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Cisco CyberOps Associate 200-201 (200-201) — Questions 376450

979 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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376
Multi-Selectmedium

During memory analysis using Volatility, an analyst wants to identify processes that may be hiding. Which TWO plugins are most useful for detecting hidden or injected code? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.malfind
B.pslist
C.dlllist
D.psxview
E.cmdline
AnswersA, D

Detects injected code in processes.

Why this answer

psxview compares process listings from different sources to find discrepancies, while malfind detects injected code. pslist lists normally, and cmdline shows command lines.

377
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. This syslog message is generated from a Cisco firewall. According to the security policy, all traffic from the 10.10.10.0/24 network to the internal 192.168.1.0/24 network must be denied except for HTTP traffic from specific IPs. Which of the following should be investigated?

A.The packet was permitted but logged.
B.The packet was denied because it was HTTP traffic from 10.10.10.5.
C.The destination IP 192.168.1.10 is compromised.
D.The source IP 10.10.10.5 should be allowed to pass HTTP traffic.
AnswerD

This IP might be one that should be permitted per policy; its denial warrants investigation.

Why this answer

The syslog message indicates a deny action for HTTP traffic from 10.10.10.5 to 192.168.1.10 on port 80. The security policy states that all traffic from the 10.10.10.0/24 subnet to the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet is denied, except for HTTP traffic from specific IP addresses. The denial of this packet implies that 10.10.10.5 is not on the exception list.

Therefore, the source IP 10.10.10.5 should be investigated to determine if it should be added to the permitted list, making option D correct.

Exam trap

A common misinterpretation is to see a deny action for traffic from a blocked subnet and assume it is correct. However, because the policy includes an exception for HTTP traffic from specific IPs, the denial actually indicates a potential misconfiguration or missing entry in the exception list, prompting investigation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the syslog message shows the packet was permitted (action 'permit'), not denied, and the log entry itself indicates it was logged; the question asks what should be investigated, and a permitted HTTP packet from a source that should be allowed does not warrant investigation. Option B is wrong because the packet was permitted, not denied, and HTTP traffic from 10.10.10.5 is exactly the type of traffic that the policy exception allows. Option C is wrong because the syslog message provides no indication that 192.168.1.10 is compromised; the destination IP is simply the target of a permitted HTTP request, and compromise would require additional evidence such as abnormal traffic patterns or alerts.

378
MCQhard

Your organization uses a SIEM solution (Cisco Secure Network Analytics and Cisco Secure Cloud Analytics) for monitoring. You are the lead analyst and receive multiple alerts: (1) A host on the internal network is making thousands of outbound connections to a known malicious IP on port 80 in a short time. (2) At the same time, there is a spike in DNS queries from the same host to a domain that is registered very recently. (3) The firewall logs show that the host is communicating with internal servers on high ports (e.g., 4444, 5555). The host is a Windows 10 workstation used by the finance department. The user reports it has been slow recently. You have access to Cisco AMP for Endpoints, Cisco Firepower NGFW, and Cisco Stealthwatch. The environment has 500 endpoints, and the network uses 802.1X authentication. What should be your first course of action?

A.Check the current baseline for the host to confirm it is anomalous.
B.Block the malicious IP at the firewall and continue monitoring.
C.Update the antivirus signatures on the host and run a full scan.
D.Isolate the host from the network immediately and begin investigation.
AnswerD

Containment is the first priority before analysis.

Why this answer

The combination of outbound connections to a known malicious IP, recent domain DNS queries, and internal C2-like traffic on high ports (4444, 5555) indicates a confirmed compromise. Immediate isolation via 802.1X or switch ACL stops lateral movement and data exfiltration while preserving forensic evidence. Cisco AMP for Endpoints can then be used to analyze the host offline without risking further spread.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the principle of 'containment before eradication' — candidates mistakenly choose to block the IP or scan the host, but the correct first step is always to isolate the compromised endpoint to stop the attack from spreading.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because checking the baseline is a passive analysis step that wastes time during an active, multi-indicator compromise; the alerts already confirm anomalous behavior. Option B is wrong because blocking only the external IP leaves the host still infected and able to communicate internally via high ports (e.g., 4444, 5555), allowing lateral movement and persistence. Option C is wrong because updating antivirus signatures and scanning is a reactive, slow step that may miss advanced malware; the host should be isolated first to prevent damage while a deeper investigation is conducted.

379
MCQhard

In a Zeek/Bro log, an analyst observes a connection with 'service' field set to 'dns' and 'query' field containing a long, random-looking subdomain. This could be indicative of which type of activity?

A.DNS tunneling for data exfiltration
B.DNS amplification attack
C.DNS cache poisoning
D.Normal DNS resolution for a legitimate service
AnswerA

Random subdomains can encode exfiltrated data.

Why this answer

A long, random-looking subdomain in a DNS query is a classic indicator of DNS tunneling, where an attacker encodes exfiltrated data into DNS queries to bypass network security controls. Zeek/Bro logs showing a 'service' of 'dns' with such queries suggest the client is using the DNS protocol to covertly transmit data to an external authoritative server, which decodes and reassembles the payload.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between DNS tunneling (exfiltration) and DNS amplification (DDoS), where candidates confuse the long query string of tunneling with the large response size of amplification, but the key is that amplification uses spoofed source IPs and small queries, not random subdomains.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a DNS amplification attack relies on sending small queries with a spoofed source IP to open resolvers, causing them to flood the victim with large responses; the 'query' field would typically be a fixed, short string (e.g., 'ANY isc.org'), not a long random subdomain. Option C is wrong because DNS cache poisoning involves corrupting a resolver's cache with forged DNS records, which does not manifest as a long random subdomain in the query itself; it would instead show unexpected IP addresses in the answer section. Option D is wrong because legitimate DNS queries for services like CDNs or load balancers may use long hostnames, but they follow a predictable pattern (e.g., 'cdn123.example.com') and are not random-looking; a truly random subdomain is a strong anomaly.

380
MCQmedium

During an incident response, an analyst extracts a file from a PCAP using Wireshark's 'Export Objects' feature. The file contains shellcode that uses NOP sleds and encodes a reverse shell command. Which Cyber Kill Chain phase does this file represent?

A.Installation
B.Actions on Objectives
C.Delivery
D.Weaponization
AnswerC

The file was delivered over the network, so it is in the delivery phase.

Why this answer

The file contains shellcode and is extracted from network traffic, indicating it was delivered to the target. This aligns with the delivery phase.

381
MCQhard

A security analyst needs to share threat intelligence with other organizations in a standardized, machine-readable format. Which combination of standards should the analyst use?

A.TAXII and MISP
B.STIX and TAXII
C.ISAC and STIX
D.OpenIOC and MISP
AnswerB

STIX provides the data format; TAXII provides the transport mechanism.

Why this answer

STIX is a language for threat intelligence, and TAXII is a protocol for sharing it. They are commonly used together.

382
MCQeasy

Which type of malware is designed to spread automatically across networks without user interaction?

A.Ransomware
B.Virus
C.Trojan
D.Worm
AnswerD

Worms spread autonomously across networks.

Why this answer

A worm is a standalone malware program that replicates itself to spread to other computers over a network, often exploiting vulnerabilities without any user intervention. Unlike viruses, worms do not require a host file or user action to propagate, making them capable of rapid, automated spread across networks.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between a virus and a worm, where the trap is that candidates confuse 'self-replicating' with 'requires a host file,' leading them to incorrectly choose virus instead of worm for autonomous network spread.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because ransomware typically requires user interaction (e.g., clicking a link or opening an attachment) to execute and encrypt files; it does not self-propagate automatically. Option B is wrong because a virus attaches itself to a legitimate host file or program and relies on user action (e.g., running the infected file) to spread, not autonomous network propagation. Option C is wrong because a Trojan disguises itself as legitimate software to trick users into installing it, and it does not self-replicate or spread automatically across networks.

383
MCQhard

During an incident, a forensic analyst needs to preserve evidence from a compromised hard drive. Which of the following steps is essential to maintain the chain of custody?

A.Deleting unnecessary files to reduce data volume
B.Storing the hard drive in a standard office drawer
C.Documenting the date, time, and person handling the evidence
D.Creating a bit-for-bit copy without write-blocking
AnswerC

This is essential for chain of custody.

Why this answer

Chain of custody requires documenting each transfer, including who handled evidence and when. Write-blocking prevents alteration, and hashing verifies integrity. Documentation of transfers is key.

384
MCQmedium

An analyst is investigating a Linux system and wants to view the current network connections. Which command is most appropriate to list listening TCP ports along with the associated processes?

A.netstat -anp
B.cat /proc/net/tcp
C.lsof -i TCP
D.ss -tlnp
AnswerD

This shows listening TCP ports with numeric addresses and process info.

Why this answer

The 'ss' command with options -t (TCP), -l (listening), -n (numeric), -p (process) shows listening TCP ports and the corresponding processes.

385
Multi-Selecthard

A security team is implementing a remote access policy. Which TWO controls should be included to ensure secure remote access?

Select 2 answers
A.Multifactor authentication (MFA)
B.Single sign-on (SSO)
C.Password expiration every 90 days
D.Virtual private network (VPN)
E.Guest network access
AnswersA, D

MFA adds an extra layer of security beyond passwords.

Why this answer

MFA and VPN are standard controls for secure remote access.

386
MCQmedium

A company's security policy prohibits the use of shared accounts. However, a legacy application requires a shared administrative account to run. What is the best approach?

A.Use a privileged access management solution to control and monitor the shared account
B.Create a policy exception
C.Disable the application
D.Ignore the policy because it's a legacy system
AnswerA

PAM enforces accountability and auditability, aligning with policy intent.

Why this answer

A privileged access management (PAM) solution allows the shared administrative account to be used while enforcing security controls. PAM tools can vault the shared credentials, require check-in/check-out workflows, rotate passwords automatically, and provide full session recording and auditing. This satisfies the security policy's prohibition on shared accounts by eliminating direct shared access and replacing it with monitored, temporary, and revocable privileged sessions.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that policy exceptions or ignoring the policy are acceptable for legacy systems, when in fact compensating controls like PAM are the correct security engineering approach to balance operational needs with policy compliance.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because creating a policy exception would formally bypass the security policy without implementing any compensating controls, leaving the shared account vulnerable to misuse and violating the principle of least privilege. Option C is wrong because disabling the application is an extreme, business-disruptive measure that ignores the requirement to maintain legacy operations; a technical solution like PAM can secure the account without halting the application. Option D is wrong because ignoring the policy due to the system's legacy status is a security negligence that exposes the organization to unauthorized access, audit failures, and potential compliance violations.

387
MCQhard

A security analyst needs to ensure that a message has not been tampered with during transit and that the sender cannot deny sending it. Which cryptographic method should be used?

A.Digital signature
B.Symmetric encryption
C.Hashing
D.Public key infrastructure (PKI)
AnswerA

Digital signatures ensure integrity and non-repudiation.

Why this answer

A digital signature provides both integrity (ensuring the message has not been tampered with) and non-repudiation (preventing the sender from denying they sent it). It works by hashing the message and encrypting that hash with the sender's private key; the recipient verifies the signature using the sender's public key. This cryptographic method uniquely binds the sender to the message, unlike other options that only address one of these requirements.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between hashing (which provides integrity only) and digital signatures (which provide both integrity and non-repudiation), leading candidates to mistakenly choose hashing when non-repudiation is required.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Symmetric encryption) is wrong because it only provides confidentiality (secrecy) and does not provide integrity or non-repudiation; both parties share the same key, so the sender can deny sending the message. Option C (Hashing) is wrong because while it ensures integrity by detecting tampering, it does not provide non-repudiation since there is no key binding the hash to a specific sender. Option D (Public key infrastructure (PKI)) is wrong because PKI is a framework of policies, roles, and procedures for managing digital certificates and keys, not a cryptographic method itself; it enables digital signatures but does not directly provide integrity and non-repudiation.

388
MCQeasy

An organization's security policy requires that all security incidents be reported within one hour of discovery. A junior analyst notices an unauthorized login attempt but is unsure if it qualifies as an incident. What should the analyst do first?

A.Delete the logs to avoid false alarms
B.Wait until the incident is confirmed
C.Investigate on their own without reporting
D.Report the suspicious activity immediately
AnswerD

Proactive reporting ensures policy compliance and allows further investigation.

Why this answer

Reporting suspicious activity immediately aligns with the policy, even if not confirmed. Waiting or deleting logs could violate reporting requirements.

389
Multi-Selecthard

A PCAP contains the following patterns: (1) A TCP connection with a complete handshake to an external IP on port 443, (2) periodic data transfers every 60 seconds of approximately 1 KB, (3) the domain name in the TLS SNI field is generated by a DGA. Which THREE indicators are present?

Select 3 answers
A.Beaconing
B.Domain generation algorithm (DGA) usage
C.DNS exfiltration
D.C2 communication over HTTPS
E.Port scanning
AnswersA, B, D

Regular intervals (60s) indicate beaconing.

Why this answer

Beaconing is periodic callbacks, C2 over HTTPS uses port 443, and DGA domains indicate automated C2 infrastructure.

390
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. Which security protocol is being configured?

A.IPsec VPN (IKE phase 1)
B.SSL VPN
C.MACsec
D.SSH
AnswerA

The crypto isakmp policy configures IKE phase 1 for IPsec.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows the configuration of an IPsec VPN IKE phase 1 policy using the `crypto isakmp policy` command. The parameters set—encryption algorithm (e.g., aes), hash algorithm (e.g., sha), Diffie-Hellman group (e.g., 2), and authentication method (e.g., pre-share)—are all specific to IKE phase 1, which establishes a secure authenticated channel for further key exchange. This is not used for SSL VPN, MACsec, or SSH, as those protocols have distinct configuration syntax and purposes.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between IKE phase 1 and phase 2 configuration commands, so the trap here is that candidates see 'crypto isakmp' and incorrectly associate it with SSL VPN or SSH because they overlook the specific protocol hierarchy.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because SSL VPN is configured using `webvpn` or `crypto ssl` commands, not `crypto isakmp policy`. Option C is wrong because MACsec is configured under interface mode with `mka` or `macsec` commands, not with a global ISAKMP policy. Option D is wrong because SSH is configured using `ip ssh` or `crypto key generate rsa` commands, and it does not use IKE phase 1 parameters like Diffie-Hellman groups or encryption algorithms in a policy block.

391
MCQmedium

An analyst is reviewing a web server log and sees the following entry: '192.168.1.1 - - [25/Oct/2023:10:15:30 -0400] "GET /admin/index.php?cmd=id HTTP/1.1" 200 1532 "-" "Mozilla/5.0"'. What potential attack does this log entry suggest?

A.Command injection
B.SQL injection
C.Directory traversal
D.Cross-site scripting (XSS)
AnswerA

The 'cmd=id' parameter is a classic indicator of command injection, trying to run system commands.

Why this answer

The presence of 'cmd=id' in the URL suggests an attempt to execute the 'id' command via a web shell or command injection vulnerability. The response code 200 indicates success, which is concerning.

392
MCQhard

During a forensic analysis, an analyst uses NetworkMiner to extract files from a PCAP. One of the extracted files contains a PE executable with a known signature of a malware variant. Which phase of the Cyber Kill Chain does the file transfer most likely represent?

A.Reconnaissance
B.Weaponization
C.Exploitation
D.Delivery
AnswerD

Delivery transfers the weaponized payload.

Why this answer

The file transfer from the PCAP represents the Delivery phase because NetworkMiner extracted a PE executable that was transmitted over the network, likely via HTTP, SMTP, or SMB. In the Cyber Kill Chain, Delivery is the phase where the weaponized payload is transmitted to the target system, which is exactly what a file transfer in a PCAP captures. The presence of a known malware signature confirms the payload was delivered, not yet executed or exploited.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between Delivery and Exploitation, where candidates mistakenly choose Exploitation because they see a malware file, but the PCAP only shows the transfer, not the execution or vulnerability trigger.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Reconnaissance involves gathering information about the target (e.g., scanning, OSINT) and does not include transferring a malware executable. Option B is wrong because Weaponization is the phase where the attacker creates the malicious payload (e.g., coupling exploit with backdoor), but the file transfer itself is not the creation step. Option C is wrong because Exploitation occurs when the delivered payload triggers a vulnerability to execute code; the PCAP file transfer only shows the delivery, not the execution or trigger.

393
MCQmedium

During an incident, the analyst finds that an attacker modified system files. Which security principle was primarily violated?

A.Confidentiality
B.Availability
C.Integrity
D.Non-repudiation
AnswerC

Integrity ensures data and systems are not tampered with; file modification violates this.

Why this answer

Integrity ensures that data and system files are not altered by unauthorized entities. When an attacker modifies system files, the trustworthiness and accuracy of those files are compromised, directly violating the integrity principle. This is distinct from confidentiality (unauthorized disclosure) or availability (denial of service).

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between integrity and availability by presenting a scenario where an attacker modifies files (integrity) rather than deleting them or causing a denial of service (availability), leading candidates to mistakenly choose availability.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because confidentiality concerns unauthorized access to or disclosure of information, not unauthorized modification. Option B is wrong because availability ensures that systems and data are accessible when needed; file modification does not inherently prevent access. Option D is wrong because non-repudiation provides proof of origin or delivery of data (e.g., via digital signatures), not protection against unauthorized changes.

394
MCQeasy

An employee is suspected of using company resources to access inappropriate websites. Which security policy most directly addresses this behavior?

A.Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)
B.Remote access policy
C.Information security policy
D.Password policy
AnswerA

AUP defines what constitutes acceptable use of company assets, including internet browsing.

Why this answer

The Acceptable Use Policy defines acceptable use of company resources, including internet usage.

395
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is investigating a potential data breach. Which two actions are examples of passive reconnaissance? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Performing a port scan on the company's web server
B.Searching for employee information on LinkedIn
C.Using a ping sweep to identify live hosts
D.Conducting a WHOIS lookup on the company domain
E.Sending a phishing email to employees
AnswersB, D

LinkedIn is a public source, passive.

Why this answer

Passive reconnaissance involves gathering information without directly interacting with the target. WHOIS lookups and searching job postings are passive. Port scanning and social engineering are active.

396
MCQmedium

Which of the following are responsibilities of the legal counsel role during incident response? (Choose two.)

A.Determining data breach notification requirements
B.Communicating with the media
C.Conducting technical analysis of malware
D.Approving financial expenditures for containment
E.Issuing a legal hold to preserve relevant data
AnswerA, E

Legal counsel advises on legal obligations to notify affected parties.

Why this answer

Legal counsel advises on breach notification requirements and can place legal holds to preserve evidence for litigation.

397
MCQeasy

Which Windows Prefetch file extension indicates that a program has been executed on the system?

A..evtx
B..pf
C..tmp
D..log
AnswerB

Prefetch files are stored in C:\Windows\Prefetch with .pf extension.

Why this answer

Prefetch files have the .pf extension and contain execution data for applications.

398
MCQmedium

A security analyst is using Wireshark to capture traffic from a network segment. They want to see only packets that contain the string 'password' in the payload. Which type of filter should they apply?

A.Display filter using 'frame contains "password"'
B.Display filter using 'tcp.port == 80'
C.Capture filter using 'port 80'
D.Capture filter using 'tcp contains password'
AnswerA

Display filters can use 'contains' to search payload.

Why this answer

Display filters are applied after capture to filter packets based on criteria. A capture filter would limit packets captured, but the question implies after capture. The analyst wants to display only packets with 'password' in payload, which is a display filter.

399
MCQhard

A security analyst reviews system logs and notices multiple failed login attempts from a single IP address to different user accounts over a short period. The analyst then sees a successful login for one account. Which type of attack is most likely occurring?

A.Brute force
B.Dictionary attack
C.Credential stuffing
D.Password spraying
AnswerD

Password spraying tries a few passwords across many accounts to avoid lockouts.

Why this answer

Password spraying (D) is the correct answer because the attacker attempts a small number of common passwords against many user accounts, avoiding account lockout thresholds. The pattern of multiple failed logins from a single IP across different accounts, followed by a single success, matches this low-and-slow technique rather than targeting one account with many passwords.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between password spraying and credential stuffing by emphasizing the use of a single IP and multiple accounts versus reused breach data, leading candidates to confuse credential stuffing (which requires known pairs) with this broader password-guessing method.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (Brute force) is wrong because it typically involves many password attempts against a single account, not multiple accounts from one IP. Option B (Dictionary attack) is wrong because it uses a list of likely passwords against one account, not spreading attempts across accounts. Option C (Credential stuffing) is wrong because it uses previously breached username/password pairs from other services, not a single IP trying common passwords across accounts.

400
MCQhard

GreenTech Inc. is a mid-sized company with 500 employees. The company uses Microsoft Exchange Online for email and has implemented a security policy that requires all employees to report suspicious emails to the security team. The security team uses a phishing simulation tool to train employees. In the past month, several employees have reported receiving emails that appear to be from the CEO requesting urgent wire transfers. The security team has blocked the sender domains and updated the email filters. However, one employee fell for the latest scam and transferred $50,000 to an account before reporting it. The security incident response plan states that any monetary loss must be reported to the board within 24 hours. The security analyst receives the report on Monday morning. What should the analyst do first based on the policy and best practices?

A.Disable email access for all employees to prevent further attacks
B.Launch a full forensic investigation to identify the source
C.Notify the board within the 24-hour window as per policy
D.Immediately contact the bank to attempt to reverse the wire transfer
AnswerD

Swift action can help recover the funds before they are withdrawn.

Why this answer

The immediate priority is to attempt to recover the funds. Contacting the bank to reverse the wire transfer should be the first step because there is a chance to stop or reverse the transaction if done promptly. Notifying the board (C) is required within 24 hours but is secondary to attempting recovery.

A full forensic investigation (B) can be launched later, but it does not prevent monetary loss. Disabling email access (A) is overly disruptive and not the first action; it may be considered after containment, but the immediate need is to try to recover the funds.

401
Multi-Selecthard

An analyst is analyzing a Linux system that may have been compromised. Which THREE artifacts would provide evidence of attacker activity? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A./proc/cpuinfo
B./var/spool/cron/crontabs/
C./etc/passwd
D./var/log/auth.log
E./home/user/.bash_history
AnswersB, D, E

Contains user cron jobs for persistence.

Why this answer

Bash history contains commands executed by users, auth.log records login attempts, and cron jobs can be used for persistence. /etc/passwd shows user accounts but not activity.

402
Multi-Selecthard

An analyst is investigating a Windows host and observes a suspicious process with PID 1337. Which THREE of the following Volatility commands would provide useful information about this process? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.cmdline
B.hivelist
C.pslist
D.connscan
E.dlllist
AnswersA, C, E

Correct. Shows command-line arguments for the process.

Why this answer

The `cmdline` plugin displays the command-line arguments used to start a process, which is critical for identifying malicious or suspicious execution patterns (e.g., obfuscated paths, encoded commands). For PID 1337, this reveals exactly how the process was launched, helping to confirm or refute malicious intent.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between process-specific plugins (like `cmdline`, `dlllist`, `pslist`) and system-wide or network plugins (like `hivelist`, `connscan`), leading candidates to select plugins that are useful for general analysis but not directly for investigating a specific process.

403
MCQhard

During a security incident, a network engineer captures traffic with tcpdump and saves it to a pcap file. The analyst needs to extract all HTTP POST requests containing a specific string in the URI. Which command should be used?

A.tcpdump -r traffic.pcap -X | grep 'string'
B.tcpdump -r traffic.pcap 'tcp port 80' -A | grep 'POST' | grep 'string'
C.ngrep -q -W byline 'POST.*string' port 80
D.tcpdump -r traffic.pcap -nn 'host 10.0.0.1'
AnswerB

Reads pcap, filters HTTP, prints ASCII, then greps for POST and string.

Why this answer

It uses tcpdump with the `-r` flag to read the pcap file, filters for TCP port 80 (HTTP), uses `-A` to print packet payloads in ASCII, and then pipes the output through two grep commands: first to isolate lines containing 'POST' (indicating HTTP POST requests) and second to filter for the specific string in the URI. This combination efficiently extracts only the relevant HTTP POST requests with the target string from the captured traffic.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between reading a pcap file with `-r` versus capturing live traffic, and the trap here is that candidates may forget to include the `-A` flag for ASCII output or the `tcp port 80` filter, leading to incomplete or irrelevant results.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because piping tcpdump output through `-X` prints hex and ASCII, but the grep for 'string' will match any occurrence in the raw packet data, not specifically within HTTP POST URIs, and it lacks a filter for port 80 or POST method. Option C is wrong because ngrep is not a standard tool included in most base Linux distributions or the Cisco exam's assumed toolset, and while it could work, the question asks for a command using tcpdump, making this an incorrect choice. Option D is wrong because it filters only for traffic to/from host 10.0.0.1 with `-nn` (no name resolution), but it does not isolate HTTP POST requests or search for a specific string in the URI.

404
MCQmedium

A company's web server is overwhelmed by traffic from multiple compromised systems, causing it to become unresponsive to legitimate users. Which type of attack is this?

A.MitM
B.DoS
C.Botnet
D.DDoS
AnswerD

DDoS uses many sources to launch the attack.

Why this answer

(DDoS) because the scenario describes a distributed denial-of-service attack: traffic originates from multiple compromised systems (a botnet) to overwhelm the web server. A DDoS attack is a subtype of DoS that specifically uses multiple sources, making it harder to mitigate than a single-source DoS. The key clue is 'multiple compromised systems,' which directly maps to the distributed nature of a DDoS.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between DoS and DDoS by including the phrase 'multiple compromised systems' as the key differentiator, and the trap here is that candidates may confuse the attack type (DDoS) with the infrastructure used to execute it (botnet).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (MitM) is wrong because a man-in-the-middle attack intercepts or alters communication between two parties (e.g., ARP spoofing, SSL stripping), not overwhelming a server with traffic. Option B (DoS) is wrong because while a DoS attack also aims to make a service unavailable, the question explicitly states 'multiple compromised systems,' which distinguishes it as a distributed attack; a standard DoS originates from a single source. Option C (Botnet) is wrong because a botnet is the network of compromised devices used to launch the attack, not the attack itself; the question asks for the type of attack, not the infrastructure.

405
MCQhard

An analyst sees these logs. What should be the immediate course of action?

A.Investigate whether these are legitimate SSH attempts from authorized remote administrators.
B.Change the SSH port to a non-standard port.
C.Block all traffic from the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet.
D.Add an ACL permit rule for SSH from these sources.
E.Disable SSH access to the router.
AnswerA

Verify before acting.

Why this answer

The logs show repeated SSH connection attempts from the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet. The immediate priority is to determine whether these are legitimate administrative activities or malicious brute-force attempts. Investigating first prevents unnecessary disruption to authorized remote administration, which is critical for maintaining network operations and security.

Blocking or changing configurations without verification could inadvertently lock out legitimate administrators or violate change-control policies.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the principle of 'verify before you act' to trap candidates who jump to reactive measures like blocking or changing ports without first confirming whether the traffic is authorized.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because changing the SSH port to a non-standard port is a form of security through obscurity that does not address the root cause; attackers can easily scan for open ports, and it may break automated management tools or compliance requirements. Option C is wrong because blocking all traffic from the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet could deny service to legitimate users or systems in that range without confirming malicious intent, potentially causing a denial of service. Option D is wrong because adding an ACL permit rule for SSH from these sources would explicitly allow the traffic, which is the opposite of a security response if the attempts are unauthorized.

Option E is wrong because disabling SSH access to the router outright would prevent all remote administration, including from authorized personnel, and is an overly drastic measure before verifying the nature of the attempts.

406
MCQhard

A security analyst is analyzing a suspicious PE file. Using a hex editor, the analyst sees the MZ header (4D 5A). The file's entropy is calculated as 7.8. What does the high entropy most likely indicate?

A.The file is a legitimate signed binary
B.The file is likely packed or obfuscated
C.The file is corrupted
D.The file contains mostly plain text strings
AnswerB

High entropy is indicative of packing/encryption.

Why this answer

High entropy (close to 8) suggests the file is packed or encrypted, as compressed or encrypted data has high randomness. This is often used by malware to evade signature detection.

407
Multi-Selecteasy

A security analyst is investigating a host that is suspected of being compromised. The analyst runs a series of commands to gather information. Which TWO of the following commands are most useful for collecting volatile data from a live Windows system? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.netstat -anob
B.tasklist /svc
C.dir /s C:\Windows\System32\config
D.wevtutil qe System /c:10
E.reg query HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run
AnswersA, B

Shows active network connections with associated process IDs and executables.

Why this answer

The `netstat -anob` command displays active network connections, listening ports, and the associated process IDs (PIDs) along with the executable name. This is critical for identifying unauthorized outbound connections or backdoor listeners that indicate compromise. Because network state and process-to-port mappings reside in volatile memory (RAM), they are lost on reboot, making this command essential for live forensic collection.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between volatile (memory-resident) and non-volatile (disk-based) data, and the trap here is that candidates mistakenly treat registry queries or event log exports as volatile because they are commonly used in live response, when in fact they read persistent disk artifacts.

408
MCQmedium

A SOC analyst at Tier 1 receives an alert for a known malware signature. After initial investigation, the analyst finds that the alert is a false positive caused by an outdated signature. What should the analyst do next?

A.Escalate the alert to Tier 2 for further analysis
B.Update the signature database on the security tools
C.Initiate the containment process
D.Close the alert and document the finding
AnswerD

Tier 1 can close false positive alerts after confirmation and documentation.

Why this answer

Tier 1 analysts handle basic investigation and can close false positives. Updating signatures is outside their scope.

409
Multi-Selecthard

A SOC analyst is reviewing a large number of alerts from a SIEM. Which THREE of the following are effective steps to prioritize and investigate alerts in a high-volume environment? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Investigate alerts in the order they were received.
B.Prioritize alerts based on severity and asset criticality.
C.Correlate alerts with known threat intelligence feeds to identify true positives.
D.Automatically close all low-severity alerts without review.
E.Group alerts by source IP to identify patterns like brute force or port scans.
AnswersB, C, E

High-severity alerts on critical assets should be investigated first.

Why this answer

Prioritizing by severity, correlating with threat intelligence, and checking for associated IoCs help focus on important alerts. Alert fatigue leads to missed incidents; automation and triage are key.

410
MCQmedium

An analyst notices periodic HTTP GET requests to a suspicious domain every 60 seconds. The payload size is small and consistent. This behavior is characteristic of which phase of the Cyber Kill Chain?

A.Actions on Objectives
B.Command and Control
C.Delivery
D.Installation
AnswerB

Correct. Regular beaconing is typical of C2.

Why this answer

Beaconing is a C2 communication technique where infected hosts periodically contact the command server.

411
Multi-Selectmedium

A security team is analyzing a malware infection. Which two characteristics are typical of a worm? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Exploits vulnerabilities to spread without user interaction
B.Requires a host file to propagate
C.Disguises itself as a legitimate program
D.Attaches to an email to spread
E.Self-replicates across networks
AnswersA, E

Worms often exploit network vulnerabilities.

Why this answer

Worms are self-replicating and spread across networks without human intervention. They do not require a host file and often exploit vulnerabilities.

412
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE of the following are common Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) used in threat intelligence?

Select 3 answers
A.IP addresses
B.User-agent strings
C.Port numbers
D.Domain names
E.File hashes (MD5, SHA-256)
AnswersA, D, E

IP addresses of known malicious hosts are common IoCs.

Why this answer

IP addresses are a primary Indicator of Compromise (IoC) because they directly identify the network location of a malicious host, such as a command-and-control (C2) server or a source of an attack. In threat intelligence, IP addresses are used to block traffic, enrich alerts, and correlate events across different data sources. They are a foundational IoC because they are observable in network logs, firewall logs, and IDS/IPS alerts.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between IoCs (specific, observable artifacts of an intrusion) and contextual data (like user-agent strings or port numbers) that are not reliable or specific enough to be used as standalone indicators in threat intelligence.

413
MCQmedium

A security analyst needs to verify the authenticity and integrity of a software update. The update is signed with a digital signature. Which key is used to verify the signature?

A.Sender's public key
B.Sender's private key
C.Recipient's public key
D.Recipient's private key
AnswerA

The sender's public key verifies the signature created by their private key.

Why this answer

Digital signatures use asymmetric cryptography: the sender's private key signs, the public key verifies.

414
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is implementing a new security policy to protect customer payment information. Which TWO compliance frameworks are most relevant to this requirement? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.HIPAA
B.ISO 27001
C.GDPR
D.PCI DSS
E.NIST Cybersecurity Framework
AnswersC, D

GDPR protects personal data, including payment information for EU residents.

Why this answer

PCI DSS applies to payment card data; GDPR applies to personal data of EU residents, which may include payment information.

415
MCQhard

An organization has implemented a security information and event management (SIEM) system. The SOC analyst receives an alert indicating a high number of failed login attempts from a single IP address targeting a critical server. The analyst checks the server logs and finds that the server is configured to lock the account after 5 failed attempts. However, the alert shows thousands of attempts. Which of the following explains this discrepancy?

A.The failed attempts are against different usernames, not the same account
B.The attacker is using a brute-force tool that bypasses account lockout
C.The server's logging is not capturing all authentication events
D.The SIEM alert is a false positive due to a misconfiguration
AnswerA

This is a common technique to avoid lockout; each account may have only a few attempts, but total attempts across many accounts are high.

Why this answer

The account lockout policy (5 failed attempts) applies per individual username, not per source IP address. If the attacker is attempting to authenticate with many different usernames from the same IP, each username can fail up to 5 times before being locked, allowing thousands of total failed attempts across different accounts. The SIEM aggregates all failed authentication events from that IP, while the server's lockout mechanism only triggers per user, explaining the discrepancy.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between account lockout (per user) and failed login events (per source IP), trapping candidates who assume lockout limits total attempts from an IP rather than per-username attempts.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because brute-force tools cannot bypass account lockout policies enforced by the authentication system (e.g., Windows Active Directory or Linux PAM); lockout is a server-side mechanism that applies regardless of the tool used. Option C is wrong because if the server were missing log entries, the SIEM would show fewer events than the server, not more; the alert shows thousands of attempts, indicating logging is capturing them. Option D is wrong because the alert is not a false positive—it accurately reflects the high volume of failed attempts from that IP; the misconfiguration would be in the analyst's interpretation, not in the SIEM rule.

416
MCQmedium

A security administrator is implementing a privileged access management (PAM) solution. Which practice best enforces the principle of least privilege for administrators?

A.Create shared admin accounts for the team
B.Use Just-in-Time administration to grant temporary privileges
C.Grant permanent admin rights to all senior administrators
D.Monitor admin activity without restricting access
AnswerB

JIT grants access only for the duration of a task.

Why this answer

Just-in-Time (JIT) administration is the correct practice because it dynamically grants elevated privileges only for the duration of a specific task, then automatically revokes them. This directly enforces the principle of least privilege by ensuring administrators have no standing, permanent access beyond what is immediately needed. In contrast, shared accounts, permanent rights, or mere monitoring all leave excessive or uncontrolled privileges in place.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that monitoring or auditing alone satisfies least privilege, when in fact least privilege requires restricting access to the minimum necessary, not just observing it.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because creating shared admin accounts violates accountability and makes it impossible to attribute actions to specific individuals, while also providing standing privileges that exceed least privilege. Option C is wrong because granting permanent admin rights to all senior administrators gives them continuous, unnecessary access, directly contradicting the principle of least privilege. Option D is wrong because monitoring admin activity without restricting access does nothing to reduce the attack surface; it only observes violations after they occur, failing to enforce least privilege proactively.

417
MCQhard

A SOC analyst is analyzing NetFlow data and notices a sudden spike in outbound traffic from a single internal host to an external IP address during non-business hours. The traffic volume is significantly higher than the baseline. Which suspicion is most likely?

A.The host is running a backup to cloud storage
B.The host is part of a botnet performing DDoS attack
C.Data exfiltration is occurring
D.The host is performing legitimate software updates
AnswerC

Unusual high-volume outbound traffic to a single destination is a classic exfiltration sign.

Why this answer

A sudden increase in outbound traffic to a single external IP, especially outside business hours, often indicates data exfiltration.

418
Multi-Selecthard

A Linux server has been compromised. The analyst checks for persistence mechanisms. Which THREE of the following are common Linux persistence techniques that should be examined? (Select THREE)

Select 3 answers
A.Creating a systemd service unit
B.Cron jobs in /etc/crontab or user crontabs
C.Changing the system timezone
D.Adding SSH public keys to authorized_keys
E.Modifying the /etc/hosts file
AnswersA, B, D

Systemd services can start automatically on boot.

Why this answer

Creating a systemd service unit is a common Linux persistence technique because systemd is the default init system for most modern Linux distributions. An attacker can place a malicious service file (e.g., /etc/systemd/system/evil.service) that automatically starts the malware at boot or after a crash, ensuring continued access even after a reboot.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between persistence (automatic code execution) and other system modifications; the trap here is confusing a configuration change (timezone or hosts file) with a mechanism that ensures malware runs repeatedly.

419
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE are examples of social engineering attacks? (Select three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Man-in-the-middle
B.Smishing
C.SQL injection
D.Phishing
E.Spear phishing
AnswersB, D, E

Smishing uses SMS messages for deception.

Why this answer

Smishing is a form of social engineering attack that uses SMS (Short Message Service) text messages to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information or clicking malicious links. Unlike technical attacks that exploit system vulnerabilities, smishing relies on psychological manipulation, making it a classic social engineering vector.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between technical attacks (like MITM or SQL injection) and social engineering attacks (like smishing, phishing, and spear phishing), where the trap is that candidates confuse a technical attack vector with a human-targeted manipulation technique.

420
MCQmedium

A security analyst at a medium-sized enterprise notices that an employee's workstation has been sending outbound traffic to a known malicious IP address at irregular intervals. The analyst runs a scan and finds no malware signatures. What should the analyst do next?

A.Block the malicious IP at the firewall and continue monitoring.
B.Escalate to the incident response team for further investigation.
C.Review the employee's recent web browsing history and email attachments.
D.Immediately disconnect the workstation from the network and reimage it.
AnswerB

Escalation ensures proper handling of a potential advanced threat that may require specialized skills.

Why this answer

The situation—outbound traffic to a known malicious IP without detected malware signatures—suggests an advanced threat such as a zero-day exploit or fileless malware. Escalating to the incident response team ensures a thorough investigation, preserves evidence, and coordinates a proper response. Blocking the IP alone (A) does not address the underlying compromise.

Reviewing history (C) is part of the investigation but escalation is the immediate next step. Disconnecting and reimaging (D) could destroy evidence and is premature.

421
MCQmedium

An analyst reviews IDS alerts and sees multiple alerts for the same signature from different internal IPs targeting the same external server. One common cause is...

A.A false positive
B.A DDoS attack
C.A worm spreading internally
D.A misconfigured server
AnswerC

Worm infections cause multiple hosts to exhibit similar malicious behavior.

Why this answer

A worm spreading internally (option C) is the most likely cause because worms self-replicate and propagate across a network, generating identical IDS alerts from multiple internal IPs as each infected host attempts to connect to the same external server (e.g., for command-and-control or payload delivery). This pattern—same signature, multiple internal sources, single external target—is a classic indicator of worm activity, where the worm's propagation logic causes each compromised host to initiate similar outbound connections.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between a DDoS attack and a worm by focusing on the source distribution—candidates mistakenly choose DDoS because they see multiple sources, but forget that DDoS sources are typically external, not internal, and the signature consistency points to a worm's automated propagation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a false positive would typically produce alerts from a single or few IPs due to benign traffic matching a signature, not a coordinated pattern of multiple distinct internal IPs triggering the same alert. Option B is wrong because a DDoS attack would involve multiple sources targeting a single victim, but the sources are usually external (or a mix), and the alerts would likely show varied signatures or traffic types, not the same signature repeated from internal IPs. Option D is wrong because a misconfigured server would cause alerts from that server's IP only, not from multiple different internal IPs, and the signature would typically reflect the misconfiguration (e.g., protocol violations) rather than a consistent outbound connection pattern.

422
MCQmedium

An analyst uses 'sc query' on a Windows host and finds a service named 'WindowsUpdate' with a binary path pointing to 'C:\Users\Public\update.exe'. The service is running. Why is this suspicious?

A.The service is running
B.The service name is misspelled
C.The service displays 'WindowsUpdate'
D.The binary path is not in a system directory
AnswerD

Legitimate services normally run from system directories.

Why this answer

Legitimate Windows services, especially those mimicking system components like Windows Update, should have their binary paths in protected system directories (e.g., C:\Windows\System32). A binary path pointing to C:\Users\Public\update.exe indicates the executable is in a user-writable location, which is a common technique used by malware to evade detection and maintain persistence. The 'sc query' command reveals the service configuration, and this abnormal path is a strong indicator of compromise.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a service name or display name alone is the red flag, when in fact the critical indicator is the binary path location outside of system directories.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a service being running is not inherently suspicious; many legitimate services run continuously. Option B is wrong because the service name 'WindowsUpdate' is not misspelled; it matches the expected name for the Windows Update service. Option C is wrong because the service displaying 'WindowsUpdate' is expected behavior for a service named that; the suspicious element is the binary path, not the display name.

423
MCQmedium

An analyst is reviewing Windows Event Logs and sees multiple Event ID 4625 entries from a single IP address. What does this indicate?

A.A user account was locked out.
B.A brute-force password guessing attack.
C.A service account password expired.
D.Successful remote logins from that IP.
AnswerB

Multiple failed logon attempts are typical of brute-force attacks.

Why this answer

Event ID 4625 is a failed logon attempt. Multiple failures from the same IP suggest a brute-force attack.

424
MCQeasy

A company's acceptable use policy (AUP) prohibits personal devices on the corporate network. An employee is found connecting a personal tablet to access internal resources. What should the security team do?

A.Allow the device and update the policy
B.Block the device and investigate
C.Remind the employee of the AUP and request removal
D.Disable the network port
AnswerC

Policy enforcement starts with reminding the user of the existing rules.

Why this answer

The first step in enforcing an acceptable use policy (AUP) is to remind the employee of the policy and request voluntary compliance. This aligns with the principle of least disruption and progressive discipline: the security team should address the violation with a clear warning before escalating to technical enforcement. Blocking the device or disabling the port without prior notification could violate due process and may be disproportionate to a first-time, non-malicious violation.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the concept of 'progressive discipline' in policy enforcement, where candidates mistakenly choose a technical block (Option B or D) instead of the correct human-centric first step of reminding the user.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because allowing the device and updating the policy would undermine the existing AUP without a formal review process; it conflates a single violation with a policy change, which should involve management and legal review, not an ad hoc decision. Option B is wrong because blocking the device and investigating is an overly aggressive response for a first-time AUP violation that does not indicate malicious intent; investigation is warranted only if there is suspicion of data exfiltration or malware, which is not described. Option D is wrong because disabling the network port is a drastic measure that could disrupt legitimate business operations and is typically reserved for repeated violations or security incidents, not a single policy infraction.

425
MCQeasy

A security analyst is investigating a Windows host and wants to view running processes along with their parent-child relationships and command-line arguments. Which tool is best suited for this task?

A.Volatility
B.tasklist
C.Process Explorer
D.Task Manager
AnswerC

Process Explorer from Sysinternals displays parent-child relationships, command-line arguments, and more.

Why this answer

Process Explorer provides detailed process information including parent PID and command line, while Task Manager and tasklist show limited details. Volatility is a memory analysis tool, not for live host analysis.

426
MCQeasy

A security analyst is reviewing a Snort alert that triggered on the signature 'ET TROJAN Win.Trojan.Generic'. What is the most likely reason this alert fired?

A.A system infected with a trojan
B.A legitimate Windows update
C.A misconfigured firewall
D.An attacker attempting to exploit a buffer overflow
AnswerA

The signature specifically detects trojan activity.

Why this answer

The Snort signature 'ET TROJAN Win.Trojan.Generic' is designed to detect network traffic patterns or payloads associated with known Trojan malware. When this alert fires, it indicates that the sensor observed data matching the signature's characteristics, most likely from a system that is infected with a Trojan and is communicating with a command-and-control server or performing malicious activity.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between signature categories (e.g., Trojan vs. exploit vs. policy violation) to see if candidates understand that each signature type is tailored to a specific threat behavior, not just any anomaly.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a legitimate Windows update uses Microsoft's own signed binaries and update servers, and its traffic does not match the specific patterns of a Trojan signature; Snort would not trigger on benign update traffic unless a false positive occurs due to a poorly tuned signature. Option C is wrong because a misconfigured firewall might cause connectivity issues or block legitimate traffic, but it does not generate Trojan-specific network payloads that would match this signature. Option D is wrong because a buffer overflow exploit typically targets a vulnerability in a service or application and would be detected by a different class of signatures (e.g., 'ET EXPLOIT' or 'SHELLCODE'), not a generic Trojan signature.

427
MCQeasy

A healthcare organization has a security policy that mandates immediate reporting of any potential data breach to the privacy officer. An analyst notices that an employee accidentally emailed a patient list to the wrong recipient. The recipient is known to be a trusted partner, but the email contained PHI. The analyst contacts the recipient who acknowledges receipt and agrees to delete the email. What should the analyst do next?

A.Update the access control list to prevent similar mistakes.
B.Do nothing further since the data was deleted.
C.Send a warning email to the employee without reporting.
D.Report the incident as a data breach to the privacy officer as per policy.
AnswerD

This ensures compliance and proper documentation.

Why this answer

The organization's security policy requires immediate reporting of any potential data breach to the privacy officer, regardless of whether the data was later deleted or the recipient is a trusted partner. The analyst must follow policy and report the incident. Option A is incorrect as updating an ACL does not address the reporting requirement.

Option B is wrong because doing nothing violates policy. Option C is incorrect because sending a warning without reporting circumvents the mandated procedure.

428
MCQmedium

Which encryption method uses a single key for both encryption and decryption of data?

A.Asymmetric encryption
B.Symmetric encryption
C.Digital signature
D.Hashing
AnswerB

Symmetric encryption uses one shared key.

Why this answer

Symmetric encryption uses a single shared key for both encryption and decryption of data. This is the defining characteristic of symmetric algorithms like AES, DES, and 3DES, where the same secret key must be known to both sender and receiver to protect confidentiality.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between symmetric and asymmetric encryption by presenting a scenario where a single key is used, and candidates may confuse 'single key' with the public key in asymmetric encryption, leading them to incorrectly select asymmetric encryption.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because asymmetric encryption uses a pair of keys (public and private) for encryption and decryption, not a single key. Option C is wrong because a digital signature is a cryptographic mechanism for authentication and non-repudiation, not an encryption method; it uses asymmetric keys to sign and verify, not to encrypt data. Option D is wrong because hashing is a one-way function that produces a fixed-size digest and cannot be reversed to recover the original data, so it does not support both encryption and decryption.

429
MCQeasy

A SOC analyst needs to create a SIEM correlation rule to detect a brute force attack against SSH on a server. Which of the following would be the most effective rule logic?

A.Alert when a single failed SSH login occurs.
B.Alert when more than 10 failed SSH logins from the same source IP occur within 1 minute.
C.Alert when successful SSH logins occur outside business hours.
D.Alert when multiple failed SSH logins from various IPs occur in one hour.
AnswerB

This threshold is a common indicator of automated brute force attempts.

Why this answer

A brute force attack is characterized by a high volume of failed authentication attempts from a single source within a short time window. By alerting on more than 10 failed SSH logins from the same source IP within 1 minute, the rule effectively distinguishes malicious automated guessing from isolated user errors, minimizing false positives while capturing the core behavior of a brute force attempt.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between a brute force attack (single source, high frequency) and a distributed attack (multiple sources, lower frequency per source), and candidates may incorrectly choose Option D because they conflate 'multiple IPs' with a stronger attack, missing that the question specifically asks for a brute force against SSH.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a single failed SSH login is a common benign event (e.g., typo, forgotten password) and would generate excessive false positives, failing to indicate a brute force attack. Option C is wrong because successful SSH logins outside business hours may indicate unauthorized access but do not directly detect the repeated failed attempts that define a brute force attack; this rule would miss the attack entirely. Option D is wrong because multiple failed logins from various IPs in one hour suggests a distributed attack (e.g., credential stuffing) rather than a classic brute force from a single source, and the one-hour window is too long to trigger timely response, allowing many attempts before alerting.

430
Matchingmedium

Match each Cisco CyberOps concept to its description.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Security Operations Center

Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

Indicator of Compromise

Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures

Adversary, Capability, Infrastructure, Victim

Why these pairings

The correct matches are: IoC = evidence of intrusion, SIEM = log aggregation and analysis system, IPS = traffic monitoring and blocking device. Common confusions include swapping definitions between similar-sounding terms or confusing tools with indicators.

431
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is reviewing logs from a web server and notices a high volume of HTTP requests from a single IP address targeting the same login page within a short time frame. The analyst suspects a brute force attack. Which TWO actions are most appropriate to mitigate this type of attack? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Implement rate limiting on the login endpoint.
B.Disable the login page entirely.
C.Block all traffic from the offending IP address permanently.
D.Increase the password complexity requirements.
E.Implement account lockout after a certain number of failed attempts.
AnswersA, E

Rate limiting slows down the attacker's requests.

Why this answer

Implementing account lockout after a few failed attempts prevents further brute force attempts on the same account. Rate limiting restricts the number of requests from a single IP, slowing down the attack.

432
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is collecting evidence from a compromised system for legal proceedings. Which TWO actions are critical to preserve the integrity of the evidence?

Select 2 answers
A.Store the evidence in a public folder for easy access
B.Compute a cryptographic hash of the original drive before imaging
C.Delete any sensitive files to protect privacy
D.Run the system normally to capture volatile data
E.Use a write-blocker when creating a forensic image
AnswersB, E

Hash verifies integrity of the original.

Why this answer

Write-blocking prevents modification during acquisition, and hashing verifies integrity before and after imaging.

433
MCQmedium

While analyzing a PCAP, an analyst uses the Wireshark filter 'http.request' and finds a URI parameter containing '%27%20UNION%20SELECT%201,2,3%20--'. What type of attack is indicated?

A.Cross-site scripting (XSS)
B.SQL injection
C.Command injection
D.Directory traversal
AnswerB

The URI parameter `%27%20UNION%20SELECT%201,2,3%20--` is URL-encoded, where `%27` decodes to a single quote (`'`), `%20` to a space, and `--` to an SQL comment. This payload injects a single quote to break out of a string context, then appends a `UNION SELECT` statement to retrieve arbitrary data, with the comment `--` suppressing the remainder of the original query. This directly satisfies the constraint of manipulating SQL syntax via user-supplied input, confirming SQL injection.

Why this answer

The URL-encoded string decodes to a SQL injection attempt with UNION SELECT. SQL injection often appears in HTTP parameters.

434
MCQhard

During a host-based analysis of a Windows system, an analyst finds that the Windows Event ID 4688 (process creation) logs show a child process spawning from a legitimate application, but the parent process path is empty. What does this likely indicate?

A.The parent process was terminated immediately after spawning
B.The process was spawned via a WMI call without a parent path
C.The event log is corrupted
D.The process is a kernel thread
AnswerB

WMI spawns often result in empty parent path fields.

Why this answer

When a process is spawned via Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI), the parent process path is often empty in Event ID 4688 logs because WMI creates the child process in a way that does not preserve the standard parent-child relationship. This occurs because WMI uses the `Win32_Process.Create` method, which runs under the WMI provider host process (WmiPrvSE.exe) but does not populate the parent process path field in the security log. The empty parent path is a strong indicator of WMI-based process creation, which is commonly used for lateral movement or persistence by attackers.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that an empty parent path indicates log corruption or a terminated parent, but the correct interpretation is that WMI-based process creation deliberately omits the parent path in Event ID 4688.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the parent process were terminated immediately after spawning, the parent process ID (PPID) would still be recorded in the event log, and the parent process path would not be empty—it would show the path of the terminated process. Option C is wrong because event log corruption would typically manifest as missing events, garbled data, or error codes, not as a consistently empty parent process path for a specific event type. Option D is wrong because kernel threads are not user-mode processes and do not generate Event ID 4688 logs; they are managed by the kernel and appear in different log sources or not at all.

435
MCQeasy

A SOC analyst is investigating a suspicious file on a Windows host. The file hash matches a known malware variant in a threat intelligence feed. What is the next best step for host-based analysis?

A.Run a full antivirus scan on the host
B.Disable the network adapter to prevent further communication
C.Check for persistence mechanisms such as registry Run keys or scheduled tasks
D.Reboot the host to clear the malware from memory
AnswerC

Malware often adds persistence. Examining startup locations helps determine scope and removal.

Why this answer

After confirming a file hash matches a known malware variant, the immediate priority for host-based analysis is to determine how the malware maintains persistence on the system. Persistence mechanisms such as Registry Run keys (e.g., HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run) or scheduled tasks (via schtasks.exe) allow malware to survive reboots and re-establish execution. Identifying these artifacts is critical for containment and eradication, as it reveals the malware's foothold and prevents re-infection after removal.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between host-based analysis (focusing on local artifacts like persistence, processes, and registry) and network-based containment (like disabling adapters), so candidates mistakenly choose network isolation steps when the question explicitly asks for host-based analysis.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because running a full antivirus scan is reactive and may not detect the specific malware variant if signatures are outdated or if the malware employs evasion techniques like packing or polymorphism; the hash match already confirms maliciousness, so scanning adds no new forensic value. Option B is wrong because disabling the network adapter is a network-based containment step, not a host-based analysis step; while it may prevent C2 communication, the question specifically asks for the next best step in host-based analysis, which should focus on understanding the malware's local impact and persistence. Option D is wrong because rebooting the host may clear malware from memory (e.g., fileless malware), but it destroys volatile evidence such as running processes, network connections, and memory-resident artifacts, and it does not address persistence mechanisms that would cause the malware to reload on startup.

436
MCQmedium

Which type of malware is designed to replicate itself and spread to other systems without user intervention?

A.Virus
B.Ransomware
C.Trojan
D.Worm
AnswerD

Worms self-replicate and spread automatically.

Why this answer

A worm is a self-replicating malware that spreads automatically across networks, unlike viruses that require a host file.

437
MCQeasy

Which principle ensures that a user cannot deny having performed an action?

A.Authentication
B.Accountability
C.Authorization
D.Non-repudiation
AnswerD

Non-repudiation provides evidence that an action occurred, preventing denial.

Why this answer

Non-repudiation ensures that a user cannot deny having performed an action, typically by using digital signatures or cryptographic mechanisms. In network security, this is often achieved through protocols like HMAC or digital certificates that bind an action to a specific identity, providing irrefutable proof. Without non-repudiation, a user could claim they never sent a message or executed a command, undermining audit trails and legal accountability.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between accountability and non-repudiation, where candidates confuse logging/tracking (accountability) with cryptographic proof (non-repudiation), leading them to select 'Accountability' instead of 'Non-repudiation'.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because authentication verifies the identity of a user or device (e.g., via passwords, certificates, or biometrics) but does not prevent the user from later denying they performed an action. Option B is wrong because accountability refers to the ability to trace actions back to a specific entity through logging and auditing, but it does not inherently provide cryptographic proof to prevent denial. Option C is wrong because authorization controls what resources or actions a user is permitted to access (e.g., via ACLs or RBAC), but it does not address the issue of denying past actions.

438
MCQeasy

Based on the exhibit, which type of traffic is being denied?

A.Traffic permitted by the access group.
B.TCP traffic to a DNS server.
C.UDP traffic from an internal host to an external DNS server.
D.ICMP traffic from an external host.
AnswerC

The log matches UDP from inside to outside port 53.

Why this answer

The exhibit shows an access control list (ACL) entry that denies UDP traffic from any source to any destination with a destination port of 53, which is the standard port for DNS. Since the ACL is applied inbound on an interface facing the internal network, it specifically blocks UDP traffic originating from an internal host destined for an external DNS server. This matches option C exactly.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between UDP and TCP for DNS traffic, leading candidates to assume that all DNS traffic uses UDP, when in fact DNS can use TCP for larger responses or zone transfers, and the ACL only blocks UDP.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the ACL is explicitly denying traffic, not permitting it; the access group is used to apply the ACL, but the ACL itself contains a deny statement. Option B is wrong because the ACL denies UDP traffic to port 53, but TCP traffic to a DNS server (port 53) is not affected by this rule; the rule only targets UDP. Option D is wrong because the ACL denies UDP traffic from any source, but ICMP traffic uses a different protocol (type 1) and is not affected by a UDP-specific deny statement.

439
MCQeasy

An analyst needs to review the Windows event logs from a host to determine if a user's account was used to log in at an unusual time. Which log type should the analyst check?

A.Application
B.System
C.Setup
D.Security
AnswerD

Security log records logon/logoff events.

Why this answer

The Security log in Windows Event Viewer records audit events, including successful and failed logon attempts (Event ID 4624 for successful logons). This log type is the correct source for determining if a user's account was used to log in at an unusual time, as it captures the timestamp and details of each authentication event.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between the Security log (which records authentication events) and the System log (which records system-level events), leading candidates to mistakenly choose the System log for logon analysis.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Application log records events from applications and programs, not authentication or logon activities. Option B is wrong because the System log records events from Windows system components (e.g., driver failures, service starts), not user logon events. Option C is wrong because the Setup log records events related to Windows installation and updates, not user authentication or logon activity.

440
Multi-Selecthard

A security policy mandates that all network devices must be hardened. Which THREE of the following are common hardening best practices for routers and switches? (Select three.)

Select 3 answers
A.Implement access control lists (ACLs)
B.Disable unused services
C.Enable Telnet for remote management
D.Use default credentials for initial setup
E.Enable SNMPv3 with strong authentication
AnswersA, B, E

ACLs restrict traffic to only necessary communications.

Why this answer

Implementing access control lists (ACLs) on routers and switches is a fundamental hardening practice because ACLs filter traffic based on source/destination IP addresses, ports, and protocols, thereby restricting unauthorized access and mitigating threats like spoofing or reconnaissance. By default, Cisco devices permit all traffic unless explicitly denied, so ACLs enforce the principle of least privilege at the network layer.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between secure and insecure protocols, so the trap here is that candidates may mistakenly consider Telnet acceptable for remote management because it is widely used, ignoring that it lacks encryption and violates hardening standards.

441
MCQhard

A company's security team is investigating an alert from their EDR platform indicating that a workstation in the finance department has been making repeated connections to an external IP address associated with a known command-and-control (C2) server. The analyst has isolated the host from the network and is performing host-based analysis. The host is running Windows 10 with Sysmon deployed and Windows Event Logging enabled. The analyst reviews Sysmon events and finds: - Event ID 1 (Process Creation): 'powershell.exe -NoP -NonI -W Hidden -Enc JABzAD0ATgBlAHcALQBPAEI ...' (long encoded string) - Event ID 3 (Network Connect): powershell.exe connecting to the C2 IP on port 443 (HTTPS), and also to an internal IP on port 445 (SMB). - Event ID 11 (FileCreate): a file created at C:\Users\financeuser\AppData\Roaming\Microsoft\svchost.exe (size 512KB) with no signature. - Event ID 7 (Image Load): svchost.exe (from AppData) loaded 'crypt32.dll'. - Event ID 8 (CreateRemoteThread): not observed. The analyst also checks the Windows Security log and finds Event ID 4624 (Success Logon) for the user 'financeuser' from a remote workstation at 2:00 AM, which is outside normal hours. The workstation is part of the Active Directory domain. The analyst needs to determine the most effective next step to contain the threat and prevent recurrence.

A.Isolate the host further by blocking all inbound and outbound traffic via the host firewall, then perform memory acquisition and deep forensic analysis before remediation.
B.Remove the malicious svchost.exe file and kill the powershell process, then run a full antivirus scan.
C.Power off the workstation and reimage it immediately, then reset the user's password.
D.Change the user's password, revoke all Kerberos tickets, and check for lateral movement using the SMB connection observed.
AnswerD

The SMB connection suggests lateral movement; resetting credentials and revoking tickets prevents further abuse of the account.

Why this answer

The SMB connection (port 445) to an internal IP strongly indicates lateral movement via techniques like PsExec or scheduled tasks. Changing the user's password and revoking Kerberos tickets (e.g., using `klist -li 0x3e7 purge`) immediately cuts off the attacker's authenticated access, while checking for lateral movement addresses the broader compromise. This aligns with the NIST incident response containment phase, prioritizing credential and token revocation over file deletion or reimaging alone.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between host-level containment (e.g., deleting files) and domain-level containment (e.g., credential revocation), where candidates mistakenly choose a simple file removal or reimage without addressing the broader authentication compromise indicated by the SMB connection and off-hours logon.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the host is already isolated from the network; further firewall blocking is redundant, and memory acquisition is a forensic step, not containment. Option B is wrong because simply removing the file and killing the process does not address the compromised credentials or potential lateral movement via SMB; the attacker could re-authenticate or have already moved to other hosts. Option C is wrong because powering off and reimaging destroys volatile evidence and does not revoke the attacker's access via Kerberos tickets or changed passwords, allowing them to persist in the domain.

442
MCQmedium

A security analyst notices repeated failed login attempts from an external IP. The company has a policy for account lockout after 5 failed attempts. However, the lockout is not triggering. What is the most likely cause?

A.The failed attempts are occurring on a legacy application that does not integrate with Active Directory.
B.The lockout threshold is set to 10 attempts.
C.The lockout policy is applied to user accounts but not to administrative accounts.
D.The intrusion prevention system is blocking the lockout mechanism.
E.The firewall is allowing the traffic but not logging.
AnswerA

Legacy apps often bypass domain policy.

Why this answer

Legacy applications often use their own authentication mechanisms that do not integrate with Active Directory (AD). Since the lockout policy is enforced by AD based on failed logon attempts against domain-joined systems, attempts against a non-integrated legacy application bypass AD's lockout threshold entirely. This explains why the policy is not triggering despite repeated failures from the external IP.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that all authentication failures in an enterprise are tracked by Active Directory, when in fact legacy or third-party applications may have independent authentication stores that bypass AD lockout policies.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because if the lockout threshold were set to 10 attempts, the lockout would still trigger after 5 attempts if the policy were correctly applied — the question states the lockout is not triggering at all, not that it triggers at a different count. Option C is wrong because administrative accounts are subject to the same lockout policy unless explicitly excluded; even if excluded, the failed attempts are from an external IP targeting a user account, not an admin account. Option D is wrong because an intrusion prevention system (IPS) does not block lockout mechanisms; it inspects traffic for malicious patterns and might block the source IP, but it cannot prevent AD from enforcing its own lockout policy.

Option E is wrong because the firewall allowing traffic without logging does not affect the lockout mechanism; logging is irrelevant to whether the lockout threshold is enforced.

443
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. An analyst sees these syslog messages from the Cisco ASA. What is the most likely cause?

A.An external host attempting to connect to an internal server.
B.A denial-of-service attack from the external IP.
C.An internal host (10.0.0.10) is attempting to access the Internet on port 80 and is being blocked.
D.An internal host is performing a port scan of the external server.
AnswerC

The deny messages indicate outbound traffic is blocked.

Why this answer

The syslog messages show the Cisco ASA denying traffic from internal IP 10.0.0.10 to external destination 203.0.113.5 on TCP port 80. The ASA's access control list (ACL) is configured to block outbound HTTP traffic from this host, which is the most likely cause of the denial. The messages indicate a standard deny action, not a signature-based attack detection.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the ability to read syslog message fields (source vs. destination) to determine traffic direction, and the trap here is that candidates may misinterpret the deny as an attack from the external IP (option A) or as a scan (option D) without carefully parsing the source and destination addresses.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the syslog shows the source IP is internal (10.0.0.10) and the destination is external (203.0.113.5), meaning the connection attempt originates from inside the network, not from an external host. Option B is wrong because a denial-of-service attack would typically generate multiple rapid connection attempts or specific DoS signatures, not a single deny message per connection; the ASA would also log a different severity or event type for DoS. Option D is wrong because a port scan would involve multiple destination ports or sequential connection attempts, but the log only shows a single denied connection to port 80, not a pattern of scanning behavior.

444
MCQhard

A Security Operations Center (SOC) uses Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) with event correlation. Analysts notice that alerts for a specific malware signature have decreased sharply after a new firewall rule was deployed. However, endpoint scans still show infections on several hosts. What is the most likely explanation for the decrease in SIEM alerts?

A.The firewall rule blocks the malware's C2 traffic, so SIEM no longer receives network alerts, but endpoint infections persist
B.The SIEM correlation rules were accidentally disabled during the firewall update
C.The SIEM is not receiving logs from the endpoint detection and response (EDR) tool
D.The malware has mutated into a different variant that evades detection
AnswerA

The SIEM relies on network events for that signature; blocking C2 traffic stops the alerts but does not remediate existing infections.

Why this answer

The firewall rule specifically blocks command-and-control (C2) traffic, which is the network communication channel the malware uses to send data or receive instructions. Since the SIEM relies on network-based alerts (e.g., from intrusion detection systems or firewall logs) to detect this traffic, blocking the C2 traffic eliminates those network alerts. However, the malware remains on the endpoints because the firewall does not remove the infection; it only prevents outbound communication, so endpoint scans still detect the malware files or processes.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the concept that blocking C2 traffic reduces network alerts but does not remediate endpoint infections, leading candidates to mistakenly think the firewall rule eliminated the malware entirely.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because if SIEM correlation rules were accidentally disabled, the SIEM would stop generating alerts for all events, not just for this specific malware signature, and the sharp decrease would be broad, not isolated to one signature. Option C is wrong because the SIEM not receiving logs from the EDR tool would cause a loss of endpoint-based alerts, but the question states that endpoint scans still show infections, implying the EDR is still functioning and reporting; the decrease is in SIEM alerts, which are primarily network-based in this context. Option D is wrong because if the malware mutated into a different variant, it would evade detection by both network and endpoint tools, but endpoint scans still detect the infections, indicating the original signature is still present on the hosts.

445
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are key elements that should be included in an incident response plan?

Select 2 answers
A.Requirements for antivirus software on endpoints
B.List of approved forensic tools
C.Roles and responsibilities of the incident response team
D.Step-by-step technical remediation instructions for specific attack types
E.Communication and escalation procedures
AnswersC, E

Essential for coordination during an incident.

Why this answer

Clearly defining roles and responsibilities ensures that each incident response team member knows their specific duties during a security incident, which is a foundational element of any incident response plan as outlined in NIST SP 800-61. Without this clarity, response efforts can become chaotic, leading to delays in containment and remediation.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between the incident response plan (strategic, process-oriented) and incident response playbooks (tactical, attack-specific), causing candidates to mistakenly select detailed technical instructions or tool lists as key elements of the plan.

446
MCQhard

You are a security analyst at a financial institution. The network consists of a traditional perimeter firewall, an internal IDS (Snort), and a separate network monitoring tool that captures full packet data. Recently, the bank experienced a breach where an attacker exfiltrated customer data via DNS tunneling. The attack went undetected for weeks. The CISO wants to improve detection of data exfiltration and has tasked you with proposing a new monitoring strategy. The current IDS has signatures for common malware C2 channels but no specific DNS tunneling rules. You have access to the full packet capture archive. Which approach would be most effective in detecting DNS tunneling while minimizing false positives?

A.Write custom Snort rules that monitor DNS query size, frequency, and domain name entropy, and use full packet capture to baseline typical DNS behavior.
B.Block all DNS queries to external domains not on a whitelist, and log all blocked queries for review.
C.Increase the Snort signature sensitivity for all DNS-related alerts to maximum.
D.Deploy NetFlow monitoring on the DNS server and look for traffic volume anomalies.
AnswerA

DNS tunneling exhibits abnormal characteristics that can be detected with tailored rules and baselines.

Why this answer

DNS tunneling exploits legitimate DNS protocol behavior by encoding data in query payloads, making it invisible to signature-based detection. By writing custom Snort rules that monitor query size (typically > 255 bytes for TXT records), frequency (abnormally high query rates per domain), and domain name entropy (random-looking subdomains), and using full packet capture to baseline normal DNS traffic, you can detect anomalies indicative of tunneling with high precision and low false positives.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between detection and prevention—candidates may incorrectly choose a blocking strategy (Option B) or a volume-based approach (Option D) instead of a detection method that leverages packet-level analysis and behavioral baselines.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because blocking all DNS queries to external domains not on a whitelist is a restrictive, policy-based approach that would break normal internet access for users and services, and it does not detect tunneling—it only prevents it, which is not a monitoring strategy. Option C is wrong because increasing Snort signature sensitivity for all DNS-related alerts to maximum would generate an overwhelming number of false positives from legitimate DNS traffic (e.g., normal lookups, NXDOMAIN responses), rendering the IDS alerts useless for actual threat detection. Option D is wrong because NetFlow monitoring on the DNS server for traffic volume anomalies is too coarse—DNS tunneling often uses low-and-slow data transfer that does not create significant volume spikes, and NetFlow lacks the packet-level detail (e.g., query payload size, entropy) needed to distinguish tunneling from normal DNS traffic.

447
MCQeasy

A security analyst discovers that an attacker is using a vulnerability scanning tool to identify open ports on the company's network. Which type of attack is being performed?

A.Social engineering
B.Passive reconnaissance
C.Active reconnaissance
D.Denial of Service
AnswerC

Port scanning is active reconnaissance because it sends probes to the target.

Why this answer

Active reconnaissance involves direct interaction with the target, such as port scanning, to gather information.

448
MCQmedium

Which threat intelligence sharing standard defines a language and format for representing structured threat information, such as indicators and campaigns?

A.STIX
B.MISP
C.TAXII
D.OpenIOC
AnswerA

STIX defines a structured format for threat information.

Why this answer

STIX is a standardized language for describing threat intelligence, while TAXII is the protocol to share it.

449
MCQmedium

An analyst finds a suspicious service named 'UpdateSvc' running on a Windows system. Which tool or command would best help determine the service's binary path and start type?

A.net start
B.sc query UpdateSvc
C.tasklist /svc
D.Get-Service UpdateSvc
AnswerB

sc query displays service configuration including BINARY_PATH_NAME and START_TYPE.

Why this answer

The 'sc query' command with the service name provides detailed information including binary path and start type.

450
MCQmedium

An analyst is reviewing this configuration. What is the most significant security concern?

A.The access-list permits all traffic to 192.168.1.100 on ports 80 and 443.
B.The access-list is missing a rule to deny all other traffic.
C.The access-list only permits traffic to a single host.
D.The access-list does not specify source IPs, allowing any source.
E.The access-list should permit traffic to the entire subnet.
AnswerD

Best practice is to restrict source addresses.

Why this answer

Allowing any source IP is a security risk; source restriction is missing. Option A is the purpose. Option B is present (deny any).

Option C is a design choice. Option E is not recommended.

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