CCNA Pmp Process Questions — Page 6 of 6

376

MCQmedium

Your project is behind schedule, and you need to compress the schedule. The critical path has been identified. What is the BEST schedule compression technique to use if you have additional budget available?

A.Fast tracking

B.Crashing

C.Resource smoothing

D.Resource leveling

AnswerB

Crashing adds resources to critical path activities to shorten duration, and it directly consumes the additional budget the stem makes available. Unlike fast tracking, it introduces no added rework risk from parallel activities, making it the best fit for this constraint.

Why this answer

Crashing is the correct technique because it involves adding resources (e.g., overtime, additional staff, or expedited shipping) to critical path activities to compress the schedule, and the question explicitly states additional budget is available. Unlike fast tracking, crashing does not increase risk but does increase cost, making it the best choice when budget is not a constraint.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse fast tracking with crashing, thinking both compress the schedule, but fast tracking increases risk while crashing increases cost—and the question explicitly provides additional budget, making crashing the clear choice.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because fast tracking involves performing critical path activities in parallel that were originally sequential, which increases risk and rework potential without requiring additional budget; it does not directly use extra funds. Option C is wrong because resource smoothing is a technique to adjust resource usage within the float constraints to avoid peaks and troughs, not to compress the schedule; it does not shorten the critical path. Option D is wrong because resource leveling is used to resolve resource over-allocation by delaying tasks, which often increases the project duration, the opposite of schedule compression.

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377

MCQmedium

Your project is using a predictive approach, and you are in the execution phase. A key stakeholder requests a minor change that you believe will improve the product but is not in the scope. What should you do?

A.Submit a change request and follow the Integrated Change Control process

B.Implement the change and document it later

C.Refuse the change because the project is already in execution

D.Approve the change yourself since it is minor and will improve the product

AnswerA

In a predictive project management approach, any proposed modification to baselines (scope, schedule, cost) or project documents necessitates a formal change request. This request then proceeds through the Integrated Change Control process, where it is reviewed, analyzed for impact, and approved or rejected by the Change Control Board (CCB) or designated authority. This structured approach ensures all changes are properly evaluated, documented, and communicated, maintaining project integrity and alignment with objectives.

Why this answer

In a predictive (waterfall) project, any change to the approved scope, even if minor and beneficial, must go through the formal Integrated Change Control (ICC) process. This ensures the change is evaluated for impacts on cost, schedule, quality, and risk before approval. Submitting a change request is the correct procedure to maintain control over the project baseline and avoid scope creep.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume a 'minor' or 'beneficial' change can be handled informally, but PMI strictly requires all scope changes to follow the formal ICC process regardless of size or perceived benefit.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because implementing a change without prior approval violates the change control process and can lead to undocumented scope creep, rework, and baseline corruption. Option C is wrong because being in the execution phase does not automatically disqualify changes; the ICC process exists precisely to handle changes at any phase. Option D is wrong because the project manager does not have unilateral authority to approve scope changes; approval requires the Change Control Board (CCB) or designated authority as defined in the change management plan.

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378

MCQeasy

The project team is in the process of identifying risks. Which tool or technique should the project manager use to identify risks?

A.Quality audits

B.Earned value management

C.Brainstorming

D.Critical path method

AnswerC

Brainstorming is a highly effective data gathering technique where a group of project stakeholders, often including subject matter experts, collaboratively generates a comprehensive list of ideas or solutions related to a specific topic. In the context of risk management, brainstorming sessions are instrumental for identifying potential project risks by encouraging free-flowing thought and diverse perspectives. This collaborative approach helps uncover a broad range of uncertainties, both threats and opportunities, that might not be apparent to individuals working in isolation, making it a core technique for the "Identify Risks" process.

Why this answer

Brainstorming is a common technique for risk identification. Options A, B, and D are used in other processes.

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379

MCQeasy

A project manager is reviewing the quality metrics of a software development project. The testing team has found that the defect rate has increased significantly in the last two builds. What is the first action the project manager should take?

A.Conduct a root cause analysis to identify why the defect rate increased.

B.Increase the testing resources to catch more defects.

C.Ask the development team to redo the last two builds.

D.Escalate the issue to the project sponsor.

AnswerA

Conducting a root cause analysis is the foundational step in the Control Quality process when a defect rate increases. This systematic investigation aims to identify the underlying factors or events that led to the problem, rather than just addressing the symptoms. By understanding the true cause, the project team can implement effective corrective actions that prevent recurrence and improve overall process quality, aligning with continuous improvement principles.

Why this answer

According to the quality management process, the project manager should first investigate the root cause of the increased defect rate before taking any corrective action. Conducting a root cause analysis (option A) allows the team to identify underlying issues, such as process changes, training gaps, or tool problems, and then implement appropriate corrective actions. Options B, C, and D are premature; increasing testing resources may not address the root cause, redoing builds wastes effort without fixing the process, and escalation to the sponsor should occur after analysis shows the issue is beyond the team's control.

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380

MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. The project's access control policy allows read access only from the internal network (10.0.0.0/8) and denies access if not using an encrypted connection. A developer reports that they can access the repository from a machine with IP 10.0.0.5 using an encrypted connection. However, they cannot access it from a machine with IP 10.0.0.6 using an unencrypted connection. What is the most likely reason?

A.The Deny statement for unencrypted access overrides the Allow statement.

B.The policy requires both network and encrypted connection conditions to be met simultaneously.

C.The IP address 10.0.0.5 is not in the allowed range.

D.The IP address 10.0.0.6 is not in the allowed range.

AnswerA

In AWS IAM policy evaluation logic, an explicit Deny always takes precedence over an explicit Allow. If the S3 bucket policy contains an Allow statement for a specific IP range and a separate Deny statement for requests that are not using secure transport (e.g., aws:SecureTransport: false), the Deny will be enforced. This means even if a request originates from an allowed IP, it will be blocked if it attempts unencrypted access, as the Deny rule overrides the Allow.

Why this answer

In policy evaluation logic, an explicit Deny always overrides any Allow. The policy includes a Deny statement that blocks access when an unencrypted connection is used. Since unencrypted access from 10.0.0.6 triggers this Deny, it overrides the Allow statement that permits access from the internal network, resulting in denied access.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume that if an IP is in the allowed range, all access is permitted, ignoring that an explicit Deny for a specific condition (like unencrypted connection) takes precedence over any Allow.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the policy does not require both conditions to be met simultaneously; it uses separate Allow and Deny statements, and the Deny for HTTP is evaluated independently. Option C is wrong because the IP address 10.0.0.5 is within the allowed range (10.0.0.0/8) and the developer confirmed successful access via HTTPS, so it is allowed. Option D is wrong because the IP address 10.0.0.6 is also within the allowed range (10.0.0.0/8), but the Deny for HTTP overrides the Allow, so the issue is not about IP range membership.

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381

MCQmedium

A critical risk identified in the risk register has occurred. The planned response was to mitigate, but the impact is higher than anticipated. What should the project manager do FIRST?

A.Develop a new response from scratch because the impact changed

B.Update the risk register and ignore the planned response

C.Implement the planned mitigation response and then reassess the situation

D.Escalate the risk to the project sponsor immediately

AnswerC

When a critical risk materializes, the immediate and most appropriate action is to execute the pre-defined mitigation response documented in the risk register. This proactive step is crucial for minimizing negative impacts and stabilizing the situation according to the established plan. Following the implementation, a reassessment is necessary to evaluate the effectiveness of the response and determine if further actions, such as developing new strategies or escalating, are required.

Why this answer

The risk response plan should be executed first, then reassess and update the risk register. PMI recommends implementing the planned response and evaluating its effectiveness.

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382

MCQmedium

Your construction project is ahead of schedule but over budget. The earned value metrics are: EV = $500,000, PV = $450,000, AC = $550,000. What is the cost performance index (CPI) and schedule performance index (SPI)?

A.CPI = 1.11, SPI = 0.91

B.CPI = 0.91, SPI = 1.11

C.CPI = 1.10, SPI = 0.91

D.CPI = 0.91, SPI = 0.91

AnswerB

This option correctly reflects the project status. A CPI of 0.91 (less than 1) accurately indicates that the project is over budget, as the actual cost incurred is greater than the value of work earned. Simultaneously, an SPI of 1.11 (greater than 1) correctly signifies that the project is ahead of schedule, meaning more work has been completed than planned for the current point in time. These values align perfectly with the given project description.

Why this answer

The Cost Performance Index (CPI) is calculated as EV/AC = $500,000/$550,000 = 0.91, indicating cost overrun. The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is EV/PV = $500,000/$450,000 = 1.11, indicating ahead of schedule. Option B correctly matches these values.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often invert the formulas (e.g., AC/EV for CPI or PV/EV for SPI) or confuse which metric corresponds to cost vs. schedule, leading to swapped or incorrect index values.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because it swaps the CPI and SPI values, showing CPI = 1.11 (which would indicate under budget) and SPI = 0.91 (behind schedule), contradicting the given EV, PV, and AC. Option C is wrong because it uses an incorrect CPI of 1.10, likely from a rounding error or misapplication of the formula (e.g., using AC/EV instead of EV/AC). Option D is wrong because it shows both CPI and SPI as 0.91, which would imply both cost overrun and schedule delay, but the SPI should be 1.11 based on EV > PV.

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383

Multi-Selecteasy

You are closing a project phase. Which THREE activities should be performed during the project closure process?

Select 3 answers

A.Conduct a lessons learned session with the team.

B.Obtain formal acceptance of the deliverables from the customer.

C.Archive project documents and records.

D.Evaluate team member performance and provide feedback.

E.Update the risk register with residual risks.

AnswersA, B, C

Conducting a lessons learned session is a critical activity within the "Close Project or Phase" process. This involves systematically identifying, documenting, and analyzing the successes, failures, and challenges encountered throughout the project or phase. The insights gained become valuable Organizational Process Assets (OPAs), informing and improving future projects by preventing recurrence of issues and replicating effective strategies, thereby enhancing organizational learning and project management maturity.

Why this answer

Project closure includes obtaining formal acceptance, archiving documents, and conducting lessons learned. Updating the risk register is done throughout the project, and team performance appraisals may be done separately.

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384

MCQeasy

During project execution, a key team member resigns. The project manager needs to fill the position quickly. What is the FIRST step the project manager should take?

A.Review the project resource management plan and update the staffing requirements.

B.Immediately hire a replacement with similar skills.

C.Escalate the issue to the project sponsor for approval to hire.

D.Ask the team to redistribute the workload.

AnswerA

Reviewing the project resource management plan is the essential first step because it outlines the established processes for acquiring, managing, and releasing project team members. This plan details roles, responsibilities, and the procedures for addressing staffing changes, ensuring a structured approach to replacing the key team member. Subsequently, updating the staffing requirements based on the current project needs and the impact of the departure ensures that any new hire aligns precisely with the project's evolving demands and budget constraints. This systematic approach prevents impulsive decisions and maintains project stability.

Why this answer

The project resource management plan contains the procedures for acquiring, developing, and managing the project team. When a key team member resigns, the first step is to review this plan to identify the pre-defined staffing requirements, roles, and acquisition methods (e.g., hiring, reassignment) before taking any action. This ensures alignment with the project's resource constraints and avoids ad-hoc decisions that could disrupt the project's technical execution.

Exam trap

PMI often tests the misconception that the project manager should immediately escalate or take reactive action (like hiring or redistributing work) rather than first consulting the project management plan, which is the authoritative source for process-driven decisions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because immediately hiring a replacement without reviewing the resource management plan may violate budget constraints, skill requirements, or organizational policies, and could lead to onboarding an unsuitable candidate. Option C is wrong because escalating to the sponsor for approval to hire bypasses the project manager's authority and the established resource management processes; the sponsor is typically involved only for budget or scope changes, not routine staffing. Option D is wrong because asking the team to redistribute the workload without first assessing the resource plan can lead to burnout, skill gaps, and schedule delays, and ignores the formal process for filling vacancies.

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385

MCQeasy

A change request that affects the critical path has been approved. What is the NEXT step for the project manager?

A.Implement the change immediately without updating documents

B.Instruct the team to ignore the change until next sprint

C.File the change request in the project archives

D.Communicate the change to stakeholders and update the project management plan and baselines

AnswerD

This option correctly outlines the essential steps following the approval of a change request, especially one impacting the critical path. It mandates updating the project management plan and relevant baselines, such as the schedule and cost baselines, to reflect the new approved state. Concurrently, communicating these changes to all affected stakeholders ensures everyone is informed, manages expectations, and maintains alignment across the project team and external parties, which is crucial for effective project control and successful delivery.

Why this answer

Once a change request affecting the critical path is approved, the project manager must communicate the change to stakeholders and update the project management plan and baselines to reflect the new scope, schedule, and cost. This ensures everyone works from the same approved version and that future performance is measured against the revised baseline.

Exam trap

PMP often tests whether candidates know that after approval, the next step is communication and baseline updates — not immediate implementation, archiving, or ignoring the change.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because implementing a change without updating documents violates integrated change control — approved changes must be reflected in the plan and baselines, otherwise tracking and reporting become meaningless. Option B is wrong because ignoring an approved change is insubordination to the CCB's decision and would leave the project non-compliant with governance; approved changes are mandatory, not optional. Option C is wrong because filing the change request in archives is a closing activity, not the next step — archiving happens after implementation and verification, and doing it now would skip communication and baseline updates.

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