PK0-005 Practice Test 40 — 15 Questions

Question 1

A project manager is estimating activity durations for a construction project. She uses a parametric estimate based on 100 square meters per day. If the total area is 500 square meters, the estimated duration is 5 days. Which THREE statements are true about parametric estimation?

Choose an answer to begin — your selection is scored in the full session.

Accepted Answer

It can be used for both cost and duration estimation.. Option A is correct because parametric estimation is a quantitative technique applicable to both cost and duration estimating, as when the manager derives 5 days from 100 square meters per day and 500 square meters total. Option B is correct because the accuracy of a parametric estimate depends on the reliability and validity of the underlying historical data and the scaling factors used. Option C is correct because parametric estimation explicitly relies on a statistical relationship (such as a unit rate or regression formula) between historical data and project variables like area, quantity, or complexity. Option D is incorrect because parametric estimation is generally considered more accurate than analogous estimation, which relies on a single similar past project and expert judgment. Option E is incorrect because parametric estimation is a top-down, aggregate technique, not a bottom-up technique that estimates individual work packages and rolls them up.

Answer

It is less accurate than analogous estimation.

Answer

It is a bottom-up technique.

Question 2

A project manager is evaluating change requests. According to the integrated change control process, which THREE elements should be assessed for impact before a change is approved?

Accepted Answer

Schedule. In the Perform Integrated Change Control process, every change request must be evaluated against the project's triple constraint, so option B (Schedule) is correct because approving a change can shift activity durations, dependencies, or the critical path and thus the project completion date. Option C (Scope) is correct because a change may add, modify, or remove deliverables and requirements, altering the agreed scope baseline and requiring updates to the scope statement and WBS. Option D (Cost) is correct because changes typically consume budget or resources, so the cost baseline and funding requirements must be assessed before approval. Options A (Issue log) and E (Risk register) are project documents that may be updated as a result of change control, but they are not the impact dimensions assessed for every change request; the impact assessment focuses on scope, schedule, and cost (often with quality, resources, and risk as secondary considerations, but not the issue log itself).

Answer

Issue log

Answer

Risk register

Question 3

A project manager is closing out a project that delivered a new customer portal. The sponsor wants to ensure that lessons from this effort improve future projects and that the product is properly handed over. Which TWO activities should the project manager perform as part of closing the project? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

Archive project documents and record lessons learned in the organizational process assets repository.. Closing a project centers on confirming the product is accepted and ensuring the organization retains the knowledge gained. Formal acceptance transfers ownership and authorizes final settlement, while archiving documents and lessons learned in the organizational process assets repository makes the experience available to future teams. Re-baselining, premature resource release, and starting follow-on work are not closure activities.

Answer

Release the project team and reassign their equipment before confirming deliverable acceptance.

Answer

Initiate a new project to implement the enhancements that were deferred during execution.

Answer

Re-baseline the schedule to reflect the actual completion date recorded during execution.

Question 4

A project manager is identifying risks using the Delphi technique. Which TWO of the following are characteristics of the Delphi technique?

Accepted Answer

Participants are anonymous. The Delphi technique is a structured expert-judgment method in which participants respond to questionnaires anonymously, so option B is correct because anonymity prevents any single expert from dominating or being influenced by others' status or authority. Option C is also correct because Delphi deliberately iterates: the facilitator collects responses, summarizes them, and circulates follow-up questionnaires over multiple rounds until consensus converges. Option A is wrong because a single round would not allow the iterative refinement and consensus-building that define Delphi. Option D is wrong because identifying participants would destroy the anonymity that is central to the technique. Option E is wrong because open group discussion describes brainstorming or focus-group methods, not Delphi, which uses controlled, written, anonymous feedback rather than face-to-face debate.

Answer

One round of feedback

Answer

Participants are identified

Answer

Open group discussion

Question 5

During project closing, which THREE activities should be performed?

Accepted Answer

Obtain formal acceptance from the sponsor. Option A is correct because project closing requires obtaining formal acceptance (sign-off) from the sponsor or customer to confirm that deliverables meet requirements and the project is officially complete. Option C is correct because archiving project documents preserves the project records, contracts, and artifacts for future reference, audits, and organizational knowledge. Option D is correct because conducting lessons learned captures what went well and what could be improved, feeding the organizational process assets for future projects. Option B is incorrect because resource leveling is a schedule development technique used during planning and execution, not closing. Option E is incorrect because risk identification is part of risk management planning and monitoring, which occurs throughout the project but is not a closing activity.

Answer

Perform resource leveling

Answer

Identify risks

Question 6

During project execution, a team member proposes a change that will affect the scope baseline. What is the first step the project manager should take?

Accepted Answer

Submit a change request. When a change is proposed that will affect the scope baseline, the project manager should first ensure that a formal change request is submitted. This documents the proposed change, its impact, and justification, and initiates the integrated change control process. Only after the change request is created should it be reviewed by the change control board (CCB) or other approvers.

Answer

Inform the change control board

Answer

Update the project management plan

Answer

Deny the change

Question 7

Which document decomposes project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components?

Accepted Answer

Work breakdown structure. The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is the project management document that decomposes project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components, often called work packages. This hierarchical decomposition enables accurate estimation, assignment, and tracking of work. The WBS is defined in the PMBOK Guide as a deliverable-oriented grouping of project elements.

Answer

Project schedule

Answer

Project charter

Answer

Risk register

Question 8

A project manager is developing the communication management plan. Which element should be included to ensure stakeholders receive timely information?

Accepted Answer

Stakeholder communication requirements. The communication management plan defines how project information will be distributed to stakeholders. Including stakeholder communication requirements ensures that each stakeholder receives the right information in the right format and at the right frequency, directly addressing the need for timely information.

Answer

Team meeting minutes

Answer

Risk response strategies

Answer

Project budget breakdown

Question 9

A project manager is using a tool that plots risks based on their probability of occurrence and potential impact. What is this tool?

Accepted Answer

Risk matrix. A risk matrix is a tool that plots risks on a grid based on their probability of occurrence and potential impact, allowing the project manager to prioritize risks visually. This aligns directly with the question's description of plotting risks by these two dimensions. The risk matrix is a standard tool in project risk management for qualitative risk analysis.

Answer

Decision tree

Answer

Risk register

Answer

SWOT analysis

Question 10

A project team is distributed across three continents. The project manager needs a tool that allows real-time collaboration on project documents, version control, and task assignment. Which type of tool is BEST for this requirement?

Accepted Answer

Cloud-based project management software. Cloud-based project management software (e.g., Jira, Asana, Microsoft Project Online) provides real-time collaboration, version control, and task assignment through a centralized web platform. It supports distributed teams by enabling simultaneous document editing, automatic change tracking, and role-based access, which directly meets the requirement for cross-continent coordination.

Answer

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Answer

Spreadsheet software

Answer

Email

Question 11

A project to implement a new storage solution. The team is evaluating iSCSI vs Fibre Channel. Which factor is most important for choosing iSCSI over Fibre Channel?

Accepted Answer

Lower cost. iSCSI is generally chosen over Fibre Channel primarily because it leverages existing Ethernet infrastructure, which significantly reduces hardware and operational costs. Fibre Channel requires specialized switches, host bus adapters (HBAs), and cabling, whereas iSCSI can run on standard network interface cards (NICs) and switches, making it a more cost-effective solution for many organizations.

Answer

Longer distance support

Answer

Higher performance

Answer

Better security

Question 12

A project manager is reviewing change requests. Which THREE types of changes would be subject to integrated change control?

Accepted Answer

Schedule change. Integrated change control is the process of reviewing all change requests, approving changes, and managing changes to deliverables, project documents, and the project management plan. Option A (Schedule change) is correct because any modification to the project schedule baseline, such as shifting milestones or activity dates, must go through integrated change control to assess impacts on other knowledge areas. Option B (Scope change) is correct because changes to the project or product scope alter the scope baseline and require formal review and approval to prevent scope creep. Option C (Cost change) is correct because adjustments to the cost baseline or budget require integrated change control to evaluate funding, reserves, and impacts on the business case. Option D (Office supply order) is not correct because routine procurement of administrative supplies is an operational activity, not a change to project baselines or the project management plan. Option E (Team member vacation request) is not correct because it is a routine resource/HR administrative matter handled through normal team management, not a formal change request affecting project baselines.

Answer

Office supply order

Answer

Team member vacation request

Question 13

In a user story, which component describes the benefit or value that the feature will provide?

Accepted Answer

Benefit. A user story follows the template 'As a [role], I want [feature], so that [benefit].' The benefit component is the 'so that' clause, which articulates the value or outcome the user gains from the feature. It explains why the feature matters and helps the team prioritize work based on delivered value.

Answer

Feature

Answer

Role

Answer

Acceptance criteria

Question 14

Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost variance (CV) and schedule variance (SV)?

Accepted Answer

CV = -$30,000; SV = -$50,000. The cost variance (CV) is calculated as Earned Value (EV) minus Actual Cost (AC). From the exhibit, EV = $100,000 and AC = $130,000, so CV = $100,000 - $130,000 = -$30,000. The schedule variance (SV) is EV minus Planned Value (PV); with PV = $150,000, SV = $100,000 - $150,000 = -$50,000. Both negative values indicate the project is over budget and behind schedule.

Answer

CV = -$20,000; SV = -$20,000

Answer

CV = -$50,000; SV = -$30,000

Answer

CV = $30,000; SV = $50,000

Question 15

In a matrix organization, a project manager needs to acquire a team member from a functional department. The functional manager is reluctant to release the resource due to other work. What is the best way for the project manager to address this?

Accepted Answer

Negotiate with the functional manager for the resource. In a matrix organization, the PM must negotiate with the functional manager for resources.

Answer

Hire an external contractor

Answer

Assign the task to another team member

Answer

Escalate to the project sponsor immediately