CAPM Practice Test 25 — 15 Questions

Question 1

A business analyst needs to gather input from a large number of geographically dispersed stakeholders about their preferences for a new system. The project has a limited budget and timeline. Which elicitation technique is most efficient in this scenario?

Accepted Answer

Survey / Questionnaire. Surveys are cost-effective for collecting data from many stakeholders across locations. Focus groups and interviews are more resource-intensive and work better with smaller groups. Observation requires physical presence.

Answer

Focus groups

Answer

One-on-one interviews

Answer

Observation

Question 2

You are a business analyst working on a project to digitize the supply chain operations of a large logistics company. After completing the requirements documentation, you review the requirements against the organization's strategic goals. You discover that several key requirements directly conflict with the company's recently announced strategic objective to reduce carbon emissions by 30% within two years. Specifically, the proposed solution relies on increased just-in-time deliveries that would require more transportation, contradicting the sustainability goal. You bring this to the attention of the project sponsor, who is the VP of Operations. The sponsor acknowledges the conflict but insists on proceeding with the original requirements, arguing that the strategic goal is not feasible and that operational efficiency is more important. The project is already approved and has a significant budget. What should the business analyst do?

Accepted Answer

Document the conflict and escalate to the steering committee for a decision on how to resolve the inconsistency.. The business analyst has a duty to escalate unresolved conflicts that threaten strategic alignment. Recording the conflict and escalating to the steering committee ensures that decision-makers with broader authority can resolve the issue. Updating the business case to align with requirements would be unethical if it contradicts strategy. Proceeding without action ignores the conflict, and ignoring it violates professional responsibility.

Answer

Record the conflict in the issues log and proceed with the project as planned, noting the risk in the risk register.

Answer

Update the business case to align the project's objectives with the new requirements, justifying the deviation from the strategic goal.

Answer

Ignore the conflict because the sponsor has the authority to make decisions, and the project has already been approved.

Question 3

You are a business analyst on a project to upgrade the customer relationship management (CRM) system in a mid-sized company. During the needs assessment, you discover that the sales team wants a mobile app, while the support team prefers a web-based interface. The IT department insists on using a cloud platform, but the finance department is concerned about recurring costs. The project manager asks you to recommend a business analysis framework to handle these conflicting interests. The project is time-sensitive and requires quick decisions. As the business analyst, what should you do?

Accepted Answer

Recommend an Agile framework with regular stakeholder feedback sessions to prioritize features.. Option C is correct because Agile Stakeholder Engagement allows iterative feedback and prioritization, accommodating conflicting needs through continuous collaboration. A Waterfall approach (A) is too rigid for evolving conflicts. RACI (B) addresses roles, not prioritization. Cost-benefit (D) is just one analysis, ignoring ongoing engagement.

Answer

Create a RACI matrix to clarify stakeholders' roles and responsibilities.

Answer

Perform a detailed cost-benefit analysis to determine the best technical solution.

Answer

Propose a Waterfall approach to finalize all requirements upfront and avoid changes.

Question 4

In a predictive project life cycle, which of the following best describes the relationship between scope, time, and cost?

Accepted Answer

Scope is fixed, time and cost are estimated.. Option C is correct because in predictive life cycles, scope is fixed early, while time and cost are estimated. Option A is incorrect because not all three are fixed. Option B is typical of adaptive life cycles. Option D is incorrect as scope is not variable.

Answer

All three are fixed.

Answer

Time and cost are fixed, scope is variable.

Answer

All three are variable.

Question 5

A project has a fixed deadline but flexible scope. The project manager receives a change request that would significantly increase scope. What should the project manager do first?

Accepted Answer

Evaluate the impact on time, cost, and quality. Option C is correct because evaluating the impact on time, cost, and other constraints is the first step in integrated change control. Direct approval or rejection would be premature without impact analysis.

Answer

Escalate to the sponsor immediately

Answer

Approve the change because the scope is flexible

Answer

Reject the change to protect the fixed deadline

Question 6

Refer to the exhibit. The project manager needs to calculate the total hours assigned to each resource. Which resource has the highest total assigned hours?

Accepted Answer

Bob. Option A is correct because Bob has 80 hours, Alice has 60 hours, and Charlie has 30 hours. Alice's total is lower, so Bob has the highest.

Answer

Alice

Answer

Cannot be determined from the exhibit

Answer

Charlie

Question 7

A project is being executed in a highly regulated industry. The quality management plan requires extensive documentation. During a quality audit, the auditor finds that some test results are missing. What is the MOST appropriate action for the project manager?

Accepted Answer

Log the issue in the issue log and develop a corrective action. Option D is correct. The missing test results represent an issue that should be logged in the issue log, and corrective action should be planned to resolve it. Option A might be part of the corrective action but not the immediate first step. Options B and C are premature.

Answer

Issue a change request to update the quality management plan

Answer

Request that the team repeat the tests immediately

Answer

Update the lessons learned register

Question 8

Which document formally authorizes the project and provides the project manager with authority to apply organizational resources?

Accepted Answer

Project charter. Option B is correct because the project charter formally authorizes the project. Option A is wrong because the business case justifies the project but does not authorize. Option C is wrong because the project management plan is developed after authorization. Option D is wrong because the stakeholder register identifies stakeholders.

Answer

Business case

Answer

Project management plan

Answer

Stakeholder register

Question 9

Which of the following is a key output of the Plan Risk Management process?

Accepted Answer

Risk management plan.. Option B is correct because the risk management plan is the primary output. Option A is output of Identify Risks. Option C is a tool. Option D is part of Plan Risk Responses.

Answer

Risk breakdown structure.

Answer

Risk register.

Answer

Risk response plan.

Question 10

A project team is working on a construction project. The project manager notices that the team is spending excessive time clarifying task responsibilities. Which project management artifact would most directly help assign clear ownership?

Accepted Answer

RACI matrix. Option A is correct because a RACI matrix defines roles and responsibilities. The other options focus on different aspects (schedule, risks, work breakdown).

Answer

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Answer

Gantt chart

Answer

Risk register

Question 11

Which THREE of the following are processes that belong to the Planning process group?

Accepted Answer

Sequence Activities. Options B, C, and E are correct. Create WBS, Sequence Activities, and Estimate Activity Resources are all Planning processes. Develop Project Charter is Initiating, and Control Quality is Monitoring and Controlling.

Answer

Control Quality

Answer

Develop Project Charter

Question 12

A project has a cost baseline of $100,000. At the end of month 2, the planned value is $30,000, and the actual cost is $40,000. If the earned value is $25,000, what is the cost variance?

Accepted Answer

-$15,000. Option A is correct. Cost variance (CV) = Earned Value (EV) - Actual Cost (AC) = $25,000 - $40,000 = -$15,000.

Answer

$15,000

Answer

-$10,000

Answer

$10,000

Question 13

A project manager is assigned to a cross-functional initiative in a matrix organization. The team members report to both the project manager and their functional managers. What is the primary challenge the project manager would face?

Accepted Answer

Balancing resource allocation between project and functional work. Option C is correct because in a matrix organization, team members have dual reporting lines, leading to competing priorities. Option A is wrong because budget authority varies. Option B is wrong because communication is not necessarily slower. Option D is wrong because resource availability depends on functional managers.

Answer

Difficulty in obtaining project sponsor approval

Answer

Slow communication with stakeholders

Answer

Lack of budget control

Question 14

Which THREE are common project constraints that must be balanced?

Accepted Answer

Time. Options A, B, and C are correct: scope, time, and cost are the classic triple constraints. Option D (quality) is sometimes included but not always considered a primary constraint in the classic triple constraint. Option E (risk) is not a constraint but an uncertainty factor.

Answer

Risk

Answer

Quality

Question 15

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator applies this IAM policy to a user. What is the effect on the user's access to the S3 bucket?

Accepted Answer

Denies all S3 actions on the bucket unless the user has authenticated with multi-factor authentication (MFA). The policy denies all S3 actions on the bucket when Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) is not present (false). If MFA is present, the condition does not apply, but the default is allow? Actually, this is a Deny statement with a condition. IAM evaluates deny first, so if MFA is false, actions are denied. If MFA is true, the condition is not met, so the deny statement does not apply, and the user may be allowed by other policies. However, without an explicit allow, the default is implicit deny. But the question asks for the effect given the policy. The correct answer is that it denies S3 actions when MFA is not present. Option A correctly describes this. Option B is incorrect because it is not an allow. Option C says 'regardless', but the condition makes it conditional. Option D says allows if MFA present, but this is a deny policy, not allow.

Answer

Allows S3 actions on the bucket only if MFA is present

Answer

Allows all S3 actions on the bucket

Answer

Denies all S3 actions on the bucket regardless of MFA