CAPM Practice Test 20 — 15 Questions

Question 1

You are the project manager for a large infrastructure project using a predictive plan-based methodology. The project has a critical path duration of 200 days. After 50 days of execution, a major delay occurs on a critical path activity due to unforeseen ground conditions, adding 20 days to that activity. The project has no float on the critical path. The sponsor requests a recovery plan to bring the project back on schedule. The team proposes two options: (1) crash activity X on the critical path by adding overtime, costing $10,000 and saving 5 days; (2) fast-track activity Y and Z by starting Y earlier, saving 10 days but increasing risk. What is the BEST integrated approach?

Choose an answer to begin — your selection is scored in the full session.

Accepted Answer

Fast-track activities Y and Z to gain 10 days, crash activity X to gain 5 days, then negotiate a schedule change for the remaining 5 days.. The best integrated approach is to apply both schedule compression techniques—fast-tracking and crashing—to recover the maximum amount of time (10 + 5 = 15 days) before resorting to a baseline change. This minimizes the remaining delay to 5 days, which can then be addressed through formal change control. This approach aligns with PMBOK's emphasis on evaluating all options and integrating them for optimal recovery.

Answer

Crash activity X to gain 5 days, then accept the 15-day delay and request a schedule baseline change.

Answer

Implement only the fast-tracking option to save 10 days, then accept the remaining 10-day delay.

Answer

Implement only the crashing option to save 5 days, and then use management reserves to absorb the remaining 15 days.

Question 2

Drag and drop the steps for controlling project changes according to the integrated change control process.

Accepted Answer

Step 1: Submit change request; Step 2: Review change request; Step 3: Approve or reject change; Step 4: Update project management plan and communicate outcome.. Change control involves submitting, reviewing, deciding, updating plans, and communicating outcomes.

Answer

Step 1: Review change request; Step 2: Submit change request; Step 3: Approve or reject change; Step 4: Update project management plan and communicate outcome.

Answer

Step 1: Submit change request; Step 2: Approve or reject change; Step 3: Review change request; Step 4: Update project management plan and communicate outcome.

Answer

Step 1: Submit change request; Step 2: Review change request; Step 3: Update project management plan and communicate outcome; Step 4: Approve or reject change.

Question 3

During requirements elicitation, the team discovers conflicting needs from two key stakeholders. The project manager asks the business analyst to use a prioritization technique that allows stakeholders to vote anonymously to reach consensus. Which technique should be used?

Accepted Answer

Delphi Technique. The Delphi Technique involves anonymous voting rounds to achieve consensus. MoSCoW is a prioritization but not anonymous, Multi-criteria Decision Analysis does not involve voting, and Voting (Roman Vote) is open.

Answer

Multi-criteria Decision Analysis

Answer

Voting (Roman Vote)

Answer

MoSCoW Prioritization

Question 4

Which THREE are components of the project management plan?

Accepted Answer

Cost baseline. The project management plan is the integrated, approved document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed, and it formally incorporates the three baselines: the scope baseline (D), the schedule baseline (E), and the cost baseline (B). The scope baseline (D) is the approved version of the scope statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary, and it is a component of the project management plan used to measure scope performance. The schedule baseline (E) is the approved version of the schedule model, and the cost baseline (B) is the approved, time-phased project budget; both are performance measurement baselines contained within the plan. By contrast, the risk register (A) and stakeholder register (C) are project documents, not components of the project management plan, so they do not belong in the answer.

Answer

Risk register

Answer

Stakeholder register

Question 5

A project manager is planning a project and needs to identify all the work required to complete the project successfully. Which document is the primary output of the Create WBS process?

Accepted Answer

Scope baseline. The Create WBS process decomposes the project scope into manageable work packages, and its primary output is the scope baseline. The scope baseline consists of the project scope statement, the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), and the WBS dictionary, which together define all the work required to complete the project successfully.

Answer

Project charter

Answer

Requirements traceability matrix

Answer

Work performance data

Question 6

Which THREE of the following are processes that belong to the Planning process group?

Accepted Answer

Sequence Activities. Options B, C, and E are correct. Create WBS, Sequence Activities, and Estimate Activity Resources are all Planning processes. Develop Project Charter is Initiating, and Control Quality is Monitoring and Controlling.

Answer

Control Quality

Answer

Develop Project Charter

Question 7

A project manager notices that the project is behind schedule. Which of the following actions is most appropriate to bring the project back on track?

Accepted Answer

Add more resources to critical path tasks.. Adding resources to critical path tasks is a form of crashing — a schedule compression technique that shortens the critical path by increasing the resources applied to it. Since only critical path activities directly determine project duration, adding resources there is the most direct and legitimate way to recover schedule.

Answer

Reduce the project scope without stakeholder approval.

Answer

Ask team members to work overtime without compensation.

Answer

Ignore the delay as it will recover later.

Question 8

Which THREE of the following are characteristics of a project?

Accepted Answer

Progressive elaboration. Option A (Progressive elaboration) is correct because a project's scope, requirements, and plans are refined and detailed incrementally as more information and better estimates become available throughout the project life cycle. Option C (Temporary) is correct because a project has a defined beginning and end, and it concludes when its objectives are achieved, terminated, or no longer viable. Option D (Unique) is correct because a project produces a distinct product, service, or result with characteristics that differentiate it from other deliverables, even when similar work has been done before. Options B (Repetitive) and E (Ongoing) do not belong because repetitive, continuous work with no defined end date describes operations or business-as-usual processes, not a project, which is by definition temporary and unique.

Answer

Repetitive

Answer

Ongoing

Question 9

During requirements elicitation, a business analyst (BA) observes that key stakeholders are reluctant to share information due to a previous project's failure. The BA needs to build trust. Which technique should the BA use to encourage open communication?

Accepted Answer

Facilitate a workshop with ground rules to ensure respectful dialogue.. Facilitating a workshop with ground rules establishes a structured, respectful environment that directly addresses trust issues. Ground rules create psychological safety by setting clear expectations for behavior, which encourages reluctant stakeholders to share information openly. This technique is specifically designed to rebuild trust in a group setting after a project failure.

Answer

Conduct one-on-one interviews to gather individual perspectives.

Answer

Distribute a survey to collect anonymous feedback.

Answer

Organize a brainstorming session to generate ideas freely.

Question 10

Which TWO of the following are benefits of using a project management plan? (Choose two)

Accepted Answer

It defines how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled. Options B and D are correct. The project management plan defines how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled, and provides a baseline for measuring performance. Option A is false because stakeholder communication remains essential and is not replaced by the plan. Option C is false because no plan can guarantee project success. Option E is false because risks cannot be eliminated; the plan helps manage but not eliminate risks.

Answer

It replaces the need for stakeholder communication

Answer

It guarantees project success

Answer

It eliminates all project risks

Question 11

Which THREE are formal Scrum ceremonies (events) as defined in the Scrum Guide?

Accepted Answer

Sprint Planning.. Sprint Planning (A) is one of the five formal Scrum events defined in the Scrum Guide, where the team defines the Sprint Goal and the work to be done in the upcoming Sprint. The Daily Scrum (C) is the 15-minute daily event for the Developers to inspect progress toward the Sprint Goal and adapt the Sprint Backlog. The Sprint Review (D) is the event at the end of the Sprint where the Increment is inspected and the Product Backlog is adapted with stakeholders. Backlog refinement (B) is an ongoing activity, not a formal Scrum event, and Release planning (E) is a traditional/auxiliary practice that is not defined as a Scrum ceremony in the Scrum Guide.

Answer

Backlog refinement.

Answer

Release planning.

Question 12

A project manager is developing a work breakdown structure (WBS) for a construction project. Which approach should be used to ensure all deliverables are identified?

Accepted Answer

Decomposition. Decomposition is the process of breaking down deliverables into smaller components, which ensures all are identified. Other options are estimating or planning techniques.

Answer

Analogous estimating

Answer

Bottom-up estimating

Answer

Rolling wave planning

Question 13

A startup is developing a mobile application with rapidly changing requirements. The team needs to deliver value quickly and adapt to user feedback. Which business analysis approach is most appropriate?

Accepted Answer

Agile. Agile is designed for rapid iteration and adaptability to changing requirements.

Answer

V-Model

Answer

Spiral

Answer

Waterfall

Question 14

After gathering requirements, the business analyst is prioritizing them based on stakeholder value and implementation complexity. Which tool is commonly used for this purpose?

Accepted Answer

MoSCoW analysis. MoSCoW analysis (Must have, Should have, Could have, Won't have) is a prioritization technique specifically designed to rank requirements by business value and delivery necessity. It directly addresses the question's need to prioritize based on stakeholder value while considering implementation complexity by forcing stakeholders to categorize requirements into value tiers.

Answer

SWOT analysis

Answer

Process flow diagram

Answer

Requirements traceability matrix

Question 15

A project manager is assigned to a cross-functional initiative in a matrix organization. The team members report to both the project manager and their functional managers. What is the primary challenge the project manager would face?

Accepted Answer

Balancing resource allocation between project and functional work. In a matrix organization, team members have dual reporting lines, leading to competing priorities. Option A is wrong because budget authority varies. Option B is wrong because communication is not necessarily slower. Option D is wrong because resource availability depends on functional managers.

Answer

Difficulty in obtaining project sponsor approval

Answer

Slow communication with stakeholders

Answer

Lack of budget control