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AWS Certified Solutions Architect Professional SAP-C02 (SAP-C02) — Questions 9761050

1660 questions total · 23pages · All types, answers revealed

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976
MCQmedium

A company uses AWS Systems Manager Patch Manager to patch Amazon EC2 instances. After a patching operation, some instances fail to report their compliance status. What is the MOST efficient way to identify the cause of the failure?

A.Run a script on each instance to list missing patches.
B.Use Systems Manager Inventory to query patch compliance details and identify non-compliant instances.
C.Use the Patch Manager dashboard in the AWS Management Console.
D.Check the EC2 console for each instance's patch status.
AnswerB

Inventory provides detailed compliance data that can be queried.

Why this answer

Use Systems Manager Inventory to query patch compliance details and identify non-compliant instances. This is the most efficient approach because Systems Manager Inventory provides a centralized view of patch compliance across all managed instances, allowing you to quickly identify which instances are non-compliant and investigate the reasons for patch failures. Option A is inefficient because it requires running scripts manually on each instance.

Option C is incorrect because the Patch Manager dashboard (if available) may not provide detailed failure reasons. Option D is inefficient and does not directly address compliance failure causes.

977
MCQeasy

A company is using AWS CloudTrail to log all API activity. The security team wants to be alerted when an IAM user creates a new access key. What is the simplest way to achieve this?

A.Configure an S3 event notification on the CloudTrail log bucket to trigger a Lambda function.
B.Set up a CloudTrail trail with log file validation enabled.
C.Use AWS Config to create a rule that checks for access keys.
D.Create an Amazon EventBridge rule that matches the 'CreateAccessKey' API call and sends an SNS notification.
AnswerD

EventBridge can filter CloudTrail events and trigger actions.

Why this answer

Amazon EventBridge can be configured with a rule that matches the 'CreateAccessKey' API call from CloudTrail and sends an SNS notification to alert the security team. Option A is incorrect because S3 event notifications are triggered by object-level operations (e.g., object created/deleted) in the S3 bucket, not by API calls logged by CloudTrail. Option B is incorrect because enabling log file validation on a CloudTrail trail only ensures the integrity of log files, it does not generate alerts.

Option C is incorrect because AWS Config rules evaluate the configuration state of AWS resources (e.g., whether an IAM user has a key older than 90 days), not real-time API calls.

978
MCQmedium

A company has a centralized logging account and multiple application accounts. All VPC Flow Logs are sent to a central S3 bucket in the logging account. The security team needs to analyze the logs using Amazon Athena. The team must ensure queries are cost-effective and return results quickly for recent logs. Which configuration should be used?

A.Convert the logs to Parquet format using AWS Glue and store them in the same bucket.
B.Use S3 lifecycle policies to transition logs to S3 Glacier after 7 days and query with Athena.
C.Partition the S3 bucket by date (e.g., year/month/day) and use Athena partition projection.
D.Use Athena with federated query to scan logs directly from the application accounts.
AnswerC

Correct: Partitioning reduces data scanned.

Why this answer

Partitioning the S3 bucket by date (e.g., year/month/day) and using Athena partition projection allows Athena to automatically discover and prune partitions without manual metadata management. This reduces the amount of data scanned per query, lowering costs and improving query speed for recent logs. Partition projection is serverless and eliminates the need for Glue crawlers or Hive-style partition loading, making it ideal for time-series data like VPC Flow Logs.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse Athena’s ability to query compressed formats (like Parquet) with the need for partitioning, or mistakenly believe that S3 Glacier can be queried by Athena, when in fact Athena requires objects to be in S3 Standard, Intelligent-Tiering, or Glacier Instant Retrieval (not Glacier or Glacier Deep Archive).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because converting logs to Parquet format with AWS Glue improves compression and query performance, but it does not address the need to quickly query recent logs without scanning all historical data; partitioning is still required for cost-effective pruning. Option B is wrong because transitioning logs to S3 Glacier after 7 days makes them inaccessible to Athena, as Athena cannot query data stored in Glacier or Glacier Deep Archive storage classes. Option D is wrong because Athena federated query is designed to query data in external databases (e.g., RDS, DynamoDB) or on-premises sources, not to scan logs directly from S3 buckets in other accounts; cross-account S3 access is handled via bucket policies, not federated query.

979
MCQmedium

A company is migrating its on-premises data warehouse to Amazon Redshift. The data warehouse is currently running on a single large server with 10 TB of data. The company wants to minimize downtime and ensure data consistency. Which AWS service should the architect use to perform the migration?

A.AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS)
B.Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration
C.AWS Glue
D.AWS Snowball Edge
AnswerA

AWS DMS supports continuous replication from on-premises sources to Redshift, minimizing downtime.

Why this answer

AWS Database Migration Service (DMS) can migrate data from on-premises databases to Amazon Redshift with minimal downtime. AWS Snowball is for offline transfer and would cause more downtime. AWS Glue is for ETL, not direct migration.

S3 Transfer Acceleration is for S3 uploads.

980
MCQmedium

A company runs a critical web application on EC2 instances behind an ALB. The application stores session data in an ElastiCache Redis cluster. During a recent outage, the Redis cluster failed and all active sessions were lost, causing users to be logged out. Which solution would provide the HIGHEST availability for session data?

A.Enable Cluster Mode and deploy Redis in Multi-AZ with replicas.
B.Deploy a single-node Redis cluster with automatic backups.
C.Disable Redis persistence to improve performance.
D.Use a larger Redis instance type to handle more connections.
AnswerA

Multi-AZ with replicas provides automatic failover and high availability.

Why this answer

Enabling Cluster Mode and deploying Redis in Multi-AZ with replicas provides automatic failover and data replication across Availability Zones, ensuring high availability for session data. Option B is wrong because a single-node cluster with backups does not provide automatic failover; backups only help with recovery, not availability. Option C is wrong because disabling persistence reduces durability and does not improve availability.

Option D is wrong because increasing instance size does not provide failover or redundancy.

981
MCQhard

A company uses AWS Organizations and has shared a subnet from the VPC shown in the exhibit using AWS Resource Access Manager (RAM). A workload account launches an EC2 instance in the shared subnet. The instance needs to communicate with an RDS database in a different private subnet within the same VPC. What additional configuration is required?

A.The workload account must create a route table entry in the shared VPC to allow communication.
B.The workload account must configure security groups for the EC2 instance to allow traffic to the RDS database's security group.
C.Establish a VPC peering connection between the workload account's VPC and the shared VPC.
D.Attach an AWS Transit Gateway to both VPCs to enable communication.
AnswerB

Security groups are managed by the account that owns the resource.

Why this answer

When an EC2 instance is launched into a shared subnet via AWS RAM, the workload account can manage its own security groups, but the underlying VPC and its route tables remain under the management of the VPC owner. Since the instance and the RDS database are in the same VPC, no inter-VPC connectivity (like VPC peering or Transit Gateway) is needed. The only missing piece is that the workload account must configure its EC2 instance's security group to allow outbound traffic to the RDS database's security group, and the RDS database's security group must allow inbound traffic from the EC2 instance's security group, both of which are standard security group rules within the same VPC.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume that because the subnet is shared across accounts, the resources are in different VPCs, leading them to incorrectly select VPC peering or Transit Gateway options, when in fact the resources are in the same VPC and only need proper security group configuration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because route table entries are managed by the VPC owner, not by the workload account, and within the same VPC the default route table already enables communication between subnets; no additional route entry is required. Option C is wrong because a VPC peering connection is used to connect two different VPCs, but the EC2 instance and the RDS database reside in the same VPC (the shared VPC), so peering is unnecessary and would add complexity. Option D is wrong because an AWS Transit Gateway is designed to interconnect multiple VPCs or on-premises networks, but here both resources are already in the same VPC, making Transit Gateway redundant and incorrect.

982
MCQmedium

A company is migrating a legacy on-premises .NET application to AWS. The application uses a SQL Server database. The company wants to minimize code changes and reduce licensing costs. Which migration strategy should the company choose?

A.Rebuild the application using AWS Lambda and Amazon RDS for MySQL.
B.Rehost the application on Amazon EC2 with SQL Server or use Amazon RDS for SQL Server with license-included pricing.
C.Replatform the application to use Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL.
D.Refactor the application to use Amazon DynamoDB.
AnswerB

Minimal code changes and reduces licensing costs via license-included option.

Why this answer

The correct answer because rehosting (lift-and-shift) to Amazon EC2 with SQL Server or Amazon RDS for SQL Server with license-included pricing minimizes code changes and reduces licensing costs. The company can migrate the .NET application as-is without significant modifications. Option A is wrong because rebuilding with AWS Lambda and RDS for MySQL would require a complete re-architecture and code changes, increasing cost and complexity.

Option C is wrong because replatforming to Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL would require code changes to switch database engines and may not reduce licensing costs. Option D is wrong because refactoring to Amazon DynamoDB would require significant application changes and is not suitable for a SQL Server-based .NET application.

983
MCQhard

A multinational company is implementing AWS Organizations to manage multiple accounts across business units. The security team requires that all IAM users in member accounts must use a specific password policy and must have MFA enabled. Which combination of actions should the company take to enforce these requirements?

A.Use an SCP to enforce a specific password policy and require MFA across all accounts.
B.Use AWS Config rules to automatically set the password policy and enable MFA for all users.
C.Use an SCP to deny changes to the password policy and to deny deactivation of MFA devices. Use AWS Config rules to detect non-compliant users.
D.Use AWS CloudTrail to monitor password policy changes and MFA status, and trigger an automatic remediation.
AnswerC

SCPs can block actions that modify the password policy or deactivate MFA, and AWS Config can detect non-compliant users.

Why this answer

SCPs can deny changes to the password policy and deny deactivation of MFA devices, preventing users from weakening security controls. AWS Config rules then detect non-compliant users (e.g., those without MFA or with a non-compliant password policy), allowing the security team to trigger remediation or alerts. SCPs alone cannot enforce a specific password policy or enable MFA; they only block actions, so Config rules are needed for detection and enforcement.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume SCPs can enforce configurations like password policies or MFA, but SCPs only deny or allow actions, not set or enable features, so detection and remediation require AWS Config or similar services.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SCPs cannot enforce a specific password policy or require MFA; they can only deny or allow actions, not set configurations or enable features. Option B is wrong because AWS Config rules can detect non-compliance but cannot automatically set a password policy or enable MFA for users; they only evaluate and report. Option D is wrong because AWS CloudTrail only logs API calls and does not provide enforcement or remediation; automatic remediation would require additional services like AWS Config with auto-remediation or Lambda, not CloudTrail alone.

984
MCQhard

A company uses AWS Lambda functions within a VPC to process data from an Amazon SQS queue. The Lambda functions frequently timeout with the error 'Task timed out after 3.00 seconds'. The functions perform database operations on an RDS instance in the same VPC. The average database query takes 2 seconds. What is the MOST likely cause of the timeouts?

A.The Lambda function does not have the required VPC permissions to access the RDS instance.
B.The VPC does not have a NAT gateway, so the Lambda function cannot poll the SQS queue.
C.The Lambda function timeout should be increased to accommodate database query time.
D.The RDS instance is under-provisioned and causing slow queries.
AnswerB

Lambda in a VPC needs a NAT gateway to access public endpoints like SQS; without it, SQS polling fails, causing timeouts.

Why this answer

Lambda functions in a VPC require a NAT gateway or VPC endpoints to access the SQS API, which is outside the VPC. Without a NAT gateway, the function cannot poll the SQS queue, causing timeouts. Option A is wrong because Lambda can access RDS within the same VPC without special permissions.

Option C is wrong because the timeout is due to SQS polling failure, not the database query time. Option D is wrong because the RDS instance is under-provisioned would cause slow queries, but the error is a timeout after exactly 3 seconds, indicating the function is waiting on something else (SQS polling).

Exam trap

The timeout occurs because the Lambda function cannot reach the SQS API from within the VPC without a NAT gateway or VPC endpoint. The database query time is irrelevant here.

985
MCQhard

A company is migrating a monolithic application to microservices on Amazon ECS. The application uses a legacy database that does not support distributed transactions. The team wants to ensure data consistency across services. Which solution is BEST for achieving eventual consistency with minimal code changes?

A.Use Amazon DynamoDB transactions across all services.
B.Modify the legacy database to support two-phase commit.
C.Use Amazon SQS to queue all database writes and process them sequentially.
D.Implement the Saga pattern using AWS Step Functions.
AnswerD

Step Functions can orchestrate a saga, handling failures and compensating transactions.

Why this answer

Implementing the Saga pattern with AWS Step Functions allows orchestrating distributed transactions across services, managing rollbacks and compensating actions. This is the best approach for eventual consistency with minimal code changes.

986
MCQmedium

A multinational company is using AWS Organizations with multiple accounts. The security team requires that all S3 buckets across the organization block public access. What is the MOST efficient way to enforce this requirement?

A.Use AWS Config rules to detect and remediate public buckets in each account.
B.Create a CloudFormation StackSet to deploy bucket policies in every account.
C.Use IAM roles to restrict users from modifying bucket public access settings.
D.Apply an SCP to the root OU that denies s3:PutBucketPublicAccessBlock actions.
AnswerD

SCPs prevent the action across all accounts in the OU.

Why this answer

An SCP applied to the root OU is the most efficient way to enforce a blanket denial of public access to S3 buckets across all accounts in AWS Organizations. It prevents any account, including root users, from performing the s3:PutBucketPublicAccessBlock action, ensuring compliance without per-account configuration or remediation.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse preventive controls (SCPs) with detective/reactive controls (AWS Config) or assume IAM roles can restrict all users, ignoring that SCPs apply to the root user and all principals in the account.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS Config rules are reactive and require per-account setup; they detect and remediate after a violation occurs, not prevent it, and incur ongoing costs. Option B is wrong because CloudFormation StackSets deploy resources but cannot prevent users from modifying bucket policies; they also require per-account execution and maintenance. Option C is wrong because IAM roles cannot restrict root users or actions taken via the S3 console that bypass IAM; they also fail to prevent cross-account access or direct API calls from other services.

987
MCQmedium

A company is migrating a critical application to AWS and needs to ensure high availability across two Availability Zones. The application runs on EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The database is an on-premises SQL Server that will be migrated later. Which architecture provides high availability for the application tier during the migration?

A.Deploy EC2 instances in two AZs behind an ALB with cross-zone load balancing enabled.
B.Deploy EC2 instances in a single AZ with an Auto Scaling group.
C.Deploy EC2 instances in two AZs behind a Network Load Balancer (NLB).
D.Use Amazon Route 53 weighted routing to distribute traffic to instances in two AZs.
AnswerA

ALB with instances in two AZs provides high availability.

Why this answer

ALB distributes traffic to instances in two AZs. Option B is wrong because a single AZ is not highly available. Option C is wrong because a Network Load Balancer is for TCP/UDP, not HTTP.

Option D is wrong because Route 53 alone does not provide load balancing.

988
MCQhard

A media company runs a video transcoding pipeline on AWS using Amazon EC2 Spot Instances. The pipeline uses a custom AMI with pre-installed software. The operations team notices that the latest AMI is not always used when new instances launch, causing inconsistent transcoding results. What should the team do to ensure that all new Spot Instances use the latest AMI?

A.Create a new launch configuration each time a new AMI is released and associate it with the Auto Scaling group.
B.Use AWS CloudFormation to update the stack with the new AMI ID and then manually trigger a rolling update.
C.Manually update the AMI ID in the EC2 Auto Scaling group configuration every time a new AMI is released.
D.Use an EC2 Auto Scaling group with a launch template that dynamically references the latest AMI ID from AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store.
AnswerD

This allows automatic retrieval of the latest AMI ID at launch time.

Why this answer

Using an EC2 Auto Scaling group with a launch template that dynamically references the latest AMI ID from AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store ensures that new instances automatically use the most recent AMI without manual intervention. Option A is incorrect because launch configurations are immutable and cannot reference dynamic parameters like SSM Parameter Store; they require creating a new launch configuration each time the AMI changes. Option B is incorrect because CloudFormation updates require manual initiation and do not automatically track the latest AMI.

Option C is incorrect because manually updating the AMI ID in the Auto Scaling group configuration is error-prone and not automated.

989
MCQmedium

A company is migrating a legacy application to AWS using the 7 Rs migration strategy. The application is a monolithic Java application running on a single on-premises server with a MySQL database. The company wants to reduce operational overhead and improve scalability. The development team has already containerized the application and tested it locally. The company wants to run the containerized application on AWS without managing the underlying infrastructure. Which AWS service should the company use to deploy the containerized application?

A.Amazon ECS with AWS Fargate launch type
B.Amazon EKS with managed node groups
C.Amazon EC2 with Docker installed
D.Amazon Lightsail containers
AnswerA

Amazon ECS with Fargate is serverless, managing no underlying infrastructure.

Why this answer

Amazon ECS with AWS Fargate launch type is a serverless compute engine for containers, eliminating infrastructure management. Option B (EKS with managed node groups) still requires managing the node groups at the EC2 level. Option C (EC2 with Docker) requires managing EC2 instances.

Option D (Lightsail containers) is not as scalable or integrated with AWS services as ECS with Fargate.

990
Multi-Selectmedium

A company stores sensitive data in an S3 bucket. The security team requires that all data be encrypted at rest and that the encryption keys be rotated automatically every year. The company also needs to audit who accessed the key and when. Which THREE services should the solutions architect use to meet these requirements?

Select 3 answers
A.S3 server-side encryption with AWS KMS (SSE-KMS).
B.AWS CloudTrail to log KMS Decrypt and GenerateDataKey events.
C.AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) to control access to the keys.
D.AWS Key Management Service (KMS) with automatic key rotation enabled.
E.S3 server-side encryption with S3-managed keys (SSE-S3).
AnswersA, B, D

SSE-KMS uses KMS keys for encryption, enabling rotation and auditing.

Why this answer

Options A, B, and D are correct. AWS KMS (SSE-KMS) provides encryption with customer-managed keys that can be automatically rotated annually (option A and D). AWS CloudTrail logs KMS API calls such as Decrypt and GenerateDataKey, enabling auditing of key usage (option B).

Option C is incorrect because IAM controls access to resources, not encryption keys directly; key access is managed via KMS key policies. Option E is incorrect because SSE-S3 uses S3-managed keys that do not allow customer-controlled rotation or auditing.

991
MCQhard

An IAM policy is attached to an IAM user. The user reports being unable to download objects from the bucket 'example-bucket' when connecting from their office IP address 203.0.113.5. What is the most likely reason?

A.The user's IP address is not in the allowed range.
B.The condition key 'aws:SourceIp' is invalid.
C.The resource ARN is incorrect.
D.The s3:GetObject action is misspelled.
AnswerA

The condition restricts access to 192.0.2.0/24.

Why this answer

The IAM policy likely includes a condition that restricts access to a specific IP range (e.g., 192.0.2.0/24), and the user's office IP 203.0.113.5 is not within that allowed range. Option B is incorrect because 'aws:SourceIp' is a valid condition key in IAM policies. Option C is incorrect because the resource ARN (arn:aws:s3:::example-bucket/*) is correctly specified.

Option D is incorrect because the s3:GetObject action is spelled correctly; the issue is the condition, not the action name.

992
MCQeasy

A company wants to design a cost-effective solution to store infrequently accessed log files for 7 years. The logs are generated daily and must be available for retrieval within 24 hours. Which Amazon S3 storage class should be used?

A.S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access
B.S3 Intelligent-Tiering
C.S3 Glacier Deep Archive
D.S3 Standard
AnswerC

Lowest cost with 12-24 hour retrieval.

Why this answer

Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive is the most cost-effective storage class for infrequently accessed data that must be retained for 7 years, with retrieval times of up to 12 hours (within the 24-hour requirement). It offers the lowest storage cost among S3 classes, making it ideal for long-term archival of log files that are rarely accessed.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse retrieval time requirements with access frequency, assuming that any 'Infrequent Access' class (like S3 One Zone-IA or S3 Standard-IA) is the best choice for archival, when in fact S3 Glacier Deep Archive is designed specifically for long-term, cost-effective archival with retrieval times that still meet the 24-hour window.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access is designed for data that is accessed infrequently but requires rapid retrieval (milliseconds), and it stores data in a single Availability Zone, which does not provide the durability needed for a 7-year retention period; its cost is higher than Glacier Deep Archive for long-term archival. Option B is wrong because S3 Intelligent-Tiering automatically moves data between access tiers based on usage patterns, but it is not optimized for purely archival data that will almost never be accessed; it incurs monitoring and automation fees that make it less cost-effective than Glacier Deep Archive for data that will be stored for 7 years with infrequent access. Option D is wrong because S3 Standard is designed for frequently accessed data with millisecond retrieval and is the most expensive storage class, making it unsuitable for cost-effective long-term archival of infrequently accessed logs.

993
MCQeasy

A company is designing a solution to capture changes from an Amazon RDS database and stream them to a data lake. Which AWS service should be used to capture database changes in real time?

A.AWS Glue with streaming ETL
B.AWS Lambda with database polling
C.Amazon Kinesis Data Streams with a custom producer
D.AWS Database Migration Service (DMS) with change data capture (CDC)
AnswerD

DMS can capture ongoing changes from RDS.

Why this answer

AWS DMS with change data capture (CDC) is the correct service because it is specifically designed to capture ongoing changes from source databases (including Amazon RDS) in near real time and replicate them to targets like Amazon S3 (data lake). DMS reads the database transaction logs (e.g., MySQL binlog, PostgreSQL WAL) to capture inserts, updates, and deletes without requiring application-level polling or custom code, making it the most appropriate managed solution for streaming database changes to a data lake.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse AWS DMS with other streaming services like Kinesis or Glue, not realizing that DMS is the only AWS service that natively captures database transaction log changes without requiring custom code or polling.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS Glue with streaming ETL is designed for processing streaming data from sources like Amazon Kinesis or Kafka, not for capturing changes directly from an RDS database; it lacks native CDC capabilities to read database transaction logs. Option B is wrong because AWS Lambda with database polling requires custom code to repeatedly query the database for changes, which introduces latency, increased load on the database, and is not a real-time streaming solution; it also does not capture deletes or changes efficiently without additional logic. Option C is wrong because Amazon Kinesis Data Streams with a custom producer requires you to build and manage your own application to poll the RDS database and push changes to Kinesis, adding operational overhead and complexity; it does not provide native CDC integration with database transaction logs.

994
MCQeasy

A company uses AWS CodePipeline to deploy a static website to an S3 bucket. The pipeline includes a source stage from GitHub and a deploy stage that syncs the S3 bucket. Recently, the deployment has been failing intermittently with the error 'Access Denied' when the pipeline tries to write to the S3 bucket. The bucket policy allows the pipeline's service role to perform s3:PutObject. The service role has the following IAM policy attached: { 'Effect': 'Allow', 'Action': 's3:PutObject', 'Resource': 'arn:aws:s3:::my-bucket/*' }. What is the MOST likely cause of the failure?

A.The S3 bucket has default encryption enabled.
B.The pipeline is in a VPC without an S3 VPC endpoint.
C.The pipeline's source stage is not configured with Git credentials.
D.The bucket has a bucket policy that denies the pipeline's service role.
AnswerD

An explicit deny in the bucket policy overrides the IAM allow.

Why this answer

The bucket policy can explicitly deny access even if the IAM role attached to the pipeline allows s3:PutObject. Since both policies are evaluated, an explicit deny in the bucket policy overrides any allow. Option A is incorrect because default encryption does not affect IAM permissions.

Option B is incorrect because the pipeline uses the service role, not Git credentials; that would affect source stage authentication, not S3 write access. Option C is incorrect because S3 VPC endpoints are for private connectivity, not required for public S3 access via the internet, and an Access Denied error points to a permissions issue, not a network issue.

995
MCQhard

A company is designing a new microservices platform on AWS. The platform consists of 50 microservices, each running in its own Amazon ECS service on AWS Fargate. The services communicate via REST APIs. The company wants to implement a service mesh to handle traffic routing, observability, and security (mTLS). They also need to meet compliance requirements that all traffic between services must be encrypted and logged. The solution must be fully managed and reduce operational overhead. After implementing the service mesh, the operations team notices that latency between services has increased by 20%, and some services are experiencing connection timeouts. The team has enabled mTLS and distributed tracing. Which course of action should the team take to diagnose and resolve the latency issues?

A.Check the Envoy proxy resource limits in the App Mesh configuration and increase the CPU and memory allocated to the sidecar proxies.
B.Use AWS Cloud Map for service discovery instead of App Mesh.
C.Replace the service mesh with VPC peering and security groups, and use direct HTTP calls.
D.Convert the microservices to AWS Lambda functions and use API Gateway.
AnswerA

Under-provisioned sidecars can cause latency and timeouts.

Why this answer

AWS App Mesh can inject Envoy sidecar proxies, and increasing the proxy resources can reduce latency caused by insufficient CPU or memory. Option B (using AWS Cloud Map for service discovery) does not address the latency issues; Cloud Map is a service discovery mechanism, not a replacement for the service mesh. Option C (replacing the service mesh with VPC peering and security groups) removes the service mesh benefits like mTLS and observability, and is not a direct solution to proxy resource constraints.

Option D (converting to Lambda and API Gateway) is a major redesign and not necessary for diagnosing the latency problem.

996
Multi-Selecthard

A company runs a web application on Amazon ECS with Fargate launch type. The application is behind an Application Load Balancer. During traffic spikes, the application becomes slow. The team suspects that the ECS service is not scaling fast enough. Which TWO actions should the team take to improve the scalability? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Decrease the number of subnets in the VPC.
B.Decrease the scale-in and scale-out cooldown periods.
C.Decrease the ALB idle timeout.
D.Increase the maximum number of tasks in the ECS service.
E.Increase the target value for the scaling metric (e.g., CPU utilization).
AnswersB, D

Decreasing cooldown periods allows more frequent scaling actions, helping the service respond faster to traffic spikes; correct.

Why this answer

Options B and D are correct. Decreasing cooldown periods (option B) allows scaling to happen more frequently, reducing lag during traffic spikes. Increasing the maximum number of tasks (option D) ensures the service can scale out to a higher capacity to handle increased load.

Option A is incorrect because decreasing subnets does not improve scalability and reduces fault tolerance. Option C is incorrect because decreasing the ALB idle timeout does not directly affect scaling behavior; it only affects connection persistence. Option E is incorrect because increasing the target value for the scaling metric (e.g., CPU utilization) makes the scaling threshold harder to reach, reducing scaling aggressiveness.

The correct action would be to decrease the target value.

Exam trap

A common pitfall is assuming that increasing the target value for a scaling metric improves scalability. In fact, it makes scaling less aggressive, worsening the problem. The correct action is to decrease the target value.

997
MCQeasy

A company uses an Application Load Balancer (ALB) to distribute traffic to an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances. The operations team notices that the ALB is returning a high number of 504 errors during peak hours. Which configuration change is MOST likely to reduce the 504 errors?

A.Enable cross-zone load balancing on the ALB.
B.Increase the idle timeout setting on the ALB.
C.Increase the health check interval for the target group.
D.Increase the deregistration delay on the target group.
AnswerB

Higher idle timeout allows longer-lived connections to complete without timing out.

Why this answer

Increasing the idle timeout setting on the ALB can help prevent premature connection closures that cause 504 errors. Option A is wrong because increasing the deregistration delay only affects instance draining, not idle timeouts. Option C is wrong because enabling cross-zone load balancing does not address timeout issues.

Option D is wrong because increasing the health check interval does not affect idle timeouts.

998
MCQhard

An organization has deployed the above CloudFormation template. They want to ensure that all uploads to the bucket are encrypted in transit. However, users are still able to upload objects over unencrypted HTTP. What is the MOST likely reason?

A.The condition operator should be 'BoolIfExists' instead of 'Bool' to handle cases where the 'aws:SecureTransport' key is not present in the request.
B.The 'aws:SecureTransport' condition key is misspelled; it should be 'aws:SecureTransport' with a capital T.
C.The bucket policy is missing an 'Allow' statement for HTTPS requests.
D.The resource ARN should be 'arn:aws:s3:::my-unique-bucket-123' without the '/*' to cover PutObject actions.
AnswerA

Using 'BoolIfExists' ensures the policy is evaluated even if the condition key is missing, while 'Bool' may not evaluate correctly in all scenarios.

Why this answer

The condition key 'aws:SecureTransport' may not be present in all requests (e.g., anonymous requests or certain SDK versions). Using 'Bool' will cause the policy to evaluate to false when the key is missing, allowing unencrypted uploads. 'BoolIfExists' returns true if the key does not exist, effectively blocking requests without the key, which enforces encryption in transit more robustly.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume 'Bool' works identically to 'BoolIfExists' for condition keys that may be absent, leading them to overlook the subtle difference in how missing keys are handled in IAM policy evaluation.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'aws:SecureTransport' is correctly spelled with a capital 'T' in the condition key; the spelling in the template is accurate. Option C is wrong because the bucket policy already has an explicit 'Deny' effect for requests without 'aws:SecureTransport', so adding an 'Allow' statement for HTTPS is unnecessary and would not fix the issue of HTTP uploads being allowed. Option D is wrong because the resource ARN 'arn:aws:s3:::my-unique-bucket-123/*' is correct for covering object-level actions like PutObject; omitting '/*' would only cover bucket-level actions, not object uploads.

999
MCQeasy

A company is migrating a virtual machine from on-premises to AWS. The VM runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The company wants to minimize changes to the VM. Which AWS service should the company use to migrate the VM?

A.AWS Server Migration Service
B.AWS Database Migration Service
C.AWS CloudEndure Migration
D.AWS Application Migration Service
AnswerA

AWS Server Migration Service (SMS) is an agentless service that migrates VMs from on-premises to AWS with minimal changes, making it the correct choice.

Why this answer

AWS Server Migration Service (SMS) is an agentless service that specializes in migrating virtual machines from on-premises environments to AWS with minimal changes to the VM configuration. Option B is incorrect because AWS Database Migration Service (DMS) is designed for database migrations, not entire VMs. Option C is incorrect because AWS CloudEndure Migration is a legacy service that has been superseded by AWS Application Migration Service.

Option D is incorrect because although AWS Application Migration Service (MGN) can also migrate VMs, it typically requires installing an agent on the source VM, which introduces changes; SMS minimizes changes by using agentless replication.

1000
Multi-Selecteasy

A company is using AWS Organizations with multiple accounts. The security team wants to enforce that all newly created S3 buckets have encryption enabled. Which TWO approaches can achieve this? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Use an IAM permissions boundary for all IAM roles.
B.Use S3 Block Public Access at the account level.
C.Use AWS CloudFormation Guard to validate templates before deployment.
D.Enable AWS Config managed rule s3-bucket-server-side-encryption-enabled.
E.Use a service control policy (SCP) to deny s3:CreateBucket if the bucket does not have encryption settings.
AnswersC, E

CloudFormation Guard can enforce encryption settings in templates.

Why this answer

AWS CloudFormation Guard (cfn-guard) allows you to define rules that validate CloudFormation templates before deployment. You can create a rule that checks whether the `BucketEncryption` property is set on every `AWS::S3::Bucket` resource, preventing the creation of unencrypted buckets at the template level. This enforces encryption as a policy-as-code gate in the CI/CD pipeline.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse detective controls (like AWS Config rules) with preventive controls (like SCPs or CloudFormation Guard), leading them to select Option D even though it only reports non-compliance after the fact, not preventing the creation of unencrypted buckets.

1001
MCQeasy

A company is designing a new solution to store and analyze large amounts of log data from multiple sources. The logs must be retained for 90 days for recent analysis, and then archived to a more cost-effective storage class for an additional 5 years. The solution must support SQL-based queries. Which combination of AWS services should the company use?

A.Amazon Redshift with data sharing to retain logs for 5 years.
B.Amazon S3 with lifecycle policies to transition objects to S3 Glacier Deep Archive after 90 days, and Amazon Athena for SQL queries.
C.Amazon OpenSearch Service with UltraWarm storage to archive logs after 90 days.
D.Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL with automated backups to retain logs for 5 years.
AnswerB

S3 is cost-effective, lifecycle policies automate archival, Athena allows SQL queries.

Why this answer

Amazon S3 with lifecycle policies can automatically transition log objects from S3 Standard to S3 Glacier Deep Archive after 90 days, meeting the 90-day retention for recent analysis and the 5-year archival requirement at the lowest cost. Amazon Athena allows SQL-based queries directly on the log data stored in S3, without needing to load data into a separate database, making it a serverless and cost-effective solution for ad-hoc analysis.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Amazon OpenSearch Service's UltraWarm storage as a long-term archival solution, but it is actually a warm tier for less-frequently accessed data within the same cluster, not a cost-effective cold archive like S3 Glacier Deep Archive, and it does not support SQL queries natively.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Amazon Redshift is a data warehouse optimized for structured, frequently queried data, not for storing large volumes of raw log data over long periods; using data sharing does not provide a cost-effective archival tier like S3 Glacier Deep Archive, and retaining logs for 5 years in Redshift would be prohibitively expensive. Option C is wrong because Amazon OpenSearch Service with UltraWarm storage is designed for near-real-time search and analytics on log data, but it does not support SQL-based queries natively (it uses its own query DSL) and UltraWarm is not a long-term archival tier; it also lacks the cost efficiency of S3 Glacier Deep Archive for 5-year retention. Option D is wrong because Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL is a relational database service intended for transactional workloads, not for storing and analyzing large volumes of log data; automated backups are for point-in-time recovery, not for long-term archival, and storing logs for 5 years in RDS would incur high storage costs and performance issues.

1002
MCQeasy

A company has a centralized logging account that receives VPC Flow Logs from all accounts in the organization. The logs are stored in an S3 bucket. The security team needs to allow a third-party SIEM tool to read these logs from the S3 bucket, but only from a specific VPCE (VPC Endpoint). Which policy should be applied to the S3 bucket?

A.Allow s3:GetObject to the SIEM's IAM role.
B.Use an S3 access point with a network origin policy.
C.Deny s3:GetObject unless aws:SourceVpce matches the VPCE ID.
D.Allow s3:GetObject to the SIEM's AWS account ID.
AnswerC

This condition explicitly restricts access to requests originating from the specific VPCE.

Why this answer

Using a bucket policy with a condition key like `aws:SourceVpce` allows you to restrict access to only requests originating from a specific VPC Endpoint (VPCE). This ensures that even if the SIEM tool has valid credentials, it can only read the VPC Flow Logs from the S3 bucket when the traffic comes through the designated VPCE, meeting the security team's requirement precisely.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse `aws:SourceVpc` (which restricts to an entire VPC) with `aws:SourceVpce` (which restricts to a specific VPC Endpoint), leading them to incorrectly choose Option B (S3 access point) or a generic allow policy, missing the precise VPCE-level control required.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because simply allowing `s3:GetObject` to the SIEM's IAM role does not restrict access to a specific VPCE; the SIEM could use that role from any network location, violating the requirement. Option B is wrong because an S3 access point with a network origin policy can restrict access based on the VPC or internet, but it does not support a condition key like `aws:SourceVpce` to enforce a specific VPCE ID; it only allows blocking or allowing traffic from an entire VPC, not a single endpoint. Option D is wrong because allowing `s3:GetObject` to the SIEM's AWS account ID would grant access to any principal in that account, regardless of network path, and does not enforce the VPCE restriction.

1003
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. A company uses this IAM policy to allow an automation script to manage Amazon EBS snapshots. The script runs on an EC2 instance with this attached IAM role. The script is failing when trying to create a snapshot from a volume and tag it. The error message indicates an authorization failure. What is the root cause?

A.The policy does not grant permission to call ec2:DescribeSnapshots, which is required before creating a snapshot.
B.The policy lacks a condition key to restrict the snapshot creation to specific volumes.
C.The policy does not grant permission to call ec2:CreateSnapshot on the volume resource.
D.The policy does not include ec2:CreateTags for the volume, only for snapshots.
AnswerC

CreateSnapshot requires permission on the volume (e.g., arn:aws:ec2:region:account:volume/*) and optionally on the snapshot.

Why this answer

The error occurs because the IAM policy grants `ec2:CreateSnapshot` only on the `arn:aws:ec2:*::snapshot/*` resource, but the API call to create a snapshot also requires permission on the source volume resource (`arn:aws:ec2:*:*:volume/*`). Without that volume-level permission, the request fails with an authorization error, even though the snapshot-level permission is present.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume only the target snapshot resource needs permission, but AWS requires explicit authorization on the source volume resource for the `ec2:CreateSnapshot` action.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because `ec2:DescribeSnapshots` is a read-only action and is not required before creating a snapshot; the failure is due to missing resource-level permissions, not a missing read action. Option B is wrong because the policy does not include any condition keys, but the absence of a condition key is not the root cause—the core issue is the missing volume resource in the `ec2:CreateSnapshot` action. Option D is wrong because the policy does include `ec2:CreateTags` on the snapshot resource (`arn:aws:ec2:*::snapshot/*`), and the error is about creating the snapshot itself, not tagging it.

1004
Multi-Selecteasy

A company is migrating a legacy application to AWS. The application requires a relational database with high availability and automated backups. Which TWO AWS services should the company consider? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Amazon Redshift
B.Amazon RDS with Multi-AZ deployment
C.Amazon ElastiCache
D.Amazon DynamoDB
E.Amazon Aurora
AnswersB, E

Provides high availability and automated backups.

Why this answer

Options B and E are correct. Option B: Amazon RDS with Multi-AZ deployment provides high availability through automatic failover to a standby instance and automated backups. Option E: Amazon Aurora is a relational database engine compatible with MySQL and PostgreSQL, offering built-in high availability, automated backups, and fault tolerance.

Option A is incorrect because Amazon Redshift is a data warehouse, not a relational database for transactional workloads. Option C is incorrect because Amazon ElastiCache is an in-memory caching service, not a relational database. Option D is incorrect because Amazon DynamoDB is a NoSQL database, not relational.

1005
MCQeasy

A company is planning to migrate a Microsoft SQL Server database to Amazon RDS for SQL Server. They want to automate the migration process and minimize manual effort. Which AWS service should they use?

A.AWS CloudEndure Migration
B.AWS DataSync
C.AWS Database Migration Service (DMS)
D.AWS Schema Conversion Tool (SCT)
AnswerC

DMS supports homogeneous and heterogeneous migrations.

Why this answer

AWS DMS can migrate SQL Server to RDS with minimal downtime. Option A is wrong because CloudEndure Migration is for server migration. Option B is wrong because DataSync is for file data.

Option D is wrong because Schema Conversion Tool is for schema conversion.

1006
MCQmedium

An organization uses AWS Organizations with multiple accounts. The security team wants to ensure that all IAM users in all accounts must use multi-factor authentication (MFA) to access the AWS Management Console. What is the most efficient way to enforce this?

A.Use AWS Config rules to detect users without MFA and send alerts.
B.Use AWS CloudTrail to monitor console logins and trigger an automatic remediation.
C.Create an IAM policy in each account that denies access without MFA.
D.Apply a service control policy (SCP) that denies all actions if the user does not have MFA enabled.
AnswerD

SCPs enforce centrally across all accounts in the organization.

Why this answer

A Service Control Policy (SCP) applied at the root or organizational unit (OU) level in AWS Organizations can centrally deny all AWS API actions for any principal that does not have a multi-factor authentication (MFA) device associated with the session. This enforces MFA across all member accounts without requiring individual account-level IAM policy changes, making it the most efficient and scalable solution for the security team's requirement.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose Option C (per-account IAM policy) because they think SCPs cannot affect IAM users directly, but SCPs apply to all principals in an account, including IAM users, and are the only way to enforce a blanket MFA requirement across all accounts from a single point.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS Config rules can only detect non-compliant users and send alerts; they cannot proactively deny access or enforce MFA at the time of login. Option B is wrong because CloudTrail is a logging service that records API calls after they occur; it cannot intercept or block a console login session in real time, and automatic remediation would be reactive, not preventive. Option C is wrong because creating an IAM policy in each account requires manual per-account configuration and does not scale efficiently across many accounts; additionally, IAM policies in individual accounts cannot be enforced from a central point and may be overridden by local administrators.

1007
MCQeasy

Refer to the exhibit. An AWS Lambda function logs the error above. The function uses the AWS SDK to call an Amazon DynamoDB table. What is the MOST likely cause?

A.The Lambda function timed out while waiting for a response.
B.The DynamoDB table specified in the function does not exist.
C.The Lambda function does not have permission to access DynamoDB.
D.The DynamoDB table is throttling requests.
AnswerB

ResourceNotFoundException means the resource is not found.

Why this answer

A ResourceNotFoundException indicates that the specified DynamoDB table does not exist or has been deleted. Option A is incorrect because a Lambda timeout would result in a timeout error, not a ResourceNotFoundException. Option C is incorrect because insufficient permissions to access DynamoDB would produce an AccessDeniedException.

Option D is incorrect because throttling by DynamoDB would cause a ProvisionedThroughputExceededException.

1008
Multi-Selecteasy

A company is designing a multi-account strategy for development, testing, and production environments. They want to ensure that developers can deploy resources in development and testing accounts but not in production. Which TWO methods should the company use to achieve this? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Enable AWS CloudTrail to monitor and alert on production changes.
B.Apply an SCP to the production OU that denies all actions to non-approved IAM roles.
C.Use resource tags to identify development and production resources and enforce policies via SCPs.
D.Create IAM roles in production with no permissions, and allow only a central CI/CD role to assume a privileged role.
E.Use AWS Config rules to detect unauthorized deployments in production.
AnswersB, D

SCPs can effectively block all actions from developers in production.

Why this answer

An SCP attached to the production OU can explicitly deny all actions to any IAM role that is not on an approved list, effectively preventing developers from deploying resources in production. This leverages AWS Organizations to enforce a preventive control at the account level, which cannot be overridden by IAM policies within the account.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse detective controls (CloudTrail, Config) with preventive controls (SCPs, IAM policies), leading them to select options that only alert or audit rather than block the action entirely.

1009
MCQeasy

A company wants to use AWS Single Sign-On (SSO) to manage access to multiple AWS accounts. The company has an existing identity source in an on-premises Active Directory. Which integration method should the company use?

A.Use SAML 2.0 federation between AWS SSO and the on-premises AD.
B.Use AWS IAM Identity Center with an external identity provider that supports SCIM.
C.Set up an AWS Managed Microsoft AD directory and sync with the on-premises AD using AD Connector.
D.Configure AWS SSO to directly connect to the on-premises Active Directory using LDAP.
AnswerA

Correct. AWS IAM Identity Center supports SAML 2.0 federation with an external identity provider, such as ADFS, which can use the on-prem Active Directory as the identity source.

Why this answer

AWS IAM Identity Center (formerly AWS SSO) can integrate with an on-premises Active Directory using SAML 2.0 federation. This involves configuring a SAML 2.0 identity provider (such as Active Directory Federation Services) to federate with IAM Identity Center. Option C is incorrect because it describes combining AWS Managed Microsoft AD and AD Connector, which is not a valid integration method.

The correct approaches are either using AD Connector alone or AWS Managed Microsoft AD with a trust, not both together. Other options are not viable direct integration methods.

Exam trap

The trap is that many candidates think they need to set up AWS Managed Microsoft AD or AD Connector, but the simplest integration is to use SAML 2.0 federation with an existing on-premises AD.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because SAML 2.0 federation between AWS SSO and on-premises AD would require an external identity provider (IdP) like ADFS to broker the trust, not a direct integration; AWS SSO cannot directly federate with on-premises AD via SAML without an IdP. Option B is wrong because IAM Identity Center with an external IdP that supports SCIM is used for provisioning users and groups from an external IdP (e.g., Azure AD, Okta), not for connecting to an on-premises AD directly; SCIM does not handle authentication against on-premises AD. Option D is wrong because AWS SSO does not support direct LDAP connections to on-premises Active Directory; it requires a directory service such as AWS Managed Microsoft AD or AD Connector to bridge the connection.

1010
Multi-Selecthard

A company is designing a new data processing pipeline that uses AWS Glue to run ETL jobs. The pipeline must process data from multiple sources with varying schemas and load the results into Amazon Redshift. The data must be partitioned by date and encrypted at rest. Which TWO AWS services or features should the company use to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Amazon S3 server-side encryption
B.AWS Database Migration Service (DMS)
C.Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics
D.Amazon Athena
E.AWS Glue Data Catalog
AnswersA, E

S3 SSE provides encryption at rest for data stored in S3.

Why this answer

Amazon S3 server-side encryption (SSE) is correct because it provides at-rest encryption for data stored in S3, which is the intermediate storage for AWS Glue ETL jobs. This ensures that all data processed by Glue and loaded into Redshift is encrypted at rest, meeting the security requirement without additional application-level changes.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates might confuse AWS Glue Data Catalog with a storage service or think that Athena or Kinesis can replace Glue for batch ETL, but the Data Catalog is essential for schema management and partitioning, while Athena and Kinesis serve different purposes.

1011
Multi-Selecthard

A company is designing a data lake on S3 with sensitive data that must be encrypted at rest and audited. Which TWO services should be used? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.S3 Server-Side Encryption (SSE-S3)
B.Amazon Macie
C.AWS CloudTrail
D.AWS KMS
E.Amazon GuardDuty
AnswersC, D

CloudTrail logs API calls to S3 for auditing.

Why this answer

To meet the requirements of encrypting data at rest and auditing access, two services are needed. AWS KMS (Key Management Service) provides centralized control over encryption keys and can be used with S3 Server-Side Encryption (SSE-KMS) to encrypt sensitive data at rest. AWS CloudTrail records all API calls made to S3, enabling auditing of who accessed or modified the data.

Together, KMS and CloudTrail satisfy both the encryption and auditing requirements.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often focus solely on either encryption or auditing, failing to recognize that both are required: encryption (KMS) to meet the 'encrypted at rest' requirement and auditing (CloudTrail) to meet the 'audited' requirement.

1012
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions would improve the security of an S3 bucket that contains sensitive data? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Enable S3 Server Access Logging.
B.Enable default encryption (SSE-S3).
C.Enable S3 Block Public Access.
D.Enable S3 Versioning.
E.Configure S3 Lifecycle to expire objects.
AnswersB, C

Encrypts objects at rest.

Why this answer

Options B and C are correct. B: Enabling default encryption (SSE-S3) ensures data is encrypted at rest, protecting it from unauthorized access. C: Enabling S3 Block Public Access prevents any public access to the bucket and its objects, reducing the risk of data exposure.

Option A is incorrect because server access logging provides audit trails, not a direct security improvement. Option D is incorrect because versioning helps with data recovery, not security. Option E is incorrect because lifecycle policies manage storage costs, not security.

1013
MCQeasy

A company wants to reduce costs for its Amazon RDS for MySQL database without affecting performance. The database is used by a read-intensive application. Which action should the company take?

A.Change the DB instance to a Multi-AZ deployment.
B.Upgrade to the latest generation instance type.
C.Implement a Read Replica and direct read traffic to it.
D.Purchase Reserved Instances for the database.
AnswerC

Offloads reads, enabling a smaller primary instance to handle writes.

Why this answer

Implementing a Read Replica allows offloading read traffic from the primary DB instance. This reduces the load on the primary, potentially enabling the use of a smaller instance size or lowering provisioned IOPS, thereby reducing costs without affecting performance for the read-intensive application. Option A is incorrect because Multi-AZ deployment adds a standby instance and synchronous replication, increasing costs without direct performance benefit.

Option B is incorrect; upgrading to the latest generation instance type may improve performance but generally does not reduce costs. Option D is incorrect; purchasing Reserved Instances provides a discount on hourly rates but does not address the utilization or instance size, so it does not directly reduce costs based on workload.

1014
MCQhard

A Solutions Architect is reviewing the IAM policy shown in the exhibit. The policy is attached to an IAM user. Which of the following is true about this policy?

A.The policy allows s3:GetObject on example-bucket only from the specified IP range.
B.The policy denies access if the source IP is not in the specified range.
C.The policy is invalid because the Resource is not specific enough.
D.The policy allows all S3 actions on all buckets.
AnswerA

The condition restricts access to the specified IP range.

Why this answer

The IAM policy uses a `Condition` block with `IpAddress` to restrict the `s3:GetObject` action on `example-bucket` to requests originating from the specified IP range. The `Effect` is `Allow`, so the policy grants the `s3:GetObject` permission only when the source IP matches the condition, effectively limiting access to that range.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse an `Allow` with a condition for an implicit `Deny`—they incorrectly assume the policy explicitly denies access from outside the IP range, when in fact it simply does not grant permission, and an explicit deny would require a separate `Deny` statement.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the policy does not include a `Deny` effect; it uses an `Allow` effect with a condition, which does not explicitly deny access from other IPs—it simply does not grant permission for those IPs, and an explicit deny would be needed to block them. Option C is wrong because the `Resource` is specific enough: it targets `arn:aws:s3:::example-bucket/*`, which precisely identifies objects within the named bucket, and IAM policies require an ARN format that is valid and specific. Option D is wrong because the policy only allows `s3:GetObject` (not all S3 actions) and only on `example-bucket` (not all buckets), as clearly specified in the `Action` and `Resource` fields.

1015
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a new application that will be hosted on AWS. The application must be highly available across multiple Availability Zones. Which of the following services provide built-in high availability across AZs? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Amazon RDS Multi-AZ
B.Amazon EBS volumes
C.Amazon EC2 instances
D.Elastic Load Balancing (ELB)
E.Amazon S3
AnswersA, D

Amazon RDS Multi-AZ provides built-in high availability by automatically provisioning and maintaining a synchronous standby replica in a different AZ, enabling automatic failover without manual intervention.

Why this answer

Amazon RDS Multi-AZ provides built-in high availability across Availability Zones by automatically provisioning a synchronous standby replica in a different AZ, with automatic failover. Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) is inherently highly available across AZs; it distributes traffic to healthy targets in multiple AZs and automatically fails over if an AZ becomes unavailable. While Amazon S3 also stores objects redundantly across multiple AZs, the question specifically asks for services that provide built-in HA across AZs in the context of application design, and the two most directly relevant services are RDS Multi-AZ and ELB.

Amazon EBS volumes and EC2 instances are AZ-scoped and do not provide built-in cross-AZ HA.

Exam trap

Candidates may mistakenly include Amazon S3 because it stores data redundantly across AZs. However, the question asks about services providing built-in high availability for application components, and S3's availability is a property of the storage service itself, not something that the application architecture needs to configure. The trap is confusing durability/availability of storage with the high availability features provided by services like RDS Multi-AZ and ELB.

1016
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. This S3 bucket policy is attached to a bucket in the security account (111111111111). The policy grants access to account 123456789012. A service in account 123456789012 tries to write a log file to s3://my-log-bucket/AWSLogs/123456789012/logfile.txt. What will happen?

A.The write is denied because the principal is the root user, not an IAM role.
B.The write is allowed because the policy grants access to the root of account 123456789012.
C.The write is denied because the policy only allows GetObject, not PutObject.
D.The write is allowed only if the object key is exactly 'AWSLogs/123456789012/'.
AnswerB

Correct: the root principal covers all IAM entities in that account.

Why this answer

The S3 bucket policy grants access to the root user of account 123456789012 (the `Principal` is the AWS account root user via the account ARN). When a service in that account writes to the bucket, the request is made on behalf of the account, and the root user effectively owns all identities in the account. The policy allows `s3:PutObject` on the `AWSLogs/123456789012/*` prefix, so the write to `s3://my-log-bucket/AWSLogs/123456789012/logfile.txt` is permitted.

Option B correctly identifies that the root user grant covers the service's action.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume a root user principal only applies to the literal root user credentials, not to all identities in the account, leading them to incorrectly think the service's write would be denied.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the policy grants access to the root user of account 123456789012, not an IAM role, and the root user can delegate permissions to services within the account; the write is not denied on that basis. Option C is wrong because the policy explicitly includes `s3:PutObject` in the `Action` list (the exhibit shows `s3:PutObject` as part of the allowed actions), so the write is not denied due to missing PutObject permission. Option D is wrong because the policy uses a wildcard `AWSLogs/123456789012/*` which allows any object key under that prefix, not an exact match to `AWSLogs/123456789012/`.

1017
MCQeasy

A company is designing a new application that will run on Amazon EKS. The development team wants to deploy containers in a way that minimizes operational overhead. Which compute option should the company choose?

A.AWS Fargate
B.Amazon EKS managed node groups
C.Amazon EC2 instances
D.Self-managed EC2 nodes
AnswerA

Fargate is serverless and eliminates node management.

Why this answer

AWS Fargate is the correct compute option because it is a serverless compute engine for containers that eliminates the need to provision, configure, or manage the underlying EC2 instances. By using Fargate with Amazon EKS, the development team can deploy containers without worrying about node scaling, patching, or cluster capacity, thereby minimizing operational overhead.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse 'managed node groups' with 'serverless' and assume they eliminate all operational overhead, but managed node groups still require you to manage EC2 instances, whereas Fargate truly removes the need to manage any underlying compute infrastructure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Amazon EKS managed node groups) is wrong because, while it reduces some operational burden by automating node provisioning and updates, it still requires you to manage EC2 instances (e.g., instance types, scaling policies, and patching), which adds operational overhead compared to Fargate. Option C (Amazon EC2 instances) is wrong because it requires full manual management of the underlying virtual machines, including OS patching, security updates, and scaling, which contradicts the goal of minimizing operational overhead. Option D (Self-managed EC2 nodes) is wrong because it places the entire burden of node lifecycle management (provisioning, patching, scaling, and troubleshooting) on the development team, resulting in the highest operational overhead.

1018
MCQmedium

A company runs a web application on EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. Users report intermittent 503 errors. CloudWatch logs show the ALB's healthy host count occasionally drops to zero during traffic spikes. Which design change should a solutions architect implement to improve availability?

A.Enable EC2 instance refresh for the Auto Scaling group.
B.Increase the size of the Auto Scaling group and adjust scaling policies.
C.Purchase Reserved Instances for the existing EC2 fleet.
D.Replace the ALB with a larger Network Load Balancer.
AnswerB

More instances and proper scaling prevent zero healthy hosts during spikes.

Why this answer

Increasing the size of the Auto Scaling group and adjusting scaling policies ensures sufficient capacity during traffic spikes, preventing the healthy host count from dropping to zero. Option A is wrong because instance refresh is for rolling updates, not for handling spikes. Option C is wrong because Reserved Instances do not add on-demand capacity.

Option D is wrong because a larger Network Load Balancer does not address the root cause of insufficient EC2 capacity.

1019
MCQhard

A company is migrating its on-premises data warehouse to Amazon Redshift. The existing system uses PostgreSQL and has 10 TB of data. The migration must be completed within a 4-hour downtime window. The company has a 1 Gbps AWS Direct Connect connection. After starting the migration using AWS DMS with a full load and CDC, the full load takes 6 hours. What should the company do to meet the downtime window?

A.Configure multiple DMS tasks to load different tables in parallel.
B.Use AWS Snowball Edge to transfer the data physically.
C.Reduce the amount of data by archiving older records.
D.Use AWS VPN instead of Direct Connect for higher bandwidth.
AnswerA

Parallelism improves speed.

Why this answer

The full load took 6 hours, exceeding the 4-hour downtime window. To meet the window, the company must reduce the time for the full load. Configuring multiple DMS tasks to load different tables in parallel (Option A) can significantly speed up the full load by distributing the workload across multiple tasks.

Option B (Snowball Edge) would involve physical shipping and manual steps, which would not meet the 4-hour window. Option C (archiving old records) might reduce data volume but would require additional analysis and may not be feasible within the window. Option D (VPN) would likely have lower bandwidth than Direct Connect, making the load slower, not faster.

1020
MCQeasy

A company has a centralized logging account that receives VPC Flow Logs, CloudTrail logs, and AWS Config logs from all member accounts in AWS Organizations. The logs are stored in an S3 bucket in the logging account. Security analysts need to query these logs using Amazon Athena. What is the MOST efficient way to set up the table partitions?

A.Use AWS Glue Crawler to create a table with no partitions, and query the entire dataset each time.
B.Use AWS Glue Crawler to automatically create partitions based on the date prefix in the S3 key.
C.Use AWS Glue Crawler to create a table, then manually add partitions for each account ID and region.
D.Use AWS Glue Crawler to create a table partitioned by log type and date.
AnswerC

Partitioning by account and region optimizes query performance for multi-account environments.

Why this answer

VPC Flow Logs, CloudTrail, and AWS Config logs are stored in S3 with key prefixes that include account ID, region, and date (e.g., AWSLogs/{account-id}/CloudTrail/{region}/{year}/{month}/{day}/). To efficiently query these logs in Athena, partitions should be created on account ID and region to enable partition pruning, reducing the amount of data scanned. Manually adding partitions for each account ID and region ensures precise control and avoids the overhead of crawling all historical data, which is more efficient than relying solely on automatic date-based partitioning.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume AWS Glue Crawler can automatically create optimal partitions for multi-account log structures, but it typically only partitions on the last directory level (e.g., date), missing the account ID and region partitions that are crucial for query performance in a centralized logging setup.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because querying the entire dataset without partitions would scan all objects in the S3 bucket, leading to high costs and poor performance, especially as log volume grows. Option B is wrong because while Glue Crawler can automatically create partitions based on date prefixes, this approach does not include partitions for account ID and region, which are essential for filtering logs from specific accounts or regions; without these, queries would still scan unnecessary data. Option D is wrong because partitioning by log type and date alone ignores account ID and region, which are critical for security analysts who need to isolate logs from specific member accounts or regions; this would result in scanning more data than necessary.

1021
MCQeasy

A company uses Amazon ECS with Fargate launch type for a web application. During deployments, the new tasks fail health checks and the deployment rolls back. What should the team do to identify why the new tasks are failing?

A.View the stopped task logs in Amazon CloudWatch Logs.
B.Review the task definition for misconfigured environment variables.
C.Check the ECS service event stream for error messages.
D.Use ECS Exec to connect to the failing tasks and debug.
AnswerA

Stopped tasks send logs to CloudWatch, revealing failure reasons.

Why this answer

When tasks fail health checks and are stopped, their logs are sent to CloudWatch Logs (if configured). Viewing the stopped task logs reveals application errors that caused the health check failure. Option B is incorrect because misconfigured environment variables would likely affect the old running tasks as well; the issue is specific to new tasks, so the task definition is probably fine.

Option C is incorrect because the ECS service event stream shows deployment events (like rollback triggers) but not the detailed error logs of the failing tasks. Option D is incorrect because ECS Exec requires the task to be running; since the tasks are failing health checks and stopping, ECS Exec cannot connect to them.

1022
MCQmedium

A financial services company is migrating its trading platform to AWS. The platform consists of hundreds of microservices deployed in containers using Amazon ECS with Fargate launch type. Each service has its own IAM role for fine-grained permissions. The security team requires that all ECS tasks use a specific VPC (vpc-12345) and cannot run in any other VPC. During a recent audit, it was discovered that some tasks are running in a different VPC (vpc-67890). The solutions architect must implement a preventive control to ensure that ECS tasks only run in the approved VPC. The company uses AWS Organizations and has Service Control Policies (SCPs) in place. What should the solutions architect do?

A.Tag the approved VPC and use IAM policies to allow ECS actions only when the VPC tag matches.
B.Add an IAM policy to each ECS task role that denies the action if the VPC is not the approved one.
C.Create an SCP that denies ecs:RunTask and ecs:CreateService unless the networkConfiguration.awsvpcConfiguration.subnets are in the approved VPC.
D.Use AWS Config rules to detect tasks running in non-approved VPCs and trigger a remediation action.
AnswerC

SCPs provide preventive controls at the organization level.

Why this answer

Service Control Policies (SCPs) in AWS Organizations provide a preventive control that applies across all accounts in the organization. By denying ecs:RunTask and ecs:CreateService unless the subnets specified in networkConfiguration.awsvpcConfiguration belong to the approved VPC (vpc-12345), the SCP enforces the VPC constraint at the organization level, preventing any task from launching in a non-approved VPC regardless of individual IAM roles or account configurations.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse detective controls (AWS Config) with preventive controls (SCPs), or they mistakenly think IAM policies on task roles can control the launch VPC, when in fact the launch VPC is determined by the caller's permissions and SCPs, not the task's IAM role.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because IAM policies cannot condition on tags of resources that are not the resource being acted upon (e.g., a VPC tag) in a way that prevents the ECS task from launching in a different VPC; IAM conditions like 'ecs:VpcId' do not exist, and tagging the VPC does not enforce the constraint at the API call level. Option B is wrong because IAM policies attached to ECS task roles control what the task can do after it runs, not whether the task can be launched in a particular VPC; the task role is assumed by the task, not by the caller that creates or runs the task. Option D is wrong because AWS Config rules are detective controls, not preventive controls; they can detect non-compliant tasks and trigger remediation, but they do not prevent the task from running in the first place, which is the requirement for a preventive control.

1023
MCQeasy

A company uses AWS Lambda functions to process events from Amazon S3. They notice that some Lambda invocations are failing with 'ResourceNotFoundException' errors when trying to write to an Amazon DynamoDB table. The Lambda execution role has a policy that grants dynamodb:PutItem on the table. What is the most likely cause of these errors?

A.The Lambda function is using the wrong AWS credentials.
B.The Lambda function is in a VPC without a DynamoDB VPC endpoint.
C.The DynamoDB table is in a different AWS account and the Lambda role does not have cross-account access.
D.The DynamoDB table name is misspelled in the Lambda code.
AnswerD

Correct. A misspelled table name in the Lambda code causes DynamoDB to return 'ResourceNotFoundException' because the specified table does not exist in the account and region. This is the most likely cause given the error message.

Why this answer

The 'ResourceNotFoundException' error indicates that the DynamoDB table does not exist in the account and region where the Lambda function is running. The most common cause is a misspelled table name in the Lambda code (Option D). Cross-account permission issues (Option C) typically result in an 'AccessDeniedException' rather than 'ResourceNotFoundException', because the resource does exist but access is denied.

Option A is incorrect because Lambda uses temporary credentials from its execution role, and credential issues would cause authentication errors. Option B is incorrect because DynamoDB is accessible over the public internet or via a VPC endpoint; lack of a VPC endpoint would cause a timeout, not a resource-not-found error.

1024
MCQmedium

A company uses Amazon CloudFront to serve static content from an S3 bucket. Users in Europe report slow load times. The CloudFront distribution uses the default cache behavior. What is the MOST cost-effective improvement?

A.Enable CloudFront Lambda@Edge to optimize content delivery.
B.Use an S3 Transfer Acceleration to speed up content delivery.
C.Configure CloudFront with multiple origins and use geographic restrictions to route users to the nearest origin.
D.Add additional cache behaviors to serve different content from different origins.
AnswerA

Lambda@Edge can be used to redirect users based on location, improving latency. It is cost-effective for this use case.

Why this answer

Using Lambda@Edge to route users based on their geographic location can direct European users to a closer CloudFront distribution or origin, reducing latency. This approach is cost-effective as it avoids the need for additional infrastructure. Option B is incorrect because S3 Transfer Acceleration is designed for uploads, not for accelerating content delivery to end users.

Option C is incorrect because geographic restrictions are for access control, not routing; they cannot route users to the nearest origin. Option D is incorrect because additional cache behaviors control caching policies, not which origin serves content; they do not inherently reduce latency.

1025
MCQmedium

A company has a multi-account AWS environment. They want to ensure that any new account created in the organization automatically gets a specific set of IAM roles and AWS Config rules deployed. Which solution requires the least manual effort?

A.Use AWS Organizations and attach a tag policy that requires the roles and rules.
B.Use AWS CloudFormation StackSets with automatic deployment to the organization.
C.Attach an SCP to the root OU that creates the roles and rules.
D.Use AWS Lambda to periodically scan for new accounts and deploy resources.
AnswerB

StackSets can automatically deploy stacks to new accounts when enabled.

Why this answer

AWS CloudFormation StackSets with automatic deployment to the organization is the correct solution because it allows you to define a set of AWS resources (IAM roles, Config rules) as a CloudFormation template and automatically deploy it to every account in the organization, including newly created accounts, without any manual intervention. StackSets can be configured to deploy to all accounts in the organization or specific OUs, and they automatically handle the deployment to new accounts as they join the organization.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the capabilities of SCPs (which only deny or allow actions) with the resource-provisioning capabilities of CloudFormation StackSets, leading them to incorrectly select Option C.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because tag policies are used to enforce consistent tagging on resources, not to create or deploy IAM roles or AWS Config rules. Option C is wrong because SCPs (Service Control Policies) are used to restrict permissions and actions at the account level, not to create resources; they cannot create IAM roles or Config rules. Option D is wrong because using a periodic Lambda function to scan for new accounts and deploy resources requires ongoing maintenance, introduces potential latency, and is less reliable than the native, event-driven deployment provided by StackSets.

1026
MCQmedium

A company has a management account in AWS Organizations and wants to share a central Amazon VPC subnet with multiple member accounts for a shared services VPC. Which AWS service should be used to share the subnet?

A.VPC peering connection
B.AWS Resource Access Manager
C.AWS PrivateLink
D.Service control policy
AnswerB

RAM allows sharing subnets across accounts within an organization.

Why this answer

AWS Resource Access Manager (RAM) is the correct service because it enables you to share a central VPC subnet from a management account with multiple member accounts in AWS Organizations without requiring VPC peering or transit gateways. With RAM, you create a resource share that includes the subnet and specify the member accounts or organizational units (OUs) to grant them access, allowing those accounts to launch resources directly into the shared subnet while maintaining centralized network management.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse VPC peering (which connects entire VPCs) with subnet sharing (which allows direct resource placement into a shared subnet), leading them to select VPC peering instead of AWS Resource Access Manager.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A (VPC peering connection) is wrong because VPC peering connects entire VPCs at the network layer using private IP addresses, but it does not allow you to share a subnet; it only enables routing between VPCs, and each account still needs its own subnet. Option C (AWS PrivateLink) is wrong because PrivateLink provides private connectivity to services via interface VPC endpoints powered by AWS PrivateLink, not for sharing subnets or VPC resources across accounts. Option D (Service control policy) is wrong because SCPs are used to manage permissions and enforce guardrails across accounts in AWS Organizations, not for sharing infrastructure resources like subnets.

1027
MCQhard

A financial services company runs a critical trading application on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB) in three Availability Zones. The application uses a MySQL-compatible Amazon RDS for MariaDB database with Multi-AZ deployment. Recently, the operations team noticed that during periods of heavy trading, the database CPU utilization spikes to 100%, causing query timeouts and application errors. The team has already reviewed slow query logs and enabled Performance Insights, but the issue persists. The application is read-heavy with frequent writes. The team needs to reduce database load with minimal changes to the application code. Which solution is the MOST effective and scalable?

A.Migrate the database to Amazon Aurora MySQL-Compatible Edition with Auto Scaling and enable performance insights.
B.Implement an in-memory caching layer using Amazon ElastiCache for Memcached and modify the application to check the cache first.
C.Replace the RDS database with Amazon DynamoDB and use DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX) for caching.
D.Create read replicas of the RDS for MariaDB instance and configure the application to send read queries to the read replicas.
AnswerD

Read replicas offload read traffic with minimal application changes (connection string).

Why this answer

(RDS for MariaDB read replicas with read-only database connections) offloads read traffic without code changes, as read replicas can be used by modifying the connection string. Option A (Aurora) would require migration. Option B (ElastiCache) requires application code to cache data.

Option C (DynamoDB Accelerator) is for DynamoDB, not MariaDB.

1028
MCQhard

A company is building a microservices architecture on Amazon ECS. Services need to communicate with each other and with external SaaS applications. The architect must ensure that service discovery is dynamic and that traffic to external services is routed through a single egress point for security and monitoring. Which combination of services should the architect use?

A.AWS Cloud Map for service discovery and a NAT gateway for egress
B.Amazon Route 53 for service discovery and an Application Load Balancer for egress
C.AWS Cloud Map for service discovery and an Internet Gateway for egress
D.Amazon Route 53 for service discovery and VPC endpoints for egress
AnswerA

Cloud Map registers services; NAT gateway provides egress for tasks in private subnets.

Why this answer

AWS Cloud Map is the correct choice for dynamic service discovery in Amazon ECS because it allows services to register themselves with a logical service name and be discovered via DNS or API calls, which is ideal for microservices that scale and change frequently. A NAT gateway provides a single, controlled egress point for outbound traffic to external SaaS applications, enabling centralized security monitoring and consistent IP address management, unlike an Internet Gateway which would expose instances directly.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the roles of an Internet Gateway (which allows direct bidirectional internet access) with a NAT gateway (which provides controlled outbound-only egress), and assuming Route 53 can handle dynamic service discovery when it lacks the necessary registration and health-check integration for ephemeral containers.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Amazon Route 53 is designed for static DNS resolution and does not natively support dynamic service registration and health checking for ephemeral ECS tasks, making it unsuitable for dynamic service discovery in a microservices architecture; additionally, an Application Load Balancer is an ingress point for incoming traffic, not an egress point for outbound traffic to external services. Option C is wrong because while AWS Cloud Map is correct for service discovery, an Internet Gateway is used for bidirectional communication between a VPC and the internet, not as a single egress point—it would allow direct outbound access from all resources, bypassing centralized security and monitoring. Option D is wrong because Amazon Route 53 is not designed for dynamic service discovery in ECS, and VPC endpoints are used for private connectivity to AWS services, not for routing traffic to external SaaS applications over the internet.

1029
MCQeasy

A company is designing a serverless application that processes images uploaded to an S3 bucket. The processing must be asynchronous and can take up to 15 minutes per image. Which AWS service should be used to trigger the processing?

A.Configure S3 Event Notifications to send an event to an Amazon SQS queue, which is polled by an AWS Lambda function
B.Configure S3 Event Notifications to publish a message to an Amazon SNS topic, which triggers an AWS Lambda function
C.Configure S3 Event Notifications to invoke an AWS Lambda function synchronously
D.Use Amazon EventBridge to capture S3 events and trigger an AWS Step Functions workflow
AnswerA

S3 event to SQS decouples the upload from processing. Lambda polls SQS and can process messages asynchronously; Lambda can run up to 15 minutes.

Why this answer

S3 Event Notifications can asynchronously deliver events to an SQS queue, and an AWS Lambda function can poll that queue. This decouples the processing from the S3 upload, allowing the Lambda function to handle the 15-minute processing limit asynchronously without timing out, since Lambda's maximum execution time is 15 minutes.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume Lambda's synchronous invocation (Option C) is suitable because it can run up to 15 minutes, but they overlook that S3 synchronous invocation is not designed for asynchronous workloads and can cause timeouts or lost events if the processing takes the full duration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because SNS triggers Lambda synchronously via a push mechanism, which would cause the S3 event to be lost if the Lambda function times out or fails, and SNS does not provide a buffer for retries or backpressure. Option C is wrong because S3 synchronous invocation of Lambda has a 15-minute timeout limit that matches the requirement, but synchronous invocation would block the S3 event and could lead to throttling or failures if the processing takes the full 15 minutes; moreover, S3 synchronous invocation is not designed for long-running asynchronous tasks. Option D is wrong because EventBridge can capture S3 events and trigger Step Functions, but Step Functions itself does not directly handle the 15-minute processing; it would still need to invoke a Lambda function or another service, and the question asks for the service to trigger the processing, not orchestrate it.

1030
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a web application that must support millions of concurrent users. The application uses a RESTful API frontend and a relational database backend. Which TWO strategies should be implemented to improve scalability?

Select 2 answers
A.Use Amazon SQS to queue database write requests.
B.Use sticky sessions (session affinity) on the load balancer.
C.Implement read replicas for the database.
D.Implement a caching layer such as ElastiCache.
E.Use a single large EC2 instance for the database.
AnswersC, D

Read replicas offload read traffic from the primary database.

Why this answer

Read replicas (Option C) offload read traffic from the primary database instance, allowing the relational database to handle a higher volume of concurrent read queries without degrading write performance. This directly improves scalability for read-heavy workloads common in web applications.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse queuing (SQS) with database scalability, but SQS does not increase database throughput—it only buffers requests, which can lead to backpressure and eventual inconsistency if not carefully designed.

1031
MCQhard

A company is designing a disaster recovery (DR) solution for a critical application running on Amazon EC2 instances in a single AWS Region. The DR site will be in a different Region. The application data is stored in an Amazon RDS for MySQL DB instance with Multi-AZ enabled. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is 15 minutes, and the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is 2 hours. Which strategy meets these requirements MOST cost-effectively?

A.Take daily automated snapshots of the RDS DB instance and copy them to the DR Region. In the DR Region, restore the DB instance from the latest snapshot.
B.Use Amazon Aurora Global Database to replicate data across Regions.
C.Use AWS Backup to copy backups to the DR Region and set up EC2 Image Builder for application recovery.
D.Configure a cross-Region read replica for the RDS MySQL DB instance. In the DR event, promote the read replica to a standalone instance.
AnswerD

Cross-Region read replicas provide low RPO (seconds) and fast RTO (minutes).

Why this answer

The most cost-effective strategy because a cross-Region read replica for RDS MySQL allows continuous replication with minimal overhead, achieving an RPO of seconds to minutes and an RTO of minutes (promotion time). It avoids the cost of a full Aurora Global Database or the RPO gap from daily snapshots, meeting the 15-minute RPO and 2-hour RTO requirements at lower cost.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may over-engineer the solution by choosing Aurora Global Database (Option B) for its managed replication, overlooking that a cross-Region read replica for RDS MySQL is sufficient and more cost-effective for the given RPO/RTO, or they may underestimate the RPO gap of snapshot-based approaches (Options A and C).

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because daily automated snapshots cannot achieve a 15-minute RPO; the RPO would be up to 24 hours, and restoring from a snapshot in the DR Region takes longer than 2 hours for RTO. Option B is wrong because Amazon Aurora Global Database is more expensive than a cross-Region read replica for RDS MySQL, and the question specifies RDS for MySQL, not Aurora; using Aurora would require migrating the database, adding cost and complexity. Option C is wrong because AWS Backup copying backups to the DR Region still relies on snapshot schedules (typically daily), failing the 15-minute RPO, and EC2 Image Builder addresses application recovery but not the database RPO/RTO requirements.

1032
MCQhard

An IAM policy is attached to an IAM user. The policy allows the `s3:PutObject` action on the resource `arn:aws:s3:::my-bucket/uploads/*` with a condition that the request must come from IP address `10.0.1.5`. The user is testing from an IP address `10.0.1.5`. What is the effect of the policy?

A.Allow all actions on the bucket
B.Allow PutObject in uploads/ only
C.Allow GetObject because the second statement overrides
D.Deny all actions because of IP mismatch
AnswerB

The second statement allows PutObject without IP condition.

Why this answer

The attached IAM policy grants permission to perform PutObject on the 'uploads/' prefix, and the IP address condition matches the user's test IP (10.0.1.5). Therefore, the effect is to allow PutObject specifically on objects within the 'uploads/' folder.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may misinterpret the IP condition as a Deny when it actually allows the action only if the condition is met, leading them to incorrectly select Option D.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because the policy only allows s3:PutObject, not all actions on the bucket. Option C is wrong because there is no second statement; the policy has a single statement with an Allow effect, and GetObject is not included. Option D is wrong because the IP address matches the condition (10.0.1.5), so the Allow effect applies, not a Deny.

1033
MCQeasy

A company is designing a multi-tier web application on AWS. The application requires high availability across multiple Availability Zones. Which AWS service should be used to distribute incoming traffic across multiple EC2 instances in different Availability Zones?

A.AWS Global Accelerator
B.Application Load Balancer
C.AWS Direct Connect
D.Amazon Route 53
AnswerB

An Application Load Balancer automatically distributes incoming traffic across multiple targets, such as EC2 instances, in multiple Availability Zones, ensuring high availability.

Why this answer

The Application Load Balancer (ALB) operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model and is designed to distribute incoming HTTP/HTTPS traffic across multiple targets, such as EC2 instances, in different Availability Zones. By registering instances in multiple AZs and enabling cross-zone load balancing, the ALB provides high availability and fault tolerance for the multi-tier web application.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse DNS-based routing (Route 53) with actual load balancing, but Route 53 only provides DNS resolution and does not actively distribute traffic across instances or perform health checks at the application layer.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS Global Accelerator improves performance by directing traffic to the optimal endpoint based on health and geography, but it does not distribute traffic across EC2 instances within a region; it uses anycast IPs and routes to Application Load Balancers or Network Load Balancers. Option C is wrong because AWS Direct Connect establishes a dedicated network connection from on-premises to AWS, not for distributing traffic across EC2 instances in multiple AZs. Option D is wrong because Amazon Route 53 is a DNS service that resolves domain names to IP addresses and can route traffic to multiple endpoints using policies like weighted or latency routing, but it does not perform load balancing at the application layer or distribute traffic across instances in real time.

1034
MCQmedium

A company is modernizing its legacy PHP application to run on AWS. The application is currently deployed on a single on-premises server with a LAMP stack. The company wants to use containerization to improve scalability and deployment speed. Which AWS service should be used to run the containers with minimal operational overhead?

A.AWS Lambda
B.Amazon ECS with AWS Fargate
C.Amazon EKS with Amazon EC2
D.Amazon ECS with Amazon EC2 launch type
AnswerB

Fargate is serverless containers, minimizing operational overhead.

Why this answer

Amazon ECS with AWS Fargate allows running containers without managing servers, significantly reducing operational overhead. AWS Fargate is a serverless compute engine that automatically provisions and scales the infrastructure. Option A is incorrect because AWS Lambda is designed for event-driven serverless functions, not for running containerized applications directly.

Option C is incorrect because Amazon EKS with Amazon EC2 requires managing the Kubernetes control plane and worker nodes, adding operational complexity. Option D is incorrect because Amazon ECS with the EC2 launch type requires you to manage the EC2 instances, increasing operational overhead compared to Fargate.

1035
MCQhard

A financial services company needs to design a solution for storing sensitive customer data that must be encrypted at rest using a customer-managed key stored in AWS Key Management Service (KMS). The data will be accessed by multiple EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. The company needs to rotate the key every 90 days and ensure that old encrypted data can still be decrypted. Which key strategy should they use?

A.Use AWS CloudHSM to generate a key and store it in a hardware security module.
B.Use an AWS managed key for S3 and enable automatic rotation.
C.Use a customer-managed CMK and enable automatic key rotation.
D.Use a customer-managed CMK and generate a new key every 90 days, re-encrypting all data.
AnswerD

Correct. A customer-managed CMK with manual rotation every 90 days meets the specific requirement. Old keys are retained to allow decryption of historical data, and the new key is used for new encryptions.

Why this answer

It uses a customer-managed CMK with manual rotation every 90 days, which meets the specific rotation requirement. By generating a new key and keeping the old key enabled, old encrypted data remains decryptable. Option C is incorrect because automatic rotation in AWS KMS has a fixed interval of 365 days, which does not satisfy the 90-day rotation requirement.

Exam trap

The trap is that candidates may assume AWS KMS automatic key rotation can be customized to any frequency (e.g., 90 days), but it is fixed at 365 days. They might incorrectly select option C because it satisfies the 'old data decryptable' requirement, while overlooking the explicit 90-day rotation requirement.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS CloudHSM provides a hardware security module for key generation and storage, but it does not integrate with KMS for automatic key rotation; managing rotation manually would be complex and error-prone, and the question specifically requires a KMS-based solution. Option B is wrong because an AWS managed key for S3 cannot be used with EC2 instances directly (it is tied to S3), and the key is managed by AWS, not the customer, violating the customer-managed key requirement. Option D is wrong because generating a new key every 90 days and re-encrypting all data is unnecessary overhead; KMS automatic rotation (every 365 days) already preserves old backing keys for decryption, and manual rotation with re-encryption violates the principle of least effort and could introduce data availability risks.

1036
MCQmedium

A company is running a containerized microservices application on Amazon ECS with Fargate launch type. The application experiences increased latency during peak hours. Upon investigation, the CPU utilization of the tasks reaches 90%. The ECS service is configured with a target tracking scaling policy based on average CPU at 70%. However, scaling is not keeping up with demand. What should a solutions architect do to improve the responsiveness of the scaling?

A.Increase the task-level CPU limit to 2048 units.
B.Decrease the target tracking value to 50% average CPU.
C.Add a step scaling policy that adds 4 tasks when CPU exceeds 80% for 1 minute.
D.Decrease the scale-in cooldown period to 60 seconds.
AnswerC

Step scaling can add capacity in larger increments, improving response to spikes.

Why this answer

Adding a step scaling policy provides a more aggressive and immediate scaling response when CPU exceeds 80% for 1 minute, which complements the existing target tracking policy. Target tracking scaling policies are reactive and may not scale quickly enough during rapid demand spikes, whereas step scaling can add a fixed number of tasks instantly when a breach occurs, reducing latency during peak hours.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume decreasing the target tracking threshold (Option B) will make scaling faster, but they overlook that target tracking is inherently gradual and cannot match the immediate response of a step scaling policy during sudden load spikes.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because increasing the task-level CPU limit to 2048 units (2 vCPU) does not address the scaling responsiveness issue; it only allows each task to use more CPU, which may not help if tasks are already CPU-bound and scaling is slow. Option B is wrong because decreasing the target tracking value to 50% average CPU would cause the service to scale out at a lower threshold, but it does not improve the speed of scaling; target tracking still uses a gradual, proportional approach that may not keep up with rapid demand spikes. Option D is wrong because decreasing the scale-in cooldown period to 60 seconds affects scale-in behavior (reducing tasks), not scale-out responsiveness; it could even cause thrashing if tasks are scaled in too quickly after a spike.

1037
MCQhard

A company runs a stateful web application on EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The application uses WebSockets for real-time communication. During scale-in events, users experience disconnections. How can the company maintain WebSocket connections during scaling?

A.Replace the ALB with a Network Load Balancer (NLB).
B.Use sticky sessions (session affinity) on the ALB.
C.Enable connection draining on the ALB target group.
D.Use an Auto Scaling lifecycle hook to delay instance termination.
AnswerC

Connection draining allows existing connections to complete before the instance is deregistered.

Why this answer

Connection draining on the ALB target group allows existing WebSocket connections to complete before the instance is terminated, preventing disconnections during scale-in. Option A is wrong because an NLB is not required for WebSockets; ALB supports WebSocket connections. Option B is wrong because sticky sessions alone do not prevent disconnections during scale-in.

Option D is wrong because lifecycle hooks can delay termination but do not handle existing connections; connection draining is specifically designed for this purpose.

1038
MCQhard

A company uses AWS Organizations with a centralized networking account that hosts a VPC with a transit gateway. Other accounts need to connect to this transit gateway. The company wants to ensure that only approved VPCs can attach to the transit gateway, and that the attachments are automatically approved when a VPC is created in a member account. Which solution meets these requirements?

A.Create a Lambda function that monitors for new VPCs and creates the transit gateway attachment.
B.Use an SCP to require that all VPCs have a specific tag and then use AWS Config to automatically create the attachment.
C.Use AWS Transit Gateway Network Manager and create a policy to automatically accept attachments from VPCs with a specific tag.
D.Create a transit gateway in the networking account and share it with member accounts using AWS Resource Access Manager. Members create attachments and the networking team manually approves them.
AnswerC

Network Manager can auto-accept attachments based on tags.

Why this answer

AWS Transit Gateway Network Manager allows you to create a policy that automatically accepts attachment requests from VPCs that have a specific tag. This meets the requirement for automatic approval of approved VPCs without manual intervention, while ensuring only tagged VPCs are attached.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think a Lambda function or AWS Config is needed for automation, but AWS Transit Gateway Network Manager provides a native, policy-driven way to automatically accept attachments based on tags, which is simpler and more secure.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because a Lambda function monitoring for new VPCs would require custom code and event handling, and does not inherently enforce that only approved VPCs can attach; it also lacks the built-in approval mechanism. Option B is wrong because an SCP cannot require tags on VPCs (SCPs restrict actions, not enforce tagging), and AWS Config can detect non-compliance but cannot automatically create transit gateway attachments. Option D is wrong because it requires manual approval by the networking team, which does not meet the requirement for automatic approval.

1039
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO strategies can reduce the cost of storing infrequently accessed data in Amazon S3 while maintaining millisecond retrieval latency? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Transition objects to S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval after 90 days.
B.Use S3 Glacier Deep Archive for data older than 30 days.
C.Use S3 Standard-IA for data that is accessed less frequently but requires millisecond retrieval.
D.Use S3 Intelligent-Tiering to automatically move objects between access tiers.
E.Use S3 One Zone-IA for all data to reduce storage costs.
AnswersC, D

Standard-IA offers lower storage cost and same latency as Standard.

Why this answer

S3 Standard-IA (Infrequent Access) is designed for data accessed less frequently but still requires millisecond retrieval latency, making it a cost-effective choice for infrequently accessed data without sacrificing performance. Option D is correct because S3 Intelligent-Tiering automatically moves objects between access tiers (e.g., from S3 Standard to S3 Standard-IA) based on changing access patterns, optimizing costs while maintaining millisecond latency for frequently accessed data.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse storage classes with retrieval latency, assuming that any 'Glacier' or 'Archive' class can provide millisecond retrieval, when in fact only S3 Standard, S3 Standard-IA, S3 One Zone-IA, and S3 Intelligent-Tiering (with frequent/infrequent tiers) offer that latency.

1040
MCQhard

A company is migrating a legacy .NET Framework 4.8 application to AWS. The application uses Windows authentication integrated with Active Directory and relies on a shared file system for configuration files. The company wants to minimize operational overhead and use managed services. Which combination of AWS services should the company use to modernize the application?

A.AWS Managed Microsoft AD, Amazon EFS, and AWS Elastic Beanstalk for .NET on Windows
B.Amazon Cognito, Amazon RDS for SQL Server, and AWS Lambda
C.AWS Directory Service for Microsoft AD, Amazon S3, and AWS App Runner
D.AWS Managed Microsoft AD, Amazon FSx for Windows File Server, and AWS Elastic Beanstalk for .NET on Windows
AnswerD

Managed AD provides authentication, FSx provides shared file system, and Elastic Beanstalk reduces operational overhead.

Why this answer

AWS Managed Microsoft AD provides Windows authentication integrated with Active Directory, FSx for Windows File Server provides a managed shared file system that supports Windows-native SMB protocol and NTFS permissions, and AWS Elastic Beanstalk for .NET on Windows minimizes operational overhead for hosting a .NET Framework 4.8 application. Option A (EFS) does not natively support Windows authentication or SMB protocol, making it unsuitable. Option B (RDS for SQL Server) is unnecessary as the application does not require a database.

Option C (App Runner) does not support .NET Framework applications, and S3 cannot function as a Windows shared file system.

1041
Multi-Selecteasy

A company wants to allow developers to launch EC2 instances, but only with specific instance types and only if the instance has a tag 'CostCenter'. Which IAM policy statement should be applied to the developers' IAM group? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Allow ec2:RunInstances with a condition that the request includes a 'CostCenter' tag.
B.Allow ec2:RunInstances with a condition that the instance type is in an allowed list.
C.Allow ec2:RunInstances without conditions.
D.Deny ec2:RunInstances if the instance type is not in the allowed list.
AnswersA, B

This ensures tagging is enforced.

Why this answer

The IAM policy condition 'ec2:RequestTag/CostCenter' ensures that the developer's RunInstances request includes the required 'CostCenter' tag, enforcing tagging compliance at launch time. Option B is correct because a condition using 'ec2:InstanceType' with a 'ForAllValues:StringLike' or 'StringEquals' operator restricts allowed instance types to a specific list, preventing unauthorized instance families or sizes.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often choose a Deny-based approach (Option D) thinking it is more secure, but they overlook that without an explicit Allow, the implicit deny blocks all actions, and the Deny condition does not enforce the tagging requirement.

1042
Multi-Selecthard

A company is migrating a legacy .NET Framework 4.7 application to AWS. The application uses Windows Server 2012 R2, IIS, and SQL Server 2014. The company wants to modernize the application to reduce licensing costs and operational overhead. Which THREE actions should the company take? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Upgrade SQL Server to the Standard Edition on the current on-premises server before migrating
B.Rehost the application on Amazon EC2 Windows instances with SQL Server Web Edition
C.Rebuild the application on .NET Core and deploy on Amazon EC2 Linux instances
D.Containerize the application using Docker and deploy on Amazon ECS with AWS Fargate
E.Migrate the database to Amazon RDS for SQL Server
AnswersB, C, E

SQL Server Web Edition has lower licensing costs than Standard/Enterprise.

Why this answer

Rehosting the application on Amazon EC2 Windows instances with SQL Server Web Edition reduces licensing costs compared to the current Enterprise or Standard edition. Option C is correct because rebuilding the application on .NET Core allows deployment on Linux, reducing Windows licensing costs and enabling modernization. Option E is correct because migrating the database to Amazon RDS for SQL Server reduces operational overhead by automating backups, patching, and management.

Option A is incorrect because upgrading to Standard Edition on-premises does not reduce licensing costs or operational overhead. Option D is incorrect because containerizing a legacy .NET Framework 4.7 application with Docker on ECS Fargate is not straightforward due to Windows container limitations and does not address the database licensing costs.

1043
MCQmedium

A company is migrating a .NET application from Windows Server to Linux on EC2. The application uses a proprietary COM+ component that cannot be recompiled. Which migration path should they take?

A.Rehost the application on Linux EC2 using Wine
B.Rehost the application on Windows Server EC2 instances
C.Refactor the COM+ component to a REST API
D.Replatform the application to .NET Core and run on Linux
AnswerB

Keeping the application on Windows Server EC2 avoids changes to the COM+ component.

Why this answer

Since the COM+ component cannot be recompiled and is Windows-specific, the only viable option is to rehost the application on Windows Server EC2 instances (option B). Option A (using Wine on Linux) is not a supported or reliable solution for COM+ components. Option C (refactoring the component to a REST API) would require recompilation, which is not allowed.

Option D (replatforming to .NET Core on Linux) would also require recompilation and does not support COM+.

1044
MCQhard

A company is designing a new data lake on AWS. The data lake will store raw data in Amazon S3 and use Amazon Athena for ad-hoc queries. The company needs to ensure that only authorized users can query specific partitions based on their department. Which approach should the company use to implement fine-grained access control?

A.Use AWS Lake Formation to define data filters and grant permissions to departments at the partition level.
B.Use S3 bucket policies to restrict access to prefixes corresponding to each department.
C.Store each department's data in separate databases and use Amazon Redshift Spectrum to query.
D.Create separate IAM roles for each department and attach policies that grant access to specific partitions in Athena.
AnswerA

Lake Formation provides fine-grained access control, including partition-level filtering for Athena.

Why this answer

Using AWS Lake Formation with data filters allows fine-grained access control at the partition level. Option B is incorrect because S3 bucket policies can restrict access to object prefixes but cannot control access at the partition level within Athena queries. Option C is incorrect because Redshift Spectrum is designed for querying data in Amazon Redshift, not Athena.

Option D is incorrect because while separate IAM roles can provide access to specific databases or tables, they cannot easily restrict access to specific partitions in Athena without Lake Formation.

1045
MCQmedium

A company runs a production database on Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL. They need to perform a major version upgrade with minimal downtime. Which strategy should they use?

A.Use AWS Database Migration Service (DMS) to replicate data to a new instance.
B.Create a read replica of the current database using the new version, promote it, and update the connection string.
C.Create a new RDS instance with the new version and migrate data using pg_dump.
D.Take a snapshot of the database, perform an in-place upgrade, and restore if needed.
AnswerB

This approach reduces downtime to a brief cutover window.

Why this answer

Creating a read replica with the new PostgreSQL version, promoting it, and updating the connection string minimizes downtime by allowing the replica to catch up before promotion. Option A (DMS) adds complexity and potential lag. Option C (pg_dump) involves export/import time and potential data loss.

Option D (in-place upgrade) causes downtime during the upgrade and risk of failure.

1046
MCQhard

A company has a legacy application that runs on an EC2 instance with a single EBS volume. The application stores temporary data on a second EBS volume that is attached to the instance. The company wants to improve durability of the temporary data without increasing costs significantly. What should the company do?

A.Increase the IOPS of the current EBS volume to improve performance.
B.Use Amazon S3 for temporary data storage.
C.Add additional EBS volumes and set up RAID 1 for mirroring.
D.Move the temporary data to an instance store volume if the instance type supports it.
AnswerB

S3 provides high durability at low cost, making it ideal for improving durability of temporary data without significant cost increase.

Why this answer

Using Amazon S3 for temporary data storage improves durability because S3 offers 99.999999999% durability, far exceeding the durability of a single EBS volume or instance store. It is cost-effective as you pay only for the storage used, with no upfront investment or additional volume costs. Although S3 is object storage, it is suitable for temporary data that does not require block-level access.

Option A is incorrect because increasing IOPS does not improve durability. Option C is incorrect because adding EBS volumes and RAID 1 mirroring increases costs significantly due to additional volume charges. Option D is incorrect because moving to instance store reduces durability, as instance store is ephemeral and data is lost on instance stop/termination.

1047
MCQmedium

A company runs a stateful web application on EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The application stores session data locally on the instances. The company wants to improve availability and scalability. What should a solutions architect recommend?

A.Move session state to Amazon ElastiCache and make the application stateless.
B.Use Auto Scaling to add more EC2 instances.
C.Enable sticky sessions on the ALB.
D.Use larger EC2 instances to handle more sessions.
AnswerA

This decouples session state from instances, enabling scaling and fault tolerance.

Why this answer

Moving session state to Amazon ElastiCache makes the application stateless, allowing EC2 instances to be added or removed without session loss, which improves both availability and scalability. Option B (Auto Scaling alone) is wrong because without external session storage, scaling out will cause new instances to lack existing session data, and terminating instances will lose sessions. Option C (sticky sessions) is wrong because it only routes a user to the same instance, but if that instance fails, the session is lost.

Option D (larger instances) is wrong because it does not address scalability; it only increases capacity of individual instances, but does not allow for horizontal scaling or improve availability beyond a single instance.

1048
MCQeasy

A startup is building a serverless photo-sharing application on AWS. Users upload photos via a web app, which stores them in Amazon S3. Each upload triggers an AWS Lambda function that creates a thumbnail and stores it in another S3 bucket. The application is expected to have unpredictable traffic patterns. The startup wants to minimize costs and operational overhead while ensuring the thumbnail generation completes reliably. Which solution should a Solutions Architect recommend?

A.Use Amazon ECS with Fargate to run a container that processes S3 events and generates thumbnails.
B.Upload to S3, send a message to an SQS queue, and have a Lambda function poll the queue to generate thumbnails.
C.Use an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances to poll S3 for new uploads and generate thumbnails.
D.Configure S3 event notifications to invoke a Lambda function directly upon upload to generate thumbnails.
AnswerD

Configuring S3 event notifications to directly invoke a Lambda function upon upload is a serverless, cost-effective solution that scales automatically with traffic, minimizes operational overhead, and ensures reliable thumbnail generation (Lambda retries on failure).

Why this answer

Configuring S3 event notifications to directly invoke a Lambda function upon upload is a serverless, cost-effective solution that scales automatically with traffic, minimizes operational overhead, and ensures reliable thumbnail generation (Lambda retries on failure). Option A (ECS with Fargate) is more complex and expensive than necessary for this simple processing task. Option B (SQS queue) adds an unnecessary intermediate service, increasing latency and complexity without benefit.

Option C (Auto Scaling EC2) requires managing servers, incurs costs even when idle, and is not serverless.

1049
MCQeasy

A company is deploying a serverless application using AWS Lambda, Amazon API Gateway, and Amazon DynamoDB. The company wants to secure the API by requiring authentication via a JSON Web Token (JWT). Which service should the company use to manage user authentication and issue JWTs?

A.Amazon Cognito User Pools
B.AWS Secrets Manager
C.AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
D.AWS Security Token Service (STS)
AnswerA

Cognito User Pools provides authentication and JWT issuance for application users.

Why this answer

Amazon Cognito User Pools is the correct choice because it is a fully managed identity provider that handles user sign-up, sign-in, and issues JSON Web Tokens (JWTs) for authentication. It integrates directly with API Gateway Lambda authorizers to validate JWTs and control access to API endpoints without custom code.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse AWS STS (which issues temporary AWS credentials) with a service that issues JWTs for application users, leading them to select STS instead of Cognito User Pools.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (AWS Secrets Manager) is wrong because it is designed to securely store and rotate secrets such as database credentials or API keys, not to manage user authentication or issue JWTs. Option C (AWS Identity and Access Management) is wrong because IAM is used for managing AWS resource permissions via policies and roles, not for authenticating end users or issuing JWTs; it cannot issue tokens for external user identities. Option D (AWS Security Token Service) is wrong because STS issues temporary AWS credentials (access keys, session tokens) for IAM roles or federated users, not JWTs for application-level authentication.

1050
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new microservices-based application on AWS. They want to ensure that services can discover each other dynamically and that traffic can be load balanced across multiple Availability Zones. Which AWS service should they use for service discovery?

A.AWS Service Catalog
B.Amazon Route 53 private hosted zones
C.AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store
D.AWS Cloud Map
AnswerD

AWS Cloud Map provides service discovery with health checks and integration with Route 53.

Why this answer

AWS Cloud Map is a cloud resource discovery service that allows microservices to dynamically register their endpoints (IP addresses, ports) and discover each other via DNS or API calls. It integrates with Amazon Route 53 auto-naming and health checks, enabling load-balanced traffic across multiple Availability Zones by returning healthy, available endpoints. This makes it the correct choice for dynamic service discovery in a microservices architecture.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Route 53 private hosted zones (which provide static DNS resolution) with a dynamic service discovery solution, overlooking that Cloud Map is specifically designed for dynamic registration and health-aware endpoint resolution.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS Service Catalog is a governance tool for creating and managing a catalog of approved IT services (e.g., pre-configured CloudFormation templates), not a service discovery mechanism. Option B is wrong because Amazon Route 53 private hosted zones provide DNS resolution within a VPC but require manual registration of records and do not support dynamic registration or health-based filtering of service instances without additional automation. Option C is wrong because AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store is a secure hierarchical store for configuration data and secrets, not a service discovery service; it lacks native DNS or API-based endpoint resolution and health checking for dynamic service instances.

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