CAPM Practice Test 19 — 15 Questions

Question 1

What is the main advantage of a projectized organization structure?

Accepted Answer

High level of authority for the project manager.. In a projectized organization, the project manager has full authority over the project budget, resources, and personnel, enabling rapid decision-making and clear accountability. Option A is incorrect because projectized structures typically have higher administrative costs due to dedicated teams. Option B describes a matrix organization where resources are shared across projects. Option C is incorrect because projectized structures often lack a clear career path as team members return to a pool after project completion.

Answer

Lower administrative costs.

Answer

Efficient resource sharing between projects.

Answer

Clear career path for team members.

Question 2

A construction project is underway. The project manager receives a report that the concrete supplier will deliver late, causing a two-week delay. The project has no schedule reserve. What is the best course of action?

Accepted Answer

Analyze the impact on the critical path and evaluate options. The project manager should first analyze the impact on the critical path before deciding on a response. The other options are premature without analysis.

Answer

Inform the sponsor and request a schedule extension

Answer

Immediately crash the schedule by adding resources to critical path activities

Answer

Fast-track the remaining activities to recover the delay

Question 3

Which TWO of the following are outputs of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process?

Accepted Answer

Stakeholder engagement plan. The correct outputs of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process are the Stakeholder Engagement Plan (C) and Project Management Plan Updates (E). The Stakeholder Engagement Plan describes how to engage stakeholders effectively. Project Management Plan Updates incorporate changes to the project management plan resulting from this process. Option A (Stakeholder Register) is an output of the Identify Stakeholders process, not Plan Stakeholder Engagement. Option B (Stakeholder Analysis) is a tool or technique used, not an output. Option D (Issue Log) is an output of Manage Project Team or Manage Stakeholder Engagement, but not of Plan Stakeholder Engagement.

Answer

Stakeholder register

Answer

Stakeholder analysis

Answer

Issue log

Question 4

A project is behind schedule. Which schedule compression technique involves adding additional resources to critical path activities?

Accepted Answer

Crashing. Crashing is a schedule compression technique that involves adding additional resources to critical path activities to reduce project duration. Option D is correct. Resource leveling (A) adjusts start and finish dates based on resource constraints. Monte Carlo simulation (B) is a risk analysis technique. Rolling wave planning (C) is a progressive elaboration technique.

Answer

Resource leveling

Answer

Monte Carlo simulation

Answer

Rolling wave planning

Question 5

A project sponsor asks the project manager to report on budget performance. Which metric best indicates whether the project is under or over budget?

Accepted Answer

Cost Performance Index (CPI). Cost Performance Index (CPI) is a measure of cost efficiency relative to the work performed; CPI > 1 indicates under budget, CPI < 1 indicates over budget. It is a relative metric that allows comparison across projects or time periods, making it the best indicator for budget performance. Cost Variance (CV) is an absolute dollar amount and can be misleading when comparing projects of different sizes. Schedule Performance Index (SPI) and Schedule Variance (SV) relate to schedule, not cost.

Answer

Cost Variance (CV)

Answer

Schedule Variance (SV)

Answer

Schedule Performance Index (SPI)

Question 6

Which THREE of the following are recognized process groups in the PMBOK Guide? (Choose three)

Accepted Answer

Executing. Options C, D, and E are correct. The PMBOK Guide defines five process groups: Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing. Analyzing and Reviewing are not recognized process groups.

Answer

Reviewing

Answer

Analyzing

Question 7

The sponsor is concerned about the accuracy of cost estimates prepared using analogous estimating. Which estimating technique should the project manager recommend to improve accuracy?

Accepted Answer

Bottom-up estimating. Bottom-up estimating involves detailed analysis of each work package, providing the highest accuracy. This technique improves upon analogous estimating by using detailed estimates from lower-level components.

Answer

Reserve analysis

Answer

Parametric estimating

Answer

Three-point estimating

Question 8

A project manager is reviewing the business case for a new initiative. Which document should the project manager create to define how the project will deliver the expected benefits?

Accepted Answer

Benefits management plan. The benefits management plan describes how and when benefits will be realized. Option A is wrong because the project charter authorizes the project. Option C is wrong because the stakeholder register lists stakeholders. Option D is wrong because the scope baseline is part of the project management plan.

Answer

Project charter

Answer

Stakeholder register

Answer

Scope baseline

Question 9

A project is in the executing phase, and the team is frequently reworking deliverables due to defects. Which process is most likely inadequate?

Accepted Answer

Quality management. Rework indicates issues with quality management. Scope verification is about formal acceptance, not preventing defects. Risk management might identify potential defects but doesn't prevent them directly.

Answer

Scope verification

Answer

Communications management

Answer

Risk management

Question 10

During project execution, a key stakeholder requests a new feature that was not included in the approved scope. What should the project manager do first?

Accepted Answer

Perform a change impact analysis. The correct first step when a new feature is requested is to perform a change impact analysis (Option A). According to the PMBOK Guide, any change request must be assessed for its impact on project constraints such as scope, schedule, cost, and quality before a decision is made. Option B (escalating to sponsor) is premature without analysis. Option C (rejecting outright) is not proactive and ignores proper change control. Option D (adding to next iteration) bypasses the formal change control process.

Answer

Escalate to the project sponsor for decision

Answer

Inform the stakeholder that the scope is frozen

Answer

Add the feature to the next iteration

Question 11

Which TWO of the following are considered examples of enterprise environmental factors (EEFs)?

Accepted Answer

Government regulations. Options A and C are correct because company culture and government regulations are external or internal factors that affect the project but are not part of organizational process assets. Lessons learned and templates are organizational process assets. The project charter is an output of the project.

Answer

Project charter

Answer

Lessons learned from previous projects

Answer

Work breakdown structure template

Question 12

A project team is using a colocation (war room) technique. What is the primary benefit?

Accepted Answer

Improved communication and collaboration among team members. Colocation, also known as a war room, physically brings team members together to enhance communication and collaboration. This is the primary benefit as it reduces misunderstandings and fosters teamwork. Option C is correct. Option A (lower project costs) is not a direct benefit; colocation often increases costs due to travel or facility expenses. Option B (reduced project risk) is not the primary benefit; while improved communication may help identify risks earlier, it is secondary. Option D (faster decision making) is a positive outcome of improved communication but not the primary benefit.

Answer

Lower project costs

Answer

Reduced project risk

Answer

Faster decision making

Question 13

Which TWO are outputs of the Initiating process group?

Accepted Answer

Stakeholder register. The correct answers are C (Stakeholder register) and D (Project charter). Both are key outputs of the Initiating process group. Option A (Project scope statement) is an output of Planning. Option B (Work breakdown structure) is also from Planning. Option E (Risk register) is created during Planning as well.

Answer

Project scope statement

Answer

Work breakdown structure

Answer

Risk register

Question 14

A project manager is estimating activity durations. The team provides three estimates: optimistic 10 days, pessimistic 20 days, most likely 14 days. Using the PERT beta distribution, what is the expected duration?

Accepted Answer

14.33 days. PERT expected = (O + 4M + P)/6 = (10 + 4*14 + 20)/6 = (10 + 56 + 20)/6 = 86/6 = 14.33 days.

Answer

14 days

Answer

14.67 days

Answer

15 days

Question 15

In project procurement management, what is the primary purpose of the procurement statement of work (SOW)?

Accepted Answer

To describe the work to be performed by the seller. The procurement statement of work (SOW) describes the work to be performed by the seller in sufficient detail. Option C is correct. Option A (manage vendor relationship) occurs after contract award and is part of contract administration. Option B (evaluate vendor proposals) uses the SOW as an input, but the SOW itself is not for evaluation. Option D (define contract terms and conditions) is the purpose of the contract, not the SOW.

Answer

To manage the vendor relationship after contract award

Answer

To evaluate vendor proposals

Answer

To define the contract terms and conditions