiating a change request is the proper first step to formally record the issue and its impact on the schedule. This aligns with project management processes for managing quality and change control. Option A is wrong because notifying the sponsor should come after documenting and initiating the change request. Option B is wrong because rejecting material without a plan may cause longer delays and should be part of a formal change assessment. Option C is wrong because accepting substandard material compromises project quality and is not acceptable.

Answer

Notify the project sponsor of the issue and ask for guidance.

Answer

Reject the material and simultaneously find an alternative supplier.

Answer

Accept the material and proceed to avoid delay.

Question 8

A marketing project manager is responsible for launching a new product. The project manager has created a project charter, a stakeholder register, and a high-level schedule. The sponsor has approved the charter. The project manager needs to develop a detailed project plan. According to best practices, what should the project manager do next?

Accepted Answer

Develop the project management plan. According to PMI best practices, after the project charter is approved, the next step is to develop the project management plan. This plan defines how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled, and it serves as the baseline for all subsequent planning activities, including scope, schedule, cost, risk, and quality. The project manager must create this comprehensive plan before building the team or creating detailed deliverables like the WBS.

Answer

Build the project team

Answer

Create a work breakdown structure

Answer

Conduct risk planning

Question 9

A project manager is updating the risk register after a risk event occurred. The risk response plan included a contingency reserve, but the actual impact was higher than expected. What should the project manager do next?

Accepted Answer

Update the issue log with the problem and its impact.. Since the risk event has occurred and the impact exceeded expectations, the project manager should update the issue log to track the actual problem and initiate any necessary corrective actions. The risk register should be updated to reflect the closure, but the immediate need is to manage the issue.

Answer

Request additional budget from the sponsor.

Answer

Close the risk in the risk register.

Answer

Perform a Monte Carlo simulation to reassess schedule risk.

Question 10

Which TWO tools are commonly used for risk identification in a project?

Accepted Answer

Brainstorming. Brainstorming is a foundational technique for risk identification because it leverages the collective expertise of the project team and stakeholders to surface potential risks in a structured, creative session. It is explicitly listed in the PMBOK Guide as a key data-gathering tool for the Identify Risks process, allowing the team to generate a comprehensive list of risks without initial filtering.

Answer

Pareto chart

Answer

Critical path method

Answer

RACI matrix

Question 11

A project is 60% complete. The original budget (BAC) is $200,000. Actual costs to date are $130,000, and the earned value is $120,000. What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the project will continue to perform at the current cost efficiency?

Accepted Answer

$216,667. Current CPI = EV/AC = 120,000/130,000 = 0.9231. EAC = BAC/CPI = 200,000 / 0.9231 ≈ $216,667. Alternatively, EAC = AC + (BAC - EV)/CPI = 130,000 + (80,000)/0.9231 ≈ $216,667.

Answer

$250,000

Answer

$200,000

Answer

$230,000

Question 12

You are the project manager for a cloud migration project at a mid-sized company. The project team consists of internal IT staff and a third-party vendor responsible for data transfer. During a weekly status meeting, you discover that the vendor has been using an unauthorized tool to accelerate data transfer, which violates the security policy outlined in the project charter. The vendor claims the tool is necessary to meet the aggressive timeline. The project sponsor is concerned about security but also about schedule delays. You need to take the most appropriate action to address this issue while maintaining project control. Which action should you take?

Accepted Answer

Document the issue in the issue log, then submit a change request to evaluate the tool's security and potentially update the security policy.. It follows the proper project management workflow: documenting the unauthorized tool in the issue log and submitting a change request to formally evaluate the tool's security compliance. This allows the project to assess the risk without bypassing governance, maintaining control over security policy while addressing schedule concerns. The change request process ensures that any policy update is reviewed and approved by the appropriate stakeholders, preserving the integrity of the project charter.

Answer

Update the project charter to allow the use of the tool since it helps meet the timeline.

Answer

Instruct the vendor to continue using the tool but require daily reports on security incidents.

Answer

Escalate the issue to the vendor's management and request a replacement team.

Question 13

A project manager is defining what work is required to complete the project. Which document should be created first to formally define the scope?

Accepted Answer

Scope statement. The scope statement is the first formal document that defines what work is required to complete the project. It provides a detailed description of the project deliverables, boundaries, acceptance criteria, and constraints, serving as the foundation for all subsequent planning activities. Without a formally approved scope statement, the project lacks a clear baseline against which to manage scope creep and validate work.

Answer

Project management plan

Answer

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Answer

Project charter

Question 14

A project manager is closing a project. Which THREE activities are part of the project closure process? (Select THREE).

Accepted Answer

Release project resources. Project closure includes obtaining formal acceptance, archiving documents, and releasing resources. Risk response strategies are part of execution, and creating the WBS is part of planning.

Answer

Implement risk response strategies

Answer

Create the Work Breakdown Structure

Question 15

A project manager needs to track the start and end dates of tasks as well as dependencies. Which tool should be used?

Accepted Answer

Gantt chart. A Gantt chart is the correct tool because it visually displays task start and end dates along a timeline, and it can explicitly show dependencies between tasks using arrows or linking lines. This makes it ideal for project scheduling and tracking progress against planned dates.

Answer

Control chart

Answer

Fishbone diagram

Answer

Pareto chart

Question 16

A project manager is evaluating risk responses. For a risk with high probability and high impact, which risk response strategy is most appropriate to eliminate the threat?

Accepted Answer

Avoid. Avoidance is the only strategy that completely eliminates the threat by changing the project plan to avoid the risk. Transfer shifts liability, mitigate reduces impact/probability, and acceptance acknowledges the risk without action.

Answer

Accept

Answer

Mitigate

Answer

Transfer

Question 17

A project has many stakeholders with varying interests and influence. Which document should the PM use to plan how to engage them?

Accepted Answer

Stakeholder engagement plan. The stakeholder engagement plan is the correct document because it specifically outlines strategies and actions to manage stakeholder expectations, interests, and influence throughout the project lifecycle. Unlike a communication plan, which focuses on the logistics of information distribution, the engagement plan addresses how to actively involve stakeholders based on their power, interest, and influence levels. This aligns with PMI's guidance in the PMBOK Guide for the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process.

Answer

Communication plan

Answer

Stakeholder register

Answer

RACI matrix

Question 18

A project manager is reviewing lessons learned from a previous similar project. That project suffered from frequent requirement changes that caused schedule delays and cost overruns. What should the project manager do to mitigate this risk on the current project?

Accepted Answer

Implement a robust change control process and ensure all changes are reviewed by the change control board.. Implementing a robust change control process with a change control board (CCB) ensures that all requirement changes are formally reviewed, approved, and documented before being incorporated. This directly addresses the risk of frequent, uncontrolled changes that caused schedule delays and cost overruns in the previous project, aligning with the PMBOK Guide's integrated change control process.

Answer

Proceed without changes since the lessons learned may not apply to this project.

Answer

Minimize stakeholder involvement to reduce the number of change requests.

Answer

Develop a rigid schedule that does not allow any changes to requirements.

Question 19

A software development project is using an agile methodology. The product owner is frequently changing requirements during sprints, causing the team to miss sprint goals. The project manager has a good relationship with the product owner. The team is frustrated and morale is dropping. The project manager needs to address this issue while maintaining stakeholder satisfaction. What should the project manager do FIRST?

Accepted Answer

Coach the product owner on agile principles and the impact of changes.. The project manager should first coach the product owner on agile principles, specifically the impact of changing requirements during sprints. In agile, the product owner is responsible for prioritizing the backlog, but changes should not be introduced mid-sprint as they disrupt the team's commitment to sprint goals. By leveraging the good relationship, the project manager can educate the product owner on the importance of sprint stability, which directly addresses the root cause without escalating or overcomplicating the process.

Answer

Escalate to the project sponsor.

Answer

Implement a formal change control process for all changes.

Answer

Ask the team to work overtime to accommodate changes.

Question 20

Match each communication method to its description.

Accepted Answer

Push communication: Information is sent directly to stakeholders.. The correct matches are: Push communication sends information directly to recipients; Pull communication makes information available for retrieval; Interactive communication involves real-time exchange. Common confusions include swapping the definitions of push and pull, or confusing interactive with broadcast methods.

Answer

Pull communication: Information sent directly to stakeholders.

Answer

Push communication: Information is made available for retrieval.

Answer

Interactive communication: Information is broadcasted to stakeholders.