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Certified Ethical Hacker CEH (CEH) — Questions 676750

870 questions total · 12pages · All types, answers revealed

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676
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are effective defenses against SQL injection attacks?

Select 2 answers
A.Implementing stored procedures with dynamic SQL
B.Disabling error messages
C.Using an ORM that generates parameterized queries
D.Using prepared statements with parameterized queries
E.Escaping user input with addslashes()
AnswersC, D

Object-Relational Mappers (ORMs) provide an effective defense against SQL injection by abstracting database interactions and typically generating parameterized queries. Instead of concatenating user input directly into SQL strings, ORMs bind input values as parameters, ensuring they are treated as data and not executable code. This fundamental separation prevents malicious input from altering the query's structure, thereby neutralizing injection attempts.

Why this answer

Prepared statements (parameterized queries) and stored procedures (if properly parameterized) prevent SQL injection by separating data from code.

677
MCQmedium

An attacker uses the Social Engineering Toolkit (SET) to send a malicious email to employees of a company, claiming to be from IT support and urging them to click a link to reset their password. Which social engineering attack is being performed?

A.Vishing
B.Phishing
C.Baiting
D.SMiShing
AnswerB

Phishing is a prevalent cyberattack where adversaries employ deceptive emails to trick recipients into divulging confidential information or executing malicious actions. The Social Engineering Toolkit (SET) is frequently used to craft convincing fake login pages or deliver malware via email attachments, making it a classic vector for credential harvesting or system compromise. This method leverages trust and urgency to bypass security awareness and technical controls.

Why this answer

The Social Engineering Toolkit (SET) is used to craft and send fraudulent emails that appear to come from a trusted source (IT support), urging the recipient to click a link and enter credentials. This is a classic phishing attack because it uses email as the vector and relies on deception to steal sensitive information. Unlike vishing (voice) or SMiShing (SMS), the attack is executed via email, which is the defining characteristic of phishing.

Exam trap

The CEH exam often tests the distinction between phishing, vishing, and SMiShing by focusing on the delivery medium (email vs. voice vs. SMS), so candidates must remember that 'phishing' specifically refers to email-based social engineering.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because vishing (voice phishing) uses telephone calls or VoIP systems to trick victims, not email. Option C is wrong because baiting involves offering something enticing (e.g., a free USB drive or download) to lure the victim, not sending a deceptive email. Option D is wrong because SMiShing (SMS phishing) uses text messages (Short Message Service) as the attack vector, not email.

678
MCQhard

You are a security consultant hired by a mid-sized company with 500 employees. The company has a central office with a lobby, reception, and two secure areas: the server room (requires keycard and PIN) and the executive floor (requires keycard only). Recently, employees have reported seeing unfamiliar people in restricted areas. Security logs show keycard access for the server room only during business hours, but no anomalies. However, the executive floor logs show multiple entries by a single employee, John from Sales, at odd hours. John claims he was working late. The company has a policy that all employees must wear ID badges visibly. You observe that employees often hold doors open for colleagues, and the receptionist does not verify visitor badges. Which of the following actions should you recommend FIRST to address the most likely attack vector?

A.Investigate John's activities and consider disciplinary action
B.Upgrade keycard readers to biometric scanners
C.Implement mantraps and enforce a policy of one person per keycard entry
D.Install additional CCTV cameras in hallways
AnswerC

Mantraps are highly effective physical security controls consisting of two interlocking doors, designed to permit only one person to pass through at a time after successful authentication. This physical barrier directly prevents tailgating by making it impossible for a second individual to enter behind an authorized person. Coupling this technical control with a strictly enforced policy reinforces security protocols, ensuring both physical and administrative measures actively mitigate the tailgating threat.

Why this answer

The most likely attack vector is tailgating (piggybacking), where unauthorized individuals gain physical access by following an authorized employee through a secured door without using their own credentials. Option C directly addresses this by implementing mantraps (a small room with two interlocking doors that only allows one person to pass at a time) and enforcing a strict one-person-per-keycard-entry policy, which physically prevents tailgating. This is the first and most effective control because it mitigates the root cause—social engineering exploiting human courtesy—rather than focusing on symptoms like John's after-hours access or adding surveillance that doesn't prevent the act.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between authentication (e.g., biometrics) and access control (e.g., mantraps), and the trap here is that candidates confuse improving credential verification with preventing the social engineering technique of tailgating, leading them to choose a more expensive but ineffective solution like biometric readers.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because investigating John's activities focuses on a single employee's behavior (which may be legitimate) rather than addressing the systemic vulnerability of tailgating that allows unfamiliar people into restricted areas. Option B is wrong because upgrading to biometric scanners improves authentication but does not prevent tailgating; an unauthorized person can still follow an authenticated employee through the door after the biometric scan. Option D is wrong because installing additional CCTV cameras only provides passive monitoring and evidence collection after an incident, not active prevention of the tailgating attack vector.

679
MCQmedium

A penetration tester attempts a SQL injection on a login form and receives no error messages, but notices a delay in the server response when injecting ' OR SLEEP(5)--. Which type of SQL injection is this?

A.Union-based SQL injection
B.Boolean-based blind SQL injection
C.Time-based blind SQL injection
D.Error-based SQL injection
AnswerC

Time-based blind SQL injection is the appropriate technique when the application provides no direct output and no discernible boolean difference in its responses. This method relies on making the database server pause for a specific duration (e.g., using `SLEEP()`, `WAITFOR DELAY`, or `PG_SLEEP()`) if a particular injected condition is met. By measuring the time taken for the server to respond, the penetration tester can infer the truthfulness of conditions and extract data character by character.

Why this answer

Time-based blind SQL injection relies on inducing a time delay to infer the truth of a condition, as no error or data is returned.

680
MCQmedium

A security analyst runs the following Nmap command: nmap -sS -sV -O -p 22,80,443,3389 192.168.1.0/24. Which of the following BEST describes what this scan will accomplish?

A.Perform an aggressive scan of all open ports and enumerate SMB shares
B.Perform a TCP SYN scan on four ports, detect service versions, and attempt OS fingerprinting
C.Perform a UDP scan on the four specified ports and identify running services
D.Perform a full TCP connect scan with UDP service detection on all ports
AnswerB

This option accurately describes the Nmap command's functionality. The `-sS` flag initiates a TCP SYN scan, also known as a stealth scan, which is efficient and less likely to be logged by firewalls. The `-sV` flag enables service version detection, attempting to determine the application and version running on open ports. Additionally, the `-O` flag performs operating system detection, and the `-p` flag explicitly targets only ports 22, 80, 443, and 3389.

Why this answer

The command `nmap -sS -sV -O -p 22,80,443,3389 192.168.1.0/24` performs a TCP SYN scan (`-sS`) on only the four specified ports, enables service version detection (`-sV`), and attempts OS fingerprinting (`-O`). This is a stealthy half-open scan that does not complete the TCP three-way handshake, combined with banner grabbing and OS detection, limited to the given port list.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse `-sS` (SYN scan) with a full connect scan or UDP scan, or assume that specifying `-p` implies scanning all ports, when in fact it limits the scan to only the listed ports.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the command does not include `-A` (aggressive scan) nor any SMB enumeration flags like `--script smb-enum-shares`; it only scans four specific ports, not all open ports. Option C is wrong because `-sS` specifies a TCP SYN scan, not a UDP scan; a UDP scan would require `-sU`. Option D is wrong because `-sS` is a half-open SYN scan, not a full TCP connect scan (which uses `-sT`), and the command does not include UDP service detection or scan all ports.

681
MCQmedium

An employee receives an email that appears to be from the CEO, requesting an urgent wire transfer. The email address is slightly misspelled (e.g., ceo@cornpany.com instead of ceo@company.com). This is an example of which type of attack?

A.Whaling
B.Phishing
C.Pretexting
D.Spear phishing
AnswerD

Spear phishing is a highly targeted form of phishing that uses personalized information to increase the credibility and effectiveness of the attack. Attackers conduct reconnaissance to gather details about the target, such as their name, job title, company, and even internal relationships, to craft a convincing email. An email appearing to be from the CEO to a specific employee leverages this personalized context and perceived authority, making it a classic example of a spear phishing attempt designed to elicit a specific response.

Why this answer

Spear phishing is a targeted phishing attack aimed at a specific individual or organization, using personalized information to increase credibility. In this scenario, the attacker spoofs the CEO's identity and uses a misspelled domain (typosquatting) to trick the employee into performing a wire transfer, which is a classic spear phishing technique. Unlike generic phishing, spear phishing tailors the message to the victim's role and context, making it more effective.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'whaling' with 'spear phishing' because both target specific individuals, but whaling specifically targets high-level executives, while spear phishing can target any individual within an organization, as in this case where the email impersonates the CEO rather than targeting them.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because whaling is a specific type of spear phishing that targets high-profile executives (e.g., CEO, CFO) directly, but the question describes an email impersonating the CEO, not targeting the CEO. Option B is wrong because phishing is a broad, untargeted attack sent to many recipients, lacking the personalization and specific context (e.g., using the CEO's name and a misspelled domain) seen here. Option C is wrong because pretexting involves creating a fabricated scenario (pretext) to obtain information, often via phone or in person, and does not inherently rely on email spoofing or typosquatting like this example.

682
MCQmedium

Which of the following best describes a Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) attack?

A.An attacker tricks the server into making requests to internal or external resources
B.An attacker sends a malicious script that executes in a user's browser
C.An attacker forges HTTP requests to perform actions on behalf of an authenticated user
D.An attacker injects SQL commands into a database query
AnswerA

Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) occurs when an attacker exploits a vulnerability in a web application to compel the server itself to make arbitrary requests. These requests can target internal network resources, such as other services, databases, or cloud metadata APIs, which are typically inaccessible directly from the internet. The server acts as a proxy, fetching data or performing actions on behalf of the attacker, often bypassing firewall rules and network segmentation. This allows for reconnaissance, port scanning, and even direct interaction with sensitive internal systems.

Why this answer

A Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) attack occurs when an attacker manipulates a vulnerable server into making HTTP requests to arbitrary destinations, often bypassing network segmentation to access internal resources (e.g., 127.0.0.1, RFC 1918 addresses) or external services. The server acts as a proxy, allowing the attacker to interact with systems that are not directly reachable, such as cloud metadata endpoints (e.g., AWS http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/) or internal databases.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse SSRF with CSRF (Option C) because both involve forged requests, but SSRF targets the server's ability to make requests to internal resources, while CSRF targets the user's browser to perform actions on their behalf.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because it describes Cross-Site Scripting (XSS), where malicious scripts execute in a user's browser, not server-side requests. Option C is wrong because it describes Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF), where an attacker forges requests to perform actions on behalf of an authenticated user, but the server is tricked into sending requests to internal resources, not the user's browser. Option D is wrong because it describes SQL injection, where malicious SQL commands are injected into a database query, not HTTP requests made by the server.

683
MCQmedium

During a penetration test, a tester captures network traffic and notices a large number of ARP replies claiming that 192.168.1.1 is at MAC address 00:11:22:33:44:55, which is different from the legitimate gateway MAC. Which attack is likely in progress?

A.Session hijacking
B.ARP poisoning
C.MAC flooding
D.DNS spoofing
AnswerB

Forged ARP replies bind the attacker's MAC to the gateway IP, allowing interception of traffic.

Why this answer

ARP poisoning (also known as ARP spoofing) is the correct answer because the attacker is sending forged ARP replies that associate the legitimate gateway IP (192.168.1.1) with an attacker-controlled MAC address (00:11:22:33:44:55). This causes victim hosts to update their ARP cache with the false mapping, redirecting traffic intended for the gateway to the attacker's machine, enabling man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks.

Exam trap

The trap in this question is confusing ARP poisoning (which manipulates Layer 2 MAC-to-IP mappings via forged ARP replies) with MAC flooding (which overwhelms switch CAM tables with fake MAC addresses). The key clue is that the attacker is sending multiple ARP replies for a single target IP (the gateway) with a spoofed MAC, not a flood of different MACs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because session hijacking typically involves stealing or predicting session tokens (e.g., cookies or session IDs) after initial authentication, not manipulating ARP cache entries at Layer 2. Option C is wrong because MAC flooding is an attack that overwhelms a switch's CAM table with fake MAC addresses to force it into hub mode (flooding all traffic), not sending specific forged ARP replies to poison a single IP-to-MAC mapping. Option D is wrong because DNS spoofing corrupts DNS resolver caches with false IP-to-domain mappings (e.g., returning a malicious IP for www.example.com), not ARP cache entries for a gateway IP.

684
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is planning a reconnaissance activity that must remain undetected. Which TWO of the following techniques should they choose?

Select 2 answers
A.Engage in social engineering to extract network diagrams from employees
B.Gather information from public OSINT sources like Shodan and social media
C.Conduct a passive reconnaissance by analyzing DNS records without querying the target's DNS servers directly
D.Use Nmap with default scripts to enumerate services
E.Perform a full TCP connect scan on all ports
AnswersB, C

Collecting data from Open Source Intelligence (OSINT) sources, such as Shodan for internet-facing device information or social media for organizational details, is a purely passive reconnaissance technique. This method involves querying publicly available databases and websites, generating no direct network traffic to the target's infrastructure, thus ensuring complete undetectability.

Why this answer

OSINT sources like Shodan and social media provide publicly available information without interacting with the target's systems, keeping the reconnaissance passive and undetected. Option C is correct because passive reconnaissance via DNS records (e.g., using cached or third-party DNS databases) avoids querying the target's authoritative DNS servers, thus not generating logs or alerts on the target's infrastructure.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'passive reconnaissance' with 'stealth scanning,' assuming that techniques like SYN scan or Nmap's default scripts are undetected, when in fact any direct packet transmission to the target is active and detectable.

685
MCQeasy

Which OWASP Top 10 (2021) category describes the vulnerability where an application allows an attacker to include a remote file from an external server, leading to code execution or data disclosure?

A.Security Misconfiguration (A05:2021)
B.Injection (A03:2021)
C.Broken Access Control (A01:2021)
D.Cryptographic Failures (A02:2021)
AnswerB

Injection vulnerabilities occur when untrusted data is sent to an interpreter as part of a command or query without proper validation or sanitization. This allows an attacker to trick the interpreter into executing unintended commands, accessing unauthorized data, or including arbitrary files. Remote File Inclusion (RFI) is a prime example, where an attacker can force the application to include and execute malicious remote files, often leading to remote code execution.

Why this answer

Injection (A03:2021) covers various injection flaws, including Remote File Inclusion (RFI). RFI is a type of injection where user input is used to include a remote file, leading to code execution.

686
MCQmedium

A penetration tester is assessing an organization's physical security. The tester wants to gain unauthorized access to a secured server room that uses a biometric fingerprint scanner. Which of the following techniques would be MOST effective for bypassing the biometric scanner?

A.Shoulder surfing the authorized user's fingerprint pattern
B.Picking the lock on the server room door
C.Using a gelatin mold of an authorized user's fingerprint
D.Tailgating behind an authorized employee
AnswerC

Using a gelatin mold is a classic and often effective method for creating a spoofed fingerprint, as gelatin can accurately capture and replicate the unique ridge patterns and valleys of an authorized user's print. When pressed against a scanner, particularly older optical or capacitive types lacking advanced liveness detection, the gelatin replica can mimic the electrical or optical properties of a real finger. This allows the penetration tester to deceive the biometric system into granting access.

Why this answer

Gelatin molds can replicate the exact ridge and valley patterns of a fingerprint, which many capacitive and optical fingerprint scanners read. This bypasses the biometric authentication without requiring the user's cooperation, making it the most direct method to defeat the scanner itself.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose tailgating (Option D) as the easiest social engineering method, but the question specifically asks for bypassing the biometric scanner, not the door lock or human controls.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because shoulder surfing captures only a visual pattern, not the three-dimensional ridge details or capacitance differences needed to spoof a fingerprint scanner. Option B is wrong because picking the lock bypasses the door lock but does not address the biometric scanner, which would still need to be defeated to gain access. Option D is wrong because tailgating relies on following an authorized person through the door, but it does not bypass the biometric scanner itself and may be prevented by mantraps or security awareness.

687
MCQmedium

During a wireless penetration test, the tester runs `airodump-ng wlan0mon` and sees numerous beacon frames from a network. The tester then sends deauthentication packets using `aireplay-ng -0 5 -a <BSSID> wlan0mon`. What is the PRIMARY purpose of this deauthentication attack?

A.To crash the access point and cause a denial of service
B.To force a client to reconnect and capture the WPA/WPA2 handshake
C.To obtain the WPS PIN of the access point
D.To perform a rogue AP attack by spoofing the BSSID
AnswerB

Correct: `airodump-ng` is utilized to monitor wireless traffic and capture the WPA/WPA2 4-way handshake, which is essential for offline password cracking. To expedite this process, a deauthentication attack (typically executed with `aireplay-ng` alongside `airodump-ng`) is employed. This attack forces an authenticated client to disconnect and then immediately reconnect to the access point, thereby generating the necessary handshake frames for `airodump-ng` to record.

Why this answer

Deauthentication attacks force clients to reconnect, allowing capture of the WPA/WPA2 4-way handshake during reconnection, which is needed for offline cracking.

688
MCQhard

A security auditor is assessing the physical security of a corporate office building that houses a data center. The building has a single main entrance with a reception desk staffed during business hours (8 AM to 6 PM). After hours, employees use a keycard reader to access the building. The data center itself requires a separate keycard and a 6-digit PIN. The auditor notices that during lunch hours (12-1 PM), the reception desk is often unattended, and employees frequently hold the door for others to avoid using their keycard. Additionally, a recent social engineering test revealed that an attacker was able to call the help desk, claim to be a new employee, and request a password reset, which was granted without proper verification. Based on this scenario, which of the following is the MOST effective combination of controls to mitigate both the physical and social engineering weaknesses?

A.Install a mantrap at the main entrance and require two-factor authentication for the data center door.
B.Install a mantrap at the main entrance and require multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all password reset requests.
C.Deploy security guards at the entrance 24/7 and implement a policy that all visitors must be escorted.
D.Implement a callback verification process for all password reset requests and require a manager approval.
AnswerB

A mantrap at the main entrance is a robust physical security control that effectively prevents tailgating and unauthorized physical access to the premises. Simultaneously, requiring multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all password reset requests significantly strengthens logical security by making it much harder for social engineers to gain unauthorized account access, even if they successfully trick an employee into initiating a reset. This combination addresses both physical and social engineering vulnerabilities comprehensively.

Why this answer

It addresses both weaknesses: a mantrap prevents tailgating at the main entrance (physical security), and requiring MFA for password reset requests mitigates the social engineering attack by adding an authentication factor beyond just a phone call. This combination directly counters the observed vulnerabilities—unattended reception and weak identity verification—without over-engineering or leaving gaps.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates focus on the most obvious single weakness (e.g., tailgating or password reset) and choose a control that only fixes that one, missing the requirement for a combination that addresses both physical and social engineering flaws simultaneously.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because while a mantrap stops tailgating, requiring two-factor authentication only for the data center door does nothing to prevent the social engineering attack on the help desk (password reset). Option C is wrong because deploying 24/7 guards and an escort policy is costly and does not address the social engineering weakness; the attacker called the help desk, not the physical entrance. Option D is wrong because a callback verification process and manager approval only address the social engineering vector, leaving the physical tailgating problem during lunch hours completely unmitigated.

689
MCQmedium

A penetration tester uses SQLMap with the following command: sqlmap -u 'http://target.com/page?id=1' --batch --dbs. Which of the following best describes what this command will do?

A.Enumerate all database names in non-interactive mode
B.Dump the entire contents of the current database
C.Perform a time-based blind SQL injection to extract data
D.Enumerate all tables in all databases
AnswerA

The `--dbs` option explicitly instructs sqlmap to enumerate and display the names of all accessible databases on the target system by querying the database's information schema or system tables. Concurrently, the `--batch` option ensures that sqlmap operates in a non-interactive mode, automatically accepting default choices and proceeding without requiring user input for any prompts or questions that might arise during the enumeration process. This combination efficiently retrieves database names without interruption, which is ideal for automated scripting.

Why this answer

--dbs enumerates database names; --batch uses default options without interactive input.

690
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are effective DDoS mitigation techniques? (Select 3)

Select 3 answers
A.Rate limiting
B.Scrubbing centers
C.Blackholing all traffic to the target
D.IP spoofing
E.Anycast network distribution
AnswersA, B, E

Correct. Rate limiting can throttle attack traffic.

Why this answer

Rate limiting is effective because it restricts the number of requests a server will accept from a single IP address or session within a given time window, typically enforced via token bucket or leaky bucket algorithms. This prevents a single attacker or botnet node from overwhelming server resources, though it must be carefully tuned to avoid blocking legitimate users.

Exam trap

EC-CEH often tests the misconception that blackholing (null routing) is a viable mitigation technique, but candidates must remember it is a sacrificial measure that drops all traffic, not a selective defense, and is only used when the attack overwhelms all other defenses.

691
MCQmedium

A security engineer is concerned about DNS zone transfer attacks. Which of the following countermeasures would be MOST effective in preventing unauthorized zone transfers?

A.Restrict zone transfers to authorized IP addresses only
B.Use DNSSEC to sign the zone
C.Change the default port of 53 to a non-standard port
D.Disable DNS recursion on the server
AnswerA

DNS zone transfers, specifically AXFR (full zone transfer) and IXFR (incremental zone transfer), are designed to replicate DNS zone data between primary and secondary name servers. By configuring the authoritative DNS server to only permit these transfers from a predefined list of trusted IP addresses (typically the secondary DNS servers), an administrator directly prevents unauthorized entities from enumerating an entire domain's host records. This access control mechanism is the primary and most effective defense against malicious reconnaissance via zone transfers.

Why this answer

Restricting zone transfers to authorized IP addresses only is the most effective countermeasure because it directly controls which DNS servers are allowed to request a full copy of the zone data. By configuring an allow-transfer list (e.g., using the 'allow-transfer { trusted_servers; };' directive in BIND), the primary DNS server will reject zone transfer requests from any unauthorized IP, preventing attackers from enumerating all DNS records.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse DNSSEC (which protects data integrity) with access control mechanisms, or they mistakenly think disabling recursion or changing ports will prevent zone transfers, when in fact zone transfers are controlled by explicit authorization settings on the authoritative server.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because DNSSEC (DNS Security Extensions) provides data integrity and authentication through digital signatures, but it does not control or restrict the ability to perform a zone transfer; it only ensures that the zone data has not been tampered with. Option C is wrong because changing the default port of 53 to a non-standard port is not a viable countermeasure; DNS clients and servers expect port 53, and changing it would break normal DNS resolution, while an attacker can easily scan for the new port. Option D is wrong because disabling DNS recursion prevents the server from resolving queries for external domains on behalf of clients, but it does not affect the server's ability to perform or allow zone transfers, which are a separate function of authoritative DNS servers.

692
MCQeasy

Which Burp Suite tool is specifically designed to intercept and modify HTTP(S) traffic between the browser and the target web application?

A.Intruder
B.Scanner
C.Repeater
D.Proxy
AnswerD

Burp Proxy is the core interception component of Burp Suite, acting as a man-in-the-middle between the browser and the target web server. It is specifically designed to capture all HTTP and HTTPS traffic flowing through it, allowing security professionals to view, analyze, and modify requests and responses in real-time before they reach their destination. This real-time interception capability is fundamental for understanding application logic, identifying vulnerabilities, and manipulating data during penetration testing.

Why this answer

Burp Proxy is the component that intercepts and allows modification of requests/responses in transit.

693
Multi-Selectmedium

During a penetration test, an analyst detects that an SNMP agent on a network device is using the default community string 'public'. Which TWO actions can the analyst perform using this information? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Enumerate user accounts and system details
B.Extract encrypted passwords from the device
C.Write new configuration to the device
D.Perform SNMPwalk to enumerate the MIB tree
E.Disable the SNMP agent remotely
AnswersA, D

SNMP Management Information Bases (MIBs) are structured databases that store a wealth of information about network devices. Many standard MIB objects, such as those under the `host` or `users` branches, are designed to expose system details like operating system versions, running services, and even lists of local user accounts. This information, often accessible with a default read-only community string, is invaluable for attackers performing reconnaissance to identify potential vulnerabilities or valid login names.

Why this answer

The default SNMP community string 'public' typically grants read-only access to the SNMP agent. With read-only access, the analyst can perform an SNMPwalk (using tools like snmpwalk or MIB browsers) to enumerate the entire Management Information Base (MIB) tree, which often includes system details, user accounts, running processes, and network configurations. This enumeration is a key step in the Enumeration phase of a penetration test, as it can reveal sensitive information without authentication.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume that a default read‑only community string like 'public' provides full administrative control over the device, but it only grants read‑only access. Therefore, actions such as writing configurations or disabling the agent are not possible without a read‑write community string.

694
Multi-Selectmedium

A penetration tester is assessing the security of a cloud application and discovers that it is vulnerable to Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF). Which TWO of the following are potential impacts of this vulnerability?

Select 2 answers
A.Ability to perform a man-in-the-middle attack on the user's browser
B.Access to cloud instance metadata (e.g., AWS IMDS)
C.Direct modification of DNS records
D.Remote code execution on internal servers
E.Direct access to the database without authentication
AnswersB, D

SSRF enables a malicious actor to force the vulnerable server to make requests to internal endpoints. Cloud instance metadata services, such as AWS IMDS (Instance Metadata Service), are often accessible from the instance itself via a well-known internal IP address (e.g., 169.254.169.254). An SSRF vulnerability can be leveraged to query these services, potentially retrieving sensitive information like temporary IAM role credentials, user data, or network configuration details, which can then be used for privilege escalation or further attacks within the cloud environment.

Why this answer

SSRF can allow access to internal services (like metadata endpoints) and potentially lead to remote code execution if internal services are compromised.

695
MCQeasy

A security analyst wants to gather information about a target domain using public records without directly interacting with the target's systems. Which technique is the analyst employing?

A.Vulnerability scanning
B.OSINT using WHOIS queries
C.Active reconnaissance
D.Social engineering
AnswerB

OSINT (Open Source Intelligence) using WHOIS queries is a highly effective passive information gathering technique. It involves querying public databases to retrieve domain registration details such as registrant names, contact information, registration and expiration dates, and nameservers. This method is considered passive because it does not directly interact with the target's live systems or network, relying solely on publicly available records.

Why this answer

OSINT (Open Source Intelligence) using WHOIS queries is a passive reconnaissance technique that gathers domain registration details from public WHOIS databases without interacting with the target's systems. This aligns with the requirement to use public records and avoid direct contact, making it the correct choice for footprinting.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between active and passive reconnaissance, and the trap here is that candidates confuse WHOIS queries with active techniques because they involve sending a query, but since the query goes to a public third-party database (not the target's systems), it remains passive.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because vulnerability scanning actively sends probes and packets to the target's systems to identify weaknesses, which directly interacts with the target and is not passive. Option C is wrong because active reconnaissance involves direct interaction with the target's systems (e.g., port scanning, ping sweeps), which violates the 'without directly interacting' condition. Option D is wrong because social engineering involves manipulating human targets through direct or indirect communication (e.g., phishing calls), which is an active technique and not based on public records.

696
MCQhard

A security analyst is tasked with performing passive reconnaissance on a target organization. Which of the following is the BEST approach to gather information about the target's technology stack without directly interacting with the target's systems?

A.Engage in social engineering via phone calls
B.Use Shodan to search for target infrastructure
C.Initiate a DNS zone transfer request
D.Perform a port scan with Nmap
AnswerB

Utilizing Shodan for target infrastructure searches is a quintessential passive reconnaissance technique because it relies entirely on pre-collected, publicly available data. Shodan continuously scans the internet and indexes information about internet-connected devices, services, and their configurations, storing this data in its own databases. An analyst querying Shodan does not send any direct network traffic to the target's systems, thereby avoiding detection and remaining completely non-intrusive.

Why this answer

Shodan is a search engine that indexes banners from internet-connected devices, allowing an analyst to discover a target's exposed services, open ports, and technology stack (e.g., web servers, SSH versions, IoT devices) without sending any packets to the target's systems. This makes it a purely passive reconnaissance technique, as it relies on Shodan's pre-collected data rather than direct interaction.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between passive and active reconnaissance, and the trap here is that candidates confuse Shodan (a passive, third-party data source) with active tools like Nmap or DNS zone transfers, which require direct interaction with the target's systems.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because social engineering via phone calls involves direct interaction with the target's employees, which is an active technique and risks alerting the target. Option C is wrong because initiating a DNS zone transfer request sends a query to the target's DNS server, which is an active interaction that can be logged and often fails due to RFC 1035 restrictions (zone transfers are typically disabled). Option D is wrong because performing a port scan with Nmap sends packets directly to the target's IP addresses, making it an active reconnaissance method that can be detected by intrusion detection systems.

697
MCQhard

During a penetration test, the tester runs `ldapsearch -x -H ldap://192.168.1.20 -b 'dc=domain,dc=com' '(objectclass=*)'`. The output reveals user objects with 'userPassword' attributes in clear text. Which type of enumeration is being performed, and what is the security implication?

A.NFS enumeration; it indicates that NFS shares are world-readable
B.LDAP enumeration; it indicates that the LDAP server stores passwords in plaintext, posing a credential theft risk
C.SNMP enumeration; it indicates that the community string is weak
D.SMTP enumeration; it indicates that the mail server is misconfigured
AnswerB

The `ldapsearch -x -h <host>` command initiates an anonymous or simple authenticated query against an LDAP server. If successful, it enumerates directory attributes. The discovery of plaintext passwords within the returned LDAP attributes signifies a critical security misconfiguration, as sensitive user credentials are directly exposed. This poses a severe risk of credential theft, allowing attackers to reuse these passwords for lateral movement or access to other systems.

Why this answer

The `ldapsearch` command is used to query an LDAP directory service. The option `-x` specifies simple authentication, and the filter `(objectclass=*)` retrieves all entries. The output revealing `userPassword` attributes in clear text indicates that the LDAP server is storing passwords in plaintext, which is a severe security risk because an attacker can directly harvest credentials for lateral movement or privilege escalation.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse the `ldapsearch` command with other enumeration tools (like `snmpwalk` or `smtp-user-enum`) and fail to recognize that the specific command and output directly indicate LDAP enumeration with plaintext password exposure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because NFS enumeration uses commands like `showmount -e` or `rpcinfo`, not `ldapsearch`, and the output would show exported shares, not user objects with passwords. Option C is wrong because SNMP enumeration uses tools like `snmpwalk` with community strings, and the output would contain OIDs and MIB values, not LDAP directory entries. Option D is wrong because SMTP enumeration uses commands like `VRFY` or `EXPN` to verify email addresses, and the output would be SMTP response codes, not LDAP attributes.

698
MCQeasy

A security analyst captures a large number of unique initialization vectors (IVs) from a wireless network using airodump-ng. Which attack are they MOST likely preparing to execute?

A.WPS PIN brute-force attack
B.Evil twin AP deployment
C.WEP key recovery using aircrack-ng
D.WPA handshake capture
AnswerC

WEP key recovery using tools like aircrack-ng is the correct answer because WEP's fundamental cryptographic weakness stems from its inefficient use of Initialization Vectors (IVs) with the RC4 stream cipher. Attackers exploit the small 24-bit IV space and the plaintext transmission of IVs, leading to frequent IV reuse with the same WEP key. By collecting a large number of unique IVs, often hundreds of thousands to millions, statistical analysis can be performed to deduce the WEP key by observing patterns in the keystream generated from the IV and the key.

Why this answer

WEP encryption is vulnerable to statistical attacks that require capturing many unique IVs to recover the WEP key. The large number of unique IVs indicates preparation for a WEP cracking attack using a tool like aircrack-ng.

699
MCQhard

During a penetration test, you discover a Windows service running with SYSTEM privileges that has a weak file permission allowing the 'Everyone' group to modify its executable. Which privilege escalation technique is MOST directly applicable here?

A.Token impersonation
B.Weak service binary permissions
C.DLL hijacking
D.Unquoted service path
AnswerB

Weak service binary permissions represent a critical privilege escalation vulnerability where an attacker possesses write access to the executable file of a Windows service. By replacing the legitimate service binary with a malicious payload, such as a reverse shell or a user-creation script, the attacker can achieve elevated privileges. When the compromised service is subsequently started or restarted by the operating system, it will execute the attacker's code, typically under the SYSTEM account, granting full control over the machine.

Why this answer

The scenario describes a Windows service executable with weak file permissions that allow the 'Everyone' group to modify it. This directly enables an attacker to replace the legitimate executable with a malicious one, which will then be executed with SYSTEM privileges when the service starts. This is the classic 'weak service binary permissions' privilege escalation vector, often exploited using tools like `icacls` or `accesschk` to identify the vulnerability.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between modifying the service binary itself (weak binary permissions) versus exploiting path parsing (unquoted service path) or dependency loading (DLL hijacking), so candidates must focus on the specific permission weakness described.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because token impersonation typically requires an existing token (e.g., from a named pipe or RPC) to steal or duplicate, not a writable service binary. Option C is wrong because DLL hijacking involves placing a malicious DLL in a path where the service searches for missing DLLs, not modifying the service's primary executable. Option D is wrong because an unquoted service path exploits spaces in the service binary path to execute an unintended executable, not the modification of the existing binary itself.

700
MCQhard

A penetration tester uses the following Nmap command: nmap -sS -O -p 1-1000 10.0.0.1. The output shows port 22 as open, and OS detection suggests 'Linux 2.6.x'. The tester then runs: nmap -sV -p 22 10.0.0.1. What additional information does the second scan provide?

A.It confirms the OS is Linux 2.6.x
B.It checks if the port is filtered by a firewall
C.It identifies the version of the SSH service running
D.It performs a UDP scan on port 22
AnswerC

The -sV flag instructs Nmap to perform service version detection on the specified port, which in this context is port 22, commonly used for SSH. Nmap achieves this by sending various probes to the port and analyzing the responses, often comparing banner grabs or protocol handshakes against its extensive service signature database. This process accurately identifies the specific SSH daemon and its version, such as OpenSSH 8.2p1, providing crucial intelligence for vulnerability assessment.

Why this answer

The second scan uses the `-sV` flag, which enables version detection. Nmap probes the open port 22 (SSH) to determine the exact service version (e.g., OpenSSH 5.3p1). This is distinct from OS detection (`-O`), which guesses the operating system based on TCP/IP stack fingerprinting.

The `-sV` scan provides granular service version information, not OS confirmation or firewall status.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing OS detection (`-O`) with service version detection (`-sV`), leading candidates to think `-sV` confirms the OS when it actually identifies the application version running on the port.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because `-sV` does not confirm the OS; OS detection is performed by the `-O` flag in the first scan, and version detection only identifies the application version, not the underlying OS. Option B is wrong because checking if a port is filtered by a firewall requires a different scan type, such as a SYN scan (`-sS`) with firewall evasion techniques or a scan that analyzes RST responses; `-sV` assumes the port is open and attempts a full connection to grab the service banner. Option D is wrong because `-sV` performs TCP version detection on the specified port (22), not a UDP scan; a UDP scan requires the `-sU` flag.

701
MCQhard

A penetration tester uses the following command to scan a target: nmap -sU -sV -p 53,161,162 10.0.0.1. Which of the following BEST describes what this scan will accomplish?

A.Full port scan of all 65535 UDP ports
B.Ping sweep and OS detection on the target
C.UDP scan on three ports with service version detection
D.TCP SYN scan on ports 53, 161, 162 with version detection
AnswerC

This option accurately describes the Nmap command's functionality. The -sU flag specifically instructs Nmap to perform a UDP port scan, targeting services that communicate via the User Datagram Protocol. Concurrently, the -sV flag enables service version detection, attempting to identify the application and its version running on any discovered open UDP ports. The -p 53,161,162 argument precisely limits this comprehensive scan to three specific UDP ports.

Why this answer

The `-sU` flag initiates a UDP scan, `-p 53,161,162` limits the scan to those three specific ports, and `-sV` enables service version detection. This combination performs a UDP scan on only the specified ports and attempts to identify the versions of services running on them.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse `-sU` (UDP scan) with `-sS` (TCP SYN scan) or assume that `-sV` implies OS detection, when in fact `-sV` is strictly for service version detection and OS detection requires the `-O` flag.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the command specifies `-p 53,161,162`, which limits the scan to only those three UDP ports, not all 65535 UDP ports. Option B is wrong because the command uses `-sU` (UDP scan) and `-sV` (version detection), not `-sn` (ping sweep) or `-O` (OS detection). Option D is wrong because `-sU` specifies a UDP scan, not a TCP SYN scan (which would use `-sS`), and the ports 53, 161, 162 are commonly associated with UDP services (DNS, SNMP).

702
MCQhard

A security analyst observes an SSL/TLS handshake where the client and server negotiate TLS 1.0 instead of TLS 1.2, despite the server supporting TLS 1.2. Which attack BEST describes the manipulation of the handshake to force weaker encryption?

A.Man-in-the-middle attack
B.Replay attack
C.Downgrade attack
D.Birthday attack
AnswerC

A downgrade attack specifically targets the SSL/TLS handshake process by forcing the communicating parties to negotiate and use an older, weaker, and often vulnerable version of the protocol. During the ClientHello message, an attacker intercepts and modifies the list of supported protocol versions, removing stronger options like TLS 1.2 or 1.3. This manipulation tricks the server into agreeing upon an outdated protocol, such as SSL 3.0 or TLS 1.0, which may contain known cryptographic weaknesses that can then be exploited for decryption or further compromise.

Why this answer

A downgrade attack occurs when an attacker forces the client and server to negotiate a lower, less secure version of a protocol (e.g., from TLS 1.2 to TLS 1.0) to exploit vulnerabilities in the older version.

703
Multi-Selecthard

An organization is investigating a potential malware infection. The security analyst observes unusual outbound connections to a known malicious IP address and finds a suspicious process running under a user's session. The analyst decides to perform memory analysis using Volatility. Which TWO commands would be most useful to identify the malicious process and its network connections?

Select 2 answers
A.volatility -f memory.dmp netscan
B.volatility -f memory.dmp pslist
C.volatility -f memory.dmp procdump
D.volatility -f memory.dmp svcscan
E.volatility -f memory.dmp malfind
AnswersA, B

The `volatility -f memory.dmp netscan` command is crucial for initial malware investigation because it enumerates all active network connections present in the memory dump. This allows incident responders to quickly identify suspicious outbound connections to unknown or malicious IP addresses, which are strong indicators of command and control (C2) communication, data exfiltration, or botnet activity. Confirming such network activity is a primary step in validating a potential infection.

Why this answer

The `netscan` plugin in Volatility scans the memory dump for network connections and sockets, including TCP and UDP endpoints, which directly reveals outbound connections to the malicious IP. The `pslist` plugin lists all running processes by walking the process list in the kernel, allowing the analyst to identify the suspicious process by name or PID. Together, these two commands provide the process identity and its network activity, which is exactly what the scenario requires.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may choose `malfind` (option E) because it sounds malware-specific, but it does not list all processes or network connections, whereas `pslist` and `netscan` directly answer the question of identifying the process and its outbound connections.

704
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst reviews the firewall log and notices that user jdoe accessed a file server via SMB (port 445) from an internal IP (10.0.0.45) that is not the usual file server subnet. Which type of social engineering attack is most likely being attempted?

A.Phishing
B.Vishing
C.Tailgating
D.Baiting
AnswerC

Tailgating is a physical security breach where an unauthorized individual gains access to a restricted area by following an authorized person through a controlled entry point without proper authentication. Once physically inside the secured perimeter, the attacker can connect their device to the internal network, potentially assigning themselves an unauthorized internal IP address, which would then be logged by the firewall attempting connections like SMB, indicating an internal compromise.

Why this answer

The firewall log shows user jdoe accessing a file server via SMB (port 445) from an internal IP (10.0.0.45) that is not on the usual file server subnet. This indicates the attacker has physically entered the building or restricted area by following an authorized person (tailgating) and then connected a rogue device to the internal network to perform lateral movement. Tailgating is the social engineering attack that relies on gaining physical access by exploiting trust or courtesy, which aligns with the unauthorized internal IP and SMB activity.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates see SMB and internal IP and immediately think of a technical attack like phishing or baiting, but the key clue is the physical access implied by the unusual subnet, which points to tailgating as the social engineering vector.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because phishing involves sending deceptive emails or messages to trick users into revealing credentials or installing malware, not physically accessing a network and using SMB from an unusual internal IP. Option B is wrong because vishing (voice phishing) uses phone calls to extract sensitive information, not physical intrusion or network-level SMB connections. Option D is wrong because baiting involves offering something enticing (e.g., infected USB drives) to lure victims, not directly following someone into a restricted area to gain network access.

705
MCQmedium

An attacker modifies system logs to remove entries related to their activities. Which technique is being used to cover tracks?

A.Token impersonation
B.Steganography
C.Log manipulation
D.Rootkit installation
AnswerC

Log manipulation precisely describes the act of an attacker altering, deleting, or fabricating entries within system logs to obscure their malicious activities. This technique is crucial for covering tracks, evading detection by security monitoring systems, and hindering forensic investigations by removing evidence of unauthorized access or actions. Modifying log files directly addresses the scenario of removing specific entries.

Why this answer

Log manipulation is the correct answer because it directly involves altering or deleting log entries to hide evidence of unauthorized activities. Attackers often use this technique to remove traces of their actions from system logs, such as event logs in Windows or syslog files in Linux, thereby covering their tracks and avoiding detection.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse rootkit installation with log manipulation, as rootkits can hide logs, but the question specifically asks about modifying logs to remove entries, which is a direct action on the log files themselves, not a hiding mechanism.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because token impersonation is a technique used to steal or forge authentication tokens (e.g., Kerberos tickets) to gain unauthorized access, not to modify logs. Option B is wrong because steganography hides data within other files (e.g., images or audio) to conceal communication, not to alter system logs. Option D is wrong because rootkit installation involves installing malicious software that hides processes, files, or system modifications from the OS, but it does not specifically target log files for modification; log manipulation is a separate post-exploitation step.

706
MCQmedium

A penetration tester uses the Social Engineering Toolkit (SET) to create a malicious USB drive that autoruns when inserted. Which social engineering technique is being employed?

A.Tailgating
B.Baiting
C.Pretexting
D.Phishing
AnswerB

Baiting is a social engineering attack that leverages human curiosity or greed by leaving physical media, such as USB drives or CDs, infected with malware in public or semi-public locations. The attacker relies on the victim finding the device and inserting it into their computer, thereby executing the malicious payload. The Social Engineering Toolkit (SET) is specifically designed to create such malicious payloads and facilitate the setup for baiting attacks, making it a direct match for this technique.

Why this answer

Baiting is the correct answer because the penetration tester is using a physical device (USB drive) to exploit human curiosity or greed, enticing the target to insert it into a system. The Social Engineering Toolkit (SET) can create an autorun.inf file that triggers a payload upon insertion, which is a classic baiting attack that relies on the victim's action to compromise the system.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse baiting with phishing because both involve tricking the user, but baiting specifically relies on a physical lure (like a USB drive) rather than a digital message or link.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because tailgating involves an unauthorized person following an authorized individual into a restricted area without consent, not using a malicious USB drive. Option C is wrong because pretexting involves fabricating a scenario or identity to deceive a target into divulging information, such as impersonating IT support, not deploying a physical device. Option D is wrong because phishing is a digital social engineering technique that uses deceptive emails, messages, or websites to steal credentials or deliver malware, not a physical USB-based attack.

707
MCQmedium

A security engineer runs SNMPwalk on a network device and receives community strings as 'public' and 'private'. What is the PRIMARY concern?

A.The device is vulnerable to buffer overflow attacks
B.The device is infected with malware
C.The device may be exposing sensitive configuration information
D.The device is using outdated encryption protocols
AnswerC

When an snmpwalk command successfully retrieves data using common or default community strings, it signifies that the device's SNMP agent is configured insecurely. This allows an attacker to access extensive Management Information Base (MIB) data, which frequently includes critical system details, network interface configurations, routing tables, and even potentially sensitive user account information. Such information leakage provides valuable reconnaissance for further targeted attacks.

Why this answer

The SNMP community strings 'public' and 'private' are default read-only and read-write credentials defined in SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c. An attacker who can SNMPwalk the device with these strings can enumerate the entire MIB tree, including system configuration, routing tables, interface details, and user accounts. This directly exposes sensitive configuration information, making C the primary concern.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between 'default credentials' and 'exploitation vectors'—candidates mistakenly associate 'public/private' with encryption or malware, when the real risk is unauthorized information disclosure via SNMP enumeration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SNMP community strings are authentication credentials, not a vector for buffer overflow attacks; buffer overflows exploit memory corruption in protocol parsing or application code, not weak default strings. Option B is wrong because the presence of default community strings indicates poor security configuration, not malware infection; malware would require evidence of malicious processes or network behavior. Option D is wrong because SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c do not use encryption at all—they transmit community strings in cleartext; the issue is lack of encryption, not outdated encryption protocols.

708
MCQmedium

During a penetration test, you notice that a web application accepts user input and displays it directly in the browser without sanitization. Which attack is most likely to succeed?

A.SQL Injection
B.Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)
C.Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
D.Command Injection
AnswerC

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) occurs when a web application incorporates untrusted data into a web page without proper validation or encoding, allowing attackers to inject client-side scripts. In the case of reflected XSS, the malicious script is immediately returned by the web server in its response and executed by the user's browser, directly impacting the content displayed to the user. This vulnerability directly manifests as unsanitized input being rendered in the browser.

Why this answer

The scenario describes a classic reflected Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) vulnerability. The application accepts user input and displays it directly in the browser without sanitization, allowing an attacker to inject malicious JavaScript that executes in the victim's browser. This is the defining characteristic of XSS, not SQL injection or command injection, which target server-side interpreters.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between reflected XSS and stored XSS; the trap here is that candidates may assume any unsanitized input is SQL injection, but the key clue is direct display in the browser without server-side processing like database queries or command execution.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SQL Injection requires the user input to be included in a database query, not simply displayed in the browser; the scenario does not mention any database interaction. Option B is wrong because Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) exploits the trust a site has in a user's browser to perform unauthorized actions, but it does not involve displaying unsanitized user input directly; it requires a forged request, not reflected output. Option D is wrong because Command Injection requires the input to be passed to a system shell or command interpreter, not merely rendered in HTML; the scenario lacks any indication of server-side command execution.

709
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are components of the CHPSET system hacking methodology? (Select three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Sniffing network traffic
B.Hiding files
C.Cracking passwords
D.Scanning ports
E.Executing applications
AnswersA, C, E

Sniffing network traffic is a fundamental component of the CHPSET (Cracking, Hiding, Planting, Sniffing, Executing, Erasing) methodology, specifically corresponding to the 'Sniffing' phase. This involves passively capturing and analyzing data packets traversing a network segment to intercept sensitive information such as credentials, session tokens, or proprietary data. Attackers utilize tools like Wireshark or tcpdump to monitor network communications, gaining insights into network topology and identifying potential vulnerabilities for further exploitation.

Why this answer

The CHPSET system hacking methodology includes six phases: Cracking (C), Hiding (H), Privilege Escalation (P), Sniffing (S), Executing (E), and Targeting (T). Among the given options, Sniffing network traffic (A) corresponds to Sniffing, Cracking passwords (C) to Cracking, and Executing applications (E) to Executing. Hiding files (B) is a specific activity under the Hiding phase but is not a distinct phase itself.

Scanning ports (D) is a reconnaissance step performed during the pre-hacking phase, not part of CHPSET. Therefore, the three correct components are A, C, and E.

Exam trap

Candidates may incorrectly select Hiding files (B) as a separate phase, but the CHPSET methodology lists 'Hiding' as a broad phase that can include various hiding techniques. The specific term 'Hiding files' is not a phase. Others may include Scanning ports (D) due to its prevalence in earlier stages, but it is not part of the system hacking phases.

710
MCQeasy

Which malware type is characterized by self-replication across networks without needing a host file?

A.Worm
B.Trojan
C.Rootkit
D.Ransomware
AnswerA

Worms are a distinct category of malware known for their ability to self-replicate and propagate independently across computer networks without requiring user interaction. They exploit vulnerabilities in network protocols or services to spread from one system to another, consuming bandwidth and system resources. This autonomous replication is their defining characteristic, enabling rapid and widespread infection.

Why this answer

A worm is a standalone malware program that replicates itself across network connections without requiring a host file or user intervention. It exploits vulnerabilities in network protocols or services (e.g., SMB, RDP) to propagate autonomously, as seen with WannaCry's use of EternalBlue.

Exam trap

EC-CEH often tests the distinction between a worm and a virus, where the trap is that candidates confuse self-replication across networks (worm) with self-replication within a single system via host files (virus).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a Trojan disguises itself as legitimate software but does not self-replicate; it relies on user execution to install and typically requires a host file or program. Option C is wrong because a rootkit is designed to hide its presence and maintain privileged access, not to self-replicate across networks; it often modifies OS kernel structures. Option D is wrong because ransomware encrypts files or locks systems for extortion, and while some variants (e.g., WannaCry) use worm-like propagation, the defining characteristic of ransomware is the ransom demand, not self-replication without a host file.

711
MCQhard

In a cloud environment, an attacker exploits a vulnerability in a web application to make the server send requests to internal metadata endpoints (e.g., http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/). This yields IAM temporary credentials. Which attack is this?

A.Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) targeting cloud metadata
B.XML External Entity (XXE) injection
C.Insecure Direct Object Reference (IDOR) on metadata
D.Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) targeting cloud APIs
AnswerA

An SSRF vulnerability allows an attacker to manipulate a vulnerable server-side application into making arbitrary requests to internal network resources on behalf of the attacker. In cloud environments, this is critically dangerous as it can be leveraged to query the cloud provider's instance metadata service, typically found at a well-known, non-routable IP address like 169.254.169.254. Accessing this service often reveals temporary IAM credentials, instance profiles, and other sensitive configuration data, leading to privilege escalation or data exfiltration within the cloud infrastructure.

Why this answer

SSRF occurs when an application fetches user-controlled URLs without proper validation. The attacker used it to access cloud metadata endpoints (like AWS IMDS) to retrieve temporary credentials.

712
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are common techniques used to cover tracks after compromising a system? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Running a vulnerability scanner
B.Enabling firewall rules
C.Installing a rootkit
D.Creating new user accounts
E.Clearing event logs
AnswersC, E

Installing a rootkit is a highly effective technique for covering an attacker's tracks by providing stealthy, persistent access. Rootkits are designed to modify the operating system's core functions, either at the kernel or userland level, to conceal files, processes, network connections, and other malicious artifacts from legitimate system utilities and security software. This sophisticated level of hiding allows an attacker to maintain a covert presence, making detection extremely challenging for administrators and forensic analysts.

Why this answer

Installing a rootkit (Option C) is a common technique used to cover tracks because rootkits are designed to hide the attacker's presence by subverting the operating system's normal behavior, such as hiding processes, files, and registry keys from system utilities. Clearing event logs (Option E) directly removes forensic evidence of the attacker's activities, such as login attempts, privilege escalations, or file access, making it harder for incident responders to reconstruct the attack timeline.

Exam trap

In the CEH exam, candidates often mistakenly select creating new user accounts (Option D) as a track-covering technique when it is actually a persistence method that leaves obvious traces. Covering tracks focuses on hiding evidence of the attack, such as clearing logs or using rootkits to conceal malicious activity.

713
MCQhard

A security analyst observes that a server running an IoT device management platform is sending MQTT traffic to an unexpected IP address. The analyst also notes that the device's firmware contains hardcoded credentials. Which attack vector is MOST likely being exploited?

A.CoAP protocol attack
B.Insecure MQTT protocol exploitation via default credentials
C.Firmware reversing attack
D.Container escape attack
AnswerB

Insecure MQTT (Message Queuing Telemetry Transport) protocol exploitation via default credentials is a common and critical vulnerability in IoT deployments. Many MQTT brokers are configured with weak or absent authentication, or rely on easily guessable default usernames and passwords. An attacker exploiting these weaknesses can subscribe to all topics, publish malicious commands, exfiltrate sensitive data, and gain unauthorized control over connected IoT devices, directly aligning with active exploitation behavior.

Why this answer

The combination of hardcoded credentials and unexpected MQTT traffic suggests an attacker has used default credentials to compromise the device and is exfiltrating data via MQTT.

714
MCQeasy

A user receives an email claiming to be from their bank, asking them to click a link and verify their account credentials. The email contains spelling errors and the link points to a suspicious domain. What type of social engineering attack is this?

A.Vishing
B.Whaling
C.Spear phishing
D.Phishing
AnswerD

Phishing is a broad social engineering technique characterized by mass-distributed, generic fraudulent communications, typically via email, designed to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information like login credentials, credit card numbers, or installing malware. These attacks often impersonate well-known entities such as banks, social media platforms, or online services, using urgent or alarming language to prompt immediate action. The email described, claiming to be from a bank and likely seeking credentials from a general user, perfectly aligns with the characteristics of a classic phishing campaign.

Why this answer

This scenario describes a mass, unsolicited email with generic content and a suspicious link, which is the classic definition of phishing. Phishing is a social engineering attack that uses deceptive emails to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information, such as credentials, by impersonating a trusted entity. The presence of spelling errors and a suspicious domain are common indicators of a phishing attempt, not a targeted attack.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'phishing' with 'spear phishing' because both involve email, but the key differentiator is the level of targeting—phishing is mass and generic, while spear phishing is personalized and researched.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because vishing (voice phishing) is conducted over voice calls or VoIP, not via email with a clickable link. Option B is wrong because whaling targets high-profile executives or senior management with highly personalized content, not a generic email to a random user. Option C is wrong because spear phishing is a targeted attack against a specific individual or organization using personalized details, whereas this email is generic and lacks personalization.

715
MCQhard

A security analyst observes the following Nmap output for a target host: PORT STATE SERVICE 22/tcp open ssh 80/tcp open http 443/tcp open https. The analyst then runs a version detection scan and notices that port 80 reports 'Apache httpd 2.4.41' but port 443 reports 'Apache httpd 2.4.41' as well. What is the MOST likely conclusion?

A.The target is running two separate web servers on different ports
B.The target is likely running a single web server that handles both HTTP and HTTPS traffic
C.The target is running a reverse proxy that forwards traffic to different backends
D.The version detection is incorrect due to false positives
AnswerB

This option represents the most common and standard configuration for a modern web server. A single instance of web server software, such as Apache or Nginx, is typically configured to listen on both port 80 for unencrypted HTTP traffic and port 443 for secure HTTPS communication. The Nmap output identifying the same server version on both ports directly supports this interpretation, as the server handles both protocols from a unified configuration.

Why this answer

When both port 80 (HTTP) and port 443 (HTTPS) report the same Apache httpd version (2.4.41), it strongly indicates that the same web server process is listening on both ports. Apache httpd can be configured to handle both plain HTTP and TLS-encrypted HTTPS traffic simultaneously, typically using separate VirtualHost directives or a single configuration that binds to both ports. The identical version string makes it unlikely that two separate web server instances are running, as they would often differ in patch level or configuration.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume different ports must mean different servers or a reverse proxy, but the CEH exam expects you to recognize that identical version strings from Nmap -sV indicate a single web server instance handling both protocols.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because running two separate web servers on different ports would typically result in different version strings, build dates, or banner details; identical version output strongly suggests a single server instance. Option C is wrong because a reverse proxy (e.g., Nginx, HAProxy) would present its own banner on the listening ports, not the backend Apache version; the Nmap version detection directly queried the Apache service, not a proxy layer. Option D is wrong because Nmap version detection (-sV) uses probe-response matching against a signature database and is highly reliable for common services like Apache httpd; false positives are rare and would not produce identical version strings on two ports.

716
MCQhard

During a wireless penetration test, you discover that the target network uses WPA2-Enterprise with PEAP-MSCHAPv2. You capture the authentication traffic of a legitimate user. Which attack can you perform to recover the user's domain credentials?

A.Decrypt the traffic using the captured handshake to get the credentials.
B.WPS PIN brute-force to recover the PSK.
C.PMKID attack to crack the pre-shared key.
D.Set up a rogue RADIUS server to capture the challenge-response and perform an offline brute-force attack.
AnswerD

Setting up a rogue RADIUS server is a highly effective attack against WPA2-Enterprise networks. By impersonating the legitimate authentication server, the rogue RADIUS server can trick clients into authenticating against it. During this process, it captures the challenge-response hashes, such as NTLMv2 hashes from PEAP/MSCHAPv2, which are exchanged during the EAP authentication phase. These captured hashes can then be subjected to efficient offline dictionary or brute-force attacks to recover the actual user credentials, providing unauthorized access.

Why this answer

In WPA2-Enterprise with PEAP-MSCHAPv2, the authentication is based on a challenge-response mechanism between the client and a RADIUS server. By setting up a rogue RADIUS server, you can capture the challenge and the client's encrypted response, then perform an offline brute-force attack against the MSCHAPv2 hash to recover the user's domain credentials. This works because the MSCHAPv2 response is derived from the user's password and can be cracked offline.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse WPA2-Enterprise with WPA2-Personal and incorrectly apply attacks like PMKID or handshake decryption, not realizing that enterprise mode relies on RADIUS-based authentication and is vulnerable to rogue server attacks rather than PSK cracking.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because WPA2-Enterprise traffic is encrypted with per-session keys derived from the EAP exchange, and the captured handshake does not contain the user's credentials in a decryptable form; the handshake is used for key derivation, not for revealing plaintext credentials. Option B is wrong because WPS PIN brute-force targets WPA/WPA2-Personal networks using a PIN to recover the PSK, but WPA2-Enterprise does not use a pre-shared key or WPS, so this attack is irrelevant. Option C is wrong because the PMKID attack is used against WPA/WPA2-Personal networks to crack the PSK from the PMKID field in the beacon frame, but WPA2-Enterprise uses 802.1X authentication and does not have a PMKID derived from a PSK.

717
MCQhard

During a social engineering engagement, a tester calls the help desk posing as an employee from the IT department. The tester claims to be working on a critical system update and needs the employee's password to proceed. Which type of social engineering attack is being executed?

A.Quid pro quo
B.Baiting
C.Pretexting
D.Phishing
AnswerC

Pretexting is a highly targeted social engineering technique where an attacker creates a fabricated scenario or 'pretext' to manipulate a victim into divulging sensitive information or performing an action. This often involves extensive research to develop a believable false identity and backstory, making the attacker appear legitimate and authoritative during direct interactions like phone calls. The tester's action of calling with a false identity to extract information perfectly aligns with this method's characteristics.

Why this answer

Pretexting involves creating a fabricated scenario (pretext) to manipulate a target into divulging information. In this case, the tester falsely claims to be from the IT department working on a critical system update, which is a classic pretext to gain trust and obtain the employee's password. This differs from other social engineering types because it relies on a constructed identity and false narrative rather than a technical lure or direct exchange.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse pretexting with phishing because both involve deception, but phishing specifically refers to electronic communication (email, SMS) while pretexting can occur over the phone or in person, and the CEH exam tests this distinction by presenting a phone call scenario without any digital lure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because quid pro quo involves offering a service or benefit in exchange for information (e.g., 'I'll fix your computer if you give me your password'), not simply claiming a false identity. Option B is wrong because baiting uses a physical or digital lure (e.g., infected USB drive or free download) to entice the victim, not a fabricated story. Option D is wrong because phishing is a mass-deceptive technique using electronic communication (e.g., email, SMS) to trick victims into clicking malicious links or providing credentials, not a direct phone call with a crafted pretext.

718
MCQmedium

A web application tester notices that the application reflects user input in the URL without proper encoding. The tester submits a payload <script>alert('xss')</script> in a search field and the script executes in the browser. Which type of XSS vulnerability is this MOST likely?

A.Blind XSS
B.Reflected XSS
C.Stored (persistent) XSS
D.DOM-based XSS
AnswerB

Reflected XSS occurs when a malicious script injected into an HTTP request is immediately returned in the server's HTTP response without being permanently stored. The payload is non-persistent, executing only once in the victim's browser as part of that specific request and response cycle. The observation that the application 'reflects' the input directly aligns with this immediate, one-time execution characteristic, making it the correct answer.

Why this answer

Reflected XSS occurs when user input is immediately returned by the server in the response without proper sanitization. The script executes once and is not stored, distinguishing it from stored XSS. DOM-based XSS would involve client-side JavaScript manipulation without server reflection.

719
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps to perform a buffer overflow exploit in a controlled lab environment into the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

Identify vulnerability, find offset, generate shellcode, craft exploit, execute.

720
Multi-Selecthard

A penetration tester is assessing the security of a smart building's IoT infrastructure. The building uses Zigbee sensors for temperature and motion detection, and some devices communicate using MQTT over Wi-Fi. During the assessment, the tester captures traffic and notices that some Zigbee devices are sending unencrypted frames containing sensor IDs and values. Which TWO actions should the tester recommend to mitigate the identified vulnerabilities? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Enable Zigbee security suite (AES-128 encryption) on all sensor devices.
B.Configure MQTT to use TLS 1.2 with mutual authentication between brokers and clients.
C.Disable encryption on MQTT to reduce latency and improve performance.
D.Implement device authentication using pre-shared keys only for Zigbee devices.
E.Segment the IoT devices into a separate VLAN and restrict access with ACLs.
AnswersA, B

This option directly addresses data confidentiality for Zigbee communications within the smart building. The Zigbee security suite, specifically utilizing AES-128 symmetric encryption, encrypts data packets exchanged between sensor devices and the coordinator. This prevents unauthorized eavesdropping and ensures the privacy of sensitive sensor readings, which is crucial for maintaining the security and integrity of the smart building's operational data.

Why this answer

Zigbee's security suite uses AES-128 encryption to protect over-the-air frames, preventing eavesdropping on sensor IDs and values. Enabling this suite ensures that captured unencrypted frames are no longer readable, directly mitigating the observed vulnerability. Option B is correct because MQTT over Wi-Fi without TLS exposes all communication in plaintext; configuring TLS 1.2 with mutual authentication encrypts the payload and verifies both broker and client identities, preventing man-in-the-middle attacks.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse network segmentation (VLANs) with data encryption, thinking that isolating IoT devices on a separate VLAN alone protects the confidentiality of unencrypted wireless frames.

721
MCQhard

An IoT device uses the MQTT protocol without any authentication or encryption. An attacker on the same network subscribes to all topics on the MQTT broker. Which of the following is the MOST effective immediate countermeasure?

A.Disable the MQTT broker entirely and switch to HTTP
B.Implement client authentication and enable TLS encryption
C.Change the default topic names to obfuscated strings
D.Use a VPN for all IoT device communication
AnswerB

Implementing client authentication ensures that only authorized IoT devices can connect to the MQTT broker, preventing unauthorized actors from publishing or subscribing to sensitive data streams. Concurrently, enabling TLS encryption secures the communication channel itself, protecting all data transmitted between devices and the broker from eavesdropping, tampering, and man-in-the-middle attacks. This combination establishes robust confidentiality, integrity, and access control for MQTT communications, directly addressing the core security vulnerabilities.

Why this answer

MQTT without authentication and encryption can be secured by enabling TLS for transport encryption and requiring credentials for clients. This prevents unauthorized access and eavesdropping.

722
MCQmedium

A penetration tester executes the following command: nmap -sS -p 1-1000 --script banner 192.168.1.10. After the scan, the tester notices several filtered ports. Which of the following BEST explains why Nmap reports a port as "filtered"?

A.The port is open, and the service is responding with a banner
B.A firewall is blocking the probe packets, and Nmap cannot determine if the port is open
C.The port is open and actively listening
D.The port is closed and the target sent an RST packet
AnswerB

Filtered indicates that no response was received, typically because a firewall dropped the packet.

Why this answer

Nmap's SYN scan (-sS) sends a SYN packet to the target port. When the probe receives no response or an ICMP unreachable message (e.g., type 3 code 13), Nmap classifies the port as 'filtered'. This typically indicates a firewall, ACL, or network filter is dropping the packets, preventing Nmap from determining whether the port is open or closed.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'filtered' with 'closed', but 'closed' requires an RST response, while 'filtered' indicates no response or an ICMP block, typically due to a firewall.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a port that responds with a banner would be classified as 'open', not 'filtered'. Option C is wrong because an open and actively listening port would respond with a SYN-ACK, leading Nmap to report it as 'open', not 'filtered'. Option D is wrong because a closed port sends an RST packet in response to the SYN probe, which Nmap interprets as 'closed', not 'filtered'.

723
MCQmedium

A web application is vulnerable to server-side request forgery (SSRF). An attacker sends a request that causes the server to make an internal HTTP request to http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/. What is the attacker attempting to achieve?

A.Exploit a command injection vulnerability in the web server
B.Access the cloud instance metadata to obtain temporary credentials
C.Perform a denial-of-service attack on the internal network
D.Perform a port scan on the internal network
AnswerB

This is the most common and impactful exploitation path for SSRF when targeting cloud environments. Cloud providers like AWS, GCP, and Azure expose local metadata services (e.g., http://169.254.169.254 for AWS EC2) that provide critical information about the running instance, including temporary security credentials (IAM roles), network configuration, and user data. By leveraging SSRF to access these endpoints, an attacker can obtain sensitive credentials, potentially escalating privileges and gaining access to other cloud resources.

Why this answer

169.254.169.254 is the metadata IP address for cloud providers like AWS. The attacker is trying to retrieve instance metadata, which may contain credentials (e.g., IAM role credentials).

724
MCQmedium

During an internal penetration test, an analyst uses `enum4linux -a 10.0.0.5` and retrieves a list of local users, including an account named 'sqlsvc'. The analyst then attempts to crack the password using a dictionary attack. Which password cracking tool would be most efficient for this task?

A.RainbowCrack
B.SNMPwalk
C.John the Ripper
D.Ophcrack
AnswerC

John the Ripper is a robust, open-source password cracking utility widely recognized for its versatility in performing dictionary attacks against a multitude of hash types. It can efficiently process password hashes, including NTLM and LM hashes commonly found in Windows environments and potentially extracted or identified through SMB enumeration tools like enum4linux. Its extensive wordlist support and customizable rules make it an ideal choice for attempting to crack enumerated user passwords via dictionary attack.

Why this answer

John the Ripper is the most efficient tool for performing a dictionary attack against password hashes retrieved from a system, such as those obtained from the SAM database or via enum4linux. It supports a wide range of hash types and can be configured to use custom wordlists, making it ideal for cracking the 'sqlsvc' account password in an internal penetration test.

Exam trap

EC-Council often tests the distinction between dictionary attacks and rainbow table attacks, leading candidates to choose RainbowCrack or Ophcrack when the question explicitly specifies a dictionary attack method.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because RainbowCrack uses precomputed rainbow tables for time-memory trade-off attacks, not dictionary attacks; it is inefficient for targeted cracking of a single account without a matching table. Option B is wrong because SNMPwalk is a tool for querying SNMP-enabled devices to enumerate MIB values, not a password cracking tool. Option D is wrong because Ophcrack specializes in cracking Windows LM and NTLM hashes using rainbow tables, not general dictionary attacks, and requires specific table sets.

725
MCQmedium

During a penetration test, an ethical hacker finds that a web application transmits sensitive data in plaintext over HTTPS. Which of the following best describes this security issue?

A.Weak TLS cipher suite
B.Lack of application-layer encryption
C.SSL stripping attack
D.Man-in-the-middle attack
AnswerB

This is the correct answer because while HTTPS encrypts data in transit between the client and server, it does not inherently encrypt data at the application layer before it is sent or when it is stored. If sensitive fields are not encrypted by the application itself, they could be exposed in memory, logs, or databases on the server side, even if the network communication is secure. The application's failure to encrypt sensitive data before processing or storage creates a vulnerability independent of transport security.

Why this answer

The core issue is that the web application transmits sensitive data in plaintext over HTTPS, meaning the data is encrypted in transit by TLS but not encrypted at the application layer. This leaves the data vulnerable to exposure if the TLS termination point (e.g., a reverse proxy or load balancer) is compromised or if logs capture the plaintext payload. Application-layer encryption (e.g., encrypting the data before sending it over HTTPS) ensures end-to-end confidentiality, even if the TLS channel is broken or inspected.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'encrypted in transit' (TLS) with 'encrypted at the application layer,' assuming HTTPS alone provides end-to-end data confidentiality, but the CEH exam tests the distinction between transport-layer and application-layer encryption.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a weak TLS cipher suite refers to the use of outdated or insecure cryptographic algorithms (e.g., RC4, DES) for the TLS handshake, which is not the issue here—the data is transmitted over HTTPS with presumably strong TLS, but the application itself does not encrypt the payload. Option C is wrong because an SSL stripping attack is a man-in-the-middle technique that downgrades HTTPS to HTTP, which is not described in the scenario; the question states the data is transmitted over HTTPS, not that the protocol is downgraded. Option D is wrong because a man-in-the-middle attack is an active interception technique (e.g., ARP spoofing, rogue access point) that could capture plaintext data, but the security issue described is the lack of application-layer encryption, not the presence of an active attack.

726
MCQeasy

Which of the following tools is specifically designed to perform Google dorking and automate searching for vulnerable web applications and sensitive information?

A.Maltego
B.theHarvester
C.Googledork
D.Shodan
AnswerC

Googledork is a specialized utility explicitly engineered to automate the process of Google Hacking, commonly known as Google Dorking. This tool systematically generates and executes advanced search queries (dorks) against the Google search engine, leveraging specific operators like site:, filetype:, intitle:, and inurl: to discover exposed sensitive files, misconfigured servers, login pages, and other vulnerable information indexed by Google. Its core function is to streamline the identification of security weaknesses through targeted search engine exploitation, making it the correct answer.

Why this answer

Googledork (also known as Google Dork) is a tool specifically designed to automate Google dorking queries, which use advanced search operators to find vulnerable web applications and sensitive information exposed in search results. It systematically executes predefined dork queries against Google's index to identify SQL injection points, exposed configuration files, login pages, and other security weaknesses, making it the correct choice for this task.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse general OSINT tools like theHarvester or Maltego with Google-dorking-specific automation, failing to recognize that Googledork is the only option explicitly built for executing and automating Google dork queries.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Maltego is a graphical link analysis tool used for open-source intelligence (OSINT) and relationship mapping between entities (e.g., domains, email addresses, people), not for automating Google dorking queries. Option B is wrong because theHarvester is a tool for gathering email addresses, subdomains, and virtual hosts from public sources like search engines and PGP key servers, but it does not focus on executing Google dork queries to find vulnerable web applications. Option D is wrong because Shodan is a search engine for internet-connected devices (e.g., IoT, servers, webcams) and their banners, not a tool for performing Google dorking against Google's search index.

727
MCQmedium

During a penetration test, the tester needs to identify the operating system of a remote host without sending any packets to it. Which technique should the tester use?

A.Banner grabbing with Telnet
B.Passive OS fingerprinting using captured packets
C.Querying Shodan for the target IP
D.Active OS fingerprinting with Nmap -O
AnswerB

Passive OS fingerprinting analyzes network traffic that has already been captured or is passively observed, without sending any new packets to the target. Tools like p0f examine characteristics within TCP/IP headers, such as initial Time-To-Live (TTL) values, window sizes, Don't Fragment (DF) bit settings, and TCP options, to infer the operating system. This method is highly stealthy as it leaves no trace on the target system, making it ideal for undetected reconnaissance.

Why this answer

Passive OS fingerprinting (Option B) is correct because it analyzes captured network traffic—such as TCP/IP packet headers, TTL values, window sizes, and DF flags—to infer the remote host's operating system without sending any packets. This technique relies on subtle differences in how various OS stacks implement RFC 793, making it ideal for stealthy reconnaissance where no direct contact with the target is permitted.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'passive OS fingerprinting' with 'banner grabbing' or 'Shodan queries,' assuming any non-intrusive method qualifies, but the key constraint is 'without sending any packets,' which eliminates all options except passive analysis of already-captured traffic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because banner grabbing with Telnet requires establishing an active TCP connection to the target, which sends packets and violates the 'no packets sent' constraint. Option C is wrong because querying Shodan is a passive information-gathering method that uses a third-party database, but it does not directly identify the OS of a remote host from the tester's own captured traffic; Shodan may provide OS guesses based on its own active scans, but the question specifies the tester must not send packets, and Shodan's data is not derived from the tester's capture. Option D is wrong because active OS fingerprinting with Nmap -O sends crafted probes (e.g., SYN, FIN, NULL scans) to the target and analyzes responses, which directly contradicts the requirement of not sending any packets.

728
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are types of malware analysis? (Select 2)

Select 2 answers
A.Penetration testing
B.Static analysis
C.Dynamic analysis
D.Network analysis
E.Code review
AnswersB, C

Static analysis involves examining malware without executing it, focusing on its internal structure and potential functionality. This method includes disassembling the executable, analyzing strings, inspecting header information, and reviewing embedded resources to infer the malware's capabilities, target APIs, and potential network indicators. It provides insights into the code logic and design before dynamic execution.

Why this answer

Static analysis examines malware without executing it, focusing on file structure, strings, and code signatures to identify malicious indicators. Dynamic analysis runs the malware in a controlled sandbox environment to observe runtime behavior, such as registry changes, network connections, and process injections. Both are fundamental malware analysis methodologies recognized by the CEH exam.

Exam trap

The CEH exam often tests the distinction between malware analysis types and other security activities like penetration testing or code review, tricking candidates who confuse 'analyzing malware' with 'testing for vulnerabilities' or 'reviewing source code.'

729
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are common indicators of a DNS spoofing attack? (Select 2)

Select 2 answers
A.High volume of DNS queries from a single source
B.ARP cache entries show unexpected MAC-IP mappings
C.The switch's CAM table is full
D.The resolved IP address for a domain does not match the legitimate server
E.Users are redirected to a malicious website despite typing the correct URL
AnswersD, E

When the IP address returned by a DNS query for a specific domain name differs from the legitimate server's actual IP, it is a primary indicator of DNS spoofing. An attacker has successfully intercepted or poisoned the DNS resolution process, substituting the correct IP with a malicious one. This manipulation ensures that subsequent client connections intended for the legitimate domain are instead directed to the attacker-controlled host.

Why this answer

DNS spoofing (cache poisoning) involves an attacker injecting forged DNS records into a resolver's cache. When a user's system queries a domain, the resolver returns the attacker-controlled IP address instead of the legitimate server's IP, causing traffic to be misdirected.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing DNS spoofing with ARP spoofing or other network-layer attacks, as candidates may incorrectly associate unexpected MAC-IP mappings (Option B) with DNS manipulation rather than recognizing it as a distinct Layer 2 attack.

730
MCQmedium

Which of the following describes a Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) attack?

A.An attacker tricks a user into clicking a link that executes unwanted actions on a web application where the user is authenticated.
B.An attacker injects malicious scripts into a web page that executes in other users' browsers.
C.An attacker forces the web server to make HTTP requests to arbitrary destinations, potentially accessing internal resources.
D.An attacker manipulates input to execute system commands on the server.
AnswerC

This precisely defines Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF), a vulnerability where a web application is tricked into making HTTP requests to an attacker-specified location. The server, acting on behalf of the attacker, can then access internal network resources, metadata services, or other systems that are typically inaccessible from the external internet. This allows for internal network reconnaissance, port scanning, and potential data exfiltration by bypassing firewall restrictions.

Why this answer

SSRF occurs when an attacker can induce the server to make HTTP requests to internal or external resources. This can lead to accessing internal services (e.g., cloud metadata endpoints) that are not normally accessible from the outside.

731
MCQmedium

A penetration tester uses Burp Suite Repeater to manually modify and resend HTTP requests to a web server. In which phase of the testing methodology is this tool most commonly employed?

A.Reconnaissance
B.Reporting
C.Exploitation
D.Scanning and enumeration
AnswerC

Exploitation involves leveraging identified vulnerabilities to achieve a specific objective, such as gaining unauthorized access, escalating privileges, or exfiltrating sensitive data. Burp Suite Repeater is an indispensable tool for this phase, allowing testers to meticulously modify request parameters, headers, or body content with crafted payloads. This precision enables the confirmation and exploitation of vulnerabilities like SQL injection, cross-site scripting, or authentication bypasses by observing the server's direct, often vulnerable, responses.

Why this answer

Burp Suite Repeater is used to manually craft and reissue requests, typically during the exploitation phase after identifying potential vulnerabilities. It allows testing parameter manipulation, injection payloads, and observing responses.

732
MCQmedium

A web application allows users to upload profile images. An attacker uploads a file named 'image.php.png' with malicious PHP code, and the server executes it as PHP. Which type of vulnerability is this?

A.Directory traversal
B.Command injection
C.SQL injection
D.Unrestricted file upload
AnswerD

Unrestricted file upload is the correct answer because it directly describes the vulnerability where a web application allows users to upload files without adequately validating their type, size, or content. This critical flaw enables an attacker to upload malicious files, such as web shells or scripts, to the server. Once uploaded, these files can often be executed by the web server, leading to severe consequences like remote code execution, server compromise, or defacement.

Why this answer

Unrestricted file upload vulnerabilities allow attackers to upload executable files if the server does not validate the file type or execute permissions.

733
MCQmedium

An incident responder finds that the Windows Event Logs on a compromised server have been cleared, and the Security log shows gaps in coverage. Additionally, a rootkit is suspected. Which phase of the hacking methodology does the clearing of logs represent?

A.Privilege escalation
B.Cracking passwords
C.Erasing tracks
D.Executing applications
AnswerC

Erasing tracks, also known as covering tracks or anti-forensics, is a post-exploitation phase where an attacker attempts to remove or alter evidence of their presence and activities on a compromised system. Clearing Windows event logs is a quintessential example of this technique, as it directly eliminates critical forensic data that incident responders rely on to understand the attack timeline, methods, and scope. This action aims to hinder detection and attribution, making it significantly harder for security teams to reconstruct the incident.

Why this answer

Clearing Windows Event Logs and creating gaps in the Security log is a classic post-exploitation step to remove forensic evidence of the attacker's actions. In the CEH hacking methodology, this falls under 'Erasing tracks' (also known as covering tracks), which is the final phase after maintaining access. The rootkit suspicion further supports this, as rootkits often include log-wiping or log-modification capabilities to hide their presence.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'Erasing tracks' with 'Privilege escalation' because clearing logs often requires administrative privileges, but the phase is defined by the intent to hide evidence, not the permission level used.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because privilege escalation is the phase where an attacker gains higher-level permissions (e.g., from user to administrator), not the act of removing logs. Option B is wrong because cracking passwords is a technique used during the 'Gaining Access' phase to obtain credentials, not a phase for hiding evidence. Option D is wrong because executing applications is a generic action that can occur in multiple phases (e.g., exploitation or maintaining access), but it does not specifically describe the act of clearing logs to avoid detection.

734
MCQeasy

An attacker sends an email to the CEO of a company, pretending to be a board member and requesting a wire transfer for a confidential acquisition. Which social engineering attack is this?

A.Whaling
B.Vishing
C.Spear phishing
D.Phishing
AnswerA

Whaling is a highly sophisticated form of phishing specifically designed to target high-profile individuals within an organization, such as CEOs, CFOs, or other senior executives. Attackers meticulously craft personalized emails, often impersonating a trusted entity or a critical business contact, to trick these high-value targets into divulging sensitive information or authorizing fraudulent transactions. The objective is typically significant financial gain or access to critical corporate data, leveraging the executive's authority and access.

Why this answer

Whaling is a targeted social engineering attack that specifically goes after high-profile individuals like C-suite executives or board members. In this scenario, the attacker impersonates a board member to trick the CEO into authorizing a wire transfer, which is a classic whaling tactic because it exploits the authority and trust associated with senior leadership.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse whaling with spear phishing, but the CEH exam distinguishes whaling as a specific subtype targeting executives, while spear phishing is broader and can target any individual or role.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Vishing) is wrong because vishing is a voice-based phishing attack conducted over phone calls or VoIP, not via email. Option C (Spear phishing) is wrong because while spear phishing is targeted, it typically targets mid-level employees or specific groups, not exclusively high-ranking executives like a CEO; whaling is a subset of spear phishing focused on senior management. Option D (Phishing) is wrong because phishing is a broad, mass-email attack sent to many recipients, lacking the personalized targeting of a specific high-value individual like a CEO.

735
MCQhard

A security analyst runs the command: nmap -sS -p 80,443,8080 --script http-headers scanme.nmap.org. The output shows that port 80 is filtered. What does 'filtered' mean in this context?

A.The port is open, but the service is not responding
B.The port is open and actively listening
C.The port is closed, but the target is responding with RST packets
D.A firewall or IDS is preventing the probe from reaching the port
AnswerD

The 'filtered' state in an Nmap SYN scan is a critical indicator that the probe packet sent by Nmap did not receive any response from the target host. This typically occurs when a network filtering device, such as a firewall, an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), or an access control list (ACL) on a router, intercepts and drops the SYN packet. Consequently, Nmap cannot determine if the port is open or closed because the communication path is obstructed.

Why this answer

In Nmap, a 'filtered' port status indicates that the port is being blocked by a firewall, IDS, or other network filtering device, preventing the probe from reaching the target service. The -sS (SYN stealth scan) sends a SYN packet; if no response is received or an ICMP unreachable (type 3, code 13) is returned, Nmap marks the port as filtered. This does not mean the port is open or closed—it means the scan could not determine the state due to filtering.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'filtered' with 'closed' or 'open|filtered', forgetting that 'filtered' specifically indicates a firewall or IDS is interfering, not that the port is simply unresponsive or sending RSTs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because 'filtered' does not imply the port is open; an open port that is not responding would typically be marked as 'open|filtered' if no response is received, not simply 'filtered'. Option B is wrong because an open and actively listening port would be reported as 'open' by Nmap after receiving a SYN/ACK response, not 'filtered'. Option C is wrong because a closed port responds with RST packets, which Nmap reports as 'closed', not 'filtered'; 'filtered' specifically means the probe was dropped or blocked without a TCP-level response.

736
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following Nmap flags can be used to bypass firewall restrictions? (Select 2)

Select 2 answers
A.-P0 (disable ping)
B.-f (fragment packets)
C.-T4 (aggressive timing)
D.-sS (SYN scan)
E.-D (decoy scan)
AnswersB, E

The -f flag enables packet fragmentation, splitting the TCP header across multiple small IP packets. This technique can bypass older or less sophisticated stateless firewalls and intrusion detection systems (IDS) that are not configured to reassemble fragmented packets before inspection. By breaking the packet into smaller, non-contiguous pieces, the firewall might only see incomplete headers or data, allowing the full packet to pass through undetected and reassemble at the target.

Why this answer

The -f flag fragments packets into smaller 8-byte chunks, which can evade simple firewall rules that inspect packet headers for known signatures or block oversized packets. Option E is correct because the -D flag performs a decoy scan by spoofing multiple source IP addresses, making it difficult for a firewall to identify the true scanning host and block it.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse stealth scanning (-sS) with firewall evasion, not realizing that SYN scans are still detectable by modern firewalls that track connection states, while fragmentation and decoys directly manipulate packet structure or source identity to bypass filters.

737
MCQhard

A penetration tester is assessing an AWS environment and discovers an S3 bucket with the following bucket policy: `{"Version":"2012-10-17","Statement":[{"Effect":"Allow","Principal":"*","Action":"s3:GetObject","Resource":"arn:aws:s3:::example-bucket/*"}]}`. Which of the following is the MOST likely security issue?

A.The bucket policy allows public read access to all objects
B.The bucket policy allows only GetObject, which is too restrictive
C.The bucket policy should use a Principal of AWS instead of *
D.The bucket policy is missing a Deny statement for write operations
AnswerA

The bucket policy explicitly grants `s3:GetObject` permission to `Principal: "*"`, which signifies anonymous public access. This configuration allows any user on the internet, without authentication, to retrieve all objects stored within the S3 bucket. Such unrestricted read access poses a significant security risk, potentially exposing sensitive data to unauthorized parties and violating data privacy regulations.

Why this answer

The policy allows anyone (Principal: *) to read any object in the bucket, making it publicly accessible and a common misconfiguration.

738
MCQhard

You are the security lead for a multinational corporation that uses a hybrid cloud architecture with AWS and on-premises data centers. The company recently deployed a fleet of IoT sensors in a remote factory to monitor equipment. These sensors communicate via MQTT to an AWS IoT Core endpoint, which forwards data to an S3 bucket and a DynamoDB table. The factory network is isolated but has a site-to-site VPN to the corporate HQ. Over the past week, the S3 bucket has experienced an unusual number of PUT requests from an IP address that resolves to a known malicious host. The DynamoDB table shows write spikes at odd hours. The MQTT broker logs indicate that some sensors are publishing data with invalid client IDs. Meanwhile, the VPN logs show no anomalies. You need to identify the likely attack vector and recommend a course of action. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.Disable the site-to-site VPN and require all traffic to go through a bastion host.
B.Implement client certificate authentication on AWS IoT Core and revoke any unregistered client IDs.
C.Move the S3 bucket and DynamoDB table to the on-premises data center to reduce cloud exposure.
D.Replace all IoT sensors with new ones that have firmware-level encryption.
AnswerB

Implementing client certificate authentication on AWS IoT Core mandates that all devices present a valid, trusted X.509 certificate to establish a secure, authenticated connection before publishing data. This cryptographic identity verification prevents unauthorized entities from injecting malicious PUT requests by ensuring only provisioned and registered sensors can interact with the platform. Revoking any unregistered client IDs further tightens security by invalidating any potential rogue or compromised credentials.

Why this answer

The attack exploits weak authentication on MQTT connections to AWS IoT Core. By implementing client certificate authentication, you ensure only registered devices with valid X.509 certificates can publish data, directly blocking the malicious PUT requests and write spikes. Revoking unregistered client IDs eliminates the invalid client IDs observed in the MQTT broker logs, closing the primary attack vector without disrupting legitimate sensor traffic.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates focus on network-level controls (VPN, bastion hosts) or data relocation, missing that the attack exploits weak IoT device authentication at the application layer, which requires identity-based controls like client certificates.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because disabling the site-to-site VPN would break legitimate corporate connectivity and does not address the MQTT-based attack; the VPN logs show no anomalies, indicating the attack is not traversing the VPN. Option C is wrong because moving S3 and DynamoDB on-premises defeats the purpose of a hybrid cloud architecture and does not fix the root cause—weak IoT device authentication—while increasing latency and operational complexity. Option D is wrong because replacing all sensors with firmware-level encryption is costly, time-consuming, and does not solve the immediate authentication gap; encryption protects data in transit but does not prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the MQTT broker.

739
Multi-Selecthard

Which of the following Nmap scan types is MOST effective for evading a stateful firewall that only allows established connections? (Select one)

Select 1 answer
A.TCP SYN scan (-sS)
B.TCP connect scan (-sT)
C.Idle scan (-sI)
D.Ping sweep (-sn)
E.UDP scan (-sU)
AnswersC

An idle scan (-sI) is highly effective for evading stateful firewalls because the attacker never directly sends packets to the target. Instead, it leverages a "zombie" host's IP ID sequence to infer open ports on the target. The target's firewall sees packets originating from the trusted zombie, which may already have legitimate traffic flowing, or simply doesn't see unsolicited probes from an unknown source. This indirect method allows the attacker to map the target's ports without revealing their own IP address, making detection and blocking by stateful firewalls significantly more challenging.

Why this answer

An idle scan (-sI) is effective against a stateful firewall that only allows established connections because it spoofs the source IP of a zombie host that already has an established session with the target. The firewall sees the packets as belonging to that existing session and allows them. A TCP SYN scan (-sS) sends unsolicited SYN packets that are not part of any existing session, so the stateful firewall would block them because it only permits traffic for established connections.

Exam trap

Candidates often mistakenly think that a SYN scan is stealthy, but against a stateful firewall that only allows established connections, unsolicited SYN packets are blocked. The idle scan is the key technique that exploits existing sessions to evade such firewalls.

740
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are features of a Remote Access Trojan (RAT)?

Select 2 answers
A.It encrypts files and demands ransom
B.It infects the Master Boot Record
C.It replicates itself across the network autonomously
D.It often includes a backdoor to bypass authentication
E.It provides the attacker with remote control over the infected system
AnswersD, E

A fundamental feature of many Remote Access Trojans (RATs) is the establishment of a backdoor. This backdoor provides a covert method for the attacker to regain access to the compromised system, often bypassing standard authentication mechanisms like usernames and passwords. This ensures persistent control, even if the initial exploit vector is patched or the user changes credentials, facilitating long-term surveillance or data exfiltration.

Why this answer

A Remote Access Trojan (RAT) is designed to provide an attacker with covert remote control over an infected system, often including a backdoor to bypass standard authentication mechanisms. This allows the attacker to execute commands, exfiltrate data, or use the system as a pivot point, which directly aligns with options D and E.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse a RAT with other malware types, such as ransomware (option A) or worms (option C), because they all involve malicious code, but the CEH exam specifically tests the unique remote-control and backdoor capabilities that define a RAT.

741
MCQmedium

A penetration tester executes the command: snmpwalk -c public -v2c 192.168.1.50. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of this command?

A.Modify SNMP settings on the remote device
B.Perform a brute-force attack on the SNMP community string
C.Test the SNMP agent for denial of service vulnerabilities
D.Enumerate the MIB tree of the SNMP agent using the 'public' community string
AnswerD

The `snmpwalk` utility is specifically designed to query an SNMP agent and traverse its Management Information Base (MIB) tree. By sending a series of GETNEXT requests, it systematically retrieves all Object Identifiers (OIDs) and their corresponding values accessible through the agent. The `c public` argument specifies the community string "public," which is a common default or weak credential used to gain read-only access for enumeration purposes. This command effectively maps the device's configuration and status information.

Why this answer

The `snmpwalk` command is used to retrieve a subtree of management information from an SNMP agent. By specifying `-c public` (the community string) and `-v2c` (SNMP version 2c), the command performs a GETNEXT request cycle to walk the entire MIB tree, enumerating all accessible OIDs and their values. Option D correctly identifies this as enumerating the MIB tree using the 'public' community string.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse `snmpwalk` with a modification or attack tool, but the CEH exam expects you to recognize it as a standard enumeration command that leverages the SNMP GETNEXT operation to walk the MIB tree.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because `snmpwalk` is a read-only operation that retrieves data; it cannot modify SNMP settings on the remote device. Option B is wrong because `snmpwalk` does not perform brute-force attacks; tools like `onesixtyone` or `hydra` are used for brute-forcing community strings, and the command already provides the community string 'public'. Option C is wrong because `snmpwalk` is not a denial of service test; it is a standard enumeration technique, and DoS testing would involve flooding or malformed packets, not a normal GETNEXT walk.

742
MCQmedium

A security engineer notices repeated log entries showing a user account logging in at odd hours and then clearing event logs. The engineer suspects credential theft. Which phase of the CHPSET methodology involves erasing tracks?

A.Erasing tracks
B.Hiding files
C.Spying
D.Cracking passwords
AnswerA

When a security engineer observes repeated log entries indicating unauthorized activity, an attacker's immediate priority after gaining access is often to eliminate or alter these digital footprints. Erasing tracks involves anti-forensic techniques like clearing event logs, modifying timestamps, or injecting benign entries to obscure malicious actions. This critical step aims to delay detection, complicate incident response, and prevent security personnel from understanding the full scope of the breach.

Why this answer

The CHPSET methodology (Cracking passwords, Hiding files, Planting backdoors, Spying, Erasing tracks, and Transferring files) defines the phases of system hacking. Erasing tracks is the phase where attackers clear event logs, modify log files, or use tools like `wevtutil` or `clearlogs.exe` to remove evidence of their activities, matching the engineer's observation of cleared logs after suspicious logins.

Exam trap

The CEH exam often tests the CHPSET methodology by asking which phase corresponds to a specific action, and the trap here is that candidates confuse 'erasing tracks' with 'hiding files' because both involve concealment, but hiding files is about data storage, not log manipulation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because hiding files involves concealing stolen data or tools using techniques like NTFS alternate data streams or hidden attributes, not clearing logs. Option C is wrong because spying refers to monitoring user activity or capturing keystrokes (e.g., with keyloggers) to gather information, not erasing forensic evidence. Option D is wrong because cracking passwords is the phase of obtaining credentials via methods like brute-force or dictionary attacks, which occurs before the attacker gains access and then erases tracks.

743
MCQeasy

During a penetration test, you need to enumerate SMB shares on a Windows target. Which of the following tools is specifically designed for this purpose?

A.ldapsearch
B.nmap
C.enum4linux
D.snmpwalk
AnswerC

enum4linux is a powerful Perl script specifically designed for enumerating information from Windows and Samba hosts, making it ideal for SMB share enumeration during penetration tests. It consolidates multiple SMB-specific enumeration techniques, including querying for user lists, group memberships, operating system information, and crucially, listing available SMB shares and their permissions. This tool leverages protocols like NetBIOS and SMB to gather comprehensive details, providing a focused and efficient approach to discovering shared resources.

Why this answer

enum4linux is specifically designed to enumerate SMB shares and other information from Windows and Samba systems. It leverages the SMB/CIFS protocol to extract share listings, user lists, and other details using tools like smbclient, rpclient, and net, making it the correct choice for SMB enumeration.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may choose nmap because it can scan for SMB services, but the question asks for a tool specifically designed for enumerating SMB shares, not just detecting the service.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because ldapsearch is a tool for querying LDAP directories, not for enumerating SMB shares. Option B is wrong because while nmap can scan for open SMB ports (e.g., 139, 445) and run some SMB scripts, it is a general-purpose port scanner, not a tool specifically designed for SMB share enumeration. Option D is wrong because snmpwalk is used to retrieve SNMP MIB data from network devices, not for SMB share enumeration.

744
MCQhard

A security analyst runs the following command: 'python macof -i eth0 -n 1000'. Shortly after, the switch begins flooding traffic to all ports. What is the analyst trying to achieve?

A.DHCP starvation to exhaust IP addresses
B.STP manipulation to cause network loops
C.MAC flooding to force the switch into hub mode for sniffing
D.ARP cache poisoning to redirect traffic
AnswerC

The 'python macof' command correctly executes a MAC flooding attack. This attack rapidly generates and sends frames with unique, spoofed source MAC addresses, overwhelming the switch's Content Addressable Memory (CAM) table. Once the CAM table is full, the switch enters a 'fail-open' mode, behaving like a hub by broadcasting all incoming traffic to every port, thereby enabling an attacker to sniff network traffic.

Why this answer

The command 'python macof -i eth0 -n 1000' runs the macof tool, which generates a large number of frames with random source MAC addresses. This is a classic MAC flooding attack designed to overflow the switch's Content Addressable Memory (CAM) table. When the CAM table is full, the switch can no longer learn new MAC addresses and falls back to flooding all incoming frames out of every port, effectively behaving like a hub, which allows the attacker to sniff traffic that would normally be isolated.

Exam trap

The CEH exam often tests the distinction between MAC flooding (CAM table overflow) and ARP cache poisoning, so candidates may confuse the two because both involve MAC addresses, but MAC flooding targets the switch's forwarding table while ARP poisoning targets host ARP caches.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because DHCP starvation exhausts IP addresses by sending many DHCP requests with fake MAC addresses, but the macof tool does not interact with DHCP servers; it floods the switch's CAM table with random MAC addresses. Option B is wrong because STP manipulation involves sending crafted Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) to cause loops or topology changes, whereas macof does not generate BPDUs or interact with Spanning Tree Protocol. Option D is wrong because ARP cache poisoning uses spoofed ARP replies to associate an attacker's MAC with a legitimate IP address, which is a different attack at Layer 2/3; macof only floods random MACs to overflow the CAM table, not to poison ARP caches.

745
MCQmedium

A security analyst is asked to perform a fast scan of a large network (e.g., /16 subnet) to identify live hosts. Which tool is MOST suitable for this task due to its high speed?

A.hping3
B.Nmap
C.Masscan
D.Wireshark
AnswerC

Masscan is purpose-built for extremely high-speed network scanning, capable of scanning the entire internet in minutes by operating asynchronously and sending raw packets. Unlike traditional scanners, it does not maintain a full TCP connection state, allowing it to saturate network links with SYN packets and quickly identify open ports across vast IP address ranges. This stateless, raw packet approach makes it the optimal choice for rapid, large-scale port discovery when speed is the paramount requirement.

Why this answer

Masscan is the most suitable tool for this task because it is designed specifically for high-speed scanning of large address spaces, such as a /16 subnet (65,536 hosts). It uses asynchronous transmission and can send packets at rates exceeding 10 million packets per second, making it significantly faster than Nmap for raw host discovery across massive ranges.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume Nmap is always the fastest scanning tool due to its popularity, but Masscan is specifically engineered for speed on massive networks, and the CEH exam tests this distinction.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because hping3 is a packet crafting and testing tool, not optimized for high-speed scanning of large networks; it operates synchronously and is better suited for targeted firewall testing or DoS simulation. Option B is wrong because while Nmap is powerful and versatile, its default scanning methods (e.g., TCP SYN scan) are slower than Masscan on very large subnets due to its sequential or semi-parallel processing overhead and lower default packet rate. Option D is wrong because Wireshark is a packet capture and analysis tool, not a scanning tool; it cannot actively send probes to discover live hosts.

746
MCQhard

During a penetration test, you execute a command that sends a large number of spoofed ICMP echo request packets to a subnet's broadcast address. This results in a flood of replies to the target system. Which attack have you performed?

A.Ping of Death
B.Smurf attack
C.UDP flood
D.ICMP flood
AnswerB

Spoofed ICMP to broadcast address causing amplification.

Why this answer

The Smurf attack works by sending a large number of ICMP echo request packets with a spoofed source IP (the victim's address) to a subnet's broadcast address. All hosts on that subnet receive the request and reply to the spoofed source, overwhelming the victim with ICMP echo replies. This amplifies traffic because a single request triggers many responses, making it a classic amplification DDoS attack.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse Smurf attack with a standard ICMP flood. The critical distinction is that a Smurf attack uses a subnet broadcast address and spoofs the victim's IP, causing all hosts in the subnet to reply to the victim, amplifying traffic. A simple ICMP flood sends many pings directly to the target without amplification.

In CEH, this amplification and spoofing is the key to recognizing the Smurf attack.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Ping of Death involves sending a malformed ICMP packet larger than 65,535 bytes to cause a buffer overflow, not spoofed broadcast traffic. Option C is wrong because a UDP flood uses UDP packets (often to random ports) to exhaust resources, not ICMP echo requests to a broadcast address. Option D is wrong because an ICMP flood typically sends a high volume of ICMP packets directly to a target without spoofing or broadcast amplification, whereas the Smurf attack specifically exploits the broadcast address for amplification.

747
MCQeasy

A security analyst runs 'nbtstat -A 192.168.1.10' and receives a table showing the machine name and a list of names registered. Which service is being enumerated?

A.SNMP
B.LDAP
C.SMTP
D.NetBIOS
AnswerD

The `nbtstat` command is a dedicated utility for diagnosing and troubleshooting NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NBT) name resolution issues and displaying NetBIOS name table information. When executed with the `-a` (adapter status) or `-A` (adapter status by IP address) switch followed by an IP address, `nbtstat` queries the remote machine for its NetBIOS name table. This process reveals registered names, services, and often MAC addresses, directly constituting NetBIOS enumeration and making it the correct answer.

Why this answer

The 'nbtstat -A' command performs a NetBIOS name table lookup against a remote IP address using the NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NBT) protocol. It queries the target's NetBIOS name service (UDP port 137) and returns the registered names, including the machine name, workgroup/domain, and logged-in users. This directly enumerates the NetBIOS service, making D the correct answer.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse the nbtstat command with other enumeration tools, mistakenly thinking it queries SNMP or LDAP because those services also reveal system information, but nbtstat is exclusively a NetBIOS enumeration command.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) uses UDP ports 161/162 and is enumerated with tools like snmpwalk or snmp-check, not the nbtstat command. Option B is wrong because LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) operates on TCP port 389 and is enumerated via ldapsearch or similar directory queries, not through NetBIOS name resolution. Option C is wrong because SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) runs on TCP port 25 and is enumerated with commands like VRFY or EXPN, or tools like smtp-user-enum, not via nbtstat.

748
MCQmedium

In the context of system hacking methodology (CHPSET), which phase involves hiding malicious files from the operating system and security tools using techniques such as NTFS alternate data streams (ADS) or steganography?

A.Privilege escalation
B.Erasing tracks
C.Hiding files
D.Cracking passwords
AnswerC

Hiding files is a crucial post-exploitation activity within the system hacking methodology, designed to conceal malicious tools, backdoors, rootkits, or exfiltrated data on a compromised system. This action ensures the attacker's continued access and persistence by making their presence difficult for defenders to detect through standard system monitoring. It is a fundamental technique for maintaining a covert foothold and preventing the discovery of persistent mechanisms.

Why this answer

The 'Hiding files' phase of the CHPSET (Cracking, Hacking, Privilege escalation, Spying, Erasing tracks, Hiding files) methodology specifically involves concealing malicious files from the OS and security tools. Techniques like NTFS alternate data streams (ADS) allow data to be stored in a file's metadata stream (e.g., type echo payload > file.txt:stream) without affecting the visible file size, while steganography hides data within images or audio files. This phase occurs after gaining access and before covering tracks.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse 'hiding files' with 'erasing tracks' (Option B) in the EC-CEH methodology, as both involve evasion, but erasing tracks focuses on log and evidence removal, not file concealment via ADS or steganography.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because privilege escalation is the phase where an attacker gains higher-level permissions (e.g., from user to administrator) using exploits like token manipulation or service misconfigurations, not hiding files. Option B is wrong because erasing tracks (also called covering tracks) involves clearing logs, timestamps, and evidence of intrusion (e.g., using wevtutil or clearing event logs), not concealing files themselves. Option D is wrong because cracking passwords is part of the initial 'Cracking' phase, where tools like John the Ripper or Hashcat are used to recover plaintext passwords from hashes, not to hide files.

749
MCQmedium

A penetration tester uses a tool to perform a man-in-the-middle attack by sending forged DNS responses that redirect users to a malicious website. Which tool is MOST likely being used to perform DNS spoofing?

A.Nmap
B.Wireshark
C.Ettercap
D.tcpdump
AnswerC

Ettercap is a comprehensive and versatile suite specifically designed for Man-in-the-Middle attacks on switched LANs. It excels by implementing robust ARP spoofing to redirect traffic between two hosts through the attacker's machine, effectively placing itself in the middle. Beyond simple interception, Ettercap includes powerful plugins for active manipulation, such as DNS spoofing, content filtering, and packet injection, making it a primary tool for intercepting, analyzing, and altering network communications in real-time. Its integrated framework directly supports the actions needed for a successful MITM attack.

Why this answer

Ettercap is a comprehensive suite for man-in-the-middle attacks, including ARP poisoning and DNS spoofing. It can intercept DNS requests and forge fake responses to redirect victims to a malicious IP, making it the correct tool for DNS spoofing.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse packet capture tools (Wireshark, tcpdump) with active attack tools, forgetting that DNS spoofing requires injecting forged packets, not just passive observation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Nmap is a network scanning and discovery tool, not designed to forge DNS responses or perform MITM attacks. Option B is wrong because Wireshark is a packet analyzer used for passive traffic capture and inspection, not for injecting forged DNS packets. Option D is wrong because tcpdump is a command-line packet capture tool that only captures and displays packets; it cannot actively spoof DNS responses.

750
MCQmedium

A user receives a text message claiming their bank account is locked and requiring them to click a link to verify. This social engineering method is called:

A.Phishing
B.Whaling
C.Vishing
D.SMiShing
AnswerD

SMiShing is the precise term for a phishing attack conducted via Short Message Service (SMS) text messages. In this method, attackers send deceptive text messages, often containing malicious links or requests for personal information, to mobile phone users. The goal is to trick recipients into clicking links that install malware, redirect to fraudulent websites, or directly provide sensitive data, perfectly matching the described scenario of a text message claiming bank account issues.

Why this answer

SMiShing (SMS phishing) is the correct term because the attack vector is a text message (SMS) that tricks the user into clicking a malicious link. Unlike email-based phishing, SMiShing exploits the higher trust users often place in SMS messages and the limited security controls on mobile devices.

Exam trap

The CEH exam often tests the distinction between phishing (email), vishing (voice), and SMiShing (SMS) by presenting a scenario that clearly involves a text message, leading candidates to mistakenly choose 'Phishing' due to its broader familiarity.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because phishing generally refers to email-based social engineering attacks, not SMS. Option B is wrong because whaling targets high-profile executives or individuals, not generic bank account users. Option C is wrong because vishing uses voice calls (VoIP or phone) to deceive victims, not text messages.

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