CAPM Practice Test 31 — 15 Questions

Question 1

A project manager is leading a software development project using an agile approach. The team has completed several sprints, and the product owner wants to add a new feature that was not in the original release plan. The project manager needs to determine how this change should be handled. Which of the following is the most appropriate action?

Choose an answer to begin — your selection is scored in the full session.

Accepted Answer

Add the feature to the product backlog and let the product owner prioritize it for a future sprint.. The appropriate action is to add the feature to the product backlog and let the product owner prioritize it. Agile processes welcome changes and rely on the product owner to manage the backlog, ensuring that the highest-value items are worked on next. This keeps the team focused on the sprint goal while allowing flexibility for future sprints.

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Immediately insert the feature into the current sprint to satisfy the product owner.

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Escalate to the project sponsor to approve the change before adding it to the backlog.

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Reject the change because the release plan is fixed and cannot be altered.

Question 2

A Scrum team's Sprint Retrospective keeps producing the same three improvement actions every Sprint, and none of them get implemented. The Scrum Master wants the team to actually finish improvements. Which approach best fits Scrum practice?

Accepted Answer

Limit the team to one or two improvement items per Sprint, add them to the Sprint Backlog, and review their status at the next Retrospective.. Scrum's Retrospective exists to produce concrete adaptation, not a recurring list of intentions. Choosing a small number of improvements and pulling them into the Sprint Backlog makes them visible, sized like other work, and reviewable at the next Retrospective. This creates a closed feedback loop where the team inspects the effect of its own change, which is the essence of empirical process control.

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Stop holding Retrospectives until the team demonstrates it can complete the existing improvement actions.

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Escalate the recurring actions to the Product Owner and ask that they be added to the Product Backlog as product features.

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Have the Scrum Master personally implement all improvement actions between Sprints so the team can stay focused on delivery.

Question 3

A project manager is planning a regulatory compliance upgrade for a hospital's records system. The sponsor wants success measured in a way that can be independently verified after closure. Which action best aligns with establishing objective, measurable project success criteria?

Accepted Answer

Define acceptance criteria tied to specific, verifiable compliance test results and target dates.. Objective success criteria must be measurable, specific, and verifiable by someone other than the performing team. Acceptance criteria linked to defined compliance tests and target dates produce documented evidence that an independent reviewer can check. Verbal impressions, change-request counts, and cost comparisons describe perceptions or process and financial performance, not whether the regulatory upgrade actually achieved its required outcome.

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Compare total actual cost against the original budget estimate at project closure.

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Ask the sponsor to confirm verbally that the upgraded system feels more secure than before.

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Track the number of change requests submitted during the upgrade as the primary success measure.

Question 4

A business analyst is defining the requirements for a new online banking feature that allows customers to transfer funds between accounts. The security team insists that the feature must comply with multi-factor authentication (MFA) regulations. The marketing team wants to minimize steps to improve user experience. Which type of requirement best describes the MFA compliance mandate?

Accepted Answer

Non-functional requirement. Non-functional requirements specify constraints or quality attributes, such as security, that the system must satisfy. The MFA compliance mandate is a regulatory security constraint, so it is correctly classified as a non-functional requirement. This classification helps the BA ensure that the solution meets compliance while addressing the marketing team's usability concerns separately as other non-functional requirements.

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Business requirement

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Functional requirement

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Transition requirement

Question 5

A business analyst is defining the solution scope for a project to automate a manual approval process. The project sponsor wants to ensure that the solution will meet the business need without including unnecessary features. Which technique should the BA use to clearly define what is in and out of scope for the solution?

Accepted Answer

Scope modeling. Scope modeling is the technique designed to define and communicate the boundaries of a solution. It helps stakeholders understand what will be delivered and what will not, preventing scope creep and unnecessary features. Data modeling, interface analysis, and risk analysis serve different purposes and do not directly address the need to establish solution scope. For the sponsor's goal, scope modeling is the most effective approach.

Answer

Data modeling

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Interface analysis

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Risk analysis

Question 6

A project manager is leading a construction project to build a community center. The project charter has been approved. The sponsor asks the project manager to begin detailed scheduling and to assign resources to specific tasks. According to the PMBOK Guide, which process group is the project manager currently entering?

Accepted Answer

Planning. The charter's approval closes the Initiating phase and moves the project into Planning, where the schedule and resource plans are built. Because the sponsor is asking for detailed scheduling and resource assignment, the project manager is performing Planning process group work, not initiating, executing, or performance tracking.

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Executing

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Monitoring and Controlling

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Initiating

Question 7

A project manager is leading a project to develop a mobile application. The project sponsor asks the project manager to identify the key stakeholders and document their interests, involvement, and impact on project success. Which document should the project manager create?

Accepted Answer

Stakeholder register. The stakeholder register is the document that identifies stakeholders and records relevant information about them, including their interests, involvement, and impact on project success. It is an output of the Identify Stakeholders process. The stakeholder engagement plan, communications management plan, and project charter serve different purposes and do not fulfill the sponsor's request.

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Stakeholder engagement plan

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Communications management plan

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Project charter

Question 8

A Scrum Team is preparing for its first Sprint. The Product Owner has a prioritized Product Backlog, and the team is defining its Definition of Done. Which two characteristics are essential for a useful Definition of Done? (Choose two.)

Accepted Answer

It is a shared understanding among the Scrum Team.. A useful Definition of Done is a shared understanding across the Scrum Team and includes the quality criteria the Increment must meet. It is not created solely by the Product Owner, is not kept confidential from stakeholders, and is not an unchangeable document. These characteristics ensure transparency, alignment, and consistent quality.

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It is created solely by the Product Owner without team input.

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It is a fixed document that cannot be changed once the Sprint begins.

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It is kept confidential from stakeholders to avoid scope creep.

Question 9

A project manager is leading a predictive project to develop a new software system. The project sponsor asks for a document that formally authorizes the project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. Which document should the project manager reference?

Accepted Answer

Project charter. The project charter is the formal document that authorizes the project and gives the project manager the authority to use organizational resources. It is created during the project initiation phase and is essential for predictive projects. The business case and benefits management plan are inputs to the charter, while the project management plan is developed later and does not serve as the authorization document.

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Benefits management plan

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Project management plan

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Business case

Question 10

A project manager is developing the project management plan for a complex software development project. The project manager needs to ensure that the plan includes all necessary subsidiary plans and baselines. Which three of the following are components of the project management plan? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Cost baseline. The project management plan integrates and consolidates all subsidiary plans and baselines. Key components include the scope management plan, which outlines how scope will be managed; the cost baseline, which is the approved time-phased budget; and the schedule baseline, which is the approved schedule used for performance measurement. The project statement of work and business case are inputs to project charter development, not components of the plan.

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Project statement of work

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Business case

Question 11

A Scrum team's Sprint Review is scheduled for Friday afternoon. The team has completed all but two Product Backlog items. The Product Owner asks the Scrum Master whether the incomplete items should be demonstrated during the Sprint Review. What is the most appropriate guidance the Scrum Master should provide?

Accepted Answer

Demonstrate only the items that meet the Definition of Done, and discuss the incomplete items as part of the review's inspection of the Increment.. The Sprint Review inspects the Increment and adapts the Product Backlog. Only work meeting the Definition of Done counts as part of the Increment, so completed items are demonstrated, while incomplete items are discussed to inform adaptation. The Scrum Master should guide the team toward transparency and empiricism rather than hiding or misrepresenting progress.

Answer

Cancel the Sprint Review because the Sprint Goal was not fully met and the Increment is incomplete.

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Ask the Product Owner to move the incomplete items to the next Sprint and exclude them from any discussion during the Sprint Review.

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Demonstrate all items, including the incomplete ones, to show stakeholders the team's full effort during the Sprint.

Question 12

A business analyst has completed elicitation for a customer portal project and now has a long list of raw stakeholder statements. Before the statements can be used as requirements, the analyst must distinguish which are true requirements. Which characteristic must a well-formed requirement exhibit?

Accepted Answer

It must describe a capability or condition the solution needs to satisfy.. The defining test of a requirement is that it expresses a capability or condition the solution must satisfy to deliver value. Raw elicitation notes mix true requirements with opinions, context, and design ideas, so the analyst filters statements through this characteristic. Traceability, unanimous approval, and platform prescription are either governance artifacts or design constraints, not properties that make a statement a requirement.

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It must be approved by every stakeholder who attended the elicitation session.

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It must specify the technology platform on which the capability will be delivered.

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It must be traceable to a specific line item in the project budget.

Question 13

A project manager is executing a predictive project with a cost baseline of $500,000. At the end of the third month, the project has completed 40% of the work, and the actual cost incurred is $220,000. The project manager needs to forecast the total cost at completion. Which earned value management (EVM) estimate should the project manager use if the current cost performance is expected to continue?

Accepted Answer

Estimate at completion (EAC) using the formula BAC / CPI. The correct forecast is the estimate at completion (EAC) calculated as BAC / CPI, because it assumes the current cost performance will continue. With EV = $200,000 and AC = $220,000, the CPI is approximately 0.909, yielding an EAC of about $550,000. This method is used when the project manager believes the existing cost efficiency trend will persist. Other formulas either assume atypical variances, calculate remaining cost, or measure required performance, none of which forecast total cost under the stated assumption.

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To-complete performance index (TCPI) using the formula (BAC - EV) / (BAC - AC)

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Estimate to complete (ETC) using the formula BAC - EV

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Estimate at completion (EAC) using the formula AC + (BAC - EV)

Question 14

A project is in the execution phase. The earned value analysis shows a Cost Performance Index (CPI) of 0.8 and a Schedule Performance Index (SPI) of 0.9. What is the best interpretation of these metrics?

Accepted Answer

The project is over budget and behind schedule.. CPI is calculated as EV/AC, and SPI as EV/PV. A CPI of 0.8 means the project is earning only 80 cents of value for every dollar spent, indicating it is over budget. An SPI of 0.9 means the project is progressing at 90% of the planned schedule rate, indicating it is behind schedule. Therefore, the project is both over budget and behind schedule.

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The project is under budget but behind schedule.

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The project is over budget but ahead of schedule.

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The project is under budget and ahead of schedule.

Question 15

An agile team is using Extreme Programming (XP). A developer wants to refactor a complex module but is concerned about breaking existing functionality. Which XP practice should the developer rely on to safely make changes?

Accepted Answer

Test-Driven Development. Test-Driven Development provides an automated test suite that acts as a safety net, allowing developers to refactor with confidence. Continuous Integration, Pair Programming, and Collective Code Ownership support quality and collaboration but do not by themselves verify that refactoring preserved existing behavior. TDD directly addresses the risk of breaking functionality.

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Continuous Integration

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Collective Code Ownership

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Pair Programming