CAPM Practice Test 27 — 15 Questions

Question 1

Which TWO are benefits of creating a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

Accepted Answer

Defines the total scope. Option B is correct because the WBS decomposes the entire project deliverable into progressively smaller work packages, thereby defining and confirming the total scope of the project and preventing scope creep. Option C is correct because these work packages provide the granular level at which costs can be estimated, budgeted, and later controlled, making the WBS the foundation for cost estimating. Option A is not a WBS benefit because risk identification is performed through risk management processes such as risk identification workshops, not through scope decomposition. Option D is not a WBS benefit because resource assignment occurs in schedule and resource planning activities (for example, using a RACI chart or resource histogram), not in the WBS itself. Option E is not a WBS benefit because activity dependencies are determined through sequence activities techniques such as precedence diagramming, which is part of schedule development rather than scope decomposition.

Answer

Identifies project risks

Answer

Assigns resources to activities

Answer

Shows dependencies between activities

Question 2

Which TWO are outputs of the Initiating process group?

Accepted Answer

Stakeholder register. The Initiating process group produces the project charter (D) via the Develop Project Charter process, which formally authorizes the project and names the project manager; it is the key output that launches the project. It also produces the stakeholder register (C) via the Identify Stakeholders process, which records stakeholder identification, assessment, and classification information. The project scope statement (A) is an output of the Planning process group (Define Scope), not Initiating. The work breakdown structure (B) is created in Planning (Create WBS). The risk register (E) is also a Planning output (Identify Risks).

Answer

Project scope statement

Answer

Work breakdown structure

Answer

Risk register

Question 3

A BA is prioritizing a large number of requirements. Which TWO techniques are best suited for this scenario?

Accepted Answer

Kano model. The Kano model (C) is correct because it classifies requirements by their effect on customer satisfaction (must-be, performance, attractive, indifferent, reverse), which directly supports prioritization by revealing which features deliver the greatest satisfaction impact. MoSCoW analysis (D) is correct because it sorts requirements into Must have, Should have, Could have, and Won't have categories, giving a clear, stakeholder-agreed ranking for large requirement backlogs. Benchmarking (A) is not a prioritization technique; it compares organizational practices or performance against competitors or best-in-class standards. A focus group (B) is an elicitation technique that gathers qualitative feedback from selected participants, not a method for ranking requirements. Observation (E) is also an elicitation technique used to watch users perform tasks and uncover tacit requirements, not to prioritize them.

Answer

Benchmarking

Answer

Focus group

Answer

Observation

Question 4

Which TWO of the following are considered key constraints in project management that form the traditional 'triple constraint'?

Accepted Answer

Time. The traditional triple constraint (also called the iron triangle) consists of time, scope, and cost, so option C (Time) and option D (Scope) are correct because they are two of the three foundational constraints that project managers must balance. Time represents the schedule or deadline within which the project must be delivered, and scope defines the work and deliverables included in the project, both of which directly affect planning and trade-offs. The third element of the triple constraint is cost (or budget), which is not listed among the options. Option A (Quality) is often depicted as a central outcome affected by the triple constraint rather than one of its three components. Option B (Resources) and option E (Risk) are important project management considerations but are not part of the traditional triple constraint definition.

Answer

Quality

Answer

Resources

Answer

Risk

Question 5

Which TWO are benefits of using an iterative approach in agile projects?

Accepted Answer

Ability to adapt to changing requirements. Option A is correct because iterative development delivers working increments each iteration, allowing the team to incorporate changing requirements between iterations rather than being locked into an upfront specification. Option C is correct because each iteration produces a demonstrable increment that stakeholders can review, generating frequent and early feedback that guides subsequent work. Option B is not a defining benefit, since agile values working software over comprehensive documentation but does not eliminate necessary documentation. Option D is not guaranteed, as iterative approaches can increase cost through rework and continuous involvement. Option E is incorrect because testing is continuous within each iteration, not postponed to the end.

Answer

Less documentation is needed

Answer

Reduced overall project cost

Answer

Postponed testing until the end of the project

Question 6

Which THREE of the following are characteristics of a matrix organizational structure that impact project management?

Accepted Answer

Resource allocation involves negotiation between functional and project managers. Option A is correct because in a matrix structure resources are shared between functional departments and projects, so the project manager must negotiate with functional managers to obtain and retain personnel and other resources. Option C is correct because matrix organizations combine the vertical chain of command of the functional hierarchy with horizontal project communication, creating multi-directional information flows. Option D is correct because matrix team members typically report to both a functional manager (for discipline, career, and technical matters) and a project manager (for project work and performance), which is the defining dual-reporting characteristic. Option B is not correct because career progression in a matrix usually remains anchored in the functional or technical home base rather than primarily within the project. Option E is not correct because full budget authority over the project is characteristic of a projectized (or strong matrix at most) structure, not of matrix structures generally, where budget control is often shared with functional managers.

Answer

Career advancement for team members is primarily within the project

Answer

The project manager has full authority over the project budget

Question 7

Which TWO of the following are commonly used requirements elicitation techniques?

Accepted Answer

Prototyping. Prototyping (B) is a recognized elicitation technique because building a mock-up or working model lets stakeholders react to something concrete, surfacing and refining requirements that are hard to articulate in the abstract. Brainstorming (D) is likewise a standard elicitation technique, used to generate a broad set of ideas and candidate requirements from stakeholders in a group setting before they are analyzed and prioritized. The remaining options are not elicitation techniques: Monte Carlo Simulation (A) is a quantitative risk/ schedule analysis method that models probability distributions of outcomes, Parametric Estimating (C) is a cost/duration estimating technique using statistical relationships between historical data and variables, and Variance Analysis (E) is a monitoring and controlling technique that compares actual performance against a baseline.

Answer

Monte Carlo Simulation

Answer

Parametric Estimating

Answer

Variance Analysis

Question 8

In Kanban, what is the primary purpose of limiting Work in Progress (WIP)?

Accepted Answer

To reduce multitasking and improve focus.. Limiting WIP in Kanban directly constrains how many items can be in progress simultaneously, which reduces context switching and multitasking so team members can focus on fewer tasks at a time. This focus improves flow efficiency and helps surface bottlenecks, which is the foundational purpose of the WIP limit.

Answer

To ensure each task is done correctly the first time.

Answer

To increase throughput.

Answer

To make the team work faster.

Question 9

During a predictive project's execution phase, a key stakeholder requests a change that adds a minor feature. The project manager assesses the impact and determines the change will increase cost by 5% and extend the schedule by two days, which is within the contingency reserves. What should the project manager do first?

Accepted Answer

Submit a change request to the change control board (CCB).. The change control process requires submitting any change request to the Change Control Board (CCB) for evaluation and approval before implementation, even if the impact is within contingency reserves. Option B is incorrect because the project manager cannot unilaterally approve changes unless explicitly granted that authority. Option C is incorrect because the project charter is a high-level document and is not updated for minor feature changes; such updates are handled through integrated change control. Option D is incorrect because implementing the change without formal approval bypasses the established change control process.

Answer

Approve the change immediately and inform the team.

Answer

Update the project charter to reflect the new feature.

Answer

Implement the change since it is within the contingency reserves.

Question 10

Refer to the exhibit. What is the total float of Task B?

Accepted Answer

1 day. Task B has a total float of 1 day because it lies on a non-critical path. The critical path (A-C-D) has a duration of 11 days, while the path containing Task B (A-B-D) has a duration of 10 days. Total float is calculated as the difference between the duration of the critical path and the duration of the path containing the task, which is 11 - 10 = 1 day.

Answer

3 days

Answer

2 days

Answer

0 days

Question 11

Refer to the exhibit. A business analyst is troubleshooting a performance issue reported by users. The ping and traceroute show successful connectivity to the server at 10.0.0.1. Despite this, the application response is slow. Which analysis step should the analyst take next?

Accepted Answer

Check the server CPU utilization. Since network connectivity is confirmed, the next step is to investigate server-side performance, such as CPU utilization, to identify bottlenecks.

Answer

Reboot the server

Answer

Increase bandwidth

Answer

Verify DNS resolution

Question 12

Which THREE of the following are components of the project charter?

Accepted Answer

Project purpose or justification. The project charter formally authorizes the project and the project manager. It includes the project purpose or justification (A) to establish the business need, a summary budget (B) to provide high-level financial constraints, and high-level risks (D) to identify potential uncertainties early. These are key components per the PMBOK Guide.

Answer

Detailed project schedule

Answer

Work breakdown structure

Question 13

A project manager is reviewing the project's cost performance. The actual cost (AC) is $50,000, the earned value (EV) is $45,000, and the planned value (PV) is $60,000. What is the cost variance (CV)?

Accepted Answer

-$5,000. Cost variance (CV) is calculated as EV minus AC. Here, EV = $45,000 and AC = $50,000, so CV = $45,000 - $50,000 = -$5,000. A negative CV indicates the project is over budget, which matches option C.

Answer

$5,000

Answer

-$15,000

Answer

$10,000

Question 14

During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a change that will increase the project scope. The project manager evaluates the impact and determines it will require additional budget and time. What is the first step the project manager should take?

Accepted Answer

Submit a change request to the change control board. In predictive (waterfall) project management, any change that impacts scope, budget, or schedule must follow the formal integrated change control process. The project manager's first step after evaluating the impact is to submit a change request to the change control board (CCB) for approval or rejection. This ensures that all changes are documented, assessed for risks, and aligned with the project baseline before implementation.

Answer

Reject the change due to budget and time constraints

Answer

Implement the change and document it later

Answer

Approve the change because the stakeholder is key

Question 15

Which of the following is a key component of a project scope baseline in predictive project management?

Accepted Answer

The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). In predictive project management, the scope baseline consists of the approved project scope statement, Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), and WBS dictionary. The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition that breaks down the project work into manageable components, forming the foundation for scope management. Therefore, the WBS is a key component of the scope baseline, making option B correct.

Answer

The project budget

Answer

The risk register

Answer

The stakeholder register