Courseiva

Certified Ethical Hacker CEH (CEH) — Questions 151–225

913 questions total · 13pages · All types, answers revealed

Page 2

Page 3 of 13

Page 4
151
MCQeasy

Which of the following commands is used to enumerate SNMP information from a network device using a specific community string?

A.ldapsearch -x -h 192.168.1.1 -b dc=domain,dc=com
B.enum4linux -a 192.168.1.1
C.snmpwalk -c public -v 2c 192.168.1.1
D.nbtstat -a 192.168.1.1
AnswerC

snmpwalk is the correct and standard command-line utility for enumerating SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) information from a target device. The `-c public` option specifies the community string, which acts as a password for accessing SNMP data, with "public" being a common default. The `-v 2c` flag designates SNMP version 2c, a widely supported version, while `192.168.1.1` is the target IP address from which to retrieve Management Information Base (MIB) data. This command systematically queries the entire MIB tree, revealing device configurations, network statistics, and system details.

Why this answer

`snmpwalk` is the standard command-line tool for enumerating SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) information from a network device. By specifying the community string (`-c public`) and SNMP version (`-v 2c`), it retrieves the entire Management Information Base (MIB) tree from the target IP address, allowing an attacker to discover system details, running processes, and network interfaces.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse SNMP enumeration tools with other network enumeration tools (like LDAP, SMB, or NetBIOS), leading them to pick a command that targets a different protocol entirely.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because `ldapsearch` is used for querying LDAP directories (port 389), not for SNMP enumeration; it requires a base DN and is unrelated to community strings. Option B is wrong because `enum4linux` is a tool for enumerating SMB/CIFS shares, users, and policies from Windows systems (port 445), not for SNMP queries. Option D is wrong because `nbtstat` is a Windows utility for NetBIOS over TCP/IP name resolution and cache management (port 137), not for SNMP enumeration.

152
MCQmedium

A penetration tester wants to crack Windows NTLM hashes using rainbow tables. Which tool is specifically designed for this purpose?

A.Hashcat
B.John the Ripper
C.RainbowCrack
D.Ophcrack
AnswerC

RainbowCrack is a specialized tool explicitly designed to utilize precomputed rainbow tables for efficient password recovery. It leverages the space-time trade-off inherent in rainbow table methodology, where extensive precomputation allows for exceptionally fast lookup during the cracking phase. By using these tables, RainbowCrack can quickly reverse NTLM hashes into their original plaintexts, provided the plaintext exists within the table's precomputed range, making it the most direct and effective tool for this specific task.

Why this answer

RainbowCrack is specifically designed for cracking hashes using precomputed rainbow tables. It works by performing a lookup in a rainbow table to reverse a hash into its plaintext, which is the core mechanism described in the question. While Hashcat and John the Ripper can also crack NTLM hashes, they are not specifically designed for rainbow table attacks; they primarily use brute-force or dictionary-based methods.

Exam trap

In the CEH exam, candidates often confuse Ophcrack (which is also a rainbow table tool but limited to LM/NTLM on older Windows) with RainbowCrack (the general-purpose tool), or they assume Hashcat or John the Ripper are the primary tools for rainbow table attacks when they are not specifically designed for that purpose.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Hashcat is a GPU-accelerated password recovery tool that uses brute-force, dictionary, and rule-based attacks, not rainbow tables. Option B is wrong because John the Ripper is a password cracking tool that primarily uses dictionary and brute-force attacks, and while it can use rainbow tables via external plugins, it is not specifically designed for that purpose. Option D is wrong because Ophcrack is a tool specifically designed for cracking LM and NTLM hashes using rainbow tables, but it is limited to Windows XP/Vista/7 and is not the general-purpose rainbow table tool for NTLM hashes; the question asks for a tool specifically designed for this purpose, and RainbowCrack is the correct answer.

153
MCQmedium

Which of the following commands would a tester use to enumerate NetBIOS names and their associated IP addresses on a local subnet?

A.nbtstat -n
B.nbtstat -c
C.nbtstat -a 192.168.1.10
D.nbtstat -A 192.168.1.10
AnswerD

The "nbtstat -A" command is specifically designed to perform a remote NetBIOS name table query against a target identified by its *IP address*. This command sends a NetBIOS Adapter Status Request to the specified IP, retrieving the NetBIOS names registered by that host, including workgroup/domain membership and services. This direct query capability makes "nbtstat -A 192.168.1.10" the correct choice for enumerating NetBIOS information from a remote system. It directly fulfills the requirement to enumerate a remote host using its IP.

Why this answer

The `nbtstat -A` command (with a capital 'A') performs a NetBIOS name table lookup against a remote IP address, listing the NetBIOS names registered by that host along with their associated IP addresses. This is the standard method for enumerating NetBIOS names on a specific target within a local subnet, as it queries the NetBIOS name service (UDP port 137) directly.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the lowercase `-a` (which expects a hostname) with the uppercase `-A` (which expects an IP address), leading them to incorrectly select option C when the question specifies an IP address.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because `nbtstat -n` displays only the local NetBIOS names registered on the tester's own machine, not names from other hosts on the subnet. Option B is wrong because `nbtstat -c` shows the local NetBIOS name cache, which contains recently resolved names and their IP addresses, but does not actively enumerate all hosts on the subnet. Option C is wrong because `nbtstat -a` (lowercase 'a') performs a NetBIOS name table lookup using a hostname, not an IP address, so it would fail or produce incorrect results when given an IP address.

154
MCQmedium

A security analyst observes repeated de-authentication packets targeting clients on a corporate Wi-Fi network. What is the MOST likely goal of the attacker?

A.To perform a denial-of-service attack and disrupt all wireless connectivity
B.To capture the WPA2 4-way handshake for offline password cracking
C.To install malware on the client devices
D.To exploit a vulnerability in the RADIUS server
AnswerB

The primary purpose of repeatedly sending deauthentication packets in a WPA2 environment is to force connected clients to disconnect from the access point and then reinitiate the authentication process. This forced reconnection allows an attacker, who is passively monitoring the wireless traffic with tools like airodump-ng, to capture the WPA2 4-way handshake. This handshake contains cryptographic material that can then be used for offline brute-force or dictionary attacks to recover the Pre-Shared Key (PSK).

Why this answer

De-authentication attacks force clients to reconnect, allowing the attacker to capture the 4-way handshake for offline cracking of the PSK.

155
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are effective mitigations against Clickjacking attacks? (Choose 2)

Select 2 answers
A.Enable HTTP Strict-Transport-Security (HSTS)
B.Set Content-Security-Policy: frame-ancestors 'none'
C.Use CSRF tokens
D.Set X-Frame-Options: DENY
E.Set SameSite cookies to Strict
AnswersB, D

The `Content-Security-Policy: frame-ancestors 'none'` directive is a modern and highly effective mitigation against clickjacking. This policy explicitly instructs the browser that the resource cannot be embedded within any frame, iframe, object, embed, or applet by any domain, including its own. By preventing the target page from being loaded in a hidden or overlaid frame, it directly thwarts attempts to trick users into performing unintended actions.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because the Content-Security-Policy directive frame-ancestors 'none' instructs the browser that the page must never be embedded in a frame, iframe, or object, which directly blocks the framing technique clickjacking relies on. Option D is correct because the X-Frame-Options: DENY response header prevents the page from being rendered inside a frame on any site, including the same origin, thereby stopping clickjacking overlay attacks. Option A is not a clickjacking mitigation because HSTS only forces HTTPS connections and prevents protocol downgrade or cookie hijacking, not framing.

Option C is unrelated since CSRF tokens defend against forged state-changing requests, not UI redressing. Option E is also unrelated because SameSite cookie attributes limit cross-site cookie sending to mitigate CSRF, not framing-based clickjacking.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing CSRF defenses (CSRF tokens, SameSite cookies) with clickjacking defenses — they address different attack classes, and only framing controls stop clickjacking.

156
MCQeasy

During a passive reconnaissance phase, a penetration tester uses a tool to gather email addresses, subdomains, and employee names associated with a target domain without directly interacting with the target's systems. Which tool is BEST suited for this purpose?

A.theHarvester
B.Nmap
C.Netcat
D.Wireshark
AnswerA

theHarvester queries public sources such as search engines, certificate transparency logs and DNS records, harvesting emails, subdomains and employee names via OSINT. It never touches the target's own systems, satisfying the passive reconnaissance constraint in the stem.

Why this answer

theHarvester is specifically designed for passive reconnaissance by querying public sources such as search engines (Google, Bing), PGP key servers, and the Shodan API to collect email addresses, subdomains, and employee names without sending any packets directly to the target's infrastructure. This aligns perfectly with the requirement of gathering OSINT data without direct interaction.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse passive reconnaissance with tools that can be used passively in some contexts (like Wireshark for sniffing), but the question specifically requires gathering email addresses, subdomains, and employee names from public sources, which only theHarvester is designed to do.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Nmap) is wrong because it actively sends crafted packets to target hosts to discover open ports and services, which constitutes active reconnaissance and would generate logs on the target's systems. Option C (Netcat) is wrong because it is a network utility for reading/writing data across TCP/UDP connections, used for banner grabbing or port scanning, both of which involve direct interaction with the target. Option D (Wireshark) is wrong because it is a packet analyzer that captures and inspects network traffic already on the wire, requiring either existing traffic from the target or active sniffing, and does not perform passive OSINT collection from public sources.

157
MCQhard

A security analyst runs `snmpwalk -v2c -c public 192.168.1.1` and receives extensive output about the device's configuration. Which of the following is the MOST effective countermeasure against this enumeration?

A.Disable SNMP entirely
B.Use SNMPv3 with encryption
C.Change the default community string and restrict SNMP access to specific IPs
D.Block ICMP echo requests
AnswerC

Changing the default community string, such as 'public', immediately invalidates the attacker's current enumeration attempt, as they would no longer possess the correct credential for SNMPv2c access. Simultaneously, restricting SNMP access to specific, authorized IP addresses through Access Control Lists (ACLs) provides an additional layer of defense. This combination ensures that only trusted management stations can even attempt to communicate with the SNMP agent, significantly reducing the attack surface and preventing unauthorized information disclosure.

Why this answer

The most effective countermeasure against SNMP enumeration via a default community string is to change the default 'public' (or 'private') string to a strong, non-guessable value and restrict SNMP access to trusted management IPs using an access control list (ACL). This prevents unauthorized querying of the MIB tree while still allowing legitimate SNMP monitoring.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose SNMPv3 with encryption (Option B) because it sounds more secure, but the question specifically targets the misconfiguration of using the default 'public' community string on SNMPv2c, which is best remedied by changing the community string and restricting access, not by upgrading the protocol version alone.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because disabling SNMP entirely may break legitimate network monitoring and management functions, making it an overly drastic and often impractical solution. Option B is wrong because while SNMPv3 with encryption provides authentication and privacy, the question specifies the attacker is using SNMPv2c with the 'public' community string; switching to SNMPv3 does not directly address the misconfiguration of using a default community string on v2c devices, and the question asks for the most effective countermeasure against this specific enumeration. Option D is wrong because blocking ICMP echo requests (ping) only prevents network discovery via ICMP, not SNMP enumeration over UDP port 161.

158
MCQeasy

Which of the following tools is PRIMARILY used for passive OSINT gathering and can query multiple search engines, social media platforms, and public databases to collect information about a target?

A.Nmap
B.Wireshark
C.Maltego
D.theHarvester
AnswerC

Maltego is a comprehensive graphical link analysis tool specifically engineered for open-source intelligence (OSINT) and forensic investigations. It excels at aggregating data from diverse public sources, including DNS records, social media, and WHOIS information, to uncover relationships between entities. Its unique strength lies in visualizing these connections through interactive graphs, enabling analysts to identify patterns and build a detailed profile of a target without direct interaction.

Why this answer

Maltego is primarily used for passive OSINT gathering because it leverages open-source intelligence feeds, search engines, social media platforms, and public databases to collect and correlate information about a target without directly interacting with the target's systems. Its transform-based architecture allows it to query multiple data sources simultaneously, making it the correct choice for passive reconnaissance.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse theHarvester with Maltego because both are OSINT tools, but theHarvester is more specialized for email and subdomain harvesting, while Maltego is the broader platform for multi-source passive intelligence gathering and visualization.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Nmap is an active reconnaissance tool that sends crafted packets to target hosts to discover open ports, services, and operating systems, which generates network traffic and can be detected. Option B is wrong because Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer used for capturing and inspecting live or recorded traffic, not for querying search engines or public databases for OSINT. Option D is wrong because theHarvester is indeed an OSINT tool, but it is primarily focused on email addresses, subdomains, and names from search engines and PGP key servers, not the broad multi-source correlation and visualization that Maltego provides for passive OSINT gathering.

159
MCQeasy

During a penetration test, you need to identify all live hosts on a target network without being detected by intrusion detection systems. Which Nmap flag would BEST achieve this?

A.-O (OS fingerprinting)
B.-sn (ping sweep)
C.-sS (SYN scan)
D.-sV (version detection)
AnswerB

The -sn (no port scan) flag, also known as a ping sweep, is specifically designed for host discovery by sending ICMP echo requests, TCP SYN packets to common ports, or ARP requests on local networks. It efficiently identifies live hosts with minimal network overhead and without initiating any full port scans, thereby significantly reducing the likelihood of detection by network security monitoring tools.

Why this answer

The -sn flag (ping sweep) sends ICMP echo requests, TCP SYN to port 443, TCP ACK to port 80, and ICMP timestamp requests by default to determine if a host is alive. This is the best choice for stealthy host discovery because it does not complete a full TCP handshake or send application-layer probes, minimizing the chance of triggering IDS signatures that look for port scans or OS fingerprinting.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse -sn (ping sweep) with -sS (SYN scan) because both involve TCP packets, but -sn is purely for host discovery without port scanning, whereas -sS is a port scanning technique that is much more intrusive and detectable.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because -O (OS fingerprinting) sends a series of crafted TCP packets to analyze responses for OS detection, which is highly detectable by IDS due to the unusual packet combinations and is not designed for simple host discovery. Option C is wrong because -sS (SYN scan) sends TCP SYN packets to specific ports to identify open ports, which is a port scanning technique that can trigger IDS alerts for half-open connections and is not optimized for stealthy live host detection. Option D is wrong because -sV (version detection) initiates full TCP connections and sends probe strings to identify service versions, which is noisy and easily detected by IDS, and is intended for service enumeration, not host discovery.

160
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a symptom of a successful command injection attack?

A.The server returns a 404 error
B.The output of the 'id' command appears in the response
C.The HTTP response header contains 'Server: Apache'
D.The page loads slower than usual
AnswerB

The appearance of the 'id' command's output, such as user and group IDs, directly within the web application's response is a definitive indicator of successful command injection. This demonstrates that an arbitrary operating system command was not only executed on the server but also that its standard output was captured and reflected back to the attacker, providing undeniable proof of remote code execution.

Why this answer

In a successful command injection attack, the attacker injects operating system commands into a vulnerable input field, and the web application passes them to a shell for execution. If the application returns the command output in the HTTP response, seeing the result of the 'id' command (e.g., 'uid=33(www-data) gid=33(www-data) groups=33(www-data)') is a definitive symptom that the injection succeeded and the server executed the attacker's command.

Exam trap

The CEH exam often tests the distinction between reflected output (visible in the response) and blind injection (no visible output), so candidates must recognize that seeing command output like 'id' is a direct symptom of a successful non-blind command injection.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a 404 error indicates a missing resource, not command execution; command injection typically does not cause a 404 unless the injected command inadvertently triggers a file-not-found condition. Option C is wrong because the 'Server: Apache' header is a standard server banner that reveals the web server software, not a symptom of command injection; it appears regardless of injection attacks. Option D is wrong because slower page loads can result from many benign causes (e.g., network latency, heavy traffic, inefficient code) and are not a specific or reliable indicator of command injection.

161
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are cloud-specific security threats?

Select 2 answers
A.SQL injection
B.De-authentication attack
C.ARP spoofing
D.S3 bucket misconfiguration
E.SSRF in cloud
AnswersD, E

S3 bucket misconfiguration refers to incorrectly set permissions or access control lists (ACLs) on Amazon S3 storage buckets, leading to unintended public exposure or unauthorized access to sensitive data. This is a prevalent cloud-specific threat because S3 is a fundamental cloud storage service, and its complex permission models, combined with user error or lack of understanding, frequently result in data breaches. The ease of creating and deploying S3 buckets, coupled with the potential for global access, makes misconfiguration a unique and critical cloud security challenge.

Why this answer

Option D (S3 bucket misconfiguration) is a cloud-specific threat because it exploits the shared responsibility model in AWS, where an improperly configured bucket ACL or bucket policy can expose object storage publicly over the internet, a risk unique to cloud object storage services. Option E (SSRF in cloud) is cloud-specific because server-side request forgery can be used to reach the cloud instance metadata service (e.g., 169.254.169.254) and steal temporary IAM credentials from instance roles, an attack path that only exists in cloud environments. The unmarked options do not belong: SQL injection (A) is a generic web application vulnerability targeting database query construction, de-authentication attack (B) is a Wi-Fi layer 2 denial-of-service technique against 802.11 management frames, and ARP spoofing (C) is a LAN-based man-in-the-middle attack on IPv4-to-MAC resolution, none of which are specific to cloud platforms.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between general web/network attacks and those that exploit cloud-specific features like metadata services or object storage permissions, leading candidates to mistakenly classify SQL injection or ARP spoofing as cloud threats.

162
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are best practices for securing IoT devices in a home automation network?

Select 3 answers
A.Enable Universal Plug and Play (UPnP) for easy integration.
B.Segment IoT devices on a separate VLAN or subnet.
C.Change default usernames and passwords.
D.Disable unnecessary features and services.
E.Ensure all devices are connected directly to the internet for remote access.
AnswersB, C, D

Segmenting IoT devices onto a separate Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) or subnet is a critical security best practice. This isolation prevents an attacker who successfully compromises an IoT device from easily moving laterally to other, more sensitive parts of the network, such as corporate servers or personal computers. By containing potential breaches within a dedicated segment, the overall impact of an attack is significantly reduced.

Why this answer

Segmenting IoT devices on a separate VLAN or subnet (Option B) is a best practice because it isolates potentially insecure IoT devices from the main trusted network. If an IoT device is compromised, the attacker cannot easily pivot to other devices on the primary LAN. This leverages Layer 2 or Layer 3 segmentation to enforce network access controls, reducing the attack surface in a home automation environment.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the misconception that UPnP simplifies integration and is safe, when in fact it is a well-known security risk due to its lack of authentication and automatic port forwarding.

163
MCQmedium

A security analyst uses a tool to capture packets in promiscuous mode on a network segment. The analyst notices that only traffic to and from the analyst's machine is captured, not all traffic on the segment. What is the most likely reason?

A.The network is using a switch instead of a hub
B.The switch is preventing sniffing due to port security
C.The analyst is not using the correct filter in Wireshark
D.The network interface is not in promiscuous mode
AnswerA

A network switch operates at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) and intelligently forwards frames only to the specific port associated with the destination MAC address. Unlike a hub, which broadcasts all traffic to every connected port, a switch isolates traffic flows. Therefore, even if an analyst's network interface is in promiscuous mode, it will only receive broadcast traffic, multicast traffic it has joined, and unicast traffic specifically destined for its own MAC address, making passive sniffing of other hosts' unicast traffic impossible without additional active techniques like port mirroring or ARP poisoning.

Why this answer

A switch forwards frames only to the specific port associated with the destination MAC address, unlike a hub which floods all traffic to every port. When a security analyst captures packets in promiscuous mode on a switch, the NIC can see only the frames destined for or originating from that port, plus broadcast/multicast frames. Therefore, the most likely reason only traffic to/from the analyst's machine is captured is that the network uses a switch, not a hub.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume promiscuous mode guarantees capturing all network traffic, forgetting that promiscuous mode only affects the NIC's filtering of frames it receives, not what frames the switch delivers to that port.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because port security (e.g., MAC address filtering, sticky MAC) restricts which devices can connect to a switch port, but it does not prevent a connected NIC from seeing frames that are already forwarded to that port; it does not cause the selective capture of only local traffic. Option C is wrong because applying an incorrect capture filter in Wireshark would either capture no traffic or capture a subset based on filter criteria, but it would not cause the NIC to see only its own traffic; the issue is at the network layer, not the filter. Option D is wrong because the question explicitly states the analyst uses promiscuous mode; if the NIC were not in promiscuous mode, it would only capture frames addressed to its own MAC address (which is the same result), but the question says promiscuous mode is used, so the root cause is the switch's behavior, not the NIC mode.

164
MCQmedium

A cloud security engineer notices that an S3 bucket containing sensitive customer data is configured with a bucket policy that allows 'Principal': '*' and 'Action': 's3:GetObject'. The bucket is not publicly accessible via the AWS Management Console, but the engineer is concerned about data exposure. What is the most likely risk?

A.Anyone on the internet can read objects in the bucket if they know the object URL.
B.The data is encrypted at rest, so no exposure risk exists.
C.The bucket policy is misconfigured but only affects objects with server-side encryption.
D.Only authenticated AWS users can access the bucket, so the risk is limited.
AnswerA

This statement is correct because a misconfigured S3 bucket policy or ACL can grant `s3:GetObject` permissions to the `AllUsers` principal, effectively making the bucket publicly readable. In such cases, anyone with an internet connection can retrieve objects directly by knowing or guessing their specific URL, without requiring any AWS authentication. This represents a significant data exposure risk, as the data is accessible to unauthenticated users.

Why this answer

The bucket policy allows 'Principal': '*' with 'Action': 's3:GetObject', which grants anonymous read access to any object in the bucket. Even if the bucket is not publicly listed in the AWS Management Console, anyone on the internet who knows or guesses the object URL can retrieve the object directly via HTTP/HTTPS. This is a classic data exposure risk because the policy overrides any console-level restrictions.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'not publicly accessible via the AWS Management Console' with 'not publicly accessible via direct object URLs,' but S3 bucket policies control access at the API level, not just the console UI.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because encryption at rest protects data only if it is accessed without proper decryption keys, but the policy allows direct object retrieval without authentication, so encryption does not prevent exposure. Option C is wrong because the bucket policy applies to all objects regardless of server-side encryption status; the misconfiguration affects all objects, not just encrypted ones. Option D is wrong because 'Principal': '*' means any unauthenticated user (not just authenticated AWS users) can access the bucket; the policy does not require AWS authentication.

165
MCQeasy

A security analyst wants to enumerate users and groups from a Windows domain controller using LDAP. Which of the following queries would return all objects of class 'user' from the domain 'example.com'?

A.ldapsearch -x -b "dc=example,dc=com" "(cn=*)"
B.ldapsearch -x -b "dc=example,dc=com" "(objectClass=user)"
C.ldapsearch -x -b "dc=example,dc=com" "(objectClass=person)"
D.ldapsearch -x -b "dc=example,dc=com" "(&(objectClass=user)(objectCategory=person))"
AnswerB

This is the correct and most precise filter for enumerating user objects within an LDAP directory, including Active Directory. The `(objectClass=user)` filter specifically targets entries classified as user accounts, ensuring that only relevant user objects are returned. This command effectively identifies and lists all user accounts under the specified base DN, fulfilling the requirement to enumerate users.

Why this answer

The LDAP filter (objectClass=user) specifically retrieves all entries where the objectClass attribute equals 'user', which in Active Directory corresponds to user objects. Option A is incorrect because it searches for any object with a common name, not limiting to users. Option C is incorrect because objectClass=person includes contact objects as well.

Option D is incorrect because it adds the condition objectCategory=person, which is a Microsoft-specific attribute and is redundant; it does not improve the query and may cause compatibility issues in standard LDAP environments.

Exam trap

The trap is that candidates often choose Option D thinking the combined filter is more precise, but they fail to realize that (objectClass=user) alone is sufficient and that objectCategory=person is a Microsoft-specific attribute that is redundant and can cause issues in standard LDAP environments.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because `(cn=*)` matches any entry with a common name, including computers, groups, and organizational units, not just users. Option C is wrong because `(objectClass=person)` includes not only users but also contact objects and other entries that inherit from the 'person' class, such as inetOrgPerson. Option D is wrong because `(&(objectClass=user)(objectCategory=person))` is redundant—in Active Directory, all user objects already have objectCategory=person, so this filter is overly specific and may miss some user objects that don't have that category set, though it is functionally similar to B; however, the question asks for the query that returns all objects of class 'user', and B is the simplest and most direct correct answer.

166
MCQmedium

A penetration tester is using SQLMap to automate exploitation of a SQL injection vulnerability found in a login form. The tester wants to retrieve the names of all databases on the backend MySQL server. Which SQLMap flag should be used?

A.--dbs
B.--current-db
C.--schema
D.--tables
AnswerA

The --dbs option is the correct command-line switch in sqlmap for enumerating and displaying the names of all available databases on the target database management system (DBMS) server. It leverages identified SQL injection vulnerabilities to extract this high-level structural information, providing a foundational understanding of the server's data organization. This is a crucial initial step in reconnaissance for a penetration tester, revealing the scope of potential data stores.

Why this answer

The --dbs flag in SQLMap instructs the tool to enumerate all databases on the target DBMS. This is the standard first step after confirming an injection point, and it directly answers the tester's goal of retrieving database names. It works against MySQL, MSSQL, Oracle, PostgreSQL, and others.

Exam trap

The trap is the close naming between --dbs, --current-db, --tables, and --schema — candidates who have not actually run SQLMap confuse 'list all databases' with 'list tables' or 'show current database', and the exam deliberately places all four as plausible-sounding enumeration flags.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because --current-db returns only the name of the database the web application is currently connected to, not all databases on the server. Option C is wrong because --schema dumps the schema (table structures, columns) of the databases, which is a deeper enumeration step performed after database names are known. Option D is wrong because --tables enumerates tables within a specific database (usually specified with -D), not the list of databases themselves.

167
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are examples of protocol-based DoS attacks? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Smurf attack
B.SYN flood
C.HTTP flood
D.Slowloris
E.UDP flood
AnswersA, B

The Smurf attack is a classic example of a protocol-based DoS because it leverages the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). Attackers send ICMP echo requests (ping requests) to a network's broadcast address, spoofing the source IP address to be that of the victim. All hosts on the network then reply to the victim, overwhelming it with a flood of ICMP echo replies, effectively exploiting the ICMP protocol's functionality and network broadcast capabilities.

Why this answer

A Smurf attack (A) is a protocol-based DoS attack because it abuses ICMP by sending echo requests to a network's broadcast address with a spoofed source IP, causing every host to reply to the victim and amplifying traffic. A SYN flood (B) is protocol-based because it exploits the TCP three-way handshake: the attacker sends many SYN packets with spoofed source addresses, filling the victim's half-open connection table so legitimate connections cannot complete. HTTP flood (C) and Slowloris (D) are application-layer (Layer 7) attacks that target web services rather than exploiting a network protocol's mechanics, and UDP flood (E) is a volumetric attack that simply overwhelms bandwidth with generic UDP datagrams rather than abusing a specific protocol behavior.

Exam trap

The CEH exam often tests the distinction between protocol-based attacks (exploiting protocol behavior like ICMP or TCP handshake) and application-layer attacks (like HTTP flood or Slowloris) or volumetric floods (like UDP flood), leading candidates to mistakenly include HTTP flood or UDP flood as protocol-based.

168
MCQeasy

A security analyst captures a WPA2 4-way handshake using airodump-ng. Which tool would they most likely use next to attempt to crack the PSK using a wordlist?

A.John the Ripper
B.ScoutSuite
C.Aircrack-ng
D.Reaver
AnswerC

Aircrack-ng is a comprehensive suite of tools specifically designed for auditing wireless networks, including capturing and cracking WPA/WPA2 PSK handshakes. It directly processes the captured 4-way handshake file (typically a .cap file) and attempts to crack the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) using dictionary attacks against the cryptographic nonce and EAPOL frames. Its aircrack-ng component is the definitive tool for performing dictionary-based brute-force or wordlist attacks against the captured WPA2 handshake.

Why this answer

Aircrack-ng is the standard tool for cracking WEP/WPA keys from captured packets, including WPA2 handshakes using a dictionary attack.

169
MCQmedium

An employee receives a text message claiming to be from the company's IT department, stating that their account will be suspended unless they click a link to verify their credentials. Which type of social engineering attack is this?

A.Vishing
B.Phishing
C.Baiting
D.SMiShing
AnswerD

SMiShing is a specialized form of phishing that utilizes Short Message Service (SMS) text messages to deceive individuals. Attackers send fraudulent text messages, often containing malicious links or requests for personal information, by impersonating legitimate organizations like banks, government agencies, or delivery services. Given that the employee received a "text message" claiming to be from a specific entity, SMiShing precisely describes this attack vector.

Why this answer

SMiShing (SMS phishing) is the correct classification because the attack vector is a text message (SMS) rather than email or voice. The message impersonates the IT department and uses a link to harvest credentials, which is the hallmark of SMiShing — phishing conducted via Short Message Service.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse SMiShing with generic phishing because both involve a link and credential theft, but the CEH exam specifically distinguishes them by the delivery medium — SMS versus email.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because vishing (voice phishing) uses phone calls or voicemail, not text messages. Option B is wrong because phishing typically refers to email-based attacks, not SMS-based ones. Option C is wrong because baiting involves offering something enticing (e.g., a free USB drive or download) to trick the victim, not sending a credential-verification link via text.

170
MCQhard

An attacker intercepts a request and notices that the server reflects the value of the 'User-Agent' header in the response without sanitization. The attacker crafts a payload that triggers an alert box. This is an example of:

A.HTTP header injection
B.DOM-based XSS
C.Stored XSS
D.Reflected XSS
AnswerD

Reflected XSS occurs when an attacker's malicious script, typically delivered via a URL parameter or HTTP header, is immediately echoed back by the web server in its HTTP response without proper sanitization. The victim's browser then interprets and executes this script as part of the legitimate page content. This non-persistent attack requires the victim to click a specially crafted link or visit a malicious site that sends the crafted request, making it a single-request, single-response vulnerability.

Why this answer

Reflected XSS occurs when the application immediately returns the user input in the response; here, the User-Agent header is reflected.

171
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A penetration tester sends a SOAP request and receives multiple user records. Which vulnerability is present?

A.SQL injection in SOAP service
B.XML External Entity (XXE) injection
C.Cross-site scripting (XSS)
D.Command injection
AnswerA

The exhibit demonstrates SQL injection in a SOAP service, as the `userId` parameter in the request contains the payload '1 OR 1=1'. This classic SQL injection technique manipulates the backend SQL query, causing the `WHERE` clause to always evaluate to true. Consequently, the application returns all user records, bypassing intended access controls and confirming the vulnerability.

Why this answer

The SOAP service returns multiple user records in response to a crafted request, indicating that the input is being interpolated into a database query without proper sanitization. This is classic SQL injection (SQLi) in a SOAP XML context, where an attacker can embed SQL payloads within XML elements (e.g., <username>admin' OR '1'='1</username>) to manipulate the backend SQL query and retrieve all records.

Exam trap

EC-Council exams often test the distinction between XML-specific attacks (XXE) and injection attacks that target the underlying data layer (SQLi), so candidates mistakenly choose XXE when they see XML input, even though the symptom (multiple records returned) points to database manipulation, not file disclosure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (XXE) is wrong because XXE exploits XML parser behavior to read local files or perform SSRF, not to manipulate database queries to return multiple user records. Option C (XSS) is wrong because XSS injects client-side scripts into web pages viewed by other users, not into server-side SOAP processing to alter database results. Option D (Command injection) is wrong because it involves injecting OS commands into server-side functions (e.g., via system() calls), not manipulating SQL queries through SOAP XML payloads.

172
MCQeasy

A junior penetration tester is asked to identify open TCP ports on a target host. The tester runs a scan and receives a response indicating that a port is open. Which TCP flag combination in the response confirms that the port is open when using a TCP SYN scan?

A.RST/ACK
B.SYN/ACK
C.ACK only
D.FIN/ACK
AnswerB

In a TCP SYN scan, the scanner sends a SYN packet to the target port. If the port is open, the target responds with a SYN/ACK packet, indicating willingness to establish a connection. This is the standard behavior defined in RFC 793, and it confirms the port is listening. The scanner then sends a RST to tear down the half-open connection, avoiding a full handshake.

Why this answer

During a TCP SYN scan, the scanner sends a SYN packet. If the target port is open, the target replies with SYN/ACK, acknowledging the SYN and indicating it is ready to establish a connection. The scanner then sends RST to close the half-open connection.

This SYN/ACK response is the definitive indicator of an open port.

Exam trap

The trap here is mixing up responses for open versus closed ports; a RST/ACK indicates closed, while SYN/ACK indicates open.

173
MCQhard

A security analyst runs the Nmap command: nmap -sI 192.168.1.50 -p 80 10.0.0.1. The scan completes, but the target shows no open ports. What is the MOST likely explanation?

A.The analyst used the wrong port number
B.The target has a firewall blocking the decoy packets
C.The target host is offline
D.The zombie host is not truly idle, causing false results
AnswerD

The Nmap idle scan (`-sI`) fundamentally relies on the zombie host's IP ID sequence number incrementing predictably by one for each packet it sends. The attacker sends spoofed SYN packets to the target, appearing to originate from the zombie. If the zombie is not truly idle and sends its own packets for other reasons, its IP ID sequence will increment unpredictably, making it impossible for the attacker to discern whether an IP ID increment was due to the target's response or the zombie's independent activity, thus leading to unreliable or false results.

Why this answer

The -sI flag in Nmap performs an idle scan, which relies on a zombie host (192.168.1.50) with a globally predictable IP ID sequence to probe the target. If the zombie host is not truly idle—meaning it is sending or receiving other traffic during the scan—its IP ID values will increment unpredictably, corrupting the side-channel analysis and causing Nmap to report all ports as filtered or closed. This is the most likely reason for the false 'no open ports' result.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume a firewall or offline target is the cause, but the idle scan's success hinges entirely on the zombie's idle state, not on target-side filtering or host availability.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the -p 80 flag explicitly targets port 80, and the scan completed without error, so the port number is not the issue. Option B is wrong because a firewall blocking decoy packets would not affect an idle scan; idle scans use the zombie's IP, not decoys, and firewall rules on the target would block the zombie's packets, not the analyst's. Option C is wrong because if the target host were offline, Nmap would typically report 'Host seems down' or time out, not complete the scan and show 'no open ports'.

174
MCQhard

A penetration tester observes that an Nmap SYN scan shows all 1000 TCP ports as open. The tester suspects the target is using a security appliance that responds with SYN-ACK to all connection attempts, regardless of the actual port state. Which type of Nmap scan would be MOST effective in determining the true state of the ports?

A.UDP scan (-sU)
B.Ping sweep (-sn)
C.TCP connect scan (-sT)
D.Idle scan (-sI)
AnswerC

The TCP connect scan (-sT) performs a full three-way handshake (SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK) with the target port, relying on the operating system's native `connect()` system call. If a port is genuinely open, the handshake completes. If a spoofed SYN-ACK is received, the scanner's subsequent ACK will likely be ignored by the true target, or the target will send a RST if the port is closed. This full interaction allows the scanner to observe the actual target's response to a completed connection attempt, thereby reliably determining the port's true state even if initial SYN-ACKs were manipulated.

Why this answer

A TCP connect scan (-sT) completes the full three-way handshake, which forces the target to respond with a RST if the port is actually closed, even if a security appliance initially sends SYN-ACK to all ports. This distinguishes between ports that are truly open (where the handshake completes) and those that are falsely reported as open by the appliance (where the handshake fails or a RST is received).

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume a SYN scan (-sS) is always superior due to stealth, but they overlook that a security appliance can spoof SYN-ACKs, making the full handshake of -sT necessary to bypass the deception.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a UDP scan (-sU) targets UDP ports, not TCP ports, and cannot determine the true state of TCP ports; it also suffers from false positives due to ICMP unreachable responses. Option B is wrong because a ping sweep (-sn) only checks host availability via ICMP or TCP pings and does not perform any port-level scanning to determine port states. Option D is wrong because an idle scan (-sI) relies on a zombie host with predictable IP IDs and is designed for stealth, not for bypassing SYN-ACK spoofing; it would still receive SYN-ACKs from the appliance and cannot differentiate real open ports from spoofed responses.

175
MCQeasy

Which of the following tools is specifically designed to automate the detection and exploitation of SQL injection vulnerabilities?

A.Metasploit
B.Nmap
C.SQLMap
D.Burp Suite
AnswerC

SQLMap automates detection and exploitation of SQL injection flaws, fingerprinting the backend DBMS and extracting data through crafted payloads. It targets exactly the SQL injection automation the stem requires, unlike general-purpose scanners or manual proxy tools such as Burp Suite or OWASP ZAP.

Why this answer

SQLMap is a well-known open-source tool that automates the process of detecting and exploiting SQL injection flaws.

176
MCQeasy

Which tool is specifically designed to create and manage phishing campaigns for security awareness testing?

A.Metasploit
B.Nmap
C.Wireshark
D.SET
AnswerD

The Social Engineering Toolkit (SET) is an open-source framework specifically engineered to perform various social engineering attacks, including spear-phishing, website attack vectors, and credential harvesting. It automates the creation of malicious web pages, email templates, and other deceptive elements crucial for a successful social engineering campaign. Therefore, SET is precisely designed to create and manage the components and execution of phishing and social engineering attacks.

Why this answer

The Social-Engineer Toolkit (SET) is an open-source Python-driven framework specifically designed for social engineering attacks, including the creation and management of phishing campaigns. It automates the generation of malicious emails, credential harvesting pages, and payload delivery, making it the standard tool for security awareness testing in CEH contexts.

Exam trap

In CEH, candidates often confuse Metasploit (a general exploitation framework) with SET (a specialized social engineering toolkit). SET uses Metasploit for payload generation, but Metasploit itself does not manage phishing campaigns—SET does.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Metasploit is a penetration testing framework focused on exploit development and payload delivery, not on orchestrating phishing campaign workflows. Option B is wrong because Nmap is a network scanning tool used for host discovery and port enumeration, with no capability to create or manage phishing emails. Option C is wrong because Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer used for packet capture and traffic inspection, not for generating social engineering attacks.

177
MCQeasy

A security analyst receives an alert about a suspicious file hash. The analyst wants to check if the file is known malware by querying an online database of malware signatures. Which tool should the analyst use?

A.Nmap
B.John the Ripper
C.VirusTotal
D.Wireshark
AnswerC

VirusTotal is a web-based service that aggregates many antivirus products and online scan engines to check for viruses and other types of malicious content. A security analyst can submit a file's cryptographic hash (e.g., MD5, SHA1, SHA256) to VirusTotal, which then queries its extensive database and provides immediate detection results from numerous security vendors. This capability directly addresses the need to determine if a suspicious file is known malware by comparing its hash against a vast repository of threat intelligence.

Why this answer

VirusTotal is a free online service that aggregates multiple antivirus engines and malware detection tools, allowing users to upload files or query file hashes against a vast database of known malware signatures. This directly matches the requirement to check if a file is known malware by querying an online database.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse tools like Nmap or Wireshark for malware analysis because they are commonly used in security investigations, but they lack the specific function of querying an online malware signature database.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Nmap is a network scanning tool used for discovering hosts and services on a network, not for querying malware signature databases. Option B is wrong because John the Ripper is a password cracking tool that performs brute-force or dictionary attacks on password hashes, not a malware signature lookup service. Option D is wrong because Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer used for capturing and inspecting network traffic packets, not for checking file hashes against malware databases.

178
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a passive OS fingerprinting technique that does NOT send any packets to the target?

A.Sending TCP SYN packets and analyzing responses
B.Analyzing TTL and window size from captured packets
C.Performing a NULL scan
D.Using Nmap -O flag
AnswerB

Analyzing the Time-To-Live (TTL) and TCP window size fields from packets already captured from network traffic is a classic passive OS fingerprinting method. This technique does not involve sending any new packets to the target system; instead, it infers the operating system by examining the initial TTL values (which decrement per hop) and the advertised TCP window sizes, both of which often have distinct default values across different OS implementations. By observing these characteristics in legitimate, ongoing communications, an attacker can identify the OS without direct interaction.

Why this answer

Passive OS fingerprinting involves observing network traffic without sending any packets to the target. Analyzing the Time-to-Live (TTL) and TCP window size from captured packets is a classic passive technique because these values are OS-specific defaults (e.g., Linux often uses TTL 64 and window size 5840, while Windows uses TTL 128 and window size 65535). Since no packets are sent to the target, this method is entirely passive and undetectable.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse passive fingerprinting with active techniques like banner grabbing or Nmap scans, assuming that any packet capture analysis is passive, but the key distinction is whether any packets are sent to the target.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because sending TCP SYN packets and analyzing responses is an active fingerprinting technique, as it involves transmitting packets to the target. Option C is wrong because performing a NULL scan sends TCP packets with no flags set to the target, making it an active reconnaissance method. Option D is wrong because using Nmap with the -O flag sends a series of probes (e.g., TCP SYN, ICMP) to the target to determine the OS, which is an active fingerprinting approach.

179
MCQmedium

An analyst observes repeated failed login attempts to a Windows server from an internal IP, followed by a successful login using the account 'admin' from the same IP. The analyst checks the Security log and finds Event ID 4624 with Logon Type 3. What type of attack is MOST likely occurring?

A.SMB relay attack
B.Kerberos golden ticket attack
C.Pass-the-hash attack
D.Dictionary attack on the admin account
AnswerD

A dictionary attack systematically attempts to log in using a predefined list of common passwords, often targeting specific user accounts like 'admin'. The observation of repeated failed login attempts to a Windows system is a classic indicator of such an attack in progress. Each incorrect password guess contributes to the failed attempt count, making this attack type directly align with the described scenario.

Why this answer

Event ID 4624 with Logon Type 3 indicates a network logon (typically SMB or other network resource access). The sequence of repeated failed attempts followed by a successful login from the same internal IP strongly suggests a dictionary (brute-force) attack against the 'admin' account. The attacker systematically tried passwords until one succeeded, which is the hallmark of a dictionary attack.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates see 'successful login' and 'Event ID 4624' and incorrectly assume a pass-the-hash or relay attack, but the presence of repeated failed attempts before success is the key indicator of a dictionary attack, not a credential theft technique.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an SMB relay attack intercepts and relays authentication traffic to impersonate a user, not by trying multiple passwords from a single IP; it would not produce repeated failed logins followed by a success from the same IP. Option B is wrong because a Kerberos golden ticket attack forges a Ticket Granting Ticket (TGT) using the KRBTGT hash, allowing domain-wide access without any failed login attempts; it would not generate Event ID 4624 with Logon Type 3 from a single IP. Option C is wrong because a pass-the-hash attack uses a stolen NTLM hash to authenticate without knowing the plaintext password, so it would not cause multiple failed login attempts; it typically succeeds on the first try if the hash is valid.

180
MCQeasy

Which tool is specifically designed to assess the security configuration of AWS, Azure, and GCP cloud environments by scanning for misconfigurations in services like S3, IAM, and EC2?

A.ScoutSuite
B.Pacu
C.Reaver
D.Aircrack-ng
AnswerA

ScoutSuite is an open-source multi-cloud auditing tool specifically designed to assess the security posture of cloud environments. It enumerates resources and identifies potential misconfigurations, policy violations, and security weaknesses across major providers like Amazon Web Services (AWS), Microsoft Azure, and Google Cloud Platform (GCP). This comprehensive scanning helps organizations proactively identify and remediate risks within their cloud infrastructure.

Why this answer

ScoutSuite is an open-source multi-cloud security auditing tool that checks for misconfigurations across AWS, Azure, and GCP. Pacu is an AWS exploitation framework; Aircrack-ng is for wireless; Reaver is for WPS.

181
MCQeasy

In PKI, what is the primary role of a Certificate Authority (CA)?

A.To issue and digitally sign certificates
B.To revoke user passwords
C.To generate random session keys
D.To encrypt data between client and server
AnswerA

A Certificate Authority (CA) serves as a trusted third party in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), primarily responsible for verifying the identity of entities (users, servers, organizations) and binding that identity to their public key. Upon successful verification, the CA issues a digital certificate, which it then cryptographically signs using its own private key. This digital signature assures recipients that the certificate is authentic, has not been tampered with, and was indeed issued by the stated CA, thereby establishing a chain of trust.

Why this answer

A Certificate Authority (CA) is the trusted entity in a PKI that issues digital certificates and digitally signs them with its private key, thereby binding a public key to an identity. The CA's signature allows relying parties to verify that the certificate is authentic and has not been tampered with. This is the foundational trust role of a CA.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing the CA's signing/issuance role with encryption or key generation — candidates often think the CA encrypts traffic or generates session keys, but it only signs certificates.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because revoking user passwords is an identity/access management function, not a PKI CA role; CAs revoke *certificates* via CRL/OCSP, not passwords. Option C is wrong because session key generation is typically done by the endpoints (or via key exchange protocols like TLS handshake), not by the CA. Option D is wrong because the CA does not encrypt data between client and server; it only vouches for public keys, and encryption is performed by the communicating parties using those keys.

182
MCQhard

A network administrator notices an unusual amount of traffic on port 389 from an internal server to multiple external IP addresses. Which type of malware might be present?

A.Adware
B.Worm
C.Trojan backdoor
D.Ransomware
AnswerC

A Trojan backdoor establishes a hidden communication channel, allowing an attacker remote access and control over a compromised system. This type of malware is designed for persistence and stealth, often using less common or seemingly legitimate protocols like LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) or DNS for command and control (C2) or data exfiltration. The "unusual amount of traffic" could stem from the attacker issuing commands, transferring files, or exfiltrating data through this covert channel, making it a strong candidate for a sustained, anomalous traffic pattern.

Why this answer

Port 389 is used by LDAP. Outbound traffic to multiple external IPs could indicate LDAP query-based command and control or data exfiltration, but more commonly, port 389 is associated with directory services. However, in malware context, it could be a sign of a backdoor or RAT using LDAP for C2.

The most likely is that the malware is using LDAP for communication, but given options, a Trojan backdoor is plausible.

183
Matchingmedium

Match each type of attack to its description.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Social engineering via deceptive emails

Intercepting communication between two parties

Inserting malicious SQL queries into input fields

Overwhelming a system to make it unavailable

Associating attacker's MAC with victim's IP

Why these pairings

The correct matches are Phishing with its broad definition, Spear Phishing with targeted definition, and Whaling with high-profile target definition. Common confusions: Vishing is voice-based, Smishing is SMS-based; also targeted phishing is spear phishing.

184
Multi-Selecthard

During a penetration test, you need to enumerate all DNS records for example.com using a zone transfer. Which TWO tools can be used to attempt this?

Select 2 answers
A.dnsenum
B.dig
C.dnsrecon
D.theHarvester
E.nslookup
AnswersA, C

dnsenum is a powerful and comprehensive tool specifically designed for DNS enumeration during penetration tests. It automates various techniques, including attempting AXFR (Asynchronous Zone Transfer) requests, brute-forcing subdomains from a wordlist, performing reverse lookups on IP ranges, and querying for multiple DNS record types like MX, NS, and A records. This multi-faceted approach allows it to gather extensive information about a target's DNS infrastructure efficiently.

Why this answer

Options A (dnsenum) and C (dnsrecon) are both specialized DNS enumeration tools that can attempt a full zone transfer (AXFR query) to retrieve all DNS records for a domain. dnsenum automates zone transfer attempts against multiple nameservers, while dnsrecon includes similar functionality. Although tools like dig and nslookup can also perform manual zone transfers, the question specifically asks for tools designed for enumeration, making dnsenum and dnsrecon the correct choices.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse tools that can manually perform a zone transfer (like dig or nslookup) with dedicated enumeration tools that automate the process across multiple nameservers, leading them to select dig or nslookup instead of dnsenum and dnsrecon.

185
MCQhard

During a security assessment, you find a Linux binary with the SUID bit set and owned by root. You execute it and obtain a root shell. This is an example of which privilege escalation technique?

A.DLL hijacking
B.Kernel exploit
C.Token impersonation
D.SUID abuse
AnswerD

SUID (Set User ID) abuse is the correct technique because the SUID permission bit, when set on an executable file in Linux, allows any user to execute that binary with the effective user ID (EUID) of the file's owner, rather than the user who invoked it. If a binary owned by root has the SUID bit set and contains a vulnerability (e.g., insecure command execution, buffer overflow), an attacker can exploit it to execute commands or gain a shell with root privileges. This directly matches the scenario of finding a Linux binary with the SUID bit during a security assessment.

Why this answer

The SUID (Set User ID) bit on a binary owned by root allows it to execute with root privileges regardless of the user running it. When you execute such a binary and it spawns a shell, that shell inherits the elevated privileges, effectively granting you a root shell. This is a classic example of SUID abuse, a common privilege escalation technique on Linux systems.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse SUID abuse with a kernel exploit, thinking any root shell from a binary must involve a kernel vulnerability, but SUID abuse is a misconfiguration-based technique that does not require exploiting kernel code.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DLL hijacking is a Windows-specific technique that exploits the search order for Dynamic Link Libraries to load a malicious DLL, which is not applicable to Linux binaries. Option B is wrong because a kernel exploit targets vulnerabilities in the operating system kernel to gain elevated privileges, whereas this scenario involves a legitimate SUID binary, not a kernel flaw. Option C is wrong because token impersonation is a Windows privilege escalation method that manipulates access tokens (e.g., using SeImpersonatePrivilege), which does not apply to Linux's SUID mechanism.

186
MCQeasy

Which wireless security standard introduced in 2018 uses Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) to replace the pre-shared key exchange in WPA2, providing forward secrecy and resistance to offline dictionary attacks?

A.WPA3
B.802.1X/EAP
C.WEP
D.WPA2
AnswerA

WPA3, introduced in 2018, significantly enhances wireless security by implementing Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), also known as the Dragonfly handshake. This robust key exchange protocol provides strong protection against offline dictionary attacks by making it computationally infeasible to guess passwords without an active connection. Furthermore, SAE ensures forward secrecy, meaning that even if the long-term key is compromised, past session data remains encrypted and secure.

Why this answer

WPA3 uses SAE (Dragonfly handshake) to provide forward secrecy and protect against offline dictionary attacks. WPA2 used PSK which is vulnerable to dictionary attacks. WEP and 802.1X are older or different.

187
MCQeasy

A security analyst discovers that an IoT device in a smart building is periodically sending small DNS queries to an external domain known for command-and-control activity. Which security control should be implemented to detect and block such traffic without disrupting legitimate operations?

A.Install a host-based firewall on the IoT device to restrict outbound traffic.
B.Deploy an intrusion detection system (IDS) on the network to alert on suspicious DNS queries.
C.Configure egress filtering on the firewall to block outbound connections to known malicious domains.
D.Disable DNS resolution on the IoT device to prevent any external communication.
AnswerC

Configuring egress filtering on the network firewall is a highly effective and proactive measure. This technique inspects and blocks outbound traffic destined for known malicious domains or IP addresses, preventing the compromised IoT device from establishing command and control (C2) communications or exfiltrating data, thereby containing the threat at the network perimeter.

Why this answer

Egress filtering on the firewall can block outbound DNS queries to known malicious domains by using a blocklist or threat intelligence feed, preventing command-and-control (C2) communication without affecting legitimate traffic to other domains. This control operates at the network perimeter, inspecting DNS requests against a reputation database and dropping matches, which is the most effective way to stop C2 traffic while allowing normal operations.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse detection (IDS) with prevention (firewall filtering), assuming an alert is sufficient to stop the threat, but CEH emphasizes that blocking at the perimeter is required for active defense against C2 traffic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because host-based firewalls on IoT devices are often impractical due to resource constraints, lack of centralized management, and the device's limited ability to maintain dynamic blocklists; they also cannot block DNS queries if the device itself is compromised. Option B is wrong because an IDS only alerts on suspicious traffic but does not block it, so the C2 communication would still succeed, leaving the network exposed until manual intervention occurs. Option D is wrong because disabling DNS resolution entirely would break all legitimate external communications (e.g., firmware updates, time synchronization), causing operational disruption and potentially rendering the IoT device non-functional.

188
MCQmedium

Which Burp Suite tool is most appropriate for modifying and re-sending a single HTTP request multiple times with different payloads to test for SQL injection?

A.Repeater
B.Intruder
C.Proxy
D.Scanner
AnswerB

Burp Suite Intruder is specifically engineered for automating customized attacks against web applications by systematically injecting various payloads into designated request parameters. It enables testers to define specific insertion points and choose from multiple attack types (e.g., Sniper, Battering Ram, Pitchfork, Cluster Bomb) to iterate through wordlists or generate dynamic payloads, making it ideal for discovering vulnerabilities such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, or brute-forcing credentials.

Why this answer

Burp Intruder is designed for automated customized attacks, allowing you to send many requests with varying payloads to a single target endpoint.

189
MCQhard

You are performing a penetration test and need to quickly scan a large IP range (e.g., 10.0.0.0/8) for open ports 80 and 443. Which tool is BEST suited for this high-speed scanning task?

A.OpenVAS
B.hping3
C.Nmap
D.Masscan
AnswerD

Masscan is purpose-built for ultra-fast port scanning, capable of scanning the entire internet in minutes by employing an asynchronous, stateless design that sends packets at an extremely high rate. It achieves this speed by operating like a network driver, transmitting packets directly and listening for responses, making it exceptionally efficient for quickly discovering open ports across massive IP address ranges, which is crucial for rapid reconnaissance in large-scale penetration tests.

Why this answer

Masscan is the best tool for this task because it is designed specifically for high-speed port scanning, capable of transmitting packets at rates exceeding 10 million packets per second, which is necessary to scan a /8 subnet (over 16 million IPs) for ports 80 and 443 in a reasonable timeframe. Unlike Nmap, which optimizes for accuracy and service detection, Masscan uses asynchronous raw socket transmission and can be tuned with the --rate parameter to maximize throughput, making it ideal for large-scale reconnaissance.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose Nmap because it is the most familiar and versatile scanning tool, but the question specifically emphasizes 'high-speed' scanning of a massive IP range, which is Masscan's unique strength due to its asynchronous raw packet design and ability to achieve millions of packets per second.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because OpenVAS is a vulnerability scanner that performs deep, slow assessments with authenticated checks and plugin-based testing, not a high-speed port scanner, and would take an impractical amount of time on a /8 range. Option B is wrong because hping3 is a packet crafting tool used for custom TCP/IP testing, firewall auditing, and DoS simulation, but it lacks the asynchronous scanning engine and rate optimization needed to scan millions of IPs quickly. Option C is wrong because while Nmap can scan large ranges with its -T5 timing template, its synchronous scanning model and service/version detection overhead make it significantly slower than Masscan for pure port discovery at scale, and it is not optimized for the extreme packet rates required for a /8 subnet.

190
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO tools are specifically designed for cloud security auditing and exploitation? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.ScoutSuite
B.Nessus
C.Aircrack-ng
D.Nmap
E.Pacu
AnswersA, E

ScoutSuite is a comprehensive open-source multi-cloud security auditing tool designed to identify misconfigurations and potential vulnerabilities across various cloud providers, including AWS, Azure, GCP, Alibaba Cloud, and OCI. It maps out the attack surface of cloud environments by fetching configuration data via API calls and presenting it in an intuitive, interactive HTML report. This allows security professionals to quickly assess the security posture and compliance of their cloud infrastructure.

Why this answer

ScoutSuite is an open-source multi-cloud security-auditing tool that assesses the security posture of AWS, Azure, and GCP environments by checking for misconfigurations, excessive permissions, and compliance violations. Pacu is an AWS exploitation framework designed for offensive security testing, allowing penetration testers to enumerate resources, escalate privileges, and execute post-exploitation modules against cloud accounts. Both tools are purpose-built for cloud security auditing and exploitation, making them the correct choices.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between general-purpose security tools (Nessus, Nmap) and cloud-specific frameworks (ScoutSuite, Pacu), expecting candidates to recognize that tools like Aircrack-ng are strictly for wireless, not cloud, environments.

191
MCQmedium

You are a security analyst for a financial institution. The company has deployed a network of 500 Windows 10 workstations and 50 servers running Windows Server 2019. All systems are protected by a next-generation firewall and an endpoint detection and response (EDR) solution. Recently, several employees reported that their workstations are running slowly and exhibiting unusual pop-up messages demanding a ransom note in Bitcoin. The EDR alerts show that a file named 'invoice.docm' was downloaded from an email attachment and executed on multiple workstations. The EDR also indicates that the file dropped a PowerShell script that connected to an external IP address and downloaded additional payloads. After the initial infection, the EDR detected that the ransomware binary 'encryptor.exe' was executed, which began encrypting files. However, the encryption process was stopped by the EDR before all files were encrypted. The incident response team needs to determine the source of the infection and prevent future occurrences. Which of the following is the most effective first step to identify the initial infection vector?

A.Reimage all affected workstations to remove the ransomware and then review email logs for the original phishing email.
B.Block the external IP address at the firewall to prevent further communication with the C2 server.
C.Enable macro security settings in Microsoft Office to block macros from running without explicit user consent, and enforce via Group Policy.
D.Disable PowerShell across all workstations via Group Policy to prevent script execution.
AnswerA

Correct: reviewing email logs is the only identification-oriented action and traces the original phishing email. Reimaging is remediation and should occur only after evidence is preserved.

Why this answer

The correct answer is A. The question asks for the most effective first step to identify the initial infection vector, and the only identification-oriented action among the choices is reviewing email logs to trace the original phishing email. The scenario already indicates that invoice.docm was delivered by email, so email logs and mail gateway/EDR telemetry are the proper forensic sources to identify sender, recipients, and delivery scope.

Although option A includes reimaging, that is a remediation action and should not be performed before evidence collection; however, the key identification step is the email log review. Option C is preventive hardening and does not identify how the current infection started. Option B is containment, and option D is overly broad prevention that breaks legitimate automation.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between identification steps and containment/remediation steps. The trap is that candidates choose a preventive measure (like enabling macro security or blocking IPs) instead of a forensic step (like reviewing email logs) to identify the root cause.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because reimaging workstations removes the ransomware but does not identify the initial infection vector; reviewing email logs is a secondary step that can be done without reimaging. Option B is wrong because blocking the external IP address at the firewall prevents further C2 communication but does not identify how the infection started; it is a containment measure, not a forensic step. Option D is wrong because disabling PowerShell across all workstations via Group Policy is overly broad and would break legitimate administrative scripts and automation; it does not address the macro-enabled document that triggered the PowerShell execution.

192
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are indicators that a system may be infected with a backdoor Trojan? (Select three)

Select 3 answers
A.Unexpected network traffic on ports typically used for remote administration
B.Persistent high CPU usage by a single process
C.Unauthorized processes running in the background
D.Increased number of DNS queries to known legitimate sites
E.Unusual outbound connections to unknown IP addresses
AnswersA, C, E

Unexpected traffic on ports like TCP 3389 (RDP), TCP 22 (SSH), or TCP 23 (Telnet) is suspicious because these ports are typically used for remote administration. If such traffic appears without a legitimate reason, it may indicate a backdoor Trojan that has opened that port for remote access.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because backdoor Trojans commonly open or connect to remote-administration ports (e.g., TCP 3389 for RDP, 22 for SSH, or 4444/31337 for malware C2) to give attackers remote control, so unexpected traffic on such ports signals compromise. Option C is correct because a backdoor typically installs itself as a hidden or unauthorized background process (often masquerading as a legitimate service) to maintain persistence and accept attacker commands. Option E is correct because backdoors beacon out to attacker-controlled command-and-control servers, producing unusual outbound connections to unknown or suspicious IP addresses.

Option B is not a reliable indicator because high CPU usage by one process is more characteristic of cryptominers, fork bombs, or buggy applications than of a stealthy backdoor, which usually minimizes resource use to avoid detection. Option D is not a reliable indicator because DNS queries to known legitimate sites are normal user or system activity and do not by themselves suggest a backdoor, which would more likely resolve unknown or algorithmically generated domains.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may mistake generic system performance issues (like high CPU usage) for malware indicators, when CEH focuses on network-level anomalies (unexpected ports, outbound connections) as more specific signs of a backdoor Trojan.

193
MCQmedium

A security analyst notices that an attacker has gained SYSTEM privileges on a Windows server after compromising a service running as LOCAL SYSTEM. The attacker then uses `whoami /priv` and finds the SeTcbPrivilege (Act as part of the operating system) is enabled. Which privilege escalation technique might the attacker use next?

A.Sticky keys exploit
B.Token impersonation
C.DLL injection
D.Pass-the-hash
AnswerB

Token impersonation is a direct privilege escalation technique enabled by the `SeTcbPrivilege`, also known as 'Act as part of the operating system'. This powerful privilege allows a process to create a new access token for any user or even the SYSTEM account, effectively assuming their security context. An attacker with this privilege can create a token representing a higher-privileged user and then execute commands or access resources with those elevated permissions.

Why this answer

With SeTcbPrivilege enabled, the attacker can call the `CreateProcessAsUser` or `DuplicateTokenEx` API to impersonate any user token, including SYSTEM. This is a classic token impersonation attack, allowing the attacker to elevate from LOCAL SYSTEM to a higher-integrity context or move laterally by creating processes with arbitrary identities.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse SeTcbPrivilege with SeDebugPrivilege or assume it only applies to kernel-level attacks, but CEH specifically tests that SeTcbPrivilege enables token impersonation via Windows API calls.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Sticky Keys exploit (sethc.exe replacement) requires physical or RDP access to the login screen and targets accessibility features, not privilege escalation from a running service. Option C is wrong because DLL injection is a code execution technique used to load a malicious DLL into a process, but it does not directly leverage SeTcbPrivilege for token-based elevation. Option D is wrong because Pass-the-hash is a lateral movement technique that uses NTLM hashes to authenticate over the network, not a local privilege escalation method that exploits SeTcbPrivilege.

194
MCQhard

A security analyst captures network traffic and sees the following: Client sends a SYN, server responds with SYN-ACK, then client sends ACK. Immediately after, the client sends an encrypted payload. This traffic is consistent with which phase of a WPA2 attack?

A.De-authentication attack
B.WPA2 4-way handshake exchange
C.WPS PIN exchange
D.WEP initialization vector capture
AnswerA

Correct. The deauthentication attack disconnects the client; after reconnection and the 4-way handshake, the client establishes a TCP connection, as shown by the SYN/SYN-ACK/ACK sequence.

Why this answer

The traffic shown is a TCP three-way handshake followed by encrypted application data. This is not a deauthentication attack (which uses spoofed 802.11 deauthentication frames) and not the WPA2 4-way handshake (which uses EAPOL-Key frames at Layer 2). Therefore, none of the listed options correctly identifies a WPA2 attack phase.

Exam trap

The WPA2 4-way handshake is often mistaken for a TCP handshake, but it uses 802.11 management frames (EAPOL), not TCP.

195
MCQmedium

In the cloud shared responsibility model, which of the following is typically the responsibility of the customer when using AWS EC2 (IaaS)?

A.Configuring security groups and firewall rules
B.Patching the hypervisor
C.Network infrastructure redundancy
D.Physical security of data centers
AnswerA

In the cloud shared responsibility model, configuring security groups and firewall rules is a critical customer responsibility, falling under "security in the cloud." Security groups act as virtual firewalls at the instance level, controlling inbound and outbound traffic, while network access control lists (NACLs) operate at the subnet level. Customers must meticulously define these rules to protect their virtual machines, applications, and data from unauthorized network access and potential threats, ensuring proper isolation and secure communication pathways.

Why this answer

AWS is responsible for the physical host and network infrastructure; the customer manages the guest OS, applications, and security groups.

196
Multi-Selecthard

A security analyst is conducting passive reconnaissance on a target organization. Which THREE of the following are examples of passive reconnaissance techniques? (Select 3)

Select 3 answers
A.Performing a WHOIS lookup on the target's domain
B.Querying a public DNS resolver cache for the target's mail server records
C.Running an Nmap SYN scan against the target's web server
D.Banner grabbing with Netcat on port 80
E.Using Google dork queries to find exposed documents
AnswersA, B, E

Performing a WHOIS lookup involves querying publicly accessible databases maintained by domain registrars and registries. This action retrieves domain registration details such as registrant contact information, administrative contacts, technical contacts, and registration dates without sending any packets directly to the target's infrastructure. Since the interaction is solely with a third-party public database, it constitutes passive reconnaissance.

Why this answer

WHOIS queries are a classic passive reconnaissance technique because they retrieve publicly registered domain ownership data from WHOIS databases (e.g., registrar, creation date, name servers) without sending any packets directly to the target's infrastructure. This information is stored by third-party registries and is accessible via standard WHOIS protocol (RFC 3912) or web-based lookup tools, making it completely non-intrusive.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between passive and active reconnaissance by including techniques that appear passive (like banner grabbing) but actually involve direct interaction with the target's services, leading candidates to mistakenly classify them as passive.

197
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following tools are specifically designed for footprinting and reconnaissance tasks? (Select two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Shodan
B.Nmap
C.Maltego
D.Metasploit
E.John the Ripper
AnswersA, C

Shodan is a specialized search engine that passively collects and indexes banner information from internet-connected devices, services, and industrial control systems worldwide. It allows ethical hackers to perform reconnaissance by searching for specific device types, open ports, software versions, and potential vulnerabilities without directly interacting with the target. This passive data collection makes it an excellent tool for initial footprinting, providing valuable insights into a target's external attack surface.

Why this answer

Shodan is a search engine specifically designed for footprinting and reconnaissance by scanning and indexing internet-connected devices, such as IoT devices, servers, and industrial control systems. It allows attackers to gather information about open ports, services, and banners without direct interaction with the target, making it a primary tool for passive reconnaissance in the CEH context.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between active and passive reconnaissance tools, and the trap here is that candidates confuse Nmap (active scanning) with footprinting tools, or think Metasploit's auxiliary modules qualify as reconnaissance, when the exam specifically classifies Shodan and Maltego as dedicated footprinting tools.

198
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are common attack vectors against IoT devices? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Firmware reversing
B.Container escape
C.SQL injection
D.Default credentials
E.Insecure protocols (e.g., MQTT, CoAP)
AnswersA, D, E

Firmware reversing involves extracting the embedded software from an IoT device, often through JTAG, UART, or memory chip dumping. Attackers then use tools like Ghidra or IDA Pro to analyze the binary code, searching for hardcoded credentials, cryptographic keys, backdoors, or exploitable buffer overflows and format string vulnerabilities. This process can uncover critical weaknesses that allow unauthorized access or control over the device.

Why this answer

Firmware reversing (A) is a common IoT attack vector because IoT firmware is frequently extracted from flash or update images and analyzed to uncover hardcoded keys, backdoors, and exploitable services. Default credentials (D) are a leading IoT weakness since many devices ship with well-known usernames/passwords like admin/admin or root/root that are rarely changed, enabling trivial unauthorized access. Insecure protocols (E) such as MQTT and CoAP are common vectors because they often lack encryption or authentication by default, allowing eavesdropping, spoofing, and message injection on IoT networks.

Container escape (B) targets containerized workloads and orchestration platforms, not typical constrained IoT endpoints, and SQL injection (C) targets web application database queries, which is not a characteristic IoT-specific attack vector.

Exam trap

CEH often tests whether candidates can distinguish IoT-specific vectors (firmware, default creds, insecure protocols) from general application or container vectors like SQL injection and container escape.

199
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are effective mitigations against Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attacks? (Select 2)

Select 2 answers
A.Setting SameSite cookies to Lax or Strict
B.Input validation
C.Implementing CSRF tokens in forms
D.Using CAPTCHA
E.Using HTTPS only
AnswersA, C

Setting SameSite cookies to Lax or Strict significantly mitigates CSRF by controlling when cookies are sent with cross-site requests. Lax mode sends cookies only with top-level navigations (typically GET requests) and not with cross-site POST requests or iframes, preventing most forged state-changing requests. Strict mode offers even stronger protection by never sending cookies with any cross-site requests, ensuring the session cookie is only included for same-site origins.

Why this answer

CSRF tokens ensure the request originates from the legitimate site; SameSite cookies prevent the browser from sending cookies on cross-site requests.

200
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are techniques used in static malware analysis? (Select 3)

Select 3 answers
A.Inspecting file metadata and properties
B.Capturing network traffic in a sandbox
C.Searching for suspicious strings in the binary
D.Analyzing the file's structure using PEiD
E.Monitoring registry changes during execution
AnswersA, C, D

This is static analysis.

Why this answer

Inspecting file metadata and properties (Option A) is a static analysis technique because it examines the file's embedded information—such as author, creation date, file version, and digital signatures—without executing the binary. This metadata can reveal the origin, compilation timestamp, or whether the file is signed by a known legitimate publisher, helping to identify suspicious characteristics before runtime.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between static and dynamic analysis by presenting runtime monitoring actions (like network capture or registry monitoring) as plausible static techniques, hoping candidates confuse 'examining the file' with 'observing its behavior during execution.'

201
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are effective DDoS mitigation techniques? (Choose 3)

Select 3 answers
A.MAC address filtering
B.Scrubbing centers
C.Anycast routing
D.Rate limiting
E.Disabling DHCP
AnswersB, C, D

Dedicated infrastructure filters out attack traffic.

Why this answer

Scrubbing centers are effective DDoS mitigation because they act as a centralized traffic-cleaning facility. When an attack is detected, malicious traffic is diverted to the scrubbing center, where it is filtered using signature-based, anomaly-based, and rate-based techniques, allowing only legitimate traffic to pass through to the target network. This offloads the attack burden from the victim's infrastructure.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse MAC address filtering (a Layer 2 security control) with effective DDoS mitigation, or mistakenly think disabling DHCP (a network configuration protocol) can stop an attack, when in reality DDoS mitigation requires scalable, network-level techniques like scrubbing, anycast, and rate limiting.

202
Multi-Selectmedium

A tester is reviewing a web application that builds SQL queries using string concatenation and places user input directly into the query text. The development team wants to eliminate the SQL injection class of vulnerability rather than patch individual reports. Which TWO measures should the tester recommend to the team? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Apply strict allowlist validation on input that is expected to have a known format, such as numeric identifiers or enumerated values.
B.Deploy a web application firewall rule set and rely on it as the sole control to block injection payloads.
C.Store database connection credentials in the application source code to simplify deployment and rotation.
D.Enable verbose database error messages in production so developers can debug malformed queries faster.
E.Use parameterized queries or prepared statements so that user input is bound as data rather than parsed as SQL syntax.
AnswersA, E

Where input has a predictable structure, allowlisting constrains it to expected values and removes the ability to inject syntax. Combined with parameterization, validation hardens fields such as identifiers and enumerated parameters, reducing the attack surface and catching malformed input before it reaches the query layer.

Why this answer

Eliminating SQL injection at the class level requires fixing how queries are constructed. Parameterized queries bind input as data so it cannot change query syntax, and allowlist validation restricts fields with known formats. Together they address the root cause, whereas firewalls, credential storage, and verbose errors affect other concerns without removing the vulnerability.

Exam trap

The trap here is treating a web application firewall as a complete fix for SQL injection, when it is only a supplementary control that does not correct the vulnerable query construction.

203
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are valid techniques in the system hacking methodology (CHPSET)? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Privilege escalation
B.Social engineering
C.Erasing tracks
D.Network sniffing
E.Cracking passwords
AnswersA, C, E

This technique is fundamental to system hacking, involving the attacker gaining higher-level access rights than initially obtained on a compromised system. It is crucial for achieving full control, accessing sensitive data, or installing persistent backdoors. Methods often include exploiting kernel vulnerabilities, misconfigured services, or weak file permissions to transition from a standard user to an administrator or root user.

Why this answer

In the CEH system hacking methodology (often summarized as CHPSET: Cracking passwords, Hiding files, Privilege escalation, Executing applications, Covering tracks/erasing tracks, and Creating backdoors), privilege escalation (A) is a core step because after gaining initial access the attacker elevates from a low-privileged account to root/SYSTEM or administrator rights to fully control the target. Erasing tracks (C) is also a core step, covering log tampering, clearing event logs, disabling auditing, and removing artifacts so the intrusion is not detected or attributed. Cracking passwords (E) is the first phase of CHPSET, where techniques such as dictionary, brute-force, rainbow-table, and hybrid attacks recover or bypass credentials to obtain valid access.

Social engineering (B) is not part of the system hacking methodology; it belongs to the earlier footprinting/scanning or social-engineering phase of the CEH attack lifecycle. Network sniffing (D) is likewise a separate CEH domain (sniffing), used for capturing traffic, not a step in the CHPSET system hacking sequence.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the CHPSET system hacking methodology with the broader ethical hacking phases (reconnaissance, scanning, gaining access, etc.), leading them to incorrectly select social engineering or network sniffing as valid CHPSET steps.

204
MCQeasy

Which tool is specifically designed to crack Windows LM and NTLM password hashes using rainbow tables?

A.Hashcat
B.RainbowCrack
C.Ophcrack
D.John the Ripper
AnswerC

Ophcrack is a dedicated and highly effective tool specifically engineered for cracking Windows LM and NTLM password hashes by leveraging pre-computed rainbow tables. It comes pre-packaged with extensive rainbow tables optimized for various Windows password complexities, allowing for rapid password recovery without requiring significant computational power for brute-forcing. Its user-friendly interface and specialized focus make it the go-to solution for offline Windows password cracking using this method.

Why this answer

Ophcrack is specifically designed to crack Windows LM and NTLM password hashes using precomputed rainbow tables. It leverages the time-memory trade-off technique to rapidly reverse these hashes without brute-forcing each password individually, making it the correct choice for this targeted task.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between tools that use rainbow tables (Ophcrack) versus those that use brute-force or dictionary attacks (Hashcat, John the Ripper), leading candidates to mistakenly choose a general-purpose cracker for a rainbow-table-specific question.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Hashcat is a general-purpose password cracker that supports many hash types (including LM/NTLM) but relies on GPU-accelerated brute-force or dictionary attacks, not rainbow tables. Option B is wrong because RainbowCrack is a tool that generates and uses rainbow tables for various hash types, but it is not specifically designed for Windows LM/NTLM hashes; it requires separate table generation or download for those formats. Option D is wrong because John the Ripper is a versatile password cracking tool that uses dictionary, brute-force, and incremental modes, but it does not natively use rainbow tables for LM/NTLM cracking.

205
MCQeasy

During a security assessment, a tester uses Maltego to gather information about a target organization. Which type of reconnaissance is being performed?

A.Passive reconnaissance
B.Active reconnaissance
C.Vulnerability scanning
D.Social engineering
AnswerA

This is correct because Maltego primarily functions as an Open Source Intelligence (OSINT) gathering tool. It aggregates publicly available information from various internet sources, such as DNS records, WHOIS databases, social media profiles, and search engines, without initiating any direct network connections or probes to the target's infrastructure. This method allows testers to build a comprehensive organizational footprint discreetly, minimizing the risk of detection by the target's security systems.

Why this answer

Maltego is a tool that collects publicly available information from sources like DNS records, WHOIS databases, and social media without directly interacting with the target's systems. This aligns with passive reconnaissance, which relies on open-source intelligence (OSINT) and does not send any packets to the target's network. The CEH defines passive reconnaissance as gathering information without engaging the target, making option A correct.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between passive and active reconnaissance by presenting tools like Maltego or theHarvester as passive, while candidates mistakenly classify them as active due to the tool's interactive GUI or data aggregation features.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because active reconnaissance involves direct interaction with the target's systems (e.g., sending probes, port scans, or vulnerability scans), which Maltego does not do by default. Option C is wrong because vulnerability scanning is a form of active reconnaissance that uses tools like Nessus or OpenVAS to identify weaknesses by sending malicious payloads, not OSINT gathering. Option D is wrong because social engineering involves manipulating people to divulge confidential information (e.g., phishing calls or pretexting), which is a separate attack vector not performed by Maltego's automated data mining.

206
MCQeasy

Which of the following cryptographic algorithms is classified as asymmetric?

A.RC4
B.3DES
C.RSA
D.AES
AnswerC

RSA is a foundational asymmetric cryptographic algorithm, distinguished by its use of a mathematically linked public and private key pair. The public key can be freely distributed for encryption or signature verification, while the private key is kept secret for decryption or digital signing. This unique key separation allows for secure communication and authentication without prior key exchange, making it the correct classification.

Why this answer

Asymmetric cryptography uses key pairs (public and private). RSA is a well-known asymmetric algorithm. AES, 3DES, and RC4 are symmetric algorithms.

207
MCQmedium

During a system hacking phase, a tester successfully gains access to a Windows machine and wants to hide a malicious executable. Which of the following techniques is MOST effective for hiding files from standard directory listings without using third-party tools?

A.Use the `attrib +h +s` command to set hidden and system attributes
B.Rename the file to a system filename like svchost.exe and place it in C:\Windows\System32
C.Encrypt the file using EFS
D.Store the executable in an Alternate Data Stream (ADS)
AnswerD

Storing an executable in an Alternate Data Stream (ADS) on an NTFS filesystem can indeed hide data from standard file enumeration tools, as ADSs are not typically listed by default. However, directly executing a program from an ADS is not straightforward and often requires specific loader utilities or API calls, making it less practical for simple, persistent execution compared to a standard file. While ADS is excellent for data concealment, the complexity of running an executable from it makes it a less suitable primary method for hiding an *executable* that needs to be run easily.

Why this answer

Storing the executable in an Alternate Data Stream (ADS) is a highly effective method for hiding files on NTFS file systems. Files stored in ADS are not visible in standard directory listings (e.g., `dir` command or Windows Explorer) and require specific knowledge or commands to discover. This technique can be implemented using built-in Windows commands like `type` or `echo` for creation, and `start` or PowerShell for execution, thus adhering to the 'no third-party tools' constraint.

It offers a greater degree of concealment than simply setting hidden and system attributes, which can be easily revealed by changing folder options.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates might choose `attrib +h +s` (Option A) because it's a simpler, more commonly known hiding technique. However, ADS (Option D) offers a significantly higher level of concealment from standard directory listings and can be managed using built-in Windows commands, making it the 'MOST effective' choice under the given constraints.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because simply renaming a file to svchost.exe and placing it in C:\Windows\System32 does not hide it from directory listings; it remains visible unless its attributes are changed, and it may be flagged by security tools due to behavioral anomalies. Option C is wrong because Encrypting File System (EFS) encrypts the file content but does not hide the file from directory listings; the filename remains visible. Option D is wrong because while Alternate Data Streams (ADS) can hide data within a file, they require third-party tools or specific commands (e.g., `type` with redirection) to create and access, and the host file itself is still visible in directory listings.

208
MCQmedium

A security administrator notices repeated failed login attempts from a single IP address targeting the SSH service. The attempts use common usernames (root, admin, test) and a list of passwords from a dictionary. What type of password attack is being conducted?

A.Rainbow table attack
B.Dictionary attack
C.Hybrid attack
D.Brute-force attack
AnswerB

A dictionary attack involves systematically attempting to log in using a predefined list of common words, phrases, or previously leaked passwords against a target username or set of usernames. This method leverages the widespread use of weak, easily guessable passwords by users, making it a highly efficient strategy for gaining unauthorized access. It is particularly effective when systems lack robust password policies or account lockout mechanisms to deter repeated login failures.

Why this answer

This is a dictionary attack because the attacker uses a predefined list of common usernames and passwords (a dictionary) against the SSH service. Unlike a brute-force attack that tries all possible combinations, a dictionary attack only tests likely entries from a wordlist, making it faster but limited to the dictionary's contents.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing a dictionary attack with a brute-force attack; CEH emphasizes that a dictionary attack uses a wordlist of likely passwords, while a brute-force attack exhaustively tries all possible character combinations, regardless of likelihood.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a rainbow table attack uses precomputed hash chains to reverse hashes, not live login attempts with plaintext passwords. Option C is wrong because a hybrid attack combines dictionary words with modifications (e.g., appending numbers or symbols), but the scenario describes only a static list of passwords without any mutation. Option D is wrong because a brute-force attack systematically tries every possible character combination (e.g., aaa, aab, aac), which is far more exhaustive and computationally expensive than using a predefined wordlist.

209
MCQmedium

During a penetration test, a tester captures the WPA2 4-way handshake with airodump-ng and then uses aircrack-ng with a wordlist. However, the PSK is not found. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason?

A.Aircrack-ng does not support WPA2 cracking
B.The handshake was not captured correctly
C.The wordlist does not contain the PSK
D.The network uses WPA3 instead of WPA2
AnswerC

The WPA2 cracking process, once the 4-way handshake is captured, relies entirely on an offline dictionary attack against the derived Pairwise Master Key (PMK) hash. If the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) used by the target network is not present within the provided wordlist, the attack will inevitably fail to find a match. This is a fundamental limitation of dictionary attacks; they are only as effective as the comprehensiveness and relevance of the wordlist used to guess the password.

Why this answer

If the PSK is not in the wordlist, dictionary attacks will fail. Other steps (capture, cracking) were done correctly.

210
MCQmedium

A security analyst observes a sudden flood of ICMP echo request packets from multiple external IPs to a single internal server. The packets have varying sizes and spoofed source addresses. Which type of attack is MOST likely occurring?

A.Ping of Death
B.ICMP flood
C.Smurf attack
D.SYN flood
AnswerB

An ICMP flood, also known as a "ping flood," is a classic volumetric Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack where an attacker overwhelms a target system or network with a massive volume of ICMP echo request (ping) packets. The goal is to consume all available bandwidth or processing resources, preventing legitimate traffic from reaching the target. Often, these requests use spoofed source IP addresses to hide the attacker's identity and complicate mitigation efforts.

Why this answer

An ICMP flood attack involves overwhelming a target with a high volume of ICMP echo request (ping) packets, often with spoofed source addresses and varying packet sizes, to consume bandwidth and processing resources. The description matches this exactly: multiple external IPs sending a flood of ICMP echo requests to a single server, which is the classic behavior of a distributed ICMP flood.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse a Smurf attack with a direct ICMP flood, because both use ICMP echo requests, but Smurf relies on network broadcast amplification while an ICMP flood is a direct, high-volume barrage from many sources.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Ping of Death involves sending a single malformed ICMP packet that exceeds the maximum IP packet size (65535 bytes), causing a buffer overflow on older systems, not a flood of packets with varying sizes. Option C is wrong because a Smurf attack amplifies traffic by sending ICMP echo requests with a spoofed source IP (the victim) to a network's broadcast address, causing all hosts on that network to reply to the victim; the scenario describes a direct flood from multiple external IPs to a single server, not an amplification via broadcast. Option D is wrong because a SYN flood targets the TCP three-way handshake by sending a flood of TCP SYN packets with spoofed source addresses, exhausting the server's connection queue; the question explicitly mentions ICMP echo request packets, not TCP SYN packets.

211
MCQhard

A tester finds that a Java web application stores a serialized user profile object in a cookie named 'profile'. The application deserializes this cookie on every request using ObjectInputStream without validating its contents. The tester wants to demonstrate remote code execution rather than merely causing a denial of service. Which approach best demonstrates this?

A.Craft a serialized payload using a gadget chain from a library present on the classpath, such as a Commons Collections chain, and submit it as the cookie value.
B.Send a serialized object of an arbitrary custom class that the tester writes, because any class can be deserialized remotely.
C.Base64-encode the original cookie value and append a comment marker to bypass any signature check.
D.Replace the cookie value with a long string of random bytes to trigger a deserialization exception and confirm the parsing path.
AnswerA

Java deserialization RCE requires a gadget chain whose classes exist on the target's classpath and whose readObject or related methods trigger attacker-controlled behavior during deserialization. Building a payload with a known gadget library that the application loads and delivering it in the cookie directly exercises that chain to achieve code execution.

Why this answer

Exploiting Java deserialization for code execution depends on the presence of a usable gadget chain in libraries the application loads. Building a serialized payload from such a chain and delivering it through the vulnerable cookie causes the deserialization process itself to invoke methods that run attacker-supplied commands, which is the strongest possible demonstration of impact.

Exam trap

The trap here is believing that any serialized object can be deserialized remotely, when in fact only classes already present on the target's classpath can be instantiated.

212
MCQeasy

You are a security analyst for a medium-sized e-commerce company. The company hosts its web application on a single server running Apache on Ubuntu. Recently, the operations team noticed that the server's CPU usage spikes to 100% every few minutes, causing the website to become unresponsive. They have ruled out hardware issues. The web server logs show repeated requests to the same URL with varying parameters, such as /product?id=1, /product?id=2, etc., all originating from a single IP address. Each request returns a 200 OK response, but the server takes several seconds to generate the page. The application uses a relational database backend with an ORM. You suspect an attack is occurring. What is the most likely attack and the best immediate course of action?

A.Implement rate limiting on the /product endpoint
B.Block the IP address of the attacker at the firewall
C.Install a web application firewall (WAF) to detect and block malicious requests
D.Apply input validation to ensure product IDs are positive integers
AnswerB

Blocking the attacker's IP address directly at the firewall provides the most immediate and effective containment for an ongoing resource exhaustion attack originating from a single source. A firewall operates at the network layer, allowing it to drop all packets from the specified IP address before they even reach the web server or application. This action instantly severs the attacker's connection and prevents any further malicious requests from impacting the application's availability, making it the optimal immediate response.

Why this answer

The attack is a resource exhaustion or application-layer DoS attack, where repeated requests to a database-backed endpoint (e.g., /product?id=1, /product?id=2) cause high CPU usage due to expensive ORM queries. The immediate best course is to block the single attacking IP at the firewall, as it stops the malicious traffic at the network perimeter with minimal overhead, preserving server resources for legitimate users.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between immediate containment (blocking the IP) and long-term hardening (WAF, rate limiting, input validation), and the trap here is that candidates choose a more 'secure' but slower solution like a WAF or input validation, missing the urgency of stopping the active attack first.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because rate limiting on the /product endpoint would still allow the attacker to consume resources before being throttled, and it does not address the immediate CPU spike; it is a longer-term mitigation. Option C is wrong because installing a WAF is a proactive measure that requires configuration and tuning, not an immediate action to stop an ongoing attack; it also may not block a simple repeated-request pattern without specific rules. Option D is wrong because input validation to ensure product IDs are positive integers would not prevent the attack—the requests already use valid positive integers (1, 2, etc.)—and the issue is the volume of requests, not the parameter values.

213
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. An Nmap scan shows that port 80 is 'filtered' while ports 22 and 443 are 'open'. What does the 'filtered' state indicate?

A.The port is closed and the target sent a RST packet.
B.The port is open but the service is not responding to the scan.
C.The port is open but Nmap cannot determine the service.
D.A firewall, router rule, or host-based firewall is blocking the probes.
AnswerD

When Nmap reports a port as 'filtered', it signifies that the TCP or UDP probes sent to that port did not elicit any response from the target host. This behavior is characteristic of network security devices, such as firewalls (both network-based and host-based) or routers configured with Access Control Lists (ACLs), which are designed to silently drop incoming packets that do not match allowed rules. The probes are effectively absorbed into a "black hole," preventing Nmap from determining the true state of the port.

Why this answer

When Nmap reports a port as 'filtered', it means that the scan probes (e.g., SYN packets) were dropped or blocked before reaching the target service, typically by a firewall, router ACL, or host-based firewall. Unlike 'open' (which receives a SYN/ACK) or 'closed' (which receives a RST), 'filtered' indicates no response or an ICMP unreachable message, so Nmap cannot confirm whether the port is actually open or closed.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'filtered' with 'closed' or 'open', not realizing that 'filtered' specifically indicates a firewall or ACL is interfering with the probe, not the state of the service itself.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a closed port sends a RST packet in response to a SYN scan, which Nmap reports as 'closed', not 'filtered'. Option B is wrong because if a port is open but the service is not responding, Nmap would still receive a SYN/ACK from the TCP stack (since the OS handles the handshake), and the port would be reported as 'open' unless a firewall interferes. Option C is wrong because Nmap can determine the service on an open port via service version detection (-sV); 'filtered' does not relate to service identification failure.

214
MCQmedium

A security team detects a large number of UDP packets from multiple sources directed at a single server's DNS port (53). The packets appear to have a spoofed source IP of the target. Which type of DDoS attack is being observed?

A.DNS amplification
B.UDP flood
C.SYN flood
D.ICMP flood
AnswerA

DNS amplification exploits open resolvers: small spoofed queries to port 53 generate large responses sent to the victim, whose address is forged as the source. The stem's UDP flood, port 53 targeting and spoofed source IP of the target itself match this reflection technique precisely.

Why this answer

This is a DNS amplification attack, a type of DDoS that exploits open DNS resolvers. The attacker sends small DNS queries with a spoofed source IP (the victim's IP) to multiple DNS servers, which then send large responses to the victim, overwhelming its DNS port (53). The key indicators are the use of UDP, port 53, spoofed source IP of the target, and the amplification effect where a small query generates a much larger response.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse a DNS amplification attack with a simple UDP flood, missing the critical clues of spoofed source IP and the specific use of DNS port 53, which indicate the amplification vector.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (UDP flood) is wrong because while it also uses UDP packets, a standard UDP flood does not involve DNS amplification or spoofed source IPs targeting a specific service port; it simply floods random ports with high volume. Option C (SYN flood) is wrong because it uses TCP SYN packets to exhaust connection resources, not UDP packets to port 53. Option D (ICMP flood) is wrong because it uses ICMP echo requests (ping) to consume bandwidth, not UDP packets directed at a DNS server.

215
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are asymmetric encryption algorithms? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.3DES
B.ECC
C.SHA-256
D.RSA
E.AES
AnswersB, D

Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC) is an asymmetric encryption algorithm that relies on the mathematical properties of elliptic curves over finite fields to create public and private key pairs. Its security is based on the difficulty of solving the elliptic curve discrete logarithm problem, allowing it to provide comparable security strength to RSA with significantly smaller key sizes. This efficiency makes ECC particularly well-suited for resource-constrained environments like mobile devices and for securing TLS connections.

Why this answer

ECC (B) is correct because Elliptic Curve Cryptography is a public-key (asymmetric) cryptosystem whose security rests on the elliptic curve discrete logarithm problem, using a mathematically related key pair for encryption/key exchange and digital signatures. RSA (D) is correct because it is the classic asymmetric algorithm, relying on the difficulty of factoring large primes and using a public key to encrypt and a private key to decrypt. The remaining options are not asymmetric: 3DES (A) and AES (E) are symmetric block ciphers that use the same secret key for encryption and decryption, and SHA-256 (C) is a cryptographic hash function producing a 256-bit digest, not an encryption algorithm at all.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing symmetric algorithms (3DES, AES) and hash functions (SHA-256) with asymmetric ones; candidates who don't firmly categorize each algorithm by its key model pick the wrong options.

216
Matchingmedium

Match each wireless attack to its description.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Exploiting weak encryption in older Wi-Fi

Rogue access point mimicking a legitimate one

Forcing clients to disconnect from AP

Intercepting the 4-way handshake for cracking

Unauthorized access to Bluetooth devices

Why these pairings

Correct matches: Evil Twin (A), Rogue AP (C), War Driving (F) are correctly paired. WEP Cracking (D is swapped with War Driving; B and E are misidentified).

217
MCQmedium

Which tool would an analyst use to capture packets from a network interface and later analyze the pcap file for signs of an attack?

A.Ettercap
B.tcpdump
C.Wireshark
D.Nmap
AnswerC

Wireshark is the industry-standard graphical user interface (GUI) tool specifically designed for both capturing and interactively analyzing network packets in real-time or from saved capture files. It provides extensive protocol dissection capabilities, allowing analysts to drill down into individual packet headers and payloads, apply complex filters, and visualize network conversations. Its comprehensive features make it indispensable for network troubleshooting, security analysis, and protocol development.

Why this answer

Wireshark is the correct tool because it is designed for both live packet capture and offline analysis of pcap files. It provides a rich graphical interface with advanced filtering, protocol dissection, and statistical analysis capabilities, making it ideal for examining captured traffic for signs of an attack such as suspicious patterns, malformed packets, or known exploit signatures.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse tcpdump (which can capture packets and save pcap files) with Wireshark, failing to recognize that the question specifically asks for a tool to 'analyze' the pcap file, which requires Wireshark's advanced analysis capabilities rather than just capture.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Ettercap is primarily a man-in-the-middle attack tool for ARP poisoning and session hijacking, not a general-purpose packet capture and analysis tool; it can capture packets but lacks the deep pcap analysis features of Wireshark. Option B is wrong because tcpdump is a command-line packet capture tool that can save pcap files, but it does not provide the graphical, interactive analysis environment or advanced protocol dissection that Wireshark offers for post-capture examination. Option D is wrong because Nmap is a network scanning and discovery tool used for port scanning, OS detection, and service enumeration, not for capturing or analyzing pcap files.

218
MCQeasy

During a penetration test, you receive a list of password hashes from a Windows server. Which of the following tools would be BEST suited to perform a dictionary attack against these hashes?

A.Nmap
B.John the Ripper
C.Wireshark
D.Metasploit
AnswerB

John the Ripper is a dedicated, open-source password cracking tool specifically engineered to detect weak passwords in various systems. It excels at processing lists of password hashes, employing sophisticated techniques such as dictionary attacks, brute-force methods, and single crack modes to efficiently recover the original plaintext passwords from their hashed representations.

Why this answer

John the Ripper is a dedicated password cracking tool that supports dictionary attacks against various hash types, including Windows NTLM hashes. It takes the list of hashes and compares them against a wordlist of candidate passwords, making it the best choice for this task.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between tools that capture hashes (like Metasploit's hashdump) versus tools that crack them (like John the Ripper), leading candidates to mistakenly choose Metasploit for the cracking phase.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Nmap is a network scanning tool used for port discovery and service enumeration, not for cracking password hashes. Option C is wrong because Wireshark is a packet analyzer used for network traffic inspection, not for offline hash cracking. Option D is wrong because Metasploit is an exploitation framework; while it can capture hashes via modules like psexec or hashdump, it is not designed for performing dictionary attacks against already-obtained hashes.

219
MCQhard

A Linux system has a script named 'backup' owned by root with the SUID bit set and world-executable permissions. A standard user executes the script and discovers it runs a command that reads /etc/shadow and writes output to a world-readable file. What is the most likely intended exploitation path?

A.GUID abuse
B.LD_PRELOAD injection
C.SUID abuse to read sensitive files
D.Token impersonation
AnswerC

The SUID bit makes the script run as root, so it can read /etc/shadow. Users can exploit this to get hashes.

Why this answer

The SUID bit on the 'backup' script, owned by root and world-executable, allows any user to execute it with root privileges. If the script reads /etc/shadow (which is normally root-only) and writes the output to a world-readable file, an attacker can exploit this to exfiltrate password hashes. This is a classic SUID abuse scenario where a privileged binary or script is used to access sensitive files.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse SUID with SGID or think LD_PRELOAD works on scripts, but the key is recognizing that SUID on a root-owned executable enables privilege escalation to read /etc/shadow, while LD_PRELOAD only applies to dynamically linked binaries, not scripts.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because GUID (Group ID) abuse would involve the SGID bit, which grants group-level privileges, not root-level access to /etc/shadow; the question specifies the SUID bit, not SGID. Option B is wrong because LD_PRELOAD injection requires the attacker to control environment variables and the target binary to be dynamically linked, but a script (not a compiled binary) does not honor LD_PRELOAD; it runs via an interpreter like bash, which ignores such environment overrides. Option D is wrong because token impersonation is a Windows-specific attack involving access tokens (e.g., SeImpersonatePrivilege), not applicable to Linux systems.

220
MCQmedium

A penetration tester runs the following command against a target Linux server: smbclient -L 192.168.1.10 -N. The output lists several shares including 'Admin$', 'C$', and 'IPC$'. Which of the following is the MOST likely next step for further enumeration?

A.Use enum4linux -a 192.168.1.10 to enumerate users and policies
B.Attempt to crack the administrator password using a dictionary attack
C.Perform a port scan to check for open ports
D.Run snmpwalk to retrieve SNMP community strings
AnswerA

After discovering open SMB shares, the next logical step in a penetration test is to enumerate specific details about the SMB service. enum4linux is a specialized tool designed for this purpose, leveraging various SMB/Samba enumeration techniques. The -a flag instructs enum4linux to perform all available enumeration options, including listing users, groups, shares, and security policies, which provides critical information for subsequent exploitation attempts. This comprehensive enumeration helps identify valid usernames, potential weak policies, and further attack vectors.

Why this answer

The `smbclient -L` command with the `-N` flag (null session) successfully lists SMB shares on the target, including administrative shares like `Admin$`, `C$`, and `IPC$`. This indicates that null session authentication is enabled, which is a classic entry point for SMB enumeration. The most logical next step is to use `enum4linux -a` to extract detailed information such as user lists, group policies, and share permissions, leveraging the same null session to deepen the enumeration without yet attempting password attacks.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often jump to password cracking (Option B) or port scanning (Option C) because they assume administrative shares require credentials, but the question tests the understanding that null sessions allow further enumeration without authentication, making `enum4linux` the correct next step.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because attempting a dictionary attack on the administrator password is premature at this stage; the penetration tester has not yet identified valid usernames or password policies, and null session enumeration should be exhausted first. Option C is wrong because a port scan was already implicitly performed (the tester knew to target SMB on port 445/139), and further port scanning would not leverage the null session access already obtained. Option D is wrong because `snmpwalk` is used to query SNMP MIB data, which requires SNMP community strings and is unrelated to SMB null session enumeration; it would be a separate reconnaissance step, not the immediate next step.

221
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following tools are used for password cracking?

Select 2 answers
A.Wireshark
B.Hashcat
C.John the Ripper
D.Snmpwalk
E.Nmap
AnswersB, C

Hashcat is a highly optimized, GPU-accelerated password recovery tool renowned for its speed and versatility in cracking various hash types, including MD5, SHA-1, NTLM, and numerous others. It supports a wide array of attack modes such as dictionary attacks, brute-force attacks, rule-based attacks, and hybrid attacks, leveraging the parallel processing power of modern graphics cards. This makes it exceptionally efficient for offline password cracking against captured hash dumps from compromised systems.

Why this answer

Hashcat (B) is a correct answer because it is a dedicated, GPU-accelerated password recovery tool that cracks hashes for algorithms such as MD5, SHA-1, bcrypt, and NTLM using dictionary, brute-force, mask, and rule-based attacks. John the Ripper (C) is also correct because it is a classic password cracker that supports hundreds of hash and cipher formats, offers wordlist and incremental modes, and can auto-detect hash types. Wireshark (A) is a network protocol analyzer used for packet capture and traffic inspection, not for cracking passwords.

Snmpwalk (D) is an SNMP enumeration utility that walks MIB trees to retrieve device information, and Nmap (E) is a port scanner and host-discovery tool with scripting support, neither of which is designed for password cracking.

Exam trap

EC-CEH often tests the distinction between enumeration tools (e.g., Snmpwalk) and exploitation/cracking tools, so candidates may confuse SNMP enumeration with password cracking because SNMP community strings can be weak, but Snmpwalk itself does not crack passwords.

222
MCQhard

You are the lead security engineer for a financial technology company that hosts a critical web application on three load-balanced servers behind a reverse proxy. The application uses a REST API to process transactions. Recently, the company has experienced intermittent service outages during peak hours. Upon reviewing logs, you find that the reverse proxy is returning HTTP 503 errors for legitimate API requests, and the application servers show high CPU usage but normal memory. The network team reports no bandwidth issues. The application team claims no code changes were made. You suspect a specific type of attack is causing the outages. Which action should you take first to confirm the attack type?

A.Configure the firewall to block all incoming traffic from the IPs that appear most frequently in logs.
B.Analyze the incoming request patterns in the reverse proxy logs to identify if there is a high volume of requests to a specific API endpoint.
C.Increase the number of application servers to handle the load.
D.Run a SQL injection scanner on the application.
AnswerB

Analyzing reverse proxy logs (e.g., NGINX, HAProxy) is crucial because they capture detailed information about incoming HTTP/HTTPS requests, including source IPs, user agents, request methods, and target URLs/API endpoints. Identifying a sudden, high volume of requests directed at a specific API endpoint, especially with diverse source IPs or suspicious user agents, strongly indicates a Layer 7 (application-layer) DDoS attack. This diagnostic step directly confirms the attack type and pinpoints the targeted service, enabling highly focused and effective countermeasures.

Why this answer

The symptoms—HTTP 503 errors, high CPU usage on application servers, normal memory, and no bandwidth issues—strongly suggest a Layer 7 DDoS attack, specifically an HTTP flood targeting a resource-intensive API endpoint. By analyzing reverse proxy logs for a high volume of requests to a specific endpoint, you can confirm the attack type (e.g., a slow loris or GET flood) before taking mitigation steps. This aligns with the CEH methodology of first identifying the attack vector through log analysis.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often jump to blocking IPs (Option A) or scaling horizontally (Option C) as immediate fixes, but the CEH exam emphasizes first confirming the attack vector through log analysis rather than taking reactive or misdirected actions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because blocking IPs from logs without analyzing request patterns may block legitimate users behind NAT or proxies, and it does not confirm the attack type—it's a reactive measure that could worsen outages. Option C is wrong because increasing servers treats the symptom (high CPU) without confirming the attack; it may be ineffective if the attack is a slow-rate DDoS or application-layer flaw, and it doesn't help identify the root cause. Option D is wrong because SQL injection scanners test for injection vulnerabilities, but the symptoms (503 errors, high CPU, no code changes) point to a volumetric or resource-exhaustion attack, not a database injection.

223
MCQmedium

An ethical hacker is analyzing a piece of malware that uses a custom encryption algorithm. The malware sample contains a hardcoded key that is 16 bytes long. The analyst observes that the encrypted data is the same length as the plaintext. Which encryption mode is most likely being used?

A.GCM
B.CFB
C.ECB
D.CBC
AnswerC

Electronic Codebook (ECB) mode encrypts each fixed-size block of plaintext independently using the same secret key. It does not employ any chaining mechanism between blocks, nor does it require an Initialization Vector (IV) or nonce. The only potential increase in data length results from padding the final plaintext block to meet the cipher's block size, making it the mode that introduces the absolute minimum cryptographic overhead and data expansion.

Why this answer

ECB (Electronic Codebook) mode encrypts each block of plaintext independently using the same key, so the ciphertext length equals the plaintext length (assuming no padding is needed for exact block sizes). The hardcoded 16-byte key and identical input/output lengths strongly suggest ECB, as other modes typically add an IV or authentication tag, altering the output length.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often forget that ECB does not use an IV or authentication tag, so they incorrectly assume all block cipher modes add overhead, leading them to choose CBC or GCM despite the length constraint.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (GCM) is wrong because GCM produces an authentication tag (usually 16 bytes) in addition to ciphertext, making the output longer than the plaintext. Option B (CFB) is wrong because CFB is a stream cipher mode that requires an IV (initialization vector), which would add extra bytes to the output or be transmitted separately, contradicting the identical length observation. Option D (CBC) is wrong because CBC requires an IV (typically 16 bytes for AES) that must be included with the ciphertext, increasing the total output length beyond the plaintext length.

224
Multi-Selectmedium

A penetration tester uses Burp Suite to intercept and modify web traffic. Which TWO features in Burp Suite would be MOST useful for performing a brute-force attack on a login form? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Burp Scanner
B.Burp Proxy
C.Burp Decoder
D.Burp Intruder
E.Burp Repeater
AnswersB, D

Burp Proxy is the core component for intercepting all HTTP/S traffic between the browser and the target application. It allows a penetration tester to view, analyze, and manually modify individual requests and responses in real-time before they reach their destination. This direct interception and on-the-fly modification capability is fundamental for understanding application behavior and initiating various attacks, often serving as the initial capture point for other Burp tools.

Why this answer

Burp Proxy (B) is correct because it sits as an intercepting HTTP/S man-in-the-middle, allowing the tester to capture the login POST request, inspect its parameters, and forward it to other tools for automated manipulation. Burp Intruder (D) is correct because it is the dedicated Burp component for automating customized attacks: the tester marks the username/password parameters as payload positions, loads a wordlist (e.g., a Sniper or Cluster bomb attack type), and sends many login attempts while analyzing status codes, lengths, or grep-match results to spot a successful credential. Together, Proxy captures the base request and Intruder replays it with varying payloads, which is the standard Burp workflow for brute-forcing a login form.

Burp Scanner (A) is an automated vulnerability scanner for issues like SQLi or XSS, not a credential-guessing engine, so it does not belong. Burp Decoder (C) only encodes/decodes data (e.g., Base64, URL, hex) and cannot generate or send repeated login requests. Burp Repeater (E) manually resends a single request for tweaking, but it lacks the payload-position and wordlist automation needed for brute force.

Exam trap

CEH often tests tool-feature mapping — candidates confuse Repeater (manual, single-request) with Intruder (automated, multi-request), picking Repeater because it also 'sends requests'.

225
MCQmedium

Which of the following attacks is characterized by an attacker placing a fake wireless access point with the same SSID as a legitimate network to capture client credentials?

A.De-authentication attack
B.Evil twin attack
C.WPS PIN brute force attack
D.Replay attack
AnswerB

An Evil Twin attack is precisely characterized by an attacker setting up a rogue access point (AP) that mimics the SSID and other characteristics of a legitimate, trusted Wi-Fi network. The objective is to trick unsuspecting users into connecting to the attacker's fake AP, believing it to be the legitimate one. Once connected, the attacker can intercept, monitor, or manipulate all network traffic, potentially capturing credentials or injecting malicious content.

Why this answer

An evil twin attack involves setting up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate SSID to intercept traffic and capture credentials.

Page 2

Page 3 of 13

Page 4