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Certified Ethical Hacker CEH (CEH) — Questions 175

870 questions total · 12pages · All types, answers revealed

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1
MCQhard

A security engineer needs to configure a web server to support Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) for HTTPS connections. Which of the following key exchange methods should be prioritized?

A.Diffie-Hellman (DH) key exchange
B.Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral (ECDHE)
C.Pre-Shared Key (PSK)
D.RSA key exchange
AnswerB

Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral (ECDHE) is the correct choice because it provides Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) by generating unique, ephemeral session keys for each TLS handshake. This means that even if the server's long-term private key is compromised in the future, an attacker cannot decrypt previously recorded sessions. The ephemeral keys are derived using elliptic curve cryptography, offering strong security with smaller key sizes and faster computations compared to traditional Diffie-Hellman, making it ideal for web servers.

Why this answer

ECDHE is prioritized for Perfect Forward Secrecy because it generates a unique, ephemeral session key for each TLS handshake using elliptic curve cryptography, ensuring that if the server's long-term private key is compromised, past session keys remain secure. Unlike static Diffie-Hellman, ECDHE does not reuse key material, and it offers stronger security per bit compared to traditional DH, making it the recommended choice for PFS in modern HTTPS configurations.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the misconception that any Diffie-Hellman variant automatically provides PFS, but candidates must remember that only ephemeral modes (DHE or ECDHE) guarantee forward secrecy, while static DH does not.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because standard Diffie-Hellman (DH) key exchange can be used in ephemeral mode (DHE) to provide PFS, but the question asks for the method to be 'prioritized'; ECDHE is preferred over DH due to its smaller key sizes, faster computation, and equivalent security strength, so DH is not the top priority. Option C is wrong because Pre-Shared Key (PSK) is a symmetric key method that does not provide forward secrecy—if the PSK is compromised, all past sessions using that key are exposed. Option D is wrong because RSA key exchange is static; the client encrypts the pre-master secret with the server's RSA public key, so if the server's private key is later compromised, all recorded sessions can be decrypted, violating PFS.

2
MCQeasy

Which of the following cryptographic algorithms is classified as asymmetric?

A.RSA
B.3DES
C.SHA-256
D.AES
AnswerA

RSA is correctly classified as an asymmetric cryptographic algorithm because it utilizes a distinct public key for encryption and a corresponding private key for decryption. This fundamental separation of keys allows for secure communication without prior shared secrets, enabling functions like digital signatures and secure key exchange. Its security relies on the computational difficulty of factoring large prime numbers, making it suitable for establishing secure channels.

Why this answer

RSA (Rivest–Shamir–Adleman) is a public-key cryptosystem that uses a pair of keys (public and private) for encryption and digital signatures, making it an asymmetric algorithm. Unlike symmetric ciphers, RSA relies on the mathematical difficulty of factoring large prime numbers to secure communications.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'asymmetric' with 'symmetric' algorithms or mistakenly classify hash functions (like SHA-256) as encryption, when in fact asymmetric algorithms always involve a key pair (public/private) and RSA is the classic example tested on the CEH exam.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (3DES) is wrong because it is a symmetric block cipher that uses the same key for both encryption and decryption, operating on 64-bit blocks with a key size of 168 bits (effective). Option C (SHA-256) is wrong because it is a cryptographic hash function, not an encryption algorithm; it produces a fixed 256-bit digest and is used for integrity verification, not confidentiality. Option D (AES) is wrong because it is a symmetric encryption algorithm standardized by NIST, using the same secret key for both encryption and decryption, with block sizes of 128 bits and key sizes of 128, 192, or 256 bits.

3
MCQhard

During a vulnerability scan using Nessus, a security analyst discovers that the target host shows a 'High' severity vulnerability for 'SSL/TLS Renegotiation DoS'. What does this vulnerability indicate?

A.The server does not validate SSL certificates
B.The server supports SSLv2
C.The server allows weak cipher suites
D.An attacker can force the server to renegotiate TLS handshakes repeatedly, causing resource exhaustion
AnswerD

This option accurately describes the SSL/TLS Renegotiation DoS vulnerability, where an attacker initiates numerous partial TLS handshakes, specifically requesting renegotiation of the secure channel. Each renegotiation requires significant computational effort from the server, involving cryptographic operations like key exchanges and certificate validations. By repeatedly forcing these resource-intensive operations, an attacker can exhaust the server's CPU and memory, leading to a denial of service for legitimate users.

Why this answer

The SSL/TLS Renegotiation DoS vulnerability (CVE-2011-1473) occurs when a server supports TLS renegotiation without proper rate limiting. An attacker can open multiple connections and repeatedly request renegotiation, causing the server to consume excessive CPU resources for cryptographic handshake calculations, effectively leading to a denial of service. Nessus flags this as 'High' severity because it can exhaust server resources even with a single attacker.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse this DoS vulnerability with weak cipher suites or protocol version issues, but the core distinction is that renegotiation DoS is about resource exhaustion from repeated handshakes, not about encryption strength or certificate trust.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the vulnerability is about renegotiation resource exhaustion, not certificate validation; certificate validation issues are typically flagged as 'SSL Certificate Cannot Be Trusted' or 'Self-Signed Certificate' vulnerabilities. Option B is wrong because SSLv2 support is a separate vulnerability (e.g., 'SSLv2 Protocol Detection') related to weak protocol versions, not renegotiation attacks; SSLv2 was deprecated due to cipher suite weaknesses, not renegotiation DoS. Option C is wrong because weak cipher suites (e.g., RC4, DES, or export-grade ciphers) are flagged under 'SSL Weak Cipher Suites' vulnerabilities, which concern encryption strength, not the renegotiation handshake process that causes CPU exhaustion.

4
MCQmedium

During a penetration test, the tester uses a tool that queries search engines with specific operators to find sensitive information such as login pages, exposed directories, and file types. Which tool or technique is being used?

A.Shodan
B.theHarvester
C.Google dorking
D.DNS zone transfer
AnswerC

Google dorking, also known as Google Hacking, involves using advanced search operators (dorks) within search engines like Google to uncover publicly accessible, yet often unintendedly exposed, sensitive information. Operators such as `site:`, `filetype:`, `intitle:`, `inurl:`, and `cache:` allow testers to narrow down searches to specific domains, file types, page titles, URLs, or cached versions, effectively querying the search engine's index for misconfigurations or leaked data. This directly matches the scenario of a tester using a tool that queries via search engine operators.

Why this answer

Google dorking (also known as Google hacking) uses advanced search operators (e.g., intitle:, filetype:, inurl:) to uncover sensitive information indexed by search engines, such as login pages, exposed directories, and specific file types. This technique directly matches the description of querying search engines with operators to find hidden or sensitive data.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Google dorking with Shodan, because both involve search engines, but Shodan searches for devices and services (e.g., open ports, banners) rather than web content indexed by Google's crawlers.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Shodan is a search engine for internet-connected devices (e.g., IoT, servers, webcams) and does not use search engine operators to find login pages or file types within web content. Option B is wrong because theHarvester is a tool for gathering email addresses, subdomains, and names from public sources (e.g., search engines, PGP key servers), but it does not focus on querying with operators to find login pages or exposed directories. Option D is wrong because DNS zone transfer is a technique to request all DNS records from a nameserver (using AXFR/IXFR queries), not a search engine query method for sensitive web content.

5
MCQhard

You are performing a web application security assessment and discover that the application uses a hidden form field named 'price' to store the product price. The price is submitted with the form and used to process payments. Which attack would allow you to purchase an item for a lower price?

A.Directory traversal
B.Parameter tampering
C.Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
D.Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
AnswerB

Parameter tampering involves an attacker manipulating parameters exchanged between a client and server to alter application behavior or data. This can include modifying values in URL query strings, HTTP headers, cookies, or hidden form fields, such as changing a product's price from $100 to $10 before submission. The goal is to bypass authorization, gain unauthorized access, or manipulate transaction details by altering the data the application expects.

Why this answer

Parameter tampering is the correct answer because the 'price' field is stored in a hidden form field, which is client-side data that can be modified before submission. By intercepting the HTTP request (e.g., using a proxy like Burp Suite) and changing the 'price' value to a lower amount, the attacker can purchase the item at a reduced cost. This exploits the lack of server-side validation of the price parameter.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse parameter tampering with CSRF, but CSRF does not allow modifying the request body; it only reuses existing parameters from a forged request, whereas parameter tampering directly alters the parameter value.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because directory traversal targets file system paths (e.g., ../../../etc/passwd) to access unauthorized files, not form field values. Option C is wrong because Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) injects malicious scripts into web pages to steal cookies or execute client-side code, not to modify form data during submission. Option D is wrong because Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) forces a user to perform unintended actions on a trusted site using their session, but it does not allow the attacker to directly alter the price value in the request; it only replays existing parameters.

6
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following are common IoT attack vectors?

Select 3 answers
A.Default credentials
B.SQL injection
C.Insecure protocols (MQTT, CoAP)
D.Firmware reversing
E.ARP spoofing
AnswersA, C, D

Manufacturers frequently ship IoT devices with easily guessable or hardcoded default usernames and passwords (e.g., "admin/admin," "root/password"). Users often fail to change these factory settings, leaving devices highly susceptible to automated brute-force attacks, dictionary attacks, or simple credential stuffing. This vulnerability grants unauthorized access, allowing attackers to control the device, exfiltrate data, or use it as a pivot point for further network compromise.

Why this answer

Default credentials, insecure protocols, and firmware reversing are common IoT attack vectors.

7
Matchingmedium

Match each footprinting technique to its description.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Query domain registration details

Gathering DNS records and subdomains

Using advanced search operators to find sensitive info

Manipulating people to reveal information

Search engine for internet-connected devices

Why these pairings

The correct matches are: DNS interrogation extracts DNS records, WHOIS lookup queries domain databases, Google hacking uses search operators, and social engineering manipulates people. Common confusions include swapping ping sweep (ICMP probing) with DNS interrogation or Google hacking.

8
MCQmedium

Which DDoS attack type exploits a small query to a vulnerable service that generates a large response directed at the victim?

A.Amplification attack
B.HTTP flood
C.SYN flood
D.ICMP flood
AnswerA

An amplification attack leverages vulnerable, open UDP services (like DNS, NTP, or Memcached) as reflectors to magnify traffic. Attackers send small, spoofed query packets to these services, with the source IP address set to the victim's IP. The reflector service then responds with a significantly larger response packet, directed at the unsuspecting victim, multiplying the attack traffic volume and overwhelming the target.

Why this answer

An amplification attack is correct because it exploits a small query (e.g., a DNS lookup with a spoofed source IP) sent to a vulnerable service like an open DNS resolver or NTP server, which then generates a large response (e.g., 50-100x the query size) directed at the victim. This leverages the protocol's amplification factor and the lack of source IP validation, overwhelming the victim's bandwidth. The attack is a type of reflection attack, where the intermediary service unwittingly amplifies traffic toward the target.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse amplification attacks with simple volumetric floods (like ICMP or SYN floods), failing to recognize that the key differentiator is the use of a vulnerable service that generates a disproportionately large response from a small query.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because an HTTP flood is a Layer 7 attack that sends legitimate-looking HTTP GET or POST requests to exhaust server resources, not a small query generating a large response from a vulnerable service. Option C is wrong because a SYN flood exploits the TCP three-way handshake by sending incomplete SYN packets to exhaust connection state tables, not by amplifying a small query into a large response. Option D is wrong because an ICMP flood (e.g., ping flood) directly sends a high volume of ICMP Echo Request packets to saturate bandwidth, without using a vulnerable service to amplify a small query.

9
MCQmedium

A network administrator notices that the ARP cache on several workstations contains entries mapping the default gateway IP to an unknown MAC address. Users report intermittent connectivity issues. Which tool is MOST likely being used to perform this attack?

A.Ettercap
B.Nmap
C.tcpdump
D.Wireshark
AnswerA

Ettercap is specifically designed for ARP poisoning and MITM attacks.

Why this answer

Ettercap is a comprehensive suite for man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks on LANs, including ARP cache poisoning. By sending forged ARP replies, it maps the default gateway IP to an attacker-controlled MAC address, causing traffic to be intercepted and resulting in intermittent connectivity. This directly matches the symptoms described.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse packet capture tools (tcpdump, Wireshark) with attack tools, forgetting that ARP poisoning requires actively sending forged packets, not just passive monitoring.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Nmap is a network discovery and security scanning tool used for port scanning and OS detection, not for actively poisoning ARP caches or performing MITM attacks. Option C is wrong because tcpdump is a command-line packet analyzer used for capturing and displaying network traffic, not for injecting forged ARP packets. Option D is wrong because Wireshark is a GUI-based packet analyzer for deep inspection of captured traffic, but it does not have built-in functionality to send crafted ARP replies to poison caches.

10
MCQeasy

Which of the following techniques involves sending crafted packets to a target to elicit responses that reveal the operating system?

A.Passive OS fingerprinting
B.Banner grabbing
C.DNS enumeration
D.Active OS fingerprinting
AnswerD

Active OS fingerprinting is the precise technique that involves sending specially crafted packets to a target system and analyzing the responses to infer its operating system. These crafted packets often include unusual TCP flags, specific IP options, or non-standard ICMP requests designed to exploit subtle differences in how various operating systems implement their TCP/IP stacks. The unique replies, or lack thereof, provide distinct clues about the target's OS and version.

Why this answer

Active OS fingerprinting involves sending crafted packets (e.g., TCP SYN, FIN, or ICMP probes) to a target and analyzing the responses to deduce the operating system. Unlike passive methods, it actively interacts with the target, leveraging subtle differences in how various OSes implement TCP/IP stack behaviors (e.g., initial TTL values, window sizes, or TCP option ordering). This technique is commonly used by tools like Nmap with its `-O` flag.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'active OS fingerprinting' with 'banner grabbing' because both involve sending packets, but banner grabbing targets application-layer banners (e.g., HTTP, FTP) and not the OS-level TCP/IP stack responses that fingerprinting analyzes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because passive OS fingerprinting does not send any packets; it only sniffs network traffic to infer the OS from observed packet characteristics (e.g., TTL, DF flag), avoiding direct interaction. Option B is wrong because banner grabbing retrieves application-layer service banners (e.g., HTTP Server header) to identify software versions, not the underlying OS, and it relies on application responses rather than network stack behavior. Option C is wrong because DNS enumeration queries DNS servers for records (e.g., A, MX, NS) to map a domain's infrastructure, not to determine the operating system of a host.

11
MCQeasy

An ethical hacker wants to discover subdomains of a target domain using only public information. Which of the following techniques is MOST effective?

A.Run a traceroute to the main domain
B.Check the WHOIS record for the domain
C.Use the site: operator in search engines
D.Perform a reverse DNS lookup on the target IP range
AnswerC

The `site:` operator in search engines like Google restricts search results to a specific domain, including all its indexed subdomains. By querying `site:target.com`, an ethical hacker can leverage the vast indexing capabilities of search engines to passively discover publicly accessible subdomains that have been crawled and cataloged. This provides a quick and effective method for initial reconnaissance without directly interacting with the target's servers.

Why this answer

The `site:` operator in search engines (e.g., Google) allows an ethical hacker to enumerate publicly indexed subdomains of a target domain by querying `site:*.targetdomain.com`. This technique leverages the search engine's crawl data to discover subdomains that are publicly accessible but may not be linked from the main site, making it the most effective method for passive, public-information-only reconnaissance.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the misconception that WHOIS records contain subdomain information, but WHOIS only holds domain registration data, not DNS resource records like A or CNAME entries for subdomains.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because traceroute (using ICMP or UDP probes) reveals the network path and intermediate routers, not subdomains; it operates at Layer 3 and does not query DNS records or web indexes. Option B is wrong because WHOIS records contain registration details (registrant, name servers, dates) but do not list subdomains; they are used for domain ownership and administrative information, not DNS enumeration. Option D is wrong because reverse DNS lookup (PTR records) maps IP addresses to hostnames, but it requires knowing the target IP range and only reveals hostnames that have PTR records configured, which is not a reliable method for discovering all subdomains from public information alone.

12
MCQeasy

An attacker crafts a link that, when clicked by an authenticated user, performs an unintended action on a web application where the user is logged in, such as changing their email address. The application uses a session cookie for authentication but does not include any anti-forgery tokens in forms. Which attack is this?

A.Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
B.Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
C.Clickjacking
D.Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF)
AnswerA

Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) is an attack where an attacker crafts a malicious web page or link that, when clicked or loaded by a victim, forces their browser to send an unauthorized request to a trusted website. This attack leverages the victim's active authenticated session with the target site, causing the site to execute actions as if the user genuinely initiated them. The victim's browser automatically includes session cookies with the forged request, making it appear legitimate to the server, often resulting in state-changing operations like password changes or fund transfers.

Why this answer

The description matches Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF), where a malicious link triggers actions on a site where the victim is authenticated.

13
MCQhard

A SOC analyst observes a high number of incomplete TCP connections with the SYN flag set but no corresponding ACK from the target. The source IPs are spoofed and the connections are targeting port 80 on a web server. Which DDoS mitigation technique would be MOST effective in this scenario?

A.SYN cookies
B.Rate limiting
C.Anycast distribution
D.Ingress filtering
AnswerA

SYN cookies are a highly effective defense against SYN flood attacks, which cause a high number of incomplete TCP connections. This mechanism encodes all necessary connection state information into the SYN-ACK sequence number, allowing the server to avoid allocating resources (like Transmission Control Blocks) until the client sends a valid final ACK. By deferring state allocation, the server prevents resource exhaustion from half-open connections, only committing resources for fully established sessions.

Why this answer

SYN cookies are the most effective mitigation against SYN flood attacks because they allow the server to avoid allocating resources for half-open connections until the handshake is completed. When the SYN queue is full, the server generates a cookie based on the connection parameters and sends it in the SYN-ACK; only when the client returns a valid ACK with the cookie does the server establish the connection. This technique prevents resource exhaustion from spoofed SYN packets targeting port 80.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose 'Ingress filtering' because it addresses spoofed IPs, but they miss that the question asks for a mitigation technique during an ongoing attack, not a long-term preventive measure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Rate limiting) is wrong because it indiscriminately throttles all traffic to port 80, which can block legitimate users and does not distinguish between spoofed SYN floods and genuine requests. Option C (Anycast distribution) is wrong because it distributes traffic across multiple data centers but does not prevent the server from processing malicious SYN packets; the flood still reaches each destination and can overwhelm the server. Option D (Ingress filtering) is wrong because it relies on ISPs to drop packets with spoofed source IPs at the network edge, which is a preventive measure but not a real-time mitigation technique once the attack is already hitting the target server.

14
MCQmedium

A security analyst is conducting a vulnerability scan on a web server using Nessus. After the scan, they notice that the server's performance has degraded significantly, and some services have become unresponsive. Which of the following actions could have prevented this issue?

A.Increase the scan intensity to complete faster and reduce the load
B.Configure Nessus to use a 'safe' scan policy that disables disruptive plugins
C.Use a different scanner like OpenVAS which is less intrusive
D.Run the scan during peak hours to blend in with normal traffic
AnswerB

Configuring Nessus with a 'safe' scan policy is the most appropriate action because it specifically disables plugins known to be disruptive or potentially harmful to target systems. These plugins often include checks that perform denial-of-service tests, brute-force authentication attempts, or highly resource-intensive operations that could crash services or cause system instability. By avoiding these aggressive checks, the scan can identify vulnerabilities without negatively impacting the availability or performance of critical systems.

Why this answer

Nessus 'safe' scan policies disable plugins known to cause service disruption, such as those performing denial-of-service tests or exploiting vulnerabilities that may crash services. By using a safe policy, the analyst avoids aggressive checks that can degrade server performance or cause unresponsiveness, which is a common risk during vulnerability scanning.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think using a different scanner (Option C) or adjusting timing (Option D) solves the problem, but the core issue is the use of disruptive plugins, which is directly controlled by the scan policy, not the scanner brand or schedule.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because increasing scan intensity (e.g., using more concurrent threads or faster timing) actually increases the load on the target, worsening performance degradation and service unresponsiveness. Option C is wrong because OpenVAS is not inherently less intrusive; it also includes aggressive plugins that can disrupt services, and the issue is about scan policy, not the scanner brand. Option D is wrong because running the scan during peak hours increases the risk of impacting production traffic and does not prevent disruptive plugins from causing service issues; it may even amplify the impact on users.

15
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are characteristics of a polymorphic virus? (Select 2)

Select 2 answers
A.It spreads without user interaction.
B.It attaches to a host file and does not change.
C.It changes its code signature on each infection.
D.It uses encryption to hide its payload.
E.It only infects the boot sector.
AnswersC, D

A defining characteristic of a polymorphic virus is its ability to alter its internal code structure and encryption key with every new infection. This constant mutation generates a unique code signature for each instance, making it extremely challenging for traditional signature-based antivirus software to detect and identify it consistently across different infected systems or files.

Why this answer

A polymorphic virus mutates its code signature with each infection, using a mutation engine to generate new decryption routines or code patterns while preserving the core payload. This signature change evades signature-based detection by antivirus software, as the virus appears different in every infected file.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse polymorphic viruses with worms (which spread without user interaction) or assume all viruses are static, overlooking the key defining feature of code mutation on each infection.

16
MCQmedium

During an SMTP enumeration, a penetration tester connects to the mail server on port 25 and issues the commands 'VRFY root', 'EXPN admin', and 'RCPT TO:unknown@domain.com'. The server responds with '252' for VRFY, '250' for EXPN, and '550' for RCPT TO. What does this indicate?

A.The root user exists but is disabled, the admin mailing list exists, and unknown@domain.com does not exist
B.The server has open relay enabled
C.The server is vulnerable to SMTP injection
D.The server is not running SMTP
AnswerA

This option correctly interprets the standard SMTP response codes observed during enumeration. A VRFY command returning '252' indicates that the server recognizes the user (e.g., 'root') but cannot verify their status, often implying the account exists but is disabled or restricted. An EXPN command receiving a '250' response confirms the existence of a mailing list or alias (e.g., 'admin') and typically provides its expansion. Conversely, a RCPT TO command resulting in a '550' error explicitly signifies that the specified recipient (e.g., 'unknown@domain.com') does not exist on the server, providing clear non-existence confirmation.

Why this answer

The SMTP response code 252 for VRFY root typically indicates that the user exists but is disabled or cannot receive mail at this time (the server knows the user but restricts verification). A 250 response for EXPN admin confirms that the admin mailing list exists. The 550 response for RCPT TO:unknown@domain.com definitively indicates that the recipient does not exist on the server.

Therefore, option A correctly interprets these responses: root exists but is disabled, the admin list exists, and the unknown user does not exist.

Exam trap

EC-CEH often tests the misinterpretation of SMTP response codes, where candidates confuse 252 (cannot verify but not denying existence) with a definitive 'user exists' or 'user disabled' status, or assume any non-250 response indicates a server misconfiguration like open relay.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because open relay is tested by sending a message to an external domain via the server, not by VRFY, EXPN, or RCPT TO responses; a 550 for an unknown local user does not indicate relay behavior. Option C is wrong because SMTP injection involves injecting malicious commands or headers into SMTP transactions, which is not indicated by standard response codes 252, 250, and 550. Option D is wrong because the server is clearly running SMTP, as it responds to SMTP commands on port 25 with valid SMTP status codes.

17
MCQmedium

During a password cracking session, a pentester uses a wordlist combined with rules to generate variations of each word. This approach is called a hybrid attack. Which tool, when used with a rule file, can perform such an attack?

A.RainbowCrack
B.Ophcrack
C.Hydra
D.Hashcat
AnswerD

Hashcat is widely recognized as the world's fastest and most versatile password recovery tool, offering extensive support for various attack modes, including highly effective hybrid and rule-based attacks. Its `-a 6` (hybrid wordlist + mask) and `-a 7` (hybrid mask + wordlist) modes directly address hybrid cracking scenarios, while the `-r` option enables sophisticated rule-based modifications to dictionary words. This comprehensive capability makes Hashcat the ideal choice for dynamic, advanced password cracking sessions.

Why this answer

Hashcat is a powerful password recovery tool that supports hybrid attacks by combining a wordlist with rule-based mutations. When used with a rule file (e.g., best64.rule), Hashcat applies transformations like prefixing, suffixing, or character substitution to each word, enabling efficient generation of password variations. This directly matches the hybrid attack described in the question.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse online brute-forcing tools like Hydra with offline hash-cracking tools like Hashcat, or mistakenly think rainbow-table tools (RainbowCrack, Ophcrack) can perform rule-based wordlist mutations.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because RainbowCrack uses precomputed rainbow tables for time-memory trade-off attacks, not wordlist-based rule generation. Option B is wrong because Ophcrack is a Windows password cracker that relies on rainbow tables for LM/NTLM hashes, not hybrid wordlist+rule attacks. Option C is wrong because Hydra is a network authentication brute-forcing tool (e.g., SSH, FTP, HTTP), not a password hash cracker that applies rule-based wordlist mutations.

18
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are valid defenses against WPA2 attacks? (Select three)

Select 3 answers
A.Disable WPS
B.Implement 802.1X/EAP with RADIUS
C.Use WEP instead of WPA2
D.Enable WPA2-Mixed mode
E.Use a strong, complex pre-shared key
AnswersA, B, E

Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) is a feature designed for easy network setup but introduces a significant vulnerability. Its PIN-based authentication mechanism is susceptible to brute-force attacks due to its 8-digit PIN being validated in two halves, effectively reducing the search space. Disabling WPS eliminates this critical attack vector, preventing an attacker from easily discovering the WPA2 pre-shared key (PSK) by exploiting the WPS vulnerability.

Why this answer

Using a strong passphrase makes dictionary attacks harder. 802.1X/EAP provides enterprise authentication. Disabling WPS removes PIN brute-force vector. WPA2-Mixed mode still allows TKIP clients, reducing security.

19
MCQmedium

A penetration tester identifies a web page that reflects user input in the response without proper encoding. The input is submitted via a GET parameter. Which type of cross-site scripting (XSS) is MOST likely present?

A.Blind XSS
B.Reflected XSS
C.DOM-based XSS
D.Stored XSS
AnswerB

Reflected Cross-Site Scripting occurs when a malicious script, typically injected via a URL parameter or form input, is immediately returned by the web server in the HTTP response without proper sanitization. The payload is not stored on the server; instead, it is executed client-side in the victim's browser only when they click a specially crafted link. This non-persistent nature means the attack targets individual users who interact with the malicious URL directly.

Why this answer

Reflected XSS occurs when user input is immediately returned by the server in the response without proper sanitization, typically via GET parameters.

20
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst notices multiple ESTABLISHED connections on port 443 from different external IPs to the same process ID. What type of attack is most likely occurring?

A.Distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack
B.SSL/TLS renegotiation DoS
C.Slowloris attack
D.Man-in-the-middle attack
AnswerA

The observation of numerous distinct external IP addresses simultaneously establishing connections to a single server process on port 443 strongly indicates a Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack. This type of attack aims to overwhelm the target server's resources, such as network bandwidth, CPU, or memory, by flooding it with a high volume of seemingly legitimate connection requests. The distributed nature, originating from multiple sources, makes it difficult to block individual malicious IPs and effectively exhausts the server's capacity to handle legitimate traffic.

Why this answer

Multiple ESTABLISHED connections on port 443 (HTTPS) from different external IPs to the same process ID indicate a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack. In a DDoS, many compromised hosts (botnet) simultaneously establish legitimate TCP handshakes and maintain connections to exhaust server resources, such as connection slots or memory, at the application layer. The key clue is the diversity of source IPs targeting a single process, which is characteristic of a coordinated flood from many distinct sources.

Exam trap

In EC-CEH, the distinction between a DDoS (multiple source IPs) and a DoS (single source IP) is critical. Candidates may confuse a DDoS with a Slowloris attack because both involve many connections, but Slowloris uses incomplete requests from few sources, not fully ESTABLISHED connections from many IPs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because an SSL/TLS renegotiation DoS attack exploits repeated renegotiation of SSL/TLS handshakes within a single connection, not multiple ESTABLISHED connections from different IPs; it would show high CPU usage on the server with few connections. Option C is wrong because a Slowloris attack sends partial HTTP headers slowly to keep many connections open, but it typically uses a single source IP (or few IPs) and targets HTTP (port 80) or HTTPS (port 443) with incomplete requests, not fully ESTABLISHED TCP connections. Option D is wrong because a man-in-the-middle attack intercepts and potentially modifies traffic between two parties, but it does not inherently cause multiple ESTABLISHED connections from different external IPs to the same process; it would involve a single interposed connection or ARP spoofing, not a flood of distinct sources.

21
MCQhard

An IDS alerts on a large number of outbound DNS queries from an internal host to a suspicious domain. The queries have random subdomains and the response size is large. Which attack is MOST likely in progress?

A.Slowloris attack
B.UDP flood
C.DNS amplification attack
D.DNS tunneling
AnswerC

Correct. The large responses and random subdomains indicate an amplification attack.

Why this answer

The described behavior—large numbers of outbound DNS queries with random subdomains and large response sizes—is the hallmark of a DNS amplification attack. In this attack, the attacker spoofs the victim's IP address and sends queries with random subdomains to open DNS resolvers, which then send large responses (often 10x to 50x larger than the query) to the victim, overwhelming their bandwidth. The IDS alerts on the outbound queries from the internal host because that host is the victim receiving the amplified responses, not the attacker.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse DNS tunneling with DNS amplification because both involve DNS queries, but the key differentiator is the large response size in amplification versus the small, covert data payloads in tunneling.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Slowloris attack is a low-and-slow HTTP DoS attack that keeps many connections open by sending partial HTTP requests, not involving DNS queries or large response sizes. Option B is wrong because a UDP flood sends a high volume of UDP packets (often to random ports) to consume bandwidth, but it does not rely on DNS queries with random subdomains or the amplification effect from DNS resolvers. Option D is wrong because DNS tunneling encodes data (e.g., for C2 exfiltration) in DNS queries and responses, typically using small, consistent packet sizes to avoid detection, not large response sizes that would trigger alerts.

22
MCQmedium

A security analyst runs the following command: hping3 -S -p 80 -c 1 192.168.1.1. The response received is an RST/ACK packet. What does this indicate about port 80 on the target?

A.The port is open and listening
B.The port is filtered by a firewall
C.The port is closed
D.The port is in a TIME_WAIT state
AnswerC

RST/ACK indicates the port is closed.

Why this answer

When hping3 sends a SYN packet to a closed port, the target responds with an RST/ACK packet per TCP RFC 793. This indicates that the port is reachable but no service is listening on it, hence the immediate reset.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse a RST/ACK response with a filtered port or assume it indicates a firewall blocking the port, but in TCP, a closed port actively sends RST/ACK, whereas a firewall typically drops the packet silently.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an open port would respond with a SYN/ACK, not an RST/ACK. Option B is wrong because a filtered port would typically drop the packet silently or respond with an ICMP unreachable message, not a TCP RST/ACK. Option D is wrong because TIME_WAIT is a local TCP state on the client side after a connection closes, not a response from a remote port to a SYN probe.

23
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are valid Nmap flags that can be used to evade detection by an IDS? (Select exactly 3.)

Select 3 answers
A.-O
B.-D
C.-f
D.-sS
E.--data-length
AnswersB, C, E

The -D <decoy1,decoy2,ME,...> flag initiates a decoy scan, which is a powerful evasion technique designed to obscure the true source of the Nmap scan. By sending packets from multiple spoofed IP addresses alongside the real scanner's IP, it makes it significantly harder for Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and firewalls to pinpoint the actual origin of the scan activity. This creates a smokescreen, distributing the apparent attack source across numerous hosts and complicating forensic analysis.

Why this answer

(-D) is correct because the decoy scan flag allows you to spoof multiple source IP addresses, making it difficult for an IDS to distinguish the real scanning host from the decoys. This technique floods the target with scan traffic from many IPs, obscuring the true origin and evading detection.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the misconception that -sS is an evasion technique, but it is actually a stealth scan that reduces connection logging, not IDS evasion; the real evasion flags are those that alter packet structure or source identity.

24
MCQmedium

A penetration tester discovers that an Nmap SYN scan against a target host returns no open ports, but a TCP connect scan reveals port 443 open. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this discrepancy?

A.The target host has a host-based firewall that drops SYN packets but allows full connections.
B.A network firewall is performing stateful inspection and dropping unsolicited SYN packets while allowing established connections.
C.The target host has ICMP filtering enabled, preventing Nmap from identifying it as online.
D.Nmap's SYN scan requires root privileges, and the tester ran it without sudo.
AnswerB

Stateful firewalls track connections; a SYN scan sends unsolicited SYN packets that may be dropped, while a connect scan completes the handshake and appears as a normal connection.

Why this answer

The discrepancy occurs because a network firewall is performing stateful inspection. It drops unsolicited SYN packets (the first step of a SYN scan) but allows full TCP connections (SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK) to complete, as the connect scan establishes a full three-way handshake. This behavior is typical of stateful firewalls that track connection state and only permit packets belonging to established sessions.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume a host-based firewall is the cause, but stateful network firewalls specifically differentiate between incomplete SYN probes and full TCP handshakes, making option B the correct answer.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a host-based firewall would typically block both SYN packets and full connection attempts consistently, not selectively allow full connections while dropping SYNs. Option C is wrong because ICMP filtering affects host discovery (ping sweeps), not port scan results; Nmap can still perform port scans without ICMP echo replies. Option D is wrong because while SYN scan requires root privileges, running without sudo would cause an error or fallback to connect scan, not produce a discrepancy between two scans—both would fail or both would show open ports.

25
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. An attacker gains access to the user's workstation and wants to find a file containing passwords. Which file is most likely to contain credentials?

A.User profile (C:\Users\jdoe)
B.Home directory on \\fileserver\home\jdoe
C.logon.bat script
D.Active Directory database (NTDS.dit)
AnswerC

A logon.bat script is a specific executable file often configured to run automatically when a user logs onto a domain-joined machine. These scripts are frequently used to map network drives, configure printers, or execute other setup tasks, and unfortunately, they sometimes contain hardcoded usernames and passwords for network resources. An attacker gaining access to this script can directly read these embedded credentials, making it a prime target for credential harvesting and subsequent lateral movement within the network.

Why this answer

Logon.bat scripts are commonly used in Windows environments to map network drives or perform startup tasks, and administrators often embed plaintext credentials in such scripts for automation. An attacker who compromises the workstation can read this batch file to extract stored passwords, making it a high-value target for credential theft.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the misconception that credentials are always stored in system databases like NTDS.dit or SAM, but the trap here is that attackers target easily accessible, plaintext files like logon scripts that users or administrators create for convenience.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the user profile (C:\Users\jdoe) contains personal files and settings but not typically stored credentials in plaintext; passwords are usually hashed and stored in the SAM hive, not in profile folders. Option B is wrong because the home directory on \\fileserver\home\jdoe is a network share that may contain user data but is not a default location for credential files; accessing it requires network authentication, and it is less likely to contain plaintext passwords than a local script. Option D is wrong because the Active Directory database (NTDS.dit) contains domain credential hashes, but it resides on a domain controller, not on the user's workstation, and an attacker with only local workstation access cannot directly read it without privilege escalation or network traversal.

26
MCQmedium

After successfully exploiting a system, an attacker uses the command 'wevtutil cl system' on a Windows target. What is the MOST likely purpose of this command?

A.To export event logs to a file
B.To disable Windows event logging
C.To clear the system event log
D.To create a new event log entry
AnswerC

The `wevtutil cl` command is the correct and primary method for clearing the contents of a designated Windows event log from the command line. When executed with a log name, such as `wevtutil cl System`, it effectively purges all recorded events from that specific log. This action is a common anti-forensics technique used by attackers to remove evidence of their activities and hinder incident response efforts.

Why this answer

The command 'wevtutil cl system' is used to clear the System event log on a Windows system. After successfully exploiting a target, an attacker would use this command to erase traces of their activities, such as log entries generated by their tools or actions, thereby hindering forensic analysis. The 'cl' parameter stands for 'clear log', and 'system' specifies the System log.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse 'wevtutil cl' with exporting or disabling logs, but the 'cl' parameter specifically means 'clear', and the command is a common post-exploitation anti-forensics technique tested in CEH.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'wevtutil cl system' clears the log, not exports it; exporting logs would use 'wevtutil epl' or 'wevtutil export-log'. Option B is wrong because disabling Windows event logging would require stopping the Event Log service (e.g., 'net stop EventLog') or modifying registry settings, not clearing a log. Option D is wrong because creating a new event log entry is done with 'EventCreate' or 'wevtutil' with the 'epl' parameter, not the 'cl' parameter.

27
Multi-Selectmedium

During a penetration test, a tester finds a web application that reflects user input in the page without sanitization. Which TWO types of XSS are potentially exploitable in this scenario?

Select 2 answers
A.DOM-based XSS
B.Blind XSS
C.Self-XSS
D.Stored (persistent) XSS
E.Reflected XSS
AnswersA, E

DOM-based Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) arises when a web application's client-side script processes user-controllable data from the Document Object Model (DOM) unsafely, without sending it back to the server. The vulnerability occurs entirely within the browser, where malicious input directly modifies the DOM environment via JavaScript, leading to script execution. This typically involves a "source" like document.URL and a "sink" like eval() or innerHTML, making it a client-side vulnerability that doesn't necessarily involve server-side reflection.

Why this answer

Reflected XSS occurs when input is immediately returned in the response. DOM-based XSS occurs when client-side scripts process input unsafely. Stored XSS requires persistence on the server, which is not indicated.

28
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. An analyst runs netstat on a Windows server and observes multiple established connections to port 3389 from internal IPs. Which attack is most likely occurring?

A.SMB relay attack
B.DDoS attack
C.RDP brute-force attack
D.Man-in-the-middle attack
AnswerC

The `netstat` output clearly displays multiple established connections to port 3389, which is the standard port for Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). The presence of numerous distinct remote IP addresses successfully establishing connections to this service strongly indicates a successful RDP brute-force attack. Each established connection signifies a successful login session, suggesting that attackers have either found valid credentials for multiple accounts or repeatedly logged in with compromised credentials.

Why this answer

Multiple established RDP connections from different internal IPs suggest a brute-force or password-spraying attack against RDP. The established connections indicate successful authentication attempts.

29
MCQhard

A penetration tester uses the following Google dork: intitle:"index of" "backup" site:example.com. What is the MOST likely goal of this search?

A.Locate open directories that might contain sensitive files
B.Discover email addresses associated with the domain
C.Find login pages of the target domain
D.Identify subdomains of example.com
AnswerA

The `intitle:"index of"` Google dork specifically targets web server directory listings that lack proper configuration to prevent browsing. When combined with keywords like `(backup|bak|old|temp)` (implied by the context of sensitive files), it effectively filters for directories likely containing sensitive, unindexed files such as database backups, configuration files, or temporary data. This technique is a highly effective reconnaissance method for uncovering misconfigurations that expose critical information.

Why this answer

The Google dork `intitle:"index of" "backup" site:example.com` targets web servers that have directory listing enabled (indicated by the page title containing 'index of') and that contain a folder or file named 'backup'. This is a classic reconnaissance technique to find open directories where backup files (e.g., database dumps, configuration files) may be inadvertently exposed, potentially containing sensitive data such as credentials or proprietary information.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the purpose of Google dorks, thinking 'index of' always reveals login pages or subdomains, when in fact it specifically identifies directories with listing enabled, and the 'backup' keyword pinpoints potentially sensitive data exposure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because discovering email addresses typically uses dorks like `intext:"@example.com"` or `site:example.com intitle:"contact"`, not directory listing indicators. Option C is wrong because finding login pages usually involves dorks such as `inurl:login` or `inurl:admin`, not the 'index of' and 'backup' keywords. Option D is wrong because identifying subdomains is better achieved with dorks like `site:*.example.com` or tools like Sublist3r, not by searching for directory listings containing 'backup'.

30
MCQmedium

A penetration tester wants to enumerate user accounts on a Linux system running SMTP service. Which commands are commonly used for this purpose?

A.USER, PASS, QUIT
B.VRFY, EXPN, RCPT TO
C.AUTH LOGIN, STARTTLS, EHLO
D.HELO, MAIL FROM, DATA
AnswerB

The VRFY (Verify) and EXPN (Expand) commands are specifically designed to query an SMTP server about the existence of a user or the members of a mailing list, respectively, often revealing valid account names. Additionally, the RCPT TO (Recipient To) command, while primarily for specifying a mail recipient, can be leveraged for enumeration by observing the server's response: a '250 OK' or similar success code indicates a valid user, whereas a '550 No such user' or '551 User not local' signifies an invalid one. These three commands collectively provide robust methods for identifying valid user accounts on an SMTP server.

Why this answer

The VRFY command verifies whether a user mailbox exists on the SMTP server, EXPN expands a mailing list or alias to reveal individual member addresses, and RCPT TO specifies the recipient for a mail message and can be used to validate addresses during the SMTP conversation. These three commands are the standard SMTP enumeration techniques for discovering valid user accounts on a Linux system running an SMTP service.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse SMTP enumeration commands (VRFY, EXPN, RCPT TO) with SMTP session commands (HELO, MAIL FROM, DATA) or with authentication commands (AUTH LOGIN, STARTTLS), leading them to select options that are valid SMTP commands but not designed for user enumeration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because USER, PASS, and QUIT are POP3 commands used for mailbox access and authentication, not for SMTP user enumeration. Option C is wrong because AUTH LOGIN, STARTTLS, and EHLO are SMTP commands used for authentication negotiation and secure connection initiation, not for enumerating user accounts. Option D is wrong because HELO, MAIL FROM, and DATA are SMTP commands used to initiate a session, specify the sender, and begin message content transfer, respectively; they do not directly reveal user account existence.

31
MCQmedium

During a penetration test, you find a web application that includes files using a parameter like /index.php?page=about. When you change the parameter to /etc/passwd, the application returns the contents of the password file. Which vulnerability is present?

A.Local File Inclusion (LFI)
B.Remote File Inclusion (RFI)
C.Command Injection
D.Directory Traversal
AnswerA

Local File Inclusion (LFI) occurs when a web application incorporates a local file into its output or execution flow based on user-supplied input without adequate validation. An attacker can manipulate parameters to point to arbitrary files on the server's filesystem, such as `/etc/passwd` or application log files. This vulnerability allows for sensitive data disclosure, and in some cases, can be escalated to remote code execution by including log files poisoned with malicious code.

Why this answer

Local File Inclusion (LFI) allows an attacker to include local files on the server through path traversal or direct inclusion.

32
Multi-Selectmedium

An attacker is attempting to perform an Insecure Direct Object Reference (IDOR) attack on a web application. Which TWO conditions are necessary for this attack to succeed?

Select 2 answers
A.The application uses indirect object references (e.g., random tokens)
B.The application exposes direct references to internal objects (e.g., user IDs in URLs)
C.The application fails to validate the user's authorization for the requested object
D.The application has a CSRF vulnerability
E.The application implements strong access controls on every object
AnswersB, C

An attacker attempting an Insecure Direct Object Reference (IDOR) attack specifically targets applications that expose direct references to internal implementation objects. For instance, if a URL directly uses sequential database IDs like "/profile?id=123", an attacker can easily modify "id=123" to "id=124" to attempt access to another user's profile. This direct exposure provides the attacker with a clear pathway to manipulate object identifiers, which is a fundamental prerequisite for exploiting IDOR vulnerabilities.

Why this answer

IDOR exploits direct references to objects without proper authorization checks. The application must expose direct references (e.g., IDs in URLs) and fail to verify the user's permission to access the object.

33
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are examples of privilege escalation on Linux? (Select 2)

Select 2 answers
A.Pass-the-Hash
B.Token impersonation
C.SUID bit abuse
D.Exploiting a local vulnerability in a setuid binary
E.DLL hijacking
AnswersC, D

SUID (Set User ID) bit abuse is a common Unix/Linux privilege escalation method. When the SUID bit is set on an executable file, it runs with the permissions of the file owner, rather than the user executing it. If a program owned by root has the SUID bit set and can be manipulated (e.g., through arguments or environment variables) to execute arbitrary commands, a low-privileged user can leverage this to execute commands as root, thereby escalating privileges.

Why this answer

SUID bit abuse (C) is a privilege escalation technique because when the SUID (Set User ID) bit is set on an executable, it runs with the permissions of the file owner (often root), regardless of the user who executes it. An attacker can exploit misconfigured SUID binaries to execute commands with elevated privileges, gaining root access.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between Windows and Linux privilege escalation techniques, and the trap here is that candidates confuse cross-platform attacks like token impersonation or DLL hijacking as applicable to Linux, when they are strictly Windows-based.

34
MCQmedium

An analyst runs the following command: dnsenum --enum example.com. Which of the following actions is dnsenum performing?

A.Attempts a zone transfer and brute-forces subdomains
B.Scans for open ports on the DNS server
C.Queries the DNS server for its version information
D.Performs a reverse DNS lookup to find PTR records for the IP range
AnswerA

The `dnsenum enum exampl` command, specifically utilizing the `enum` option, instructs the `dnsenum` tool to perform a comprehensive DNS reconnaissance. This process primarily involves attempting a zone transfer (AXFR) from the target DNS server, which, if successful due to misconfiguration, can reveal all DNS records for the domain. Following this, `dnsenum` proceeds to brute-force subdomains by iterating through a built-in or user-provided wordlist, querying for A records to discover additional hosts within the domain.

Why this answer

The `dnsenum` tool is designed for DNS enumeration, and its `--enum` flag performs a comprehensive scan that includes attempting a zone transfer (AXFR query) to retrieve all DNS records from the nameserver, and if that fails, it brute-forces subdomains using a wordlist. This matches option A exactly.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse `dnsenum` with other DNS tools like `nslookup` or `dig`, assuming it only performs simple queries, when in fact its `--enum` mode specifically targets zone transfers and subdomain brute-forcing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because `dnsenum` does not perform port scanning; that is the role of tools like Nmap or Masscan. Option C is wrong because querying the DNS server for its version information is typically done with `dig chaos TXT VERSION.BIND` or `fpdns`, not `dnsenum`. Option D is wrong because reverse DNS lookups for PTR records are not a primary function of `dnsenum`; that is better suited for tools like `dnsrecon` with specific flags or `nslookup` in reverse mode.

35
MCQmedium

A security team is evaluating wireless security for a corporate network. They want to implement the strongest current encryption standard for Wi-Fi. Which of the following should they choose?

A.WEP with 128-bit key
B.WPA2 with CCMP
C.802.1X with EAP-TLS
D.WPA3 with SAE
AnswerD

WPA3 with SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals) is the most secure Wi-Fi standard, offering significant improvements over its predecessors. SAE provides a more robust key establishment protocol that protects against offline dictionary attacks and ensures forward secrecy, meaning past session keys cannot be compromised even if the master key is later discovered. Furthermore, WPA3 enhances security for public networks through Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE), providing individualized data encryption.

Why this answer

WPA3 is the latest Wi-Fi security standard, offering stronger encryption with SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals) and replacing WPA2.

36
MCQeasy

Which of the following is a tool commonly used for MAC flooding attacks to force a switch into fail-open mode, allowing sniffing of all traffic on the network?

A.Ettercap
B.macof
C.Nmap
D.Wireshark
AnswerB

macof is specifically designed for MAC flooding.

Why this answer

macof is a tool specifically designed to perform MAC flooding attacks. It generates thousands of random MAC addresses, overwhelming the switch's Content Addressable Memory (CAM) table. When the CAM table is full, the switch enters fail-open mode (hub mode), forwarding all frames out of all ports, which allows an attacker to sniff traffic that would normally be isolated.

Exam trap

EC-CEH often tests the distinction between MAC flooding (which targets the switch's CAM table) and ARP poisoning (which targets host ARP caches), so candidates frequently confuse Ettercap (an ARP poisoning tool) with macof (the correct MAC flooding tool).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Ettercap is a comprehensive suite for man-in-the-middle attacks (e.g., ARP poisoning, DNS spoofing) but does not perform MAC flooding; it relies on poisoning the ARP cache of hosts, not overflowing the switch's CAM table. Option C is wrong because Nmap is a network scanning and reconnaissance tool used for port scanning, OS detection, and service enumeration; it has no capability to generate MAC floods or manipulate switch forwarding behavior. Option D is wrong because Wireshark is a packet analyzer used for capturing and inspecting network traffic; it cannot generate traffic to flood a switch's CAM table and is a passive tool, not an active attack tool.

37
Multi-Selecthard

A penetration tester obtains password hashes from a Windows system. Which TWO methods would be most efficient for cracking NTLM hashes offline? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Using RainbowCrack with precomputed rainbow tables for NTLM
B.Performing an online brute-force against the SAM database
C.Using Ophcrack with rainbow tables for NTLM
D.Using Hashcat with a brute-force attack on GPU
E.Using John the Ripper with a dictionary and rules
AnswersD, E

Hashcat leverages GPU for high-speed cracking of NTLM hashes.

Why this answer

Hashcat, when used with a GPU, can perform massively parallel brute-force attacks against NTLM hashes, achieving billions of hash calculations per second. This makes it one of the most efficient tools for offline password cracking of NTLM hashes, especially when the password is not in a dictionary.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between tools optimized for LM vs. NTLM hashes, and candidates mistakenly choose Ophcrack (option C) because they confuse its LM rainbow table capability with NTLM support.

38
MCQeasy

Which of the following tools is specifically designed to search the internet for exposed devices and services, such as industrial control systems and webcams, using banners and metadata?

A.Maltego
B.Nmap
C.Shodan
D.Google
AnswerC

Shodan functions as a specialized search engine that continuously scans the entire internet, indexing information derived from service banners, metadata, and open ports of various internet-connected devices. Unlike traditional web search engines, Shodan focuses on machine-readable data, enabling users to discover a vast array of devices, including industrial control systems, webcams, routers, and IoT devices, based on specific criteria like manufacturer, location, or exposed service. This unique capability makes it an indispensable tool for security researchers and penetration testers to identify vulnerable or misconfigured systems globally.

Why this answer

Shodan is a search engine specifically designed to scan the internet for exposed devices and services by collecting banners and metadata from protocols such as HTTP, SSH, FTP, and SNMP. Unlike general-purpose search engines, Shodan indexes device-specific information, making it ideal for discovering industrial control systems (ICS), webcams, and other IoT devices that respond to network probes.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse Shodan with a general-purpose search engine like Google or a network mapping tool like Nmap, failing to recognize that Shodan is purpose-built for indexing device banners and metadata from internet-connected systems.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Maltego is a graphical link analysis tool used for open-source intelligence (OSINT) and relationship mapping, not for scanning the internet for exposed devices via banners. Option B is wrong because Nmap is a network scanning tool used to discover hosts and services on a local or remote network, but it does not maintain a global searchable index of internet-connected devices. Option D is wrong because Google is a general-purpose web search engine that indexes web pages and content, not device banners or metadata from non-HTTP services like industrial control protocols.

39
MCQhard

A penetration tester uses `smbclient -L //192.168.1.30 -N` and receives a list of shares including a hidden administrative share (C$) and a user share named "Backup". What is the most immediate security concern?

A.The Backup share may contain sensitive data
B.SMB signing is not enabled
C.Null session enumeration is possible, allowing information gathering
D.The C$ share is a default administrative share
AnswerC

The command `smbclient -L 192.168.1.30 -N` explicitly attempts to perform a null session enumeration, meaning it tries to list shares without providing any credentials. If this command successfully returns a list of shares, it confirms that the target system permits unauthenticated access for information gathering. This vulnerability allows an attacker to discover available network resources, user accounts, and group information, which is crucial for subsequent attack phases.

Why this answer

The `-N` flag in the `smbclient` command suppresses password prompts, enabling a null session connection. The fact that the command successfully lists shares without authentication indicates that null session enumeration is permitted, which is a critical security flaw. This allows an attacker to gather sensitive information (share names, user lists, etc.) without any credentials, often serving as the first step in a targeted attack.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates focus on the existence of the C$ administrative share or the Backup share's name, rather than recognizing that the ability to enumerate any shares without authentication (null session) is the most critical and immediate vulnerability.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because while the Backup share might contain sensitive data, the most immediate security concern is the ability to enumerate shares at all without authentication, not the content of a specific share. Option B is wrong because SMB signing is a separate security feature that prevents man-in-the-middle attacks; its absence is a concern but not directly indicated by the successful null session enumeration shown in the command output. Option D is wrong because the C$ share being a default administrative share is a known fact, but its presence alone is not the immediate security issue—the ability to list it via a null session is the real problem.

40
MCQmedium

A security analyst receives an alert that an external IP address is sending fragmented packets to the company's web server on port 80. The analyst suspects the attacker is using Nmap with fragmentation. Which Nmap flag is being used to fragment the probe packets?

A.-sI
B.-D
C.--mtu
D.-f
AnswerD

The -f flag is the primary Nmap option used for IP fragmentation. When enabled, Nmap splits the IP header and the TCP/UDP header into several smaller IP packets, typically into 8-byte fragments. This technique can be highly effective in bypassing stateless firewalls or intrusion detection systems (IDS) that are not configured to reassemble fragmented packets before inspection, as they may only see the initial fragment and miss critical information in subsequent ones.

Why this answer

The -f flag in Nmap instructs the tool to fragment the probe packets into 8-byte or smaller fragments, making it harder for packet filters and intrusion detection systems to detect the scan. This matches the scenario where fragmented packets are sent to the web server on port 80, confirming that -f is the correct flag.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between -f (fragmentation) and --mtu (custom MTU size), leading candidates to mistakenly choose --mtu because they associate it with packet size changes, but only -f triggers fragmentation by default.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because -sI is the Nmap flag for an Idle (zombie) scan, which spoofs the source IP address using a zombie host, not fragmenting packets. Option B is wrong because -D is used for decoy scans, which sends packets from multiple spoofed IP addresses to obscure the real source, not fragmenting the packets. Option C is wrong because --mtu sets a custom Maximum Transmission Unit size for packets, but it does not inherently fragment packets; fragmentation is achieved with -f, and --mtu is used to specify a different fragment size when combined with -f.

41
MCQmedium

An IoT device uses MQTT protocol with default credentials 'admin/admin' and no TLS encryption. An attacker on the same network captures MQTT packets and extracts sensor data. Which two vulnerabilities are being exploited? (Choose the best combination)

A.Buffer overflow and command injection
B.Default credentials and cleartext communication
C.Insecure firmware and hardcoded backdoor
D.Weak encryption and replay attack
AnswerB

The scenario explicitly states the use of "default credentials," which are easily guessable or publicly known, allowing unauthorized access to the IoT device or its MQTT broker. Furthermore, the absence of any mention of TLS/SSL for the MQTT protocol implies that communication occurs in "cleartext." This means all transmitted data, including sensitive information and authentication tokens, is unencrypted and can be easily intercepted and read by an attacker using packet sniffing tools.

Why this answer

The use of default credentials and lack of encryption (no TLS) are the vulnerabilities. MQTT itself is not insecure when properly configured; the issues are weak authentication and cleartext communication.

42
MCQmedium

A security engineer wants to ensure that a wireless network uses the most secure encryption available. Which of the following should be configured on the access point?

A.WEP
B.WPA3
C.WPA2 with TKIP
D.WPA2 with AES
AnswerB

WPA3 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 3) is the latest and most robust security standard for wireless networks, offering significant enhancements over its predecessors. It introduces Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) as a more secure key exchange protocol, replacing the vulnerable Pre-Shared Key (PSK) exchange in WPA2 and providing stronger protection against dictionary attacks. WPA3 also enhances privacy in open networks with Opportunistic Wireless Encryption (OWE) and ensures forward secrecy, making it the recommended choice for maximum security and resilience against evolving threats.

Why this answer

WPA3 is the latest Wi-Fi security standard, providing stronger encryption (GCMP-256) and protection against dictionary attacks via SAE.

43
MCQeasy

Which of the following is an example of passive OS fingerprinting?

A.Performing a TCP SYN scan
B.Nmap -O scan
C.Sending ICMP echo requests
D.Analyzing TTL values from captured packets
AnswerD

TTL can indicate OS type passively.

Why this answer

Passive OS fingerprinting involves analyzing captured network traffic without sending any packets to the target. Examining TTL (Time to Live) values from captured packets is a classic passive technique because different operating systems use default initial TTL values (e.g., Windows uses 128, Linux uses 64, Cisco IOS uses 255), and by observing the TTL in a received packet, you can infer the OS without actively probing the host.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between active and passive techniques, and the trap here is that candidates confuse 'analyzing captured data' (passive) with 'sending probes and analyzing responses' (active), leading them to pick options like Nmap -O scan or TCP SYN scan.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a TCP SYN scan actively sends SYN packets to the target and analyzes responses, which is an active fingerprinting technique. Option B is wrong because Nmap -O scan actively sends a series of crafted probes (e.g., TCP, UDP, ICMP) and analyzes responses to determine the OS, making it an active method. Option C is wrong because sending ICMP echo requests actively probes the target and analyzes replies (e.g., TTL, DF bit, ICMP error handling), which is active fingerprinting, not passive.

44
MCQeasy

A security analyst notices that an internal server is sending a high volume of DNS queries to external servers for non-existent domains. Which type of malware behavior is MOST likely being observed?

A.Spyware exfiltrating data
B.A keylogger capturing keystrokes
C.A worm spreading across the network
D.Ransomware encrypting files
AnswerC

Worms are self-propagating malware that actively seek out and infect new hosts across a network without user interaction. Their propagation mechanisms frequently involve scanning IP ranges or performing numerous DNS lookups to discover vulnerable machines or services. High-volume DNS queries, especially for non-existent domains, are a classic indicator of a worm actively attempting to resolve hostnames or discover new targets during its infection cycle.

Why this answer

A high volume of DNS queries to external servers for non-existent domains is a classic indicator of a worm using DNS as a covert channel for command-and-control (C2) communication or propagation. Worms often generate random domain names (e.g., Domain Generation Algorithm, DGA) to evade static blocklists, and the high query rate reflects attempts to resolve these domains to locate a C2 server or to spread to new hosts via DNS-based discovery.

Exam trap

CEH often tests the misconception that high DNS query volume for non-existent domains is always data exfiltration (spyware), but the key differentiator is the random, high-frequency pattern typical of DGA-based worms, not the structured, low-frequency pattern of exfiltration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because spyware typically exfiltrates data via HTTP/HTTPS or custom protocols to a known C2 server, not by generating high volumes of DNS queries for non-existent domains; such behavior would be inefficient and easily detected. Option B is wrong because a keylogger captures keystrokes locally and stores or sends them in small, periodic bursts, not by flooding DNS with queries for non-existent domains. Option D is wrong because ransomware encrypts files and usually communicates with a C2 server for key exchange via standard web traffic, not by generating high volumes of DNS queries for non-existent domains; the high query rate is more indicative of a worm's propagation or DGA activity.

45
MCQeasy

A penetration tester receives an email that appears to be from the company's CEO, urgently requesting that the tester click a link to review a document. The email contains several grammatical errors and the sender's address is slightly misspelled. Which type of social engineering attack is this MOST likely?

A.Whaling
B.Baiting
C.Vishing
D.Spear phishing
AnswerD

Spear phishing involves crafting highly personalized email attacks directed at a specific individual, group, or role within an organization, leveraging known information about the target to increase credibility. The attacker often impersonates a trusted entity, such as a CEO, to manipulate the recipient into performing a desired action, like clicking a malicious link. In this case, the email is specifically tailored and sent to a penetration tester, impersonating the CEO, which precisely fits the definition of a spear phishing attempt due to its targeted nature and social engineering tactics.

Why this answer

This attack is spear phishing because the email is targeted at a specific individual (the penetration tester) and impersonates a trusted source (the CEO) to trick the recipient into clicking a malicious link. While whaling targets high-level executives, spear phishing targets any specific person, and here the recipient is not a senior executive. The grammatical errors and misspelled sender address are common indicators of phishing, but the targeted nature distinguishes it from generic phishing.

Exam trap

In EC-CEH, whaling specifically targets C-level executives as victims, whereas spear phishing targets any specific individual. Candidates often mistake the impersonation of a CEO as whaling, but the key is who the recipient is. Since the recipient is a penetration tester (not a senior executive), this is spear phishing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Baiting) is wrong because baiting involves offering something enticing (e.g., a free USB drive or download) to trick the victim, not sending a deceptive email. Option C (Vishing) is wrong because vishing is voice-based social engineering conducted over phone calls, not via email. Option D (Spear phishing) is wrong because while the email is targeted, spear phishing typically targets any specific individual or group within an organization, not exclusively high-ranking executives like a CEO; whaling is a subtype of spear phishing that focuses on senior management.

46
MCQeasy

Which tool is specifically designed to perform SNMP enumeration by walking the MIB tree using a known community string?

A.enum4linux
B.SNMPwalk
C.nbtstat
D.smbclient
AnswerB

SNMPwalk is the quintessential utility for performing SNMP enumeration by systematically querying a target device's Management Information Base (MIB) tree. It operates by sending a sequence of SNMP GETNEXT requests, effectively 'walking' through the MIB and retrieving all available object identifiers (OIDs) and their corresponding values. This process allows security professionals to gather extensive system information, network interface details, and running process data from SNMP-enabled devices, making it the correct tool for this specific task.

Why this answer

SNMPwalk is the correct tool because it is specifically designed to perform SNMP enumeration by walking the Management Information Base (MIB) tree using a known community string (e.g., 'public' or 'private'). It sends successive GETNEXT requests to retrieve all OID values from the SNMP agent, effectively dumping the entire MIB tree for reconnaissance.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse SNMPwalk with enum4linux because both are enumeration tools, but enum4linux targets SMB/NetBIOS, not SNMP, and the question specifically requires walking the MIB tree with a community string.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because enum4linux is a tool for enumerating information from Windows and Samba systems via SMB, RPC, and NetBIOS, not SNMP. Option C is wrong because nbtstat is a Windows command-line tool that displays NetBIOS over TCP/IP statistics and name tables, not SNMP MIB walking. Option D is wrong because smbclient is an FTP-like client for accessing SMB/CIFS shares on Windows systems, not for SNMP enumeration.

47
MCQmedium

During an internal penetration test, you run 'smbclient -L //192.168.1.100 -N' and get an empty response. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason?

A.The target is not running SMB
B.Null sessions are disabled on the target
C.The target requires NTLM authentication
D.The target is a Linux server
AnswerB

The smbclient -L command, when executed without explicit credentials, attempts to establish an anonymous or "null" session with the target SMB server. Modern Windows operating systems, starting with Windows XP SP2, disable null sessions by default as a security measure. Consequently, if null sessions are disabled, the server will reject this unauthenticated connection attempt, preventing the enumeration of shares and resulting in an empty or access denied response from smbclient.

Why this answer

The `-N` flag in smbclient suppresses password prompts, attempting a null session. An empty response (no error, no output) typically indicates the SMB service is running but null sessions are explicitly disabled, often via the registry key `HKLM\SYSTEM\CurrentControlSet\Control\Lsa\RestrictAnonymous` set to 1 or 2. This prevents anonymous enumeration of shares and users, which is a common security hardening measure on Windows systems.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume an empty response means the service is down or not SMB, but CEH expects you to recognize that a silent empty output from `smbclient -L -N` is a classic indicator of null session restrictions being enabled.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the target were not running SMB, smbclient would return a connection error (e.g., 'Connection refused' or 'NT_STATUS_CONNECTION_REFUSED'), not an empty response. Option C is wrong because NTLM authentication is the default for SMB on Windows; the `-N` flag attempts a null session without credentials, and if NTLM were required but null sessions disabled, the tool would still prompt for credentials or return an access denied error, not an empty response. Option D is wrong because a Linux server running Samba would typically respond to a null session attempt with either a share list or an explicit 'NT_STATUS_ACCESS_DENIED' error, not a completely empty response; the empty response is characteristic of a Windows target with RestrictAnonymous enforced.

48
MCQeasy

An attacker discovers that a web application's login form allows unlimited login attempts. The attacker uses a list of usernames and passwords obtained from a previous breach to gain access. This attack is known as:

A.Password spraying
B.Brute force attack
C.Dictionary attack
D.Credential stuffing
AnswerD

Credential stuffing is a highly effective attack where attackers take large lists of username and password pairs, typically obtained from data breaches on one web service, and automatically attempt to use these same credentials to log into other, unrelated web applications. This attack exploits the widespread user practice of reusing the same login credentials across multiple online platforms. Success hinges on the assumption that users will recycle their compromised passwords on new targets.

Why this answer

Credential stuffing (option D) is correct because the attacker uses a list of known username/password pairs from a previous breach to automate login attempts against the web application. This attack exploits password reuse across services, not the weakness of the passwords themselves, and relies on the application's lack of rate limiting or account lockout mechanisms.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse credential stuffing with a dictionary attack, but credential stuffing specifically uses known username-password pairs from a prior breach, not a generic wordlist of passwords.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because password spraying involves trying a single common password (e.g., 'Password123') against many usernames, not using a list of known credential pairs. Option B is wrong because a brute force attack systematically tries all possible password combinations for a single username, which is computationally expensive and not based on a pre-compromised list. Option C is wrong because a dictionary attack uses a wordlist of potential passwords against a single username, but does not pair specific usernames with their previously compromised passwords.

49
MCQhard

A security analyst detects an ongoing DDoS attack where the attacker sends a large number of ICMP echo request packets with spoofed source IP addresses to a network's broadcast address. The attack overwhelms the target with responses from all hosts on the network. Which attack type is this?

A.UDP flood
B.SYN flood
C.Smurf attack
D.Ping of Death
AnswerC

Smurf uses ICMP echo requests to broadcast address with spoofed source, causing amplification.

Why this answer

A Smurf attack exploits IP broadcast addressing and ICMP echo requests. The attacker sends ICMP echo request packets with a spoofed source IP (the victim's IP) to the network's broadcast address, causing every host on that network to reply to the victim, overwhelming it with ICMP echo replies. This amplification effect makes the attack highly effective, as a single request generates many responses.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing a Smurf attack with a simple ICMP flood or Ping of Death, which do not involve the broadcast amplification mechanism.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a UDP flood targets random ports on a victim with high volumes of UDP packets, not ICMP echo requests sent to a broadcast address. Option B is wrong because a SYN flood exploits the TCP three-way handshake by sending incomplete SYN packets to exhaust connection resources, not ICMP traffic. Option D is wrong because a Ping of Death sends a single malformed oversized ICMP packet to crash a system, not a flood of normal-sized ICMP echo requests to a broadcast address.

50
MCQeasy

Which tool is commonly used for ARP spoofing attacks to perform man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks on a local network?

A.Nmap
B.Ettercap
C.Wireshark
D.Metasploit
AnswerB

Ettercap supports ARP poisoning, DNS spoofing, and other MITM techniques.

Why this answer

Ettercap is a dedicated suite for man-in-the-middle attacks on LAN, with built-in ARP spoofing capabilities. It actively sends forged ARP replies to poison the ARP cache of target hosts, allowing the attacker to intercept, modify, or drop traffic between them. This makes it the standard tool for ARP-based MITM attacks.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse passive sniffing tools like Wireshark with active interception tools, or assume Metasploit's broad capabilities include ARP spoofing as its primary function, when Ettercap is the specialized tool for this task.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Nmap is a network discovery and port scanning tool; it does not perform ARP spoofing or packet interception. Option C is wrong because Wireshark is a passive packet analyzer that captures traffic but cannot inject forged ARP packets to redirect flows. Option D is wrong because Metasploit is a penetration testing framework focused on exploit development and payload delivery, not a dedicated ARP spoofing tool, though it may include auxiliary modules for ARP poisoning, it is not the primary or most commonly used tool for this specific attack.

51
MCQmedium

A web application allows users to access files using parameters like 'file=report.pdf'. A tester changes the parameter to '../../etc/passwd' and retrieves the system password file. This is an example of which attack?

A.Local file inclusion (LFI)
B.Remote file inclusion (RFI)
C.Command injection
D.Directory traversal
AnswerD

Directory traversal, also known as path traversal, is an attack that exploits insufficient security validation of user-supplied file paths. By injecting special sequences like `../` (dot-dot-slash) or its URL-encoded equivalent, an attacker can navigate outside the intended directory structure, allowing them to access or read arbitrary files and directories on the server's file system that would otherwise be restricted.

Why this answer

Directory traversal attacks exploit insufficient input validation to access files outside the intended directory by using '../' sequences.

52
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are effective physical security controls to prevent tailgating?

Select 2 answers
A.Biometric door lock
B.Mantrap
C.CCTV cameras
D.Security guard
E.Turnstile with one-way access
AnswersB, E

A mantrap is a highly effective physical security control consisting of a small vestibule with two interlocking doors. It is designed to ensure that only one person can pass through at a time; the first door must close and lock before the second door can open. This sequential operation physically prevents tailgating by isolating individuals and enforcing single-person occupancy per access cycle.

Why this answer

A mantrap is a physical security control consisting of two interlocking doors that create a small vestibule. Only one door can be opened at a time, and the system verifies that only one person enters before allowing the second door to open. This design directly prevents tailgating by trapping unauthorized individuals who attempt to follow an authorized person through the first door.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'preventive' controls (like mantrap and turnstile) with 'detective' controls (like CCTV) or 'deterrent' controls (like security guards), leading them to select CCTV or guards as effective tailgating prevention measures.

53
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are effective defenses against CSRF attacks? (Choose 2.)

Select 2 answers
A.Setting the Secure flag on cookies
B.Using input validation to block special characters
C.Using anti-CSRF tokens that are validated on the server
D.Implementing SameSite cookie attribute (Lax or Strict)
E.Enabling the HttpOnly flag on session cookies
AnswersC, D

Anti-CSRF tokens are unique, unpredictable, and secret values generated by the server and embedded into forms or request headers. When a user submits a form or makes an AJAX request, the browser sends this token along with the request. The server then validates this token against the one stored in the user's session. If the tokens do not match, the request is rejected, effectively ensuring that the request originated from the legitimate application and not from a malicious third-party site.

Why this answer

CSRF tokens and SameSite cookies both prevent cross-site request forgery. Double Submit Cookie is also a method but not listed. Custom headers are not a standard defense; the primary ones are CSRF tokens and SameSite cookies.

54
MCQmedium

A web server is found to have directory listing enabled for the /uploads folder. An attacker discovers a shell.php file uploaded earlier. Which attack is the attacker MOST likely to perform next?

A.File inclusion
B.Cross-site scripting
C.Remote code execution via uploaded shell
D.SQL injection
AnswerC

Directory listing, when enabled, exposes the file and directory structure of the web server, allowing an attacker to browse its contents. If an attacker has successfully uploaded a web shell through a separate vulnerability (e.g., insecure file upload), directory listing allows them to precisely locate the shell's path and filename. Once the shell's URL is known, the attacker can directly access it via a web browser, enabling remote execution of arbitrary commands on the compromised server, thus achieving remote code execution.

Why this answer

With directory listing, the attacker can find the path to the uploaded shell and then access it to execute commands on the server.

55
MCQmedium

An application is vulnerable to server-side request forgery (SSRF). An attacker exploits this to access internal services. Which of the following is a common indicator of SSRF?

A.The application uses user input in file inclusion functions like include()
B.The application includes a parameter like 'url=' that fetches remote resources
C.The application reflects user input in HTTP headers
D.The application stores user input in a database without sanitization
AnswerB

An application that includes a parameter, such as 'url=' or 'resource=', which the server then uses to fetch content from a user-supplied remote address, is a classic indicator of a Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) vulnerability. This allows an attacker to manipulate the server into making requests to arbitrary internal or external network resources on their behalf. Such a mechanism enables the server to act as a proxy, potentially accessing internal systems, cloud metadata APIs, or bypassing firewall rules that would otherwise block direct access from the attacker.

Why this answer

SSRF vulnerabilities often appear where the application fetches URLs based on user input, such as 'url=' parameters, allowing the attacker to make the server request internal resources.

56
MCQhard

An attacker uses an idle scan with Nmap to probe a target. This technique relies on a third-party host with a predictable IP ID sequence to infer port states. Which Nmap flag enables an idle scan?

A.-sS
B.-sI
C.-sA
D.-sT
AnswerB

The -sI flag correctly specifies an idle scan, which is a highly stealthy port scanning technique. This method leverages a "zombie" host's predictable IP ID sequence to infer open ports on a target without sending any packets directly from the attacker's machine to the target. By observing changes in the zombie's IP ID after it receives a forged packet from the target, the attacker can deduce the target's port status, effectively making the zombie perform the scan indirectly.

Why this answer

The idle scan (-sI) leverages a third-party host (zombie) with a predictable IP ID sequence to indirectly probe a target's ports. By spoofing the zombie's IP and observing changes in its IP ID counter, Nmap can infer whether a port is open, closed, or filtered without sending packets directly from the attacker's IP.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse -sI with -sS (SYN scan) because both are stealthy, but -sI specifically requires a zombie host and IP ID manipulation, not just half-open connections.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (-sS) is wrong because it performs a TCP SYN stealth scan, which sends SYN packets directly from the attacker's IP and does not involve a zombie host or IP ID manipulation. Option C (-sA) is wrong because it performs a TCP ACK scan, which sends ACK packets to map firewall rules, not to conduct idle scanning. Option D (-sT) is wrong because it performs a TCP connect scan, which completes the full three-way handshake and is detectable, not an idle scan.

57
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are common tools used for web application security testing? (Choose 2)

Select 2 answers
A.Burp Suite
B.Wireshark
C.Nessus
D.OWASP ZAP
E.Metasploit
AnswersA, D

Burp Suite is a comprehensive, integrated platform specifically designed for performing security testing of web applications. It functions as an intercepting proxy, allowing testers to capture, analyze, and manipulate all HTTP/S traffic between a browser and a web server. Beyond proxying, it includes a powerful scanner for automated vulnerability detection, an intruder for custom brute-forcing and fuzzing, and a repeater for manual request modification and re-sending, making it indispensable for both automated and manual web application penetration testing.

Why this answer

Burp Suite and OWASP ZAP are both widely used web application security testing tools.

58
MCQeasy

A security analyst captures a WPA2 4-way handshake using airodump-ng. Which tool would they use to perform a dictionary attack on the captured handshake to recover the PSK?

A.Reaver
B.aircrack-ng
C.Hydra
D.John the Ripper
AnswerB

aircrack-ng is designed to crack WEP and WPA/WPA2 PSK from captured handshake files.

Why this answer

Aircrack-ng, which is the standard tool for cracking WPA2 PSK from a captured handshake using a dictionary file.

59
MCQmedium

You need to perform a fast scan of all 65535 TCP ports on a target IP address. Which tool is specifically designed for high-speed scanning and can surpass Nmap's speed on large-scale networks?

A.Netcat
B.hping3
C.Nmap with -T5
D.Masscan
AnswerD

Masscan is explicitly designed as an internet-scale port scanner, capable of scanning the entire internet in under six minutes. Its unparalleled speed stems from its asynchronous, stateless design, which sends SYN packets at an extremely high rate without maintaining a full TCP connection state for each probe. By prioritizing raw packet transmission speed over traditional connection establishment, Masscan can efficiently scan all 65535 TCP ports on a target network significantly faster than other tools, making it ideal for rapid, broad-spectrum port discovery.

Why this answer

Masscan is the correct answer because it is specifically engineered for high-speed asynchronous scanning, capable of transmitting packets at rates exceeding 10 million packets per second, which allows it to scan all 65535 TCP ports on a target significantly faster than Nmap, even with the -T5 timing template. Unlike Nmap's synchronous or adaptive scanning, Masscan uses a custom TCP/IP stack and raw sockets to maximize throughput, making it the optimal tool for large-scale network reconnaissance.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume Nmap's -T5 timing template is the fastest possible scan, but they overlook that Masscan's asynchronous architecture is fundamentally different and designed for orders-of-magnitude higher throughput on large-scale networks.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Netcat is a general-purpose networking utility for reading/writing data across network connections, not a port scanner; it lacks the asynchronous, high-speed scanning engine required to efficiently scan all 65535 ports. Option B is wrong because hping3 is a packet crafting and testing tool that can perform port scanning, but it operates with a slower, more manual approach and is not designed for high-speed scanning of all ports on a large network. Option C is wrong because Nmap with -T5 uses the 'insane' timing template, which increases parallelism and reduces timeout intervals, but Nmap's architecture is still fundamentally synchronous and cannot match Masscan's raw packet rate for scanning all 65535 ports on a large-scale network.

60
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are examples of passive footprinting techniques? (Select exactly 2.)

Select 2 answers
A.Performing a ping sweep on the target network
B.Conducting a port scan with Nmap
C.Using Google dorking to find exposed documents
D.Examining job postings for technology clues
E.Brute forcing subdomains via DNS queries
AnswersC, D

Using Google dorking involves leveraging advanced search operators to query Google's pre-existing index for publicly available information about a target, such as exposed documents or misconfigured servers. The interaction occurs solely with Google's search engine, not directly with the target's systems. This method is passive because it relies on information already indexed by a third party, leaving no direct trace on the target's network.

Why this answer

Google dorking involves using advanced search operators (e.g., filetype:, intitle:) to discover publicly accessible information without directly interacting with the target's systems. This is a passive footprinting technique as it relies on publicly indexed data from search engines, not on sending packets to the target's network.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between passive and active reconnaissance, and the trap here is that candidates may mistakenly classify DNS-based enumeration (Option E) as passive, when in fact any technique that sends packets to the target's systems (including DNS queries) is considered active.

61
MCQhard

A penetration tester finds that a web application allows uploading a file with the name '../../var/www/html/shell.php'. The file is successfully written to the server. Which combination of vulnerabilities does this exploit?

A.Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) and CSRF
B.Local File Inclusion (LFI) and Remote File Inclusion (RFI)
C.Directory traversal and unrestricted file upload
D.SQL injection and command injection
AnswerC

The ability to upload a file with a filename containing path traversal sequences (e.g., `../../`) directly exploits a directory traversal vulnerability, allowing the attacker to write the file to an arbitrary location outside the intended upload directory. Concurrently, the successful upload of a PHP file, which is a server-side script, indicates an unrestricted file upload vulnerability. This means the application lacks proper validation to prevent dangerous file types from being uploaded, enabling potential remote code execution.

Why this answer

Directory traversal allows moving up directories, and unrestricted file upload allows writing a PHP shell, leading to remote code execution.

62
MCQmedium

During a web application penetration test, a security analyst intercepts a request using Burp Suite and notices the following parameter in the URL: /profile?user_id=123. By changing the user_id to 124, the analyst is able to view another user's profile. Which vulnerability is being exploited?

A.SQL Injection
B.Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
C.Insecure Direct Object Reference (IDOR)
D.Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
AnswerC

This option is correct because Insecure Direct Object Reference (IDOR) vulnerabilities occur when an application exposes a direct reference to an internal object, such as a user_id parameter, and fails to implement proper authorization checks. By simply changing the value of the user_id parameter in the request, the attacker can directly access another user's profile without explicit authorization, exploiting the application's trust in the provided identifier without verifying the user's permissions for that specific resource. This directly matches the scenario.

Why this answer

IDOR occurs when an application exposes a direct reference to an internal object (like a user ID) without proper authorization checks, allowing unauthorized access.

63
MCQmedium

A security analyst notices that a web server is experiencing slow response times, and the connection logs show many incomplete HTTP requests from various IP addresses, each keeping connections open for long periods. Which attack is MOST likely occurring?

A.HTTP flood
B.Slowloris attack
C.SYN flood
D.UDP flood
AnswerB

A Slowloris attack is a sophisticated application-layer denial-of-service (DoS) technique that targets web servers by holding open as many connections as possible for as long as possible. It achieves this by sending partial HTTP requests, such as incomplete headers, and then periodically sending small, non-essential data to keep the connection alive. This strategy exhausts the server's limited connection pool, preventing new, legitimate connections from being established and effectively denying service to other users.

Why this answer

The Slowloris attack works by opening multiple HTTP connections to the target web server and sending partial HTTP headers, then keeping those connections alive by sending periodic small packets to prevent timeout. This exhausts the server's connection pool, leading to slow response times and denial of service for legitimate users, matching the described symptoms of incomplete requests and long-held connections.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Slowloris with a SYN flood because both involve incomplete connections, but Slowloris operates at the application layer (HTTP) using partial headers, while SYN flood operates at the transport layer (TCP) using incomplete handshakes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because an HTTP flood sends complete, legitimate-looking HTTP requests at high volume, not incomplete requests that keep connections open. Option C is wrong because a SYN flood exploits the TCP three-way handshake by sending many SYN packets without completing the handshake, overwhelming the server's SYN queue, not by keeping established HTTP connections open. Option D is wrong because a UDP flood targets the server with high volumes of UDP packets, often to random ports, causing resource exhaustion from ICMP responses or application processing, not by maintaining persistent HTTP connections.

64
MCQeasy

Which type of malware is designed to replicate itself across networks without requiring a host file, often exploiting vulnerabilities to spread?

A.Trojan
B.Ransomware
C.Worm
D.Virus
AnswerC

A worm is a standalone malicious program specifically designed to self-replicate and spread across computer networks without requiring a host program or user intervention. Worms exploit vulnerabilities in operating systems or applications to propagate autonomously, often consuming network bandwidth or system resources. Their defining characteristic is their ability to duplicate themselves and spread independently to other systems, making them highly effective at rapid dissemination.

Why this answer

A worm is a standalone malware program that replicates itself across networks without needing a host file, typically exploiting vulnerabilities such as unpatched SMB services (e.g., EternalBlue in WannaCry) or weak credentials to propagate autonomously. Unlike viruses, worms do not require attachment to an existing executable or document, and they spread by scanning for vulnerable targets and transferring their code over network protocols like TCP/IP.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse a worm with a virus because both self-replicate, but the key differentiator is that a worm does not require a host file and spreads autonomously over networks, while a virus needs a host and user action.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Trojan disguises itself as legitimate software to trick users into executing it, but it does not self-replicate across networks; it relies on social engineering for initial installation. Option B is wrong because ransomware encrypts files or locks systems for extortion, and while it may use worm-like propagation (e.g., WannaCry), its primary purpose is not self-replication but data hostage-taking; the question specifically asks for malware designed to replicate itself. Option D is wrong because a virus requires a host file (e.g., an executable, script, or document) to attach to and relies on user action (e.g., opening a file) to spread, whereas the question specifies replication without a host file.

65
MCQmedium

During a penetration test, an attacker gains access to a system and wants to maintain persistent remote control. Which type of Trojan is specifically designed for this purpose?

A.Ransomware
B.Backdoor
C.Keylogger
D.Downloader
AnswerB

A backdoor is specifically designed to bypass normal authentication and security mechanisms, providing an attacker with covert and persistent remote access to a compromised system. This unauthorized access allows for full control, including command execution, file manipulation, and further exploitation, directly enabling the attacker to 'gain access' and maintain control over the system.

Why this answer

A backdoor Trojan is specifically designed to bypass normal authentication mechanisms and provide an attacker with persistent, unauthorized remote access to a compromised system. Unlike other Trojans that perform a single malicious action, backdoors often install services or modify system startup entries (e.g., registry Run keys, cron jobs) to survive reboots, ensuring long-term control.

Exam trap

The CEH exam often tests the distinction between a backdoor (which provides ongoing remote control) and a downloader (which only fetches other malware), leading candidates to mistakenly choose 'Downloader' because they associate it with remote access, but a downloader does not itself maintain persistence or control.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because ransomware is designed to encrypt files and demand payment for decryption, not to provide persistent remote access. Option C is wrong because a keylogger captures keystrokes to steal credentials or data, but it does not grant remote control or persistence. Option D is wrong because a downloader Trojan is used to fetch and install additional malware from a remote server, but it is not itself a tool for maintaining persistent remote access.

66
MCQmedium

A security analyst discovers that a web application's search box reflects user input without proper sanitization. However, the attacker must trick a victim into clicking a crafted link containing the malicious script. This vulnerability is classified as which type?

A.Blind XSS
B.Stored XSS
C.DOM-based XSS
D.Reflected XSS
AnswerD

Reflected XSS, also known as Non-Persistent XSS, occurs when a malicious script, typically embedded within a URL parameter or form input, is immediately processed and "reflected" back in the server's HTTP response to the user's browser without proper sanitization. This attack requires the victim to click a specially crafted link containing the payload, which then executes in their browser for that single request. The payload is not persistently stored on the server, making it a one-time execution per interaction.

Why this answer

Reflected XSS requires user interaction (clicking a link) to execute the script in the victim's browser. The payload is not stored on the server, distinguishing it from stored XSS. DOM-based XSS does not involve server reflection.

67
MCQhard

During a penetration test, a tester uses the following payload in a search field: <script>alert(document.cookie)</script>. The payload is reflected in the response without sanitization. However, the tester notices that the attack only works when the payload is submitted via a POST request, not GET. Which type of XSS is this?

A.Stored XSS
B.Reflected XSS
C.DOM-based XSS
D.Self-XSS
AnswerB

Reflected XSS occurs when a malicious script embedded in an HTTP request (e.g., a URL parameter or form field) is immediately echoed back in the server's HTTP response without proper sanitization. The victim's browser then executes this script upon rendering the page, but the payload itself is not stored on the server for future use or delivery to other users. This type of attack typically requires an attacker to trick a victim into clicking a specially crafted malicious link that contains the payload.

Why this answer

Reflected XSS occurs when the payload is reflected immediately in the response. The fact that it works via POST but not GET does not change the classification; it is still reflected XSS because the payload is not stored on the server. Some reflected XSS may be triggered only via POST parameters.

68
MCQmedium

An attacker sets up a fake access point with the same SSID as a legitimate corporate network. Clients connecting to this AP are prompted to enter their network credentials. Which type of attack is this?

A.Replay attack
B.Evil twin attack
C.WPS PIN attack
D.De-authentication attack
AnswerB

An evil twin attack specifically involves an attacker setting up a rogue wireless access point that mimics the SSID and often the MAC address of a legitimate, trusted network. The objective is to trick unsuspecting users into connecting to this malicious AP, allowing the attacker to intercept all their network traffic, perform man-in-the-middle attacks, or phish credentials. This direct impersonation of a legitimate Wi-Fi network by creating a fake AP with the same SSID is precisely what the question describes.

Why this answer

The attack is an evil twin attack, where a rogue AP mimics a legitimate one to capture credentials or perform man-in-the-middle.

69
MCQmedium

A security analyst notices that a web server is responding very slowly to legitimate requests. The server logs show many incomplete HTTP GET requests that never complete, each opened slowly over time from many different IP addresses. Which attack is most likely occurring?

A.Ping of Death
B.HTTP flood
C.SYN flood
D.Slowloris
AnswerD

Slowloris sends slow partial HTTP headers to keep connections open.

Why this answer

Slowloris is a denial-of-service attack that works by opening multiple HTTP connections to a target web server and sending partial HTTP GET requests, never completing them. The server keeps these connections open waiting for the request to finish, eventually exhausting its connection pool and denying service to legitimate users. The key indicators are many incomplete GET requests from diverse IPs and slow server response, which match the scenario exactly.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse a SYN flood (TCP layer) with Slowloris (HTTP layer) because both involve incomplete connections, but the key distinction is that Slowloris targets the HTTP protocol with partial GET requests, not the TCP handshake.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Ping of Death involves sending oversized ICMP packets to crash a system, not slow HTTP requests. Option B is wrong because an HTTP flood sends complete, rapid HTTP requests to overwhelm the server, not incomplete ones sent slowly. Option C is wrong because a SYN flood exploits the TCP three-way handshake by sending many SYN packets without completing the handshake, targeting the TCP stack, not HTTP-level connections.

70
MCQmedium

An IoT device uses the MQTT protocol without TLS. A security tester connects to the broker and subscribes to all topics using '#'. What is the tester MOST likely able to accomplish?

A.Perform a denial of service on the broker
B.Eavesdrop on all MQTT communications
C.Inject malicious control commands
D.Replay previously captured messages
AnswerB

Without TLS encryption, all MQTT communications are transmitted in plaintext over the network. By subscribing to the '#' wildcard topic, an attacker can receive every message published to the broker, effectively eavesdropping on all traffic. This allows the interception of sensitive data, operational commands, and device states, as the unencrypted protocol provides no confidentiality protection against network sniffers or malicious subscribers.

Why this answer

MQTT without encryption allows anyone to subscribe to topics. Subscribing to '#' captures all messages, leading to interception of sensitive data. This is a passive eavesdropping attack, not active manipulation like replay or injection.

71
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are characteristics of a polymorphic virus? (Choose 2)

Select 2 answers
A.It does not require a host file to spread
B.It changes its code signature each time it replicates
C.It uses a mutation engine to generate new decryption routines
D.It only infects the master boot record
E.It attaches to email messages automatically
AnswersB, C

A fundamental characteristic of a polymorphic virus is its ability to alter its executable code, or "signature," with each new infection or replication. This constant mutation makes it extremely difficult for traditional signature-based antivirus software to detect and identify the virus, as its binary pattern is never the same. The core malicious functionality remains intact, but its outward appearance changes, effectively evading static detection methods.

Why this answer

A polymorphic virus changes its code signature each time it replicates, which is its defining characteristic. This mutation is achieved by altering the decryption routine or the virus body itself, making signature-based detection difficult. The virus maintains its original functionality while evading static antivirus signatures.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse polymorphic viruses with other malware types, such as worms (which spread without a host) or boot sector viruses (which target the MBR), leading them to select options that describe different malware categories.

72
MCQhard

During a penetration test, an ethical hacker captures a WPA2 handshake and successfully cracks the PSK. Which additional action must be taken to decrypt previously captured traffic?

A.Compute the Pairwise Master Key Identifier (PMKID) from the PSK and AP MAC.
B.Capture the nonce values from the access point.
C.Use the PSK directly to compute the Michael Integrity Check (MIC).
D.Obtain the Group Temporal Key (GTK) from the access point.
AnswerB

Correct. The PTK used to decrypt unicast WPA2 traffic is derived from the PMK, the AP/client MAC addresses, and the ANonce and SNonce. These nonce values are obtained from the captured handshake.

Why this answer

Once the PSK is cracked, the PMK is derived from the PSK and SSID. To decrypt captured WPA2 traffic, the Pairwise Transient Key (PTK) must be derived from the PMK, the AP and client MAC addresses, and the nonces (ANonce and SNonce) from the 4-way handshake. Therefore, the additional required step is to obtain/use the nonce values from the captured handshake; computing the PMKID is not necessary for decrypting captured traffic.

Exam trap

Do not confuse the PMKID attack with decryption. The PMKID is useful for checking a candidate PSK without a full handshake, but after a handshake is captured and the PSK is cracked, the nonces from the handshake—not the PMKID—are needed to derive the PTK and decrypt traffic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the nonce values (ANonce and SNonce) are already captured as part of the WPA2 4-way handshake; capturing them again is unnecessary and does not enable decryption without the PMK. Option C is wrong because the Michael Integrity Check (MIC) is a field in the handshake messages used to verify integrity, not to derive encryption keys; using the PSK directly to compute the MIC is meaningless and does not yield the PTK needed for decryption. Option D is wrong because the Group Temporal Key (GTK) is used for broadcast/multicast traffic and is encrypted in the handshake using the PTK; obtaining the GTK from the AP is not possible without first having the PTK, and the GTK alone cannot decrypt unicast traffic.

73
MCQeasy

Which tool is specifically designed to automate social engineering attacks, such as phishing and credential harvesting?

A.Wireshark
B.Nmap
C.Metasploit
D.SET
AnswerD

SET is the Social Engineering Toolkit, designed for automating social engineering attacks.

Why this answer

The Social Engineering Toolkit (SET) is an open-source Python-driven framework specifically designed to automate social engineering attacks, including phishing campaigns, credential harvesting via cloned websites, and spear-phishing payloads. It integrates with Metasploit for payload delivery but is distinct in its focus on manipulating human behavior rather than exploiting technical vulnerabilities.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse Metasploit's broad exploitation capabilities with SET's specialized social engineering automation, forgetting that SET is the dedicated tool for phishing and credential harvesting in the CEH toolkit.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer used for packet capture and traffic inspection, not for automating social engineering attacks. Option B is wrong because Nmap is a network scanning tool used for host discovery and port enumeration, lacking any social engineering automation capabilities. Option C is wrong because Metasploit is a penetration testing framework focused on exploiting technical vulnerabilities and delivering payloads, but it does not natively automate phishing or credential harvesting workflows; SET is the specialized tool for that purpose.

74
MCQhard

During a penetration test of a corporate wireless network, you capture a WPA2 handshake and successfully recover the PSK. Later, you notice that some clients are using WPA3-Personal. Which attack could be used to downgrade a WPA3 client to WPA2 and capture its handshake?

A.Perform a PMKID attack on the WPA3 client to capture the handshake.
B.Use a WPS PIN brute-force attack against the WPA3 client.
C.Send deauthentication packets to the WPA3 client and capture the reconnection handshake.
D.Set up a rogue access point broadcasting a WPA2 network with the same SSID, forcing the client to reconnect using WPA2.
AnswerD

A rogue access point (AP) can be configured to mimic the legitimate network's SSID but broadcast a weaker security protocol like WPA2. Many WPA3-capable clients are configured to prefer WPA3 but will fall back to WPA2 if WPA3 is unavailable or if a stronger WPA2 signal appears more legitimate. By deauthenticating the client from the real WPA3 AP, the rogue WPA2 AP can entice the client to connect, effectively downgrading its security and allowing for WPA2-specific attacks.

Why this answer

WPA3 clients are designed to fall back to WPA2 when the access point only supports WPA2. By setting up a rogue AP with the same SSID but configured for WPA2, the client will attempt to connect using WPA2, allowing you to capture the 4-way handshake and potentially recover the PSK if the same password is used for both security modes.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the misconception that deauthentication alone can force a protocol downgrade, but in WPA3, deauthentication only triggers a reconnection using the same security protocol unless the AP changes its capabilities.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a PMKID attack targets WPA2/3 access points that expose the PMKID in the first EAPOL frame, but it does not downgrade a WPA3 client; it is used to recover the PSK without a full handshake, not to capture a handshake from a downgraded client. Option B is wrong because WPS PIN brute-force attacks target WPS-enabled access points, not clients, and WPA3-Personal does not use WPS; this attack is irrelevant for downgrading a WPA3 client. Option C is wrong because sending deauthentication packets to a WPA3 client will only cause it to reconnect using WPA3 (if the AP supports it), not downgrade to WPA2; the client will re-authenticate with its current security protocol, not fall back automatically.

75
MCQmedium

A security analyst notices that a server is sending an unusually high number of SYN packets to multiple external hosts, but the connections are never completed. The server is most likely involved in which type of attack?

A.Ping of Death
B.Smurf attack
C.UDP flood
D.SYN flood
AnswerD

Correct. A SYN flood sends many SYN packets with no final ACK, overwhelming the target.

Why this answer

A SYN flood attack exploits the TCP three-way handshake by sending a high volume of SYN packets to a target without completing the handshake (no final ACK). The server in this scenario is the attacker, generating these incomplete SYN connections to exhaust the target's resources, such as the SYN backlog queue, leading to denial of service.

Exam trap

The CEH exam often tests the distinction between the attacker's role (sending SYN packets) and the victim's role (receiving them), so candidates may mistakenly think the server is the victim of a SYN flood rather than the source of the attack.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Ping of Death involves sending oversized or malformed ICMP packets to crash a system, not a flood of TCP SYN packets. Option B is wrong because a Smurf attack uses ICMP echo requests with a spoofed source IP to broadcast addresses, causing amplification, not TCP SYN packets. Option C is wrong because a UDP flood sends a high volume of UDP datagrams to random ports, overwhelming the target, but does not involve TCP SYN packets or the three-way handshake.

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