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Cisco CyberOps Associate 200-201 (200-201) — Questions 226300

979 questions total · 14pages · All types, answers revealed

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226
MCQmedium

An analyst finds a registry modification under 'HKLM\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows NT\CurrentVersion\Image File Execution Options'. What is the primary use of this registry key?

A.To configure network firewall rules for the image
B.To set a debugger that runs when the image is executed
C.To change the file extension association for the image
D.To log all execution of the image to the Event Log
AnswerB

Correct. IFEO is used for debugging and can be abused for persistence.

Why this answer

Image File Execution Options (IFEO) allow setting debuggers for executables. Malware can abuse this for persistence or to inject code by setting a debugger that launches the malware when the legitimate executable is run.

227
MCQmedium

A security engineer discovers that an attacker has inserted fake entries into a DNS resolver's cache, redirecting users to a malicious website. Which attack has occurred?

A.DDoS
B.DNS poisoning
C.Man-in-the-middle
D.ARP spoofing
AnswerB

DNS poisoning corrupts the cache to redirect queries.

Why this answer

DNS poisoning, also known as DNS cache poisoning, occurs when an attacker inserts forged DNS resource records into a resolver's cache. This causes the resolver to return a malicious IP address for a legitimate domain, redirecting users to an attacker-controlled site without their knowledge.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between DNS poisoning and ARP spoofing by presenting a scenario involving redirection to a malicious site, leading candidates to confuse the Layer 2 ARP attack with the Layer 7 DNS cache corruption.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack aims to overwhelm a target with traffic to disrupt service, not to insert fake DNS entries. Option C is wrong because a man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack intercepts and potentially alters communications between two parties in real time, whereas DNS poisoning corrupts the resolver's stored cache records. Option D is wrong because ARP spoofing links an attacker's MAC address to a legitimate IP address on a local network, targeting Layer 2 address resolution, not the DNS resolver's cache.

228
Multi-Selecteasy

A security analyst is implementing multifactor authentication. Which TWO are considered factors? (Select two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Password
B.Last login time
C.User ID
D.Security group membership
E.RSA token
AnswersA, E

Password is a knowledge factor.

Why this answer

A password is a knowledge factor (something you know), which is one of the three primary categories of authentication factors. Multifactor authentication requires combining two or more distinct factors, and a password satisfies the 'something you know' requirement. Without a password, the authentication process would lack the knowledge-based element needed for multifactor verification.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between identification (user ID) and authentication (factors that prove identity), leading candidates to mistakenly select user ID as a factor when it is only an identifier.

229
Multi-Selecthard

An analyst is using Volatility to analyze a memory dump. Which TWO plugins are most effective for detecting code injection?

Select 2 answers
A.ldrmodules
B.pslist
C.malfind
D.pstree
E.netscan
AnswersA, C

ldrmodules detects discrepancies in DLL lists that may indicate injected or hidden modules.

Why this answer

malfind specifically detects injected code, and ldrmodules (or dlllist with ldrmodules) helps detect hidden/unlinked DLLs that may indicate injection. pslist shows processes, pstree shows tree, and netscan shows connections.

230
MCQmedium

What is the primary purpose of a digital certificate in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)?

A.To encrypt all network traffic
B.To bind a public key to an identity
C.To provide a backup of private keys
D.To prevent malware infections
AnswerB

Certificates associate a public key with an entity, verified by a CA.

Why this answer

The primary purpose of a digital certificate in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is to bind a specific public key to a verified identity (such as a person, device, or organization). This binding is achieved through the certificate authority (CA) signing the certificate, which cryptographically asserts that the public key belongs to the named subject. Without this binding, there would be no trusted way to associate a public key with its owner, making secure communications and authentication impossible.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that a digital certificate itself encrypts data or contains the private key, when in fact it only binds the public key to an identity and never holds the private key.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because encrypting all network traffic is not the role of a digital certificate; encryption of traffic is performed by protocols like TLS using the public/private key pair, but the certificate itself only provides the binding and does not perform encryption. Option C is wrong because a digital certificate contains only the public key and identity information, never the private key; backing up private keys is a separate key management task, and exposing the private key in a certificate would break the entire security model. Option D is wrong because preventing malware infections is a function of security controls such as antivirus software, firewalls, and endpoint protection, not of digital certificates or PKI.

231
MCQeasy

Which protocol is used by SNMP to send traps from network devices to the management station?

A.TCP port 162
B.TCP port 161
C.UDP port 162
D.UDP port 161
AnswerC

SNMP traps use UDP port 162.

Why this answer

SNMP traps are sent from agents to managers using UDP port 162. SNMP uses UDP, not TCP.

232
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst reviews the access list. Senior management has authorized SSH access (port 22) to external servers only from the 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 subnets. What is the most significant security flaw in this ACL?

A.The destination 'any' allows SSH to any external server, which is too permissive
B.The ACL permits SSH from unauthorized IP addresses
C.The ACL sequence is illogical; line 30 should be before lines 10 and 20
D.The permit ip any any at the end allows all unexamined traffic, potentially bypassing other security controls
AnswerD

A broad permit all at the end can mask unintended traffic. Better practice is to explicitly deny any traffic not permitted.

Why this answer

The ACL permits all other traffic (line 40) after denying SSH from other sources. This bypasses any additional restrictions; the intent might be to allow only specific IPs for SSH, but the permit ip any any at the end allows all other traffic, which could include other unwanted protocols. Option A is incorrect because line 40 permits everything.

Option B is wrong because the source is correctly the internal subnets. Option C is wrong because ACLs are sequence-dependent, but line 30 only denies SSH from other sources.

233
Multi-Selectmedium

In the context of risk management, which THREE are valid risk treatment options?

Select 3 answers
A.Monitor
B.Ignore
C.Mitigate
D.Transfer
E.Accept
AnswersC, D, E

Mitigation reduces risk through controls.

Why this answer

The four risk treatment options are accept, avoid, transfer, and mitigate. Monitor is not a treatment option; it is part of ongoing management.

234
MCQeasy

Which element of the CIA triad ensures that data cannot be modified by unauthorized parties?

A.Availability
B.Non-repudiation
C.Integrity
D.Confidentiality
AnswerC

Integrity ensures data accuracy and prevents unauthorized changes.

Why this answer

Integrity protects data from unauthorized alteration. Confidentiality prevents disclosure, availability ensures access.

235
MCQmedium

What does this firewall log entry indicate?

A.Outbound HTTP connection denied
B.Inbound HTTP connection allowed
C.Inbound HTTP connection denied
D.Outbound HTTP connection allowed
AnswerC

Source outside, destination inside port 80, and action is deny.

Why this answer

The firewall log entry shows a packet with source IP 203.0.113.5 (external) and destination IP 10.0.0.2 (internal) on destination port 80 (HTTP). The action is 'DENY' and the direction is 'inbound', indicating an inbound HTTP connection attempt from an external host to an internal host that was denied by the firewall.

Exam trap

Candidates often mistake the direction field in firewall logs. Even though the packet travels inbound (from external to internal), some may incorrectly think 'inbound' refers to the direction of the traffic relative to the source IP.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the log indicates an inbound connection (external to internal), not outbound; the source is internal and destination is external, but the direction field says 'inbound', which refers to the traffic flow relative to the firewall's perspective. Option B is wrong because the action is 'DENY', not 'ALLOW', so the connection was not allowed. Option D is wrong because the connection is inbound, not outbound, and it was denied, not allowed.

236
MCQmedium

A company uses Microsoft Windows Event Logging for host monitoring. The security team receives an alert from a Windows 10 workstation 'WS-102' indicating multiple failed logon attempts (Event ID 4625) within a short period from an internal IP address 10.10.10.50, followed by a successful logon (Event ID 4624) for user 'jdoe'. Shortly after, Event ID 4688 (Process Creation) shows 'cmd.exe' started by 'explorer.exe' with a command line launching 'powershell.exe -EncodedCommand ...'. The encoded command decodes to a script that attempts to download a payload from a remote server. The analyst needs to determine the most effective immediate response to limit lateral movement and impact.

A.Restore WS-102 from a known good backup and ignore the alert as a false positive.
B.Immediately reset the password for user 'jdoe', block outbound traffic to the remote server at the firewall, and initiate an incident response process.
C.Run a full antivirus scan on WS-102 and isolate it.
D.Disable the user account 'jdoe' and investigate the source IP 10.10.10.50.
AnswerB

Resets credentials, stops C2 communication, and begins formal response.

Why this answer

The sequence of events—brute-force logon attempts followed by a successful logon and then an encoded PowerShell command attempting to download a payload—indicates a confirmed compromise. Resetting the password for 'jdoe' immediately revokes the attacker's authenticated access, blocking outbound traffic to the remote server prevents the payload download and C2 communication, and initiating incident response ensures proper containment and investigation. This combination directly limits lateral movement by cutting off the attacker's credentials and network egress.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between reactive steps (like scanning or disabling accounts) and proactive containment actions that immediately cut off the attacker's access and communication channels, leading candidates to choose a less effective response that does not address both credential compromise and network egress.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because restoring from backup ignores the active compromise and fails to contain the threat; the alert is not a false positive given the clear indicators of attack (failed logons, successful logon, encoded PowerShell download). Option C is wrong because running a full antivirus scan is a slow, passive step that does not immediately stop the attacker's access or the ongoing download; isolation alone does not revoke the compromised credentials or block the outbound connection to the remote server. Option D is wrong because disabling only the user account 'jdoe' does not block the outbound traffic to the remote server, allowing the payload download to complete; investigating the source IP is important but not the most effective immediate response to limit lateral movement.

237
MCQeasy

A security analyst notices a sudden spike in NetFlow data from a single workstation to multiple external IP addresses on port 443. What is the most likely explanation for this traffic pattern?

A.Internal network scanning
B.Normal web browsing activity
C.Potential data exfiltration
D.A scheduled software update
AnswerC

Multiple connections to many external IPs on the same port (443) at a high rate suggests beaconing or data theft.

Why this answer

A single workstation sending a sudden spike of NetFlow data to multiple external IP addresses on port 443 (HTTPS) is a classic indicator of data exfiltration. Attackers often encrypt stolen data in HTTPS tunnels to evade detection, and the abrupt increase in outbound connections to many distinct external hosts is not typical of normal user behavior. NetFlow records showing a high volume of flows from one source to many destinations on the same port strongly suggest an automated process, such as a data theft tool, rather than legitimate traffic.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that any HTTPS traffic is benign, but the trap here is that a sudden spike in outbound HTTPS flows from a single source to many external IPs is abnormal and indicates data exfiltration, not normal web browsing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because internal network scanning would target internal IP addresses, not external IP addresses, and would typically use ports like ICMP or TCP 445/3389, not exclusively port 443. Option B is wrong because normal web browsing activity is distributed across many users and times, not a sudden spike from a single workstation to multiple external IPs; a single user's browsing would not generate a sharp, sustained increase in NetFlow data volume. Option D is wrong because a scheduled software update usually contacts a single or few known update servers (e.g., Microsoft or Adobe CDNs), not multiple random external IPs, and updates typically use HTTP/HTTPS but with predictable patterns and destinations.

238
Multi-Selecteasy

A security policy requires that employees use strong passwords. Which TWO of the following are characteristics of a strong password? (Select two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Uses a mix of uppercase, lowercase, numbers, and special characters
B.Is changed every 90 days
C.Is a common dictionary word
D.Contains the user's username
E.At least 8 characters
AnswersA, E

Complexity increases entropy and resistance to cracking.

Why this answer

A strong password must include a mix of uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters to increase entropy and resist brute-force and dictionary attacks. This complexity exponentially increases the number of possible combinations, making it computationally infeasible for attackers to guess or crack the password within a reasonable time frame.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between password policy requirements (like expiration intervals) and intrinsic password strength characteristics, leading candidates to mistakenly select 'changed every 90 days' as a strength attribute.

239
MCQmedium

A network engineer configures a SPAN port to send traffic from a critical server to an IDS. After configuration, the IDS sees no traffic. What is the most likely issue?

A.The IDS is in a different subnet.
B.The monitor session source interface is incorrectly specified.
C.The SPAN destination interface is not connected to the IDS.
D.The server is using VLAN tagging.
AnswerB

Common misconfiguration; wrong VLAN or port.

Why this answer

The most likely issue is that the monitor session source interface is incorrectly specified. SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) requires the engineer to designate the correct source interface (the port connected to the critical server) and a destination interface (the port connected to the IDS). If the source interface is misconfigured—for example, pointing to the wrong switch port or using a VLAN instead of a specific port—the IDS will receive no mirrored traffic.

This is a common configuration error when setting up local SPAN on Cisco switches.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between source and destination misconfiguration in SPAN, trapping candidates who assume the IDS must be in the same subnet (Option A) or that VLAN tagging (Option D) would block mirrored traffic, when the real issue is an incorrect source interface specification.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the IDS being in a different subnet does not prevent SPAN from sending traffic to it; SPAN operates at Layer 2 and forwards frames regardless of IP subnet, as long as the destination interface is correctly connected and configured. Option C is wrong because if the SPAN destination interface were not connected to the IDS, the IDS would not be physically linked, which would be a cabling or connectivity issue, but the question states the IDS sees no traffic, implying a configuration problem rather than a physical disconnection. Option D is wrong because VLAN tagging on the server does not inherently block SPAN; SPAN can copy tagged frames, and the IDS would still see them if the source interface is correctly specified and the destination interface is configured to accept tagged traffic.

240
MCQeasy

A company wants to protect its internal network from external threats. Which security principle involves deploying multiple layers of security controls?

A.Least privilege
B.Defense in depth
C.Risk management
D.Separation of duties
AnswerB

Defense in depth uses multiple security layers to provide redundancy.

Why this answer

Defense in depth (option B) is the correct answer because it describes the strategy of layering independent security controls—such as firewalls, intrusion prevention systems (IPS), endpoint protection, and access controls—so that if one layer fails, another can still block or mitigate an attack. This principle ensures that no single point of failure can compromise the entire network, which is essential for protecting internal assets from external threats.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between a broad security strategy (defense in depth) and a specific access control principle (least privilege), so candidates mistakenly choose least privilege when they see 'multiple layers' because they confuse 'layers of permissions' with 'layers of controls.'

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (Least privilege) is wrong because it focuses on granting users only the minimum permissions needed to perform their tasks, not on deploying multiple layers of security controls. Option C (Risk management) is wrong because it is a broader process of identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks, not a specific design principle for implementing layered defenses. Option D (Separation of duties) is wrong because it prevents fraud or error by dividing critical tasks among multiple individuals, which is an administrative control, not a technical architecture for layered security.

241
MCQhard

You are a security analyst for a mid-sized company with a flat network topology. The company uses a single firewall for internet access and has no internal segmentation. Recently, the IT team deployed a new file server running Windows Server 2019. The server was configured with default settings and placed in the same subnet as all user workstations. Two weeks later, the helpdesk receives multiple complaints about slow network performance. Upon investigation, you notice the file server's network interface is sending a high volume of broadcast traffic. Additionally, you find that the server's firewall is disabled and it is running an outdated SMBv1 protocol. The CEO is concerned about potential data loss and asks for immediate remediation. Which of the following is the most effective and immediate course of action to address the most critical security vulnerability?

A.Enable the Windows Firewall on the file server and create rules to allow only essential traffic.
B.Configure the switch to block broadcast traffic on the file server's port.
C.Create VLANs to segment the file server from user workstations.
D.Disable SMBv1 on the file server using PowerShell or Registry.
AnswerD

This directly removes the critical vulnerability exploited by malware.

Why this answer

D is correct because the most critical security vulnerability is the outdated SMBv1 protocol, which is known to be exploited by ransomware like WannaCry and EternalBlue. Disabling SMBv1 immediately removes this attack vector, addressing the CEO's concern about potential data loss. While the broadcast traffic and disabled firewall are issues, SMBv1 poses a direct and severe risk to data integrity and confidentiality.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the concept that while network segmentation and firewalls are important security controls, they do not eliminate the underlying protocol vulnerability; the trap here is that candidates may focus on the broadcast traffic symptom or choose a slower, less direct solution like VLANs instead of the immediate fix of disabling the vulnerable service.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because enabling the Windows Firewall, while beneficial, does not address the SMBv1 vulnerability; the firewall would still allow SMB traffic on port 445 if not explicitly blocked, and the outdated protocol remains exploitable. Option B is wrong because blocking broadcast traffic on the switch port would disrupt legitimate network discovery and communication (e.g., NetBIOS name resolution), and it does not mitigate the SMBv1 security flaw. Option C is wrong because creating VLANs is a longer-term segmentation strategy that requires network reconfiguration and does not provide immediate remediation; it also does not directly disable the vulnerable SMBv1 protocol.

242
MCQmedium

A host-based analysis tool reports that a file has a digital signature that is valid but from an untrusted publisher. What should the analyst interpret from this?

A.The file is definitely malicious because the publisher is untrusted
B.The file's signature was revoked
C.The file may be malicious or legitimate; further analysis is needed
D.The file is definitely safe because the signature is valid
AnswerC

The signature chain is technically valid, but the publisher is not trusted by default. Requires contextual analysis.

Why this answer

A valid digital signature confirms the file has not been tampered with since signing, but it does not guarantee the publisher is trustworthy. An untrusted publisher means the signing certificate is not in the system's trusted root store or has been flagged by a security policy, so the file could be either legitimate (e.g., from a new or self-signed publisher) or malicious (e.g., signed with a stolen certificate). Therefore, further analysis—such as checking the file's reputation, behavior, or origin—is required to determine its safety.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between signature validity (cryptographic integrity) and publisher trust (certificate chain trust), leading candidates to mistakenly equate a valid signature with safety or an untrusted publisher with guaranteed malice.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a valid signature from an untrusted publisher does not automatically mean the file is malicious; the publisher may simply not be in the trusted store (e.g., a self-signed certificate). Option B is wrong because a revoked signature would be reported as invalid, not as valid but from an untrusted publisher; revocation is checked via CRL or OCSP and would cause the signature to fail verification. Option D is wrong because a valid signature does not imply safety; the publisher could be malicious or compromised, and the signature only ensures integrity, not trustworthiness.

243
MCQmedium

An analyst uses Volatility to analyze a memory dump from a compromised Windows machine. Which Volatility command would show the list of running processes along with their parent process IDs?

A.volatility -f mem.dmp pslist
B.volatility -f mem.dmp malfind
C.volatility -f mem.dmp pstree
D.volatility -f mem.dmp netscan
AnswerC

pstree shows the process tree with PPID.

Why this answer

The 'pstree' plugin in Volatility displays the process tree with parent-child relationships, helping identify suspicious process hierarchies.

244
MCQmedium

During a network intrusion analysis, a security analyst observes repeated TCP SYN packets sent to a range of ports on a target host, each followed by an RST response. No subsequent ACK packets are observed. Which phase of the Cyber Kill Chain is the attacker most likely executing?

A.Reconnaissance
B.Delivery
C.Weaponization
D.Exploitation
AnswerA

SYN scan is a reconnaissance activity to identify open ports and services.

Why this answer

The SYN scan is a reconnaissance technique used to identify open ports without completing the TCP handshake. The RST response indicates the port is closed, and the lack of ACK means the handshake was intentionally not completed, characteristic of a SYN scan.

245
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps for initial configuration of a Cisco IOS device after booting into the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

After booting, you must enter privileged mode, then global config, set hostname, set enable secret, and save.

246
MCQmedium

A user reports receiving an email with an urgent request to click a link and reset a password. The email appears to come from the company's IT department but has slight spelling errors. Which type of attack is this?

A.Phishing
B.Spear phishing
C.Whaling
D.Vishing
AnswerB

Spear phishing is targeted, often impersonating a trusted entity.

Why this answer

Spear phishing is a targeted phishing attack where the attacker customizes the email content for a specific individual or group, often using internal details (like the IT department) to increase credibility. The presence of slight spelling errors is a common indicator of a phishing attempt, but the targeted nature (appearing to come from the company's IT department) distinguishes this as spear phishing rather than generic phishing.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between generic phishing and spear phishing by including a detail that indicates targeting (like referencing a specific department or role), leading candidates to incorrectly choose 'Phishing' when the scenario clearly shows targeted customization.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because phishing is a broad, untargeted attack sent to many users, whereas this scenario describes a targeted email appearing to come from the company's IT department, which is characteristic of spear phishing. Option C is wrong because whaling targets high-profile executives (e.g., CEO, CFO) with highly personalized content, not a general user reporting an IT password reset request. Option D is wrong because vishing (voice phishing) uses phone calls or voice messages, not email, to trick victims into revealing sensitive information.

247
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is investigating a potential port scan. Which THREE patterns in NetFlow data would indicate a horizontal port scan?

Select 3 answers
A.Low number of packets per flow
B.Flows with SYN flag set but no subsequent SYN-ACK or RST
C.Multiple connection attempts from the same source IP to the same destination IP on different ports
D.Single source IP, multiple destination ports on one destination IP
E.Single source IP, same destination port, multiple destination IPs
AnswersA, B, E

Port scanners often send single SYN packets per connection attempt, resulting in low packet counts.

Why this answer

A horizontal port scan targets the same port across multiple destination IPs. In NetFlow, each connection attempt typically involves a low number of packets (often just a SYN) because the scanner does not complete the TCP handshake. This pattern of low packet counts per flow is a strong indicator of scanning activity.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between horizontal and vertical scans: the trap is confusing 'same destination port, multiple destination IPs' (horizontal) with 'multiple destination ports, same destination IP' (vertical).

248
Multi-Selecthard

An analyst is analyzing a PCAP from a compromised host. Which THREE of the following are common indicators of exploitation attempts in network traffic?

Select 3 answers
A.Return-oriented programming (ROP) gadget chains in data
B.Presence of NOP sleds (e.g., repeated 0x90 bytes) in payload
C.Regular HTTP GET requests to a news website
D.Large blocks of identical data (e.g., 0x0c0c0c0c) sent to a process
E.DNS requests for common websites like google.com
AnswersA, B, D

ROP gadgets bypass DEP and are exploitation indicators.

Why this answer

Exploitation indicators include shellcode patterns (NOP sleds, ROP gadgets) and heap spray (large blocks of similar data).

249
MCQhard

An analyst uses Wireshark to investigate a suspicious download. The TCP stream shows a GET request for a .exe file from an external IP, followed by a 200 OK response. The response contains the file but the last packet in the stream has a FIN flag set from the server. The client sends an ACK but then immediately sends a RST. What does this behavior suggest?

A.The client application crashed after receiving the file
B.Normal completion of download
C.The server is performing a delayed response
D.The client intentionally terminated the connection to evade detection
AnswerD

RST after receiving data can be used to avoid logging.

Why this answer

The client sending a RST immediately after acknowledging the FIN indicates an abnormal termination. In a normal TCP teardown, the client would send its own FIN to close the connection gracefully. The RST suggests the client application intentionally aborted the connection, which is a common evasion technique to avoid detection by network monitoring tools that may not fully process the RST.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the difference between a graceful TCP teardown (FIN/ACK exchange) and an abrupt reset (RST), and the trap here is assuming that any ACK followed by a RST indicates a crash or normal behavior, rather than recognizing the RST as an intentional evasion tactic.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a crash would likely result in no ACK or a RST without a preceding ACK, but here the client properly ACKs the FIN before sending the RST, indicating intentional action. Option B is wrong because a normal completion involves a graceful four-way handshake (FIN from server, ACK from client, FIN from client, ACK from server), not a RST. Option C is wrong because a delayed response would manifest as a long gap before the server sends data or FIN, not as a client-initiated RST after the transfer completes.

250
Multi-Selectmedium

An analyst is investigating a potential malware infection. Which TWO of the following are indicators of command and control (C2) communication?

Select 2 answers
A.Large file transfers to a peer host
B.SYN scans to multiple hosts
C.Regular HTTP requests to a known update server
D.DNS queries with long, random subdomains
E.Periodic beaconing to an unusual domain
AnswersD, E

Correct. DNS tunneling often uses long subdomains for C2.

Why this answer

Beaconing at regular intervals and DNS queries with encoded subdomains are classic C2 indicators.

251
Multi-Selectmedium

An analyst is investigating a Windows system for signs of malware persistence. Which TWO registry locations are commonly used by malware to achieve automatic startup? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run
B.HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\RunOnce
C.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\RunOnce
D.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run
E.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\AppInit_DLLs
AnswersA, D

User-specific Run key.

Why this answer

A is correct because the HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run registry key is a standard autostart location that launches programs when the current user logs in. Malware frequently writes a value here to achieve persistence without requiring administrative privileges, as it affects only the current user's session.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between Run and RunOnce keys, and the trap here is that candidates mistakenly choose RunOnce options (B or C) thinking they provide persistence, when in fact they only execute a program a single time and then remove the entry.

252
Multi-Selecteasy

A security analyst is assessing the risks to a company's data. The analyst identifies a vulnerability in the web application that could allow SQL injection. Which TWO terms correctly describe the elements of this risk scenario? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.The SQL injection flaw in the application is a threat.
B.The combination of the vulnerability and threat is the exploit.
C.The SQL injection flaw in the application is a vulnerability.
D.The possibility of an attacker exploiting the SQL injection is a vulnerability.
E.The possibility of an attacker exploiting the SQL injection is a threat.
AnswersC, E

A vulnerability is a weakness that can be exploited.

Why this answer

The SQL injection flaw is a vulnerability (weakness). The potential for an attacker to exploit it is a threat. Risk is the likelihood and impact combined.

253
MCQmedium

A security analyst notices repeated failed login attempts to a critical server from a single external IP address over the past 30 minutes. The SIEM has a correlation rule that triggers an alert when the threshold of 10 failed attempts in 5 minutes is exceeded. However, no alert was generated. What is the most likely cause?

A.The SIEM is not receiving logs from the authentication server.
B.The correlation rule uses a sliding window, and the failed attempts occurred over more than 5 minutes.
C.The analyst is monitoring the wrong log source.
D.The SIEM correlation rule requires a minimum of 15 failed attempts.
AnswerB

Threshold not met in any 5-minute window.

Why this answer

The SIEM correlation rule uses a sliding window that triggers an alert only when 10 failed attempts occur within a 5-minute window. Since the analyst observed repeated failed attempts over 30 minutes, the attempts are spread across multiple 5-minute windows, so no single window exceeds the threshold. This is a classic case where the event frequency is high overall but does not meet the rule's temporal aggregation criteria.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between event frequency over a long period versus event rate within a specific time window, trapping candidates who assume any repeated failed login attempts will trigger an alert regardless of the correlation rule's temporal constraints.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because if the SIEM were not receiving logs from the authentication server, the analyst would not have observed any failed login attempts at all, but the analyst explicitly notes repeated failed attempts. Option C is wrong because the analyst is monitoring the correct log source (the critical server's authentication logs) as evidenced by the observed failed attempts; the issue is with the correlation rule's window, not the log source. Option D is wrong because the question states the threshold is 10 failed attempts in 5 minutes, not 15; the rule's threshold is clearly defined and not misconfigured to a higher value.

254
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst observes these syslog messages from an ASA firewall. Based on the messages, which type of activity is most likely occurring?

A.An inside host attempting to access a web server on the outside
B.A denial of service attack flooding the firewall
C.An external host scanning internal hosts for open port 80
D.Successful web traffic from an external client
AnswerC

Multiple connection attempts to the same IP and port indicate a scan.

Why this answer

The syslog messages show multiple connection attempts from the same external source IP to different internal destination IP addresses on port 80, with varying source ports. This pattern is characteristic of a port scan, specifically an external host scanning internal hosts for open port 80. Option A is incorrect because the traffic originates from outside, not inside.

Option B is incorrect because a denial of service attack typically overwhelms the firewall with many packets or targets multiple ports, not a sequential scan. Option D is incorrect because the messages indicate connection attempts, not successful established connections.

255
MCQeasy

A company wants to ensure that employees report security incidents immediately. Which policy element is most important to include?

A.Specify encryption standards for data at rest
B.List acceptable uses of company resources
C.Define mandatory reporting procedures and contact information
D.Require complex passwords for all accounts
AnswerC

Clear procedures encourage timely reporting.

Why this answer

The core purpose of an incident response policy is to ensure timely reporting. Without mandatory reporting procedures and clear contact information, employees may delay or fail to report security incidents, increasing dwell time and potential damage. This directly supports the incident response lifecycle (NIST SP 800-61) by establishing a clear chain of communication for initial detection and reporting.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between preventive/technical controls (encryption, passwords, acceptable use) and procedural/response controls (reporting procedures), leading candidates to confuse a security best practice with the specific policy element needed for incident reporting.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because encryption standards for data at rest are a data protection control, not a reporting mechanism; they do not address the immediate notification of security incidents. Option B is wrong because acceptable use policies govern proper resource usage, not the process for reporting incidents when they occur. Option D is wrong because requiring complex passwords is an authentication strength measure, unrelated to the procedural requirement of reporting security events.

256
Multi-Selecthard

An analyst observes a host making outbound connections to a server on TCP port 443, with traffic patterns showing small packets at regular 60-second intervals. The destination IP is in a country where the company does no business. Which THREE characteristics suggest this is C2 beaconing?

Select 3 answers
A.Small packet sizes at regular 60-second intervals
B.Large file downloads
C.Destination IP in a foreign country with no business presence
D.Use of HTTPS (port 443)
E.DNS queries for internal domains
AnswersA, C, D

Correct. Regular periodic small packets indicate beaconing.

Why this answer

Beaconing often uses HTTPS to evade detection, has periodic regular intervals, and goes to unusual destinations. Small packets at fixed intervals are classic.

257
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. What traffic is the router permitting?

A.Telnet
B.HTTP
C.SSH
D.FTP
AnswerC

Port 22 is used by SSH.

Why this answer

The router is permitting SSH traffic because the access control list (ACL) matches TCP port 22, which is the default port for SSH. SSH provides encrypted remote administration, and the ACL entry permits inbound TCP connections to port 22, allowing secure shell access to the router.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the association between common services and their default port numbers, and the trap here is confusing SSH (port 22) with Telnet (port 23) or assuming HTTP/HTTPS (ports 80/443) are permitted when only port 22 is explicitly allowed.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Telnet uses TCP port 23, not port 22, and the ACL specifically permits port 22. Option B is wrong because HTTP uses TCP port 80, which is not matched by the ACL. Option D is wrong because FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21, neither of which is port 22.

258
MCQmedium

An analyst finds a YARA rule that matches a file containing the string 'MZ' at offset 0 and includes 'CreateRemoteThread'. This rule likely identifies:

A.A benign PDF
B.A network packet capture
C.A malicious executable
D.A Linux ELF binary
AnswerC

PE header and injection API are typical of malware.

Why this answer

'MZ' indicates a PE (Portable Executable) file, and 'CreateRemoteThread' is a common API used for process injection, suggesting malware.

259
MCQmedium

A security analyst reviews logs and finds multiple failed login attempts from a single IP. This is indicative of what type of attack?

A.Man-in-the-middle
B.Phishing
C.DDoS
D.Brute-force
AnswerD

Repeated failed login attempts from one source suggest a brute-force attack.

Why this answer

Multiple failed login attempts from a single IP address are characteristic of a brute-force attack, where an attacker systematically tries many passwords (or usernames) against a single account or service until successful. This pattern is distinct from other attack types because it involves repeated authentication attempts from one source, aiming to guess credentials rather than intercept traffic, deceive users, or overwhelm resources.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between a brute-force attack (single source, many attempts) and a DDoS attack (many sources, high volume of traffic), so the trap here is confusing a single-source authentication attack with a distributed resource exhaustion attack.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a man-in-the-middle attack involves an attacker intercepting and potentially altering communications between two parties (e.g., ARP spoofing or SSL stripping), not repeated login attempts from a single IP. Option B is wrong because phishing relies on social engineering to trick users into revealing credentials or sensitive information via deceptive emails or websites, not on automated, repeated login attempts. Option C is wrong because a DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack aims to overwhelm a target with traffic from multiple sources to disrupt service, not to guess passwords via repeated login failures from a single IP.

260
MCQeasy

A security policy states that user activity logs must be retained for at least one year. What is the primary purpose of this requirement?

A.To support forensic investigations of security incidents
B.To improve system performance through log analysis
C.To comply with regulatory requirements only
D.To enable real-time monitoring of user behavior
AnswerA

Logs provide evidence for post-incident analysis.

Why this answer

The primary purpose of retaining user activity logs for at least one year is to support forensic investigations of security incidents. When a breach or policy violation occurs, security analysts need historical log data to reconstruct the timeline of events, identify the initial compromise vector, and determine the scope of damage. Without long-term retention, critical evidence may be overwritten or purged before an incident is discovered, making root cause analysis impossible.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between the operational benefit (performance tuning) and the security purpose (forensic investigation), leading candidates to choose the compliance option because they confuse a regulatory driver with the underlying security objective.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because log analysis for performance tuning is a secondary operational benefit, not the primary security-driven reason for a one-year retention mandate; performance analysis typically uses shorter-term metrics. Option C is wrong because while regulatory compliance (e.g., PCI DSS, HIPAA) often mandates retention periods, the question asks for the primary purpose, which is forensic investigation — compliance is a driver, not the purpose itself. Option D is wrong because real-time monitoring relies on current log streams, not historical data retained for a year; long-term retention is for post-incident analysis, not immediate alerting.

261
MCQmedium

An attacker uses a tool to scan all IP addresses in a range to identify which hosts are online and what services are running. Which type of reconnaissance is this?

A.Active reconnaissance
B.Denial of Service
C.Passive reconnaissance
D.Social engineering
AnswerA

Active recon includes scanning and probing the target system.

Why this answer

Active reconnaissance involves direct interaction with the target, such as port scanning and ping sweeps.

262
MCQeasy

A network engineer sees the following event in the firewall logs: 'STATUS: intrusion prevented, action: drop, signature: "SQL Injection - SELECT"' on traffic from internal IP to a web server. What type of attack was detected?

A.Command injection
B.Buffer overflow
C.Cross-site scripting
D.SQL injection
AnswerD

The signature name directly matches SQL injection attack.

Why this answer

The log entry explicitly states 'SQL Injection - SELECT' as the signature, which directly identifies the attack as SQL injection. The firewall detected a malicious SQL query (e.g., a SELECT statement with crafted input) in the traffic from an internal IP to a web server and dropped it, preventing the attack. SQL injection exploits improper input validation in web applications to manipulate backend databases.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the ability to distinguish between web application attacks (SQL injection vs. XSS vs. command injection) by focusing on the specific payload or signature keywords in logs, where candidates may confuse 'injection' with command injection or misinterpret the 'SELECT' keyword as a generic query rather than SQL-specific.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because command injection involves executing arbitrary OS commands on the server (e.g., via shell metacharacters like ';' or '|'), not SQL queries; the signature explicitly mentions 'SQL Injection', not command execution. Option B is wrong because a buffer overflow attack exploits memory corruption by overflowing a buffer (e.g., stack or heap) to execute arbitrary code, which is unrelated to SQL query manipulation. Option C is wrong because cross-site scripting (XSS) injects malicious client-side scripts (e.g., JavaScript) into web pages viewed by other users, not SQL statements targeting the database.

263
MCQhard

Which type of attack does this Snort rule detect?

A.Cross-site scripting
B.Buffer overflow
C.SQL injection
D.Directory traversal
AnswerC

UNION SELECT is a SQL injection technique used to combine query results.

Why this answer

The Snort rule detects SQL injection by matching the pattern 'union select' in the HTTP request body. SQL injection attacks manipulate database queries by injecting malicious SQL statements, and the rule's content match for 'union select' is a classic indicator of a UNION-based SQL injection attempt.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the ability to distinguish attack types by their payload signatures, and the trap here is that candidates may confuse SQL injection with cross-site scripting because both involve injecting code into web applications, but the specific payload (SQL keywords vs. HTML/JavaScript) is the key differentiator.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because cross-site scripting (XSS) typically involves injecting JavaScript or HTML tags (e.g., <script>alert('XSS')</script>) into web pages, not SQL keywords like 'union select'. Option B is wrong because buffer overflow attacks exploit memory corruption by sending excessive data to overflow buffers, often using patterns like long strings of 'A's or shellcode, not SQL syntax. Option D is wrong because directory traversal attacks use path manipulation sequences like '../' or '..\' to access restricted files, not SQL commands like 'union select'.

264
MCQmedium

After resolving a security incident, the IR team conducts a lessons learned meeting. Which of the following are typical outputs of this post-incident activity? (Choose three.)

A.Recommendations for policy or procedure changes
B.Creation of new detection signatures for future incidents
C.Immediate containment of the incident
D.Development of metrics to measure response effectiveness
E.Updated incident response plan based on findings
AnswerA, D, E

Lessons learned often result in policy or procedure improvements.

Why this answer

Lessons learned leads to updating the IR plan, identifying metrics to measure performance, and recommending changes to policies.

265
MCQmedium

You are a security analyst at a healthcare organization. The organization uses Cisco Stealthwatch for network visibility and a SIEM for event correlation. You receive an alert that a medical records database server (IP 10.0.3.20) is communicating with an external IP (198.51.100.100) on port 22 (SSH) at 2:00 AM. The database server should have no outbound SSH connections; only remote administration is allowed from a management subnet via VPN. You check Stealthwatch and see that the connection duration is 30 minutes and the volume of data transferred is 500 MB. The database server logs show no local account logins at that time. The firewall logs show that the connection was initiated from the database server. The incident response team has been alerted. What is the most likely scenario and your immediate action?

A.Change the database administrator password immediately
B.Check if the SSH connection was an authorized remote administration session
C.Investigate the database server logs for signs of compromise before taking action
D.Block the external IP 198.51.100.100 on the firewall and isolate the database server
AnswerD

Blocking the IP stops the exfiltration, and isolation prevents further compromise.

Why this answer

The database server is initiating an outbound SSH connection to an unknown external IP at an anomalous time, transferring 500 MB of data—far beyond typical administrative traffic. This behavior, combined with no local account logins and the server's policy prohibiting outbound SSH, strongly indicates compromise (e.g., an attacker using SSH for data exfiltration). Immediate isolation and blocking the external IP are critical to contain the threat and prevent further data loss, aligning with incident response best practices.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the candidate's ability to prioritize containment over investigation in active incident response scenarios, trapping those who choose to investigate first (Option C) instead of immediately isolating the compromised asset.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because changing the database administrator password is a reactive step that does not address the active, ongoing data exfiltration; the attacker may already have persistent access or credentials, and isolation must come first. Option B is wrong because the scenario explicitly states that remote administration is only allowed from a management subnet via VPN, and the connection is from the database server to an external IP at 2:00 AM—this cannot be an authorized session. Option C is wrong because while investigating logs is important, the immediate action must be containment (isolation and blocking) to stop the active data transfer; waiting to investigate first risks further data loss and gives the attacker time to cover tracks.

266
MCQmedium

A Windows event log review shows Event ID 4625 multiple times from a single source IP. What does this event indicate, and which log contains it?

A.Successful logon; System log
B.Service start; System log
C.Failed logon; Security log
D.Account creation; Application log
AnswerC

Event ID 4625 indicates failed logon and is found in the Security event log.

Why this answer

Event ID 4625 is a failed logon attempt, recorded in the Security log.

267
MCQeasy

An analyst sees an alert from the IDS: 'ET TROJAN Possible Zeus Variant Outbound Connection'. What action should the analyst take first?

A.Block the IP address on the firewall
B.Ignore the alert as a false positive
C.Investigate the source host for signs of compromise
D.Reimage the host immediately
AnswerC

Investigation confirms if the alert is valid.

Why this answer

The first priority when an IDS alerts on a possible Zeus variant (a known Trojan) is to investigate the source host to confirm or rule out compromise. Zeus is a credential-stealing Trojan that often establishes outbound C2 (command-and-control) traffic; blindly blocking the IP (A) could disrupt the investigation and may not stop the malware if it uses domain flux or multiple IPs. Reimaging (D) destroys forensic evidence, and ignoring the alert (B) is negligent given the severity of Zeus.

The analyst must perform host-based analysis (e.g., check processes, registry, network connections) to validate the alert before taking containment actions.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the principle that IDS/IPS alerts require verification before action—candidates mistakenly choose to block or reimage immediately, but the correct first step is always to investigate the affected host to confirm the alert and preserve evidence.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because blocking the IP address on the firewall may disrupt the C2 channel but does not address the root cause—the host may still be compromised and could use other IPs or domains (e.g., via DGA). Additionally, blocking without investigation could alert the attacker and destroy forensic evidence. Option B is wrong because ignoring the alert as a false positive is premature; Zeus variants are high-severity threats, and IDS alerts should always be triaged—especially when the signature explicitly names a known Trojan family.

Option D is wrong because reimaging the host immediately destroys volatile data (e.g., memory, running processes, network connections) that are critical for understanding the infection vector and scope of compromise, and it may violate incident response procedures.

268
MCQmedium

Which compliance framework specifically addresses the protection of cardholder data?

A.PCI DSS
B.GDPR
C.ISO 27001
D.HIPAA
AnswerA

PCI DSS is for payment card security.

Why this answer

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is designed to secure credit card transactions and protect cardholder data.

269
MCQeasy

A hospital's network security team has received reports from nurses that the patient record system has become unresponsive. Upon investigation, the IT administrator finds that the database server is experiencing extremely high disk I/O and the system logs show repeated failed login attempts from an internal IP address that belongs to a medical imaging device. The imaging device is known to run an outdated embedded OS that cannot be patched. The device is isolated on its own VLAN, but the VLAN is allowed to communicate with the database server on TCP port 1433 for legitimate purposes. The attack logs show that the database server is being targeted with a dictionary attack using the default 'sa' account. What should the security analyst do first to contain the incident without disrupting critical medical operations?

A.Block the imaging device's IP address at the core firewall.
B.Take the imaging device offline immediately and isolate it from the network.
C.Disable the VLAN allowing communication between the imaging device and the database server.
D.Change the database server's 'sa' account password and implement account lockout policies.
AnswerD

This stops the ongoing dictionary attack without disrupting other services, as it targets the specific compromised account.

Why this answer

The immediate priority is to stop the ongoing dictionary attack against the database server's 'sa' account without disrupting critical medical operations. Changing the 'sa' password and implementing account lockout policies directly mitigates the brute-force attack at the authentication layer, while leaving the imaging device and its VLAN operational so that legitimate medical imaging traffic can continue. This containment step buys time for a more permanent solution, such as replacing or further isolating the vulnerable device.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the principle of 'least disruption' in incident response, and the trap here is that candidates instinctively choose network-level blocks (firewall or VLAN disable) without considering that the attack is credential-based and can be contained at the application layer, preserving critical business functions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because blocking the imaging device's IP at the core firewall would disrupt legitimate communication on TCP port 1433, potentially halting critical medical imaging workflows and violating the requirement to not disrupt operations. Option B is wrong because taking the imaging device offline immediately would stop all legitimate imaging traffic, causing direct disruption to patient care; the device is isolated on its own VLAN and the attack is against the database, not the device itself. Option C is wrong because disabling the entire VLAN would cut off all communication between the imaging device and the database server, including legitimate traffic, which would disrupt medical operations and is not a targeted containment measure.

270
MCQeasy

Which OSI layer is responsible for logical addressing and routing?

A.Application layer
B.Data link layer
C.Network layer
D.Transport layer
AnswerC

Network layer (Layer 3) provides logical addressing and routing.

Why this answer

The Network layer (Layer 3) is responsible for logical addressing (e.g., IPv4/IPv6 addresses) and routing decisions that determine the best path for data packets across interconnected networks. Protocols such as OSPF, BGP, and ICMP operate at this layer to manage routing tables and forward packets between different subnets or autonomous systems.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between Layer 2 (Data link) and Layer 3 (Network) by having candidates confuse MAC addressing (physical) with IP addressing (logical), leading them to incorrectly select the Data link layer for routing functions.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the Application layer (Layer 7) provides network services to end-user applications (e.g., HTTP, FTP, SMTP) and does not handle logical addressing or routing. Option B is wrong because the Data link layer (Layer 2) is responsible for physical addressing (MAC addresses) and frame delivery on the same local network segment, not for logical addressing or routing across networks. Option D is wrong because the Transport layer (Layer 4) manages end-to-end communication, segmentation, and flow control (e.g., TCP/UDP port numbers), but does not perform logical addressing or routing.

271
Matchingmedium

Match each log severity level to its description (syslog).

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

System is unusable

Immediate action required

Critical conditions

Error conditions

Warning conditions

Why these pairings

Syslog severity levels are from 0 (Emergency) to 7 (Debug). Emergency, Alert, Critical, Error, Warning, Notice, Informational, and Debug are standard levels. Common confusions involve swapping levels with similar descriptions.

272
MCQeasy

A financial firm uses Sysmon for endpoint monitoring on all Windows servers. One server, 'FIN-SRV-01', which hosts a critical database application, is exhibiting high CPU usage and unusual outbound network connections to a known malicious IP on port 8080. The Sysmon logs show Event ID 1 (Process Create) with a suspicious process 'rundll32.exe' spawned from 'winword.exe', and Event ID 3 (Network Connect) showing the connection to the malicious IP. The antivirus has not detected any threats. The analyst must decide the next immediate action to contain the threat while preserving evidence.

A.Reboot the server to clear any suspicious processes from memory.
B.Immediately format the server's hard drive and reinstall the OS.
C.Restore the server from the most recent backup taken yesterday.
D.Isolate the server by disconnecting its network cable and taking a memory dump for further analysis.
AnswerD

Preserves evidence and stops malicious activity.

Why this answer

Isolating the server by disconnecting its network cable immediately stops the outbound communication to the malicious IP on port 8080, containing the threat without destroying volatile evidence. Taking a memory dump preserves the running processes, including the suspicious rundll32.exe spawned from winword.exe, which is critical for forensic analysis of the attack chain. This approach aligns with incident response best practices: contain first, then analyze, while avoiding actions that could destroy evidence or alert the attacker.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the principle that containment must preserve evidence, and the trap here is that candidates may choose a destructive action like rebooting or formatting, mistakenly thinking it removes the threat, when in fact it destroys the forensic data needed to understand the attack.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because rebooting the server would clear the memory, destroying volatile evidence such as the running rundll32.exe process and any network connections, and would not remove the underlying persistence mechanism. Option B is wrong because immediately formatting the hard drive destroys all evidence, including logs, artifacts, and the root cause, making forensic analysis impossible and potentially violating legal or compliance requirements. Option C is wrong because restoring from a backup taken yesterday could reintroduce the same vulnerability or malware if the infection occurred before the backup, and it does not address the immediate need to stop the active outbound connection to the malicious IP.

273
MCQmedium

An analyst observes a series of DNS queries for subdomains like 'ZGVzdGluYXRpb24= .malicious.com' where the subdomain part appears base64-encoded. The volume of DNS traffic from a single host is unusually high. Which exfiltration technique is most likely in use?

A.FTP exfiltration
B.DNS tunnelling
C.HTTP POST exfiltration
D.Steganography in images
AnswerB

Encoded data in DNS subdomain queries is a hallmark of DNS tunnelling/exfiltration.

Why this answer

DNS exfiltration encodes data in subdomain queries to bypass traditional monitoring.

274
MCQmedium

An organization's security policy states that all external connections must be authenticated using multi-factor authentication. Which type of policy is this?

A.Password Policy
B.Data Classification Policy
C.Remote Access Policy
D.Acceptable Use Policy
AnswerC

Remote access policy defines secure remote connection requirements.

Why this answer

A Remote Access Policy specifically governs how external users or devices connect to an internal network, and requiring multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all external connections is a standard control within this policy. This policy defines authentication methods, encryption standards (e.g., IPsec, TLS), and access controls for remote access, directly addressing the security policy's mandate for MFA on external connections.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between a Remote Access Policy (which mandates technical controls like MFA for external connections) and an Acceptable Use Policy (which governs user behavior), causing candidates to confuse the two when the question mentions 'authentication'.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Password Policy focuses on password complexity, length, expiration, and reuse rules, not on requiring multiple authentication factors (e.g., something you know plus something you have) for external connections. Option B is wrong because a Data Classification Policy defines how data is categorized (e.g., public, confidential, restricted) and handled based on sensitivity, not the authentication mechanisms for external network access. Option D is wrong because an Acceptable Use Policy outlines what users are allowed to do with organizational resources (e.g., browsing restrictions, software installation), not the technical authentication requirements for external connections.

275
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are functions of a SIEM system in security monitoring?

Select 2 answers
A.Packet capture and analysis
B.Correlation rule engine
C.Firewall rule management
D.Log aggregation and normalization
E.Vulnerability scanning
AnswersB, D

SIEM correlates events to detect incidents.

Why this answer

SIEM aggregates logs from various sources and applies correlation rules to detect threats. Packet capture and port scanning are not core SIEM functions.

276
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is investigating a suspected data exfiltration incident. Which TWO of the following indicators are most consistent with exfiltration over DNS?

Select 2 answers
A.DNS responses with unusually large TXT record sizes
B.Large number of ICMP echo requests to external hosts
C.Consistent traffic to a known C2 server on port 443
D.Multiple failed HTTP POST requests to a file-sharing site
E.High volume of DNS queries to an unusual domain with random-looking subdomains
AnswersA, E

Oversized TXT records can be used to deliver exfiltrated data.

Why this answer

DNS exfiltration involves encoding data in subdomain queries, often with high entropy, and can use TXT records to retrieve data.

277
MCQhard

During a security incident, a SOC analyst finds that the SIEM is not receiving logs from a critical firewall due to a network issue. The analyst needs to ensure that no alerts are missed during the outage. What should the analyst do?

A.Restart the SIEM collector service.
B.Manually monitor the firewall console.
C.Configure the firewall to queue logs locally and forward when connectivity is restored.
D.Ignore the gap because logs are not critical.
AnswerC

Queuing ensures logs are not lost and can be sent later, preserving visibility.

Why this answer

Configuring the firewall to queue logs locally ensures that log data generated during the network outage is stored in a local buffer (often using syslog buffering or a local log file) and automatically forwarded once connectivity to the SIEM is restored. This prevents any gap in security monitoring and ensures that all alerts are captured for analysis, even during transient network failures.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that restarting services or manual monitoring can compensate for a network outage, when the correct approach is to leverage local log queuing or buffering on the source device to prevent data loss.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because restarting the SIEM collector service does not address the root cause—the network outage preventing log transmission—and would not recover logs that were never sent. Option B is wrong because manually monitoring the firewall console is not scalable, does not provide centralized alerting, and would require constant human attention, which is impractical during an outage and does not guarantee that all alerts are captured. Option D is wrong because ignoring the log gap violates fundamental security monitoring principles; logs from critical firewalls are essential for incident detection, forensics, and compliance, and any gap could allow a security event to go undetected.

278
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions are examples of false positive reduction techniques? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Changing signature action from drop to alert
B.Removing the sensor
C.Adding destination IP to whitelist
D.Disabling all signatures
E.Increasing the signature threshold
AnswersC, E

Whitelists prevent alerts for known safe traffic.

Why this answer

Adding a destination IP to a whitelist (option C) reduces false positives by excluding known benign traffic from triggering alerts. Increasing the signature threshold (option E) reduces false positives by requiring a higher number of matches or a larger event count before an alert is generated, filtering out low-level noise.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between reducing false positives (by tuning or whitelisting) versus disabling detection entirely, so candidates mistakenly choose options like disabling signatures or removing sensors as valid reduction techniques.

279
MCQmedium

A SIEM correlation rule triggers when it detects more than 10 failed login attempts from the same source IP within 1 minute. Which type of attack is this rule designed to detect?

A.Port scan
B.DDoS attack
C.Privilege escalation
D.Brute-force attack
AnswerD

Multiple failed logins from the same IP is indicative of a brute-force attempt.

Why this answer

A brute-force attack involves repeated login attempts using many password guesses against a single account or a set of accounts. The SIEM rule correlates more than 10 failed login attempts from the same source IP within 1 minute, which is a classic signature of an automated password-guessing tool. This threshold-based detection is specifically designed to identify brute-force activity, not other attack types.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between a brute-force attack (repeated login attempts) and a DDoS attack (traffic volume), so candidates may confuse the two because both involve high rates of activity from a single source.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a port scan typically sends connection requests (SYN packets) to multiple ports on a target, not repeated login attempts; it would be detected by a rule counting connections to different ports, not failed logins. Option B is wrong because a DDoS attack aims to overwhelm a target with traffic volume, not to authenticate; it would be detected by a rule monitoring bandwidth or packet rates, not failed login attempts. Option C is wrong because privilege escalation involves an attacker gaining higher-level access after initial compromise, often using a single exploit or token manipulation, not repeated failed logins; it would be detected by rules monitoring changes in user permissions or unusual process execution.

280
MCQmedium

An organization has implemented a new password policy requiring 12-character passwords with complexity. Which risk treatment option is this an example of?

A.Risk mitigation
B.Risk transfer
C.Risk acceptance
D.Risk avoidance
AnswerA

Implementing password policy reduces the likelihood of unauthorized access.

Why this answer

Implementing controls to reduce risk is mitigation.

281
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A firewall log shows denied TCP traffic from an internal host to an external IP on consecutive ports. What type of activity is indicated?

A.Port scanning
B.Worm propagation
C.Denial of service
D.Data exfiltration
AnswerA

The pattern of denied connections to consecutive ports indicates a scan.

Why this answer

The firewall log shows denied TCP traffic from an internal host to an external IP on consecutive ports. This sequential pattern of connection attempts to multiple ports on the same target is a classic indicator of a port scan, where an attacker probes for open ports to identify potential services to exploit. The firewall's deny action confirms the traffic was blocked, but the behavior itself is characteristic of reconnaissance activity, specifically a TCP connect scan.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between reconnaissance (port scanning) and exploitation (worm propagation) by presenting a log of denied traffic to consecutive ports, leading candidates to confuse the scanning phase with the actual attack phase, such as worm propagation or DoS.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Worm propagation) is wrong because worm propagation typically involves self-replicating code that spreads by exploiting vulnerabilities, often generating traffic to random or specific ports based on the exploit, not a sequential scan of consecutive ports. Option C (Denial of service) is wrong because a DoS attack aims to overwhelm a target with traffic to disrupt service, usually flooding a single port or using high-volume traffic, not probing multiple consecutive ports in a low-and-slow manner. Option D (Data exfiltration) is wrong because data exfiltration involves sending sensitive data out of the network, which would use established connections on a single port (e.g., HTTP/HTTPS, DNS, or FTP), not a series of denied connection attempts to consecutive ports.

282
MCQmedium

A SIEM correlation rule is configured to alert when there are 10 failed login attempts from the same source IP within 1 minute. An analyst receives an alert for source IP 10.0.0.5. Which type of attack is most likely being detected?

A.Brute force attack
B.Man-in-the-middle attack
C.DDoS attack
D.SQL injection attempt
AnswerA

The pattern of many failed logins from one IP is characteristic of brute force.

Why this answer

Multiple failed logins from the same source IP in a short time indicates a brute force attack.

283
MCQmedium

An analyst is investigating a host that is suspected of being compromised. She runs the 'netstat -anb' command and sees an established connection to an unknown IP address on port 4444. The associated process is svchost.exe. Which conclusion is MOST appropriate?

A.The host is definitely compromised because svchost.exe should not make outbound connections.
B.The host may be infected with malware that is injecting code into svchost.exe.
C.The analyst should immediately kill the svchost.exe process.
D.The connection is legitimate because svchost.exe is a critical Windows process.
AnswerB

Malware often injects into svchost.exe to hide its network activity.

Why this answer

Svchost.exe is a legitimate Windows service host process, but it is a common target for malware that uses process injection or DLL sideloading to hide malicious network activity. The established connection to an unknown IP on port 4444 (often associated with Metasploit or backdoor listeners) indicates the process may be hosting injected code, not that svchost.exe itself is inherently malicious. The analyst should investigate further before concluding compromise or taking action.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the misconception that svchost.exe never makes outbound connections, when in fact many Windows services (e.g., BITS, Windows Update) do; the trap is assuming any outbound connection from a critical process is automatically legitimate or automatically malicious without considering the port and context.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because svchost.exe can make legitimate outbound connections for Windows services like DNS, DHCP, or Windows Update, so an outbound connection alone does not prove compromise. Option C is wrong because killing svchost.exe could crash critical system services and disrupt the investigation; the analyst should first capture memory and network artifacts to identify the injected code. Option D is wrong because while svchost.exe is a critical Windows process, an established connection to an unknown IP on port 4444 is highly suspicious and should not be dismissed as legitimate without further analysis.

284
MCQmedium

You are a security administrator for a company with 500 employees. The company uses a SIEM with basic correlation rules. Recently, the HR department reported that several employees received phishing emails with a link to a fake login page. The emails bypassed the spam filter. You want to detect if any employees clicked the link. You have access to web proxy logs, DNS logs, and endpoint antivirus logs. The phishing link is 'http://malicious-login.com/verify'. Which action should you take first to identify affected users?

A.Run a vulnerability scan on all employee workstations.
B.Search DNS logs for queries to 'malicious-login.com'.
C.Search endpoint logs for any malware detections.
D.Query the web proxy logs for HTTP requests containing the URL.
AnswerD

Web proxy logs record full URLs accessed by users.

Why this answer

The web proxy logs record all HTTP requests made by clients, including the full URL path. Querying for 'http://malicious-login.com/verify' directly shows which employees clicked the link, because the proxy captures the exact destination and timestamp of each request. This is the most direct and reliable evidence of user interaction with the phishing link.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between DNS resolution and actual HTTP request completion, tricking candidates into thinking DNS logs are sufficient to prove a user clicked a link, when in fact only web proxy logs confirm the full URL was requested.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a vulnerability scan identifies system weaknesses, not user actions like clicking a link; it would not reveal whether an employee visited the phishing URL. Option B is wrong because DNS logs only show that a client resolved the domain 'malicious-login.com', not that the user actually made an HTTP request to the specific '/verify' path; a DNS query could occur from background processes or pre-fetching without user interaction. Option C is wrong because endpoint antivirus logs only record malware detections; the phishing page itself is not malware, and no malicious file would be detected unless the user downloaded and executed a payload.

285
MCQeasy

An analyst examines a Windows endpoint and finds a suspicious executable in the Startup folder. Which registry key is commonly used for persistence via legitimate startup programs and is often abused by malware?

A.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\System\CurrentControlSet\Services\
B.HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run
C.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Policies\Explorer\Run
D.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows NT\CurrentVersion\Image File Execution Options
AnswerB

Correct. Run keys are common for both legitimate and malicious startup.

Why this answer

The Run and RunOnce keys in both HKLM and HKCU cause programs to execute at user logon. They are commonly abused for persistence.

286
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps to investigate a security incident using a SIEM into the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

The correct sequence for investigating a security incident using a SIEM is to first identify the incident, then collect relevant data, analyze the data to understand the scope and impact, contain the threat to prevent further damage, and finally document all findings and actions. This order ensures a systematic and effective response, minimizing oversights and maximizing evidence preservation.

287
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are indicators of a network scan?

Select 2 answers
A.Single connection to a well-known port
B.ICMP echo requests to multiple hosts
C.DNS queries for many domains
D.Multiple connection attempts from same source to different ports on same destination
E.Large number of SYN packets to a single port from multiple sources
AnswersB, D

Correct. This is a ping sweep to identify live hosts.

Why this answer

ICMP echo requests (ping sweeps) sent to multiple hosts are a classic reconnaissance technique used to identify live hosts on a network. This type of scan maps the network topology before launching further attacks, and it is a clear indicator of network scanning activity.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between a network scan (reconnaissance from a single source) and a denial-of-service attack (flood from multiple sources), so candidates may confuse option E (SYN flood) with a scan.

288
Multi-Selecthard

An analyst is using Zeek to monitor network traffic. Which THREE types of logs can Zeek generate to provide visibility into application-layer activity?

Select 3 answers
A.conn.log
B.smtp.log
C.weird.log
D.dns.log
E.http.log
AnswersB, D, E

SMTP logs capture email traffic.

Why this answer

Zeek generates application-layer logs by parsing protocol-specific traffic. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is an application-layer protocol, and Zeek's smtp.log captures email transactions, including sender, recipient, and message IDs, providing visibility into email-based activity.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between network-layer logs (conn.log) and application-layer logs (http.log, dns.log, smtp.log), and candidates may incorrectly assume conn.log covers application-layer activity because it includes port numbers.

289
MCQhard

An organization must retain security logs for at least one year due to regulatory compliance. However, their SIEM storage is limited. Which strategy best balances compliance and storage?

A.Archive logs to compressed files after 30 days and retain for one year.
B.Delete logs after 30 days and rely on local log rotation.
C.Only store alerts and drop raw logs.
D.Increase SIEM storage without archiving.
AnswerA

Archiving preserves logs for compliance while reducing storage consumption.

Why this answer

Archiving logs to compressed files after 30 days preserves data for compliance while saving storage space. Option B deletes logs too early; Option C loses raw data; Option D is expensive.

290
Multi-Selectmedium

A security analyst is tuning a SIEM to detect lateral movement. Which THREE log sources would provide the most useful data for this purpose? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Windows Event Logs showing network connections and process creation.
B.Web server logs for external requests.
C.DNS logs for external domain queries.
D.System logs showing authentication events across hosts.
E.Firewall logs showing connections between internal hosts.
AnswersA, D, E

Process creation and network connections help identify malware spreading.

Why this answer

Lateral movement often involves internal network connections, authentication events, and endpoint logs. Firewall logs show internal connections, system logs show authentication, and Windows Event Logs track process creation and network connections.

291
MCQmedium

In Security Onion, an analyst runs 'squert' and sees a high number of alerts from a single source IP across multiple destination ports. What is the most likely cause?

A.Denial of service
B.SQL injection
C.Port scan
D.Phishing attack
AnswerC

A port scanner probes multiple ports to discover services.

Why this answer

Squert is a web interface for Sguil in Security Onion that visualizes alert data from the intrusion detection system (IDS). A high number of alerts from a single source IP targeting multiple destination ports is a classic signature of a port scan, where the attacker probes a range of ports on one or more targets to discover open services. The IDS triggers multiple alerts because each probe (e.g., SYN packets to different ports) matches a detection rule, such as those for TCP SYN scans.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between a port scan and a denial of service attack, where candidates mistakenly associate 'high number of alerts' with DoS, but the key differentiator is the single source IP targeting multiple destination ports versus overwhelming a single service.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a denial of service (DoS) attack typically floods a single target with traffic to overwhelm it, resulting in alerts from many source IPs or a high volume to a single port, not a single source IP across multiple destination ports. Option B is wrong because SQL injection attacks target web application parameters (e.g., HTTP GET/POST fields) and would generate alerts related to SQL syntax in payloads, not a pattern of probes across many ports. Option D is wrong because phishing attacks involve social engineering via email or malicious links, which would trigger alerts on email headers or URL patterns, not a single IP scanning multiple ports.

292
MCQmedium

A Windows Event Log shows Event ID 4625 multiple times from the same source IP address. What type of activity does this indicate?

A.Failed logon attempts indicating a possible brute-force attack
B.Successful logon after multiple attempts
C.Credential validation by a domain controller
D.A user account was created
AnswerA

4625 is failed logon; multiple from same source is suspicious.

Why this answer

Event ID 4625 indicates a failed logon attempt. Multiple failures from the same source suggest a brute-force attack.

293
MCQmedium

A security analyst is investigating an alert from a host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) that detected a file modification in the system32 directory. Which log source should the analyst check first to understand the process that made the change?

A.Firewall logs.
B.Windows Event Logs.
C.NetFlow data.
D.DNS logs.
AnswerB

Windows Event Logs record process creation events that can identify the process modifying files.

Why this answer

Windows Event Logs (specifically Security Event ID 4656 or 4663) record detailed information about file operations, including the process that initiated the modification. Since the HIDS detected a file change in system32, the Event Logs provide the process name, user account, and timestamp needed to trace the source of the modification.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between host-based logs (Windows Event Logs) and network-based logs (firewall, NetFlow, DNS), expecting candidates to recognize that only host logs can reveal the process responsible for a local file change.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because firewall logs track network traffic (source/destination IPs, ports, protocols) and do not record local file system operations on a host. Option C is wrong because NetFlow data captures network flow metadata (IP conversations, byte counts) and has no visibility into local file modifications. Option D is wrong because DNS logs record domain name resolution queries and responses, not process-level file changes on the endpoint.

294
MCQmedium

During an incident response on a Linux server, an analyst runs 'ps aux' and notices a process named 'cryptominer' with high CPU usage. The process PPID is 1. Which tool would best help the analyst examine the parent-child relationship and find how the process was started?

A.pstree
B.netstat
C.lsof
D.crontab -l
AnswerA

pstree displays the process tree including PPID relationships.

Why this answer

The pstree command shows the process hierarchy in a tree format, clearly displaying parent-child relationships. This helps trace how the malicious process was launched.

295
MCQmedium

A network analyst is examining a PCAP file and applies the Wireshark display filter 'http.request'. The results show several POST requests to '/login.php' with parameters containing 'username=admin&password=secret'. What type of attack is indicated?

A.Cross-site scripting (XSS)
B.Brute force attack
C.SQL injection
D.Credential theft via phishing
AnswerD

Plaintext credentials transmitted over HTTP indicate likely credential theft.

Why this answer

Plaintext credentials in HTTP POST bodies indicate credential theft, possibly via phishing or a compromised web form.

296
MCQmedium

A security analyst is reviewing baseline network traffic and notices that the normal HTTP traffic volume has increased by 300% over the past hour. The increase is from a single client IP to a single external web server. What does this indicate?

A.Possible data exfiltration via HTTP
B.A denial-of-service (DoS) attack against the web server
C.A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack from botnets
D.Normal fluctuations during peak hours
AnswerA

Large upload of data to a single external server is suspicious.

Why this answer

A 300% increase in HTTP traffic from a single client IP to a single external web server is anomalous and strongly suggests data exfiltration. Attackers often use HTTP (port 80) to tunnel stolen data out of a network because it is typically allowed through firewalls and proxies without inspection. The fact that the traffic is from one IP to one server indicates a targeted, non-distributed activity, which aligns with exfiltration rather than a volumetric attack.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between a single-source anomaly (exfiltration or DoS) and a multi-source anomaly (DDoS), and the trap here is that candidates confuse a traffic volume increase with a DoS attack, ignoring the single-source indicator that points to exfiltration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a denial-of-service (DoS) attack would typically involve a flood of traffic from a single source to overwhelm the server, but the scenario describes a 300% increase in HTTP traffic volume, which is more consistent with sustained data transfer than a flood designed to cause resource exhaustion. Option C is wrong because a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack involves multiple source IPs (botnets) generating traffic, but the question explicitly states the increase is from a single client IP, ruling out a distributed attack. Option D is wrong because a 300% increase from a single IP to a single external server is not normal peak-hour fluctuation; normal traffic patterns show gradual changes across many clients, not a sudden spike from one source.

297
MCQeasy

Which Wireshark display filter would an analyst use to view only HTTP packets that contain the word 'password' in the packet payload?

A.http contains "password"
B.http.request.uri contains "password"
C.data contains "password"
D.tcp.port == 80 and frame contains "password"
AnswerA

The 'http contains' filter searches all HTTP fields and payload for the string.

Why this answer

The `http contains "password"` display filter instructs Wireshark to match any HTTP packet whose payload includes the literal string 'password'. The `contains` operator performs a case-sensitive substring search across the entire HTTP protocol data (headers and body), which is exactly what an analyst needs to locate credentials or sensitive terms in HTTP traffic.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between protocol-specific fields (like `http.request.uri`) and the generic protocol tree (`http`), tricking candidates into choosing a filter that is too narrow (B) or too broad (D) instead of the precise `http contains` filter that searches the entire HTTP payload.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because `http.request.uri contains "password"` only searches the URI portion of HTTP request packets, not the full payload (e.g., POST body or response data), so it would miss packets where 'password' appears in form data or server responses. Option C is wrong because `data contains "password"` filters on the raw data layer (typically application data not parsed by a dissector), but HTTP payloads are already parsed by the HTTP dissector and stored in the `http` protocol tree, not in the generic `data` field; thus this filter would rarely match HTTP traffic. Option D is wrong because `tcp.port == 80 and frame contains "password"` uses the `frame` layer, which searches the entire raw frame (including Ethernet, IP, and TCP headers) for the string 'password', which is inefficient and may produce false positives from header fields, and it does not restrict the search to HTTP protocol data specifically.

298
MCQhard

To protect sensitive data at rest, a company uses AES-256 encryption. This primarily ensures which security goal?

A.Confidentiality
B.Availability
C.Integrity
D.Non-repudiation
AnswerA

Encryption protects data from unauthorized disclosure.

Why this answer

AES-256 encryption transforms plaintext data into ciphertext using a 256-bit symmetric key, rendering it unreadable without the correct decryption key. This directly ensures confidentiality by preventing unauthorized access to the stored data, even if the storage medium is compromised.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between encryption (confidentiality) and hashing (integrity), so the trap here is confusing AES-256's role in protecting data from unauthorized reading with the ability to detect tampering, which would require a separate integrity mechanism.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because availability refers to ensuring data is accessible when needed, typically addressed by redundancy, backups, and fault tolerance, not encryption. Option C is wrong because integrity ensures data has not been tampered with, usually provided by hashing algorithms (e.g., SHA-256) or HMAC, not encryption alone. Option D is wrong because non-repudiation prevents a party from denying an action, achieved through digital signatures and public key infrastructure (PKI), not symmetric encryption like AES-256.

299
MCQhard

A company's security policy requires that all remote access connections be authenticated using a certificate. Which type of control is this?

A.Corrective
B.Preventive
C.Detective
D.Deterrent
AnswerB

Preventive controls block unauthorized access, as does certificate authentication.

Why this answer

Requiring a certificate for remote access authentication enforces a specific identity verification method before granting access. This is a preventive control because it stops unauthorized connections from being established by ensuring only devices with a valid certificate can initiate the session, directly blocking access before any data exchange occurs.

Exam trap

Cisco often tests the distinction between preventive and deterrent controls, where candidates mistakenly choose deterrent because they think a certificate requirement 'discourages' attackers, but the correct classification is preventive because it technically enforces authentication and blocks access without it.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because corrective controls (e.g., restoring from backup after a breach) are applied after an incident to mitigate damage, not before access is granted. Option C is wrong because detective controls (e.g., logging failed authentication attempts) identify ongoing or past violations but do not block the initial connection. Option D is wrong because deterrent controls (e.g., warning banners) discourage malicious behavior through fear of consequences but do not technically enforce authentication like a certificate requirement does.

300
MCQhard

An analyst reviewing network alerts notices a rule triggered for 'ET SCAN NMAP -sU scan' based on traffic to a Linux server. The packet capture shows multiple UDP packets to various ports, and for closed ports, the server responds with ICMP Destination Unreachable (Port Unreachable). Which type of scan is being performed, and how should the analyst classify this alert?

A.TCP SYN scan; true positive
B.UDP scan; true positive
C.UDP scan; false positive
D.TCP connect scan; true negative
AnswerB

The UDP scan is correctly detected by the alert, so it is a true positive.

Why this answer

UDP scans send UDP packets; closed ports respond with ICMP Port Unreachable. This matches the alert signature, indicating a true positive for a UDP scan.

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