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AWS Certified Solutions Architect Professional SAP-C02 (SAP-C02) — Questions 175

1660 questions total · 23pages · All types, answers revealed

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1
MCQhard

A large enterprise has 200 AWS accounts organized under AWS Organizations. The central security team needs to audit all IAM role trust policies across accounts to ensure no cross-account roles allow external principals. Which approach is most efficient and scalable?

A.Enable AWS Config aggregator and use advanced queries to search for trust policies.
B.Use AWS Trusted Advisor to check for overly permissive roles.
C.Write a script using AWS SDK to list roles in each account and analyze trust policies.
D.Use IAM Access Analyzer to generate findings for each account.
AnswerA

Config aggregator allows querying across all accounts.

Why this answer

AWS Config aggregator with advanced queries allows you to query the resource configuration of IAM roles across all accounts in AWS Organizations from a single management account. This approach is serverless, scalable, and provides a centralized view without needing to script cross-account access or manage multiple findings. The query can filter on the 'assumeRolePolicyDocument' field to detect trust policies that allow external principals (e.g., 'Effect: Allow' with 'AWS': '*' or a non-account ARN).

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse IAM Access Analyzer's scope (resource-based policies) with IAM role trust policies, or they assume a custom script is more flexible when AWS Config provides a native, scalable solution for cross-account resource auditing.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because AWS Trusted Advisor checks for overly permissive security groups and S3 bucket policies, not IAM role trust policies; it does not inspect IAM role trust documents. Option C is wrong because writing a custom SDK script requires managing cross-account IAM roles, handling pagination, and scaling to 200 accounts, which is less efficient and more error-prone than a native AWS Config query. Option D is wrong because IAM Access Analyzer generates findings for resource-based policies (e.g., S3 buckets, KMS keys) but does not analyze IAM role trust policies; its scope is limited to policies that grant access to external entities from the resource itself, not the trust relationship of a role.

2
MCQmedium

A company is designing a real-time analytics pipeline to process streaming data from IoT devices. The solution must be serverless and handle data transformation before storage. Which combination of services is most cost-effective?

A.Amazon Kinesis Data Streams, AWS Lambda, and Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to Amazon S3
B.Amazon Kinesis Data Streams, Amazon EC2 instances for transformation, and Amazon S3
C.Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS), AWS Lambda, and Amazon S3
D.Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics for real-time SQL and Amazon S3
AnswerA

Serverless, cost-effective for streaming transformation.

Why this answer

It combines Kinesis Data Streams for real-time ingestion, AWS Lambda for serverless data transformation, and Kinesis Data Firehose to buffer and deliver transformed data to Amazon S3. This architecture is serverless, scales automatically, and is cost-effective as you pay only for data throughput and compute time without provisioning any servers.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Amazon SQS with Kinesis Data Streams for streaming use cases, but SQS is a pull-based queue with no ordering guarantees across messages and no replay capability, making it unsuitable for real-time analytics pipelines.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because using Amazon EC2 instances for transformation introduces server management overhead and fixed costs, violating the serverless requirement and increasing cost compared to Lambda. Option C is wrong because Amazon SQS is a message queue designed for decoupling applications, not for real-time streaming analytics; it lacks the ordered, replayable, and high-throughput characteristics needed for IoT streaming data. Option D is wrong because Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics for real-time SQL performs in-stream analytics but does not handle data transformation before storage; it outputs to a destination like Firehose, and alone it cannot transform and store data in S3 without additional services.

3
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new microservices architecture using Amazon ECS with Fargate. Each service must be isolated within its own VPC and communicate via AWS PrivateLink. The company expects variable traffic and wants to minimize costs. Which solution meets these requirements?

A.Use separate VPCs and connect them via VPC peering with NAT gateways.
B.Deploy all services in a single VPC with security groups to isolate traffic.
C.Use separate VPCs per service and create VPC endpoint services for each.
D.Use a single VPC with Transit Gateway to route between services.
AnswerC

VPC endpoints provide isolated, private connectivity without extra cost.

Why this answer

AWS PrivateLink allows services in separate VPCs to communicate privately without exposing traffic to the public internet. By creating a VPC endpoint service in each service's VPC and configuring Network Load Balancers, each microservice remains isolated in its own VPC, meeting the isolation requirement while minimizing costs by avoiding NAT gateways or Transit Gateway attachments.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume VPC peering or Transit Gateway is required for cross-VPC communication, but PrivateLink is the only option that enforces strict VPC isolation while minimizing costs for variable traffic patterns.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because VPC peering with NAT gateways does not provide the private, scalable connectivity that PrivateLink offers; NAT gateways incur per-hour and per-GB costs and are not designed for service-to-service communication across separate VPCs. Option B is wrong because deploying all services in a single VPC violates the explicit requirement for each service to be isolated within its own VPC, and security groups alone cannot enforce network-level isolation at the VPC boundary. Option D is wrong because using a single VPC with Transit Gateway still places all services in the same VPC, failing the isolation requirement, and Transit Gateway incurs per-attachment and data processing costs that are unnecessary when PrivateLink can provide direct, cost-effective connectivity.

4
Multi-Selectmedium

A company wants to implement a cost-effective disaster recovery strategy for a production Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL database. The solution must provide a recovery point objective (RPO) of less than 5 minutes and a recovery time objective (RTO) of less than 15 minutes. Which strategies meet these requirements? (Choose THREE.)

Select 3 answers
A.Enable automated backups with point-in-time recovery.
B.Deploy the database in a Multi-AZ configuration.
C.Take manual snapshots and copy them to another Region.
D.Use AWS Database Migration Service (DMS) for continuous replication to a target in another Region.
E.Create a cross-Region read replica in a different Region.
AnswersB, C, E

Multi-AZ provides automatic failover to a standby in another AZ, meeting RTO <1 minute, but does not protect against region failure.

Why this answer

Multi-AZ deployments provide synchronous replication to a standby in a different Availability Zone, achieving an RPO near zero and RTO typically under 2 minutes, meeting the requirements. Option C is correct because manual snapshots can be copied to another Region, and while snapshots themselves are not continuous, they can be taken frequently (e.g., every few minutes) to meet a 5-minute RPO, and the RTO can be under 15 minutes when restoring from a snapshot in the same Region or by promoting a read replica. Option E is correct because a cross-Region read replica provides asynchronous replication with an RPO typically under 1 second and can be promoted to a standalone database within minutes, meeting both RPO and RTO.

Option A is incorrect because automated backups are point-in-time, but the RPO is typically up to 5 minutes (backup window) and RTO is longer due to restore time, often exceeding 15 minutes. Option D is incorrect because DMS continuous replication is a viable DR strategy, but it is not as cost-effective as the other options and introduces additional complexity; also, the requirement specifically asks for strategies involving Amazon RDS features, and DMS is a separate service.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may dismiss manual snapshots (option C) as incapable of meeting sub-5-minute RPO, but if snapshots are taken every 5 minutes, they can achieve that RPO. Additionally, cross-Region read replicas (option E) are often mistaken for asynchronous replication with higher RPO, but when used for DR, they can provide RPO of seconds and RTO of minutes. Multi-AZ (option B) is sometimes confused with cross-Region replication; Multi-AZ is for high availability within a Region and does not protect against Region failure, but it does meet the RPO/RTO requirements.

5
MCQeasy

A company is designing a new microservices-based application on AWS. They need to decouple services and ensure asynchronous communication. Which AWS service should they use?

A.Amazon Kinesis
B.Amazon SQS
C.AWS Lambda
D.Amazon SNS
AnswerB

SQS provides a message queue that decouples services.

Why this answer

Amazon SQS (Simple Queue Service) is the correct choice because it provides a fully managed message queue that enables asynchronous communication between microservices. By decoupling the components, SQS allows one service to send messages to a queue, and another service to poll and process those messages independently, ensuring fault tolerance and scalability without requiring both services to be available simultaneously.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Amazon SNS (pub/sub) with SQS (queue), thinking both provide decoupling, but SNS requires subscribers to be active or integrated with a queue, whereas SQS inherently buffers messages for asynchronous consumption.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Amazon Kinesis is designed for real-time streaming data ingestion and processing (e.g., log streams, clickstreams), not for decoupling point-to-point asynchronous messaging between microservices; it uses shards and records, not queues with individual message visibility. Option C is wrong because AWS Lambda is a compute service that runs code in response to events, not a messaging or decoupling service; it can be a consumer or producer but does not itself provide a queue for asynchronous communication. Option D is wrong because Amazon SNS is a pub/sub messaging service that pushes messages to multiple subscribers (fan-out), but it does not provide a queue for decoupling—subscribers must be available or use a queue integration; SNS alone does not offer the buffering and polling model needed for true asynchronous decoupling.

6
MCQeasy

A company has multiple AWS accounts and wants to centralize the management of security policies. The security team needs to enforce that all IAM users in all accounts must use multi-factor authentication (MFA) to access the AWS Management Console. The solution must be centrally managed and automatically applied to new accounts as they are added. Which approach should be taken?

A.Use AWS Config to detect IAM users without MFA and send alerts.
B.Create an SCP that denies console access for IAM users if MFA is not present.
C.Use AWS IAM Identity Center to enforce MFA for all users accessing the console.
D.Create an IAM policy in each account that denies console access without MFA.
AnswerB

SCPs are centrally managed and apply to all accounts.

Why this answer

AWS Organizations Service Control Policies (SCPs) can centrally deny AWS API actions (including console access) for all IAM users across multiple accounts if the `aws:MultiFactorAuthPresent` condition key is false. This approach is centrally managed from the management account and automatically applies to new accounts added to the organization, meeting the requirement for centralized enforcement and scalability.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse IAM Identity Center (federated users) with native IAM users, or they assume AWS Config can enforce policies when it only detects and alerts, leading them to pick a non-preventive or non-centralized solution.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS Config can detect and alert on IAM users without MFA, but it does not enforce or deny access; it only provides detective controls, not preventive enforcement. Option B is wrong because AWS IAM Identity Center (formerly AWS SSO) manages access for federated users, not for IAM users in individual accounts; it cannot enforce MFA on native IAM users created directly in member accounts. Option D is wrong because creating an IAM policy in each account requires manual per-account deployment and does not automatically apply to new accounts, failing the central management and automatic application requirements.

7
MCQmedium

A company has a multi-account AWS environment with hundreds of accounts. The central IT team needs to audit all API calls made in the organization. The solution must be cost-effective and capture events from all regions and accounts, including future accounts. Which solution should the company use?

A.Create an organization trail in the management account that logs all events to an S3 bucket with a bucket policy granting access to all accounts.
B.Use AWS Config to record API calls and deliver to a central S3 bucket.
C.Enable CloudTrail in each account and configure each trail to deliver logs to a central S3 bucket.
D.Use VPC Flow Logs to capture API calls and send to a central S3 bucket.
AnswerA

Organization trail automatically captures all accounts and future accounts.

Why this answer

An organization trail in the management account automatically applies to all existing and future accounts and regions within AWS Organizations, capturing all management events without per-account configuration. It delivers logs to a single S3 bucket, and the bucket policy grants read access to all accounts, making it cost-effective by avoiding duplicate trails and reducing storage overhead.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse AWS Config (resource configuration tracking) with CloudTrail (API call logging), or assume per-account trails are simpler, missing the cost and scalability benefits of an organization trail.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because AWS Config records resource configuration changes, not API calls; it cannot capture CloudTrail management events. Option C is wrong because enabling CloudTrail individually in each account requires manual setup for every account and region, is not cost-effective due to duplicate log delivery, and does not automatically include future accounts. Option D is wrong because VPC Flow Logs capture network traffic metadata (IP addresses, ports, protocols), not API calls; they are unrelated to auditing API operations.

8
MCQeasy

A company is designing a new CI/CD pipeline for a web application that will be deployed on Amazon ECS. Which AWS service should the company use to build and test the application code?

A.AWS CodePipeline
B.AWS CodeDeploy
C.AWS CodeCommit
D.AWS CodeBuild
AnswerD

CodeBuild is a managed build service for compiling and testing code.

Why this answer

AWS CodeBuild is a fully managed continuous integration service that compiles source code, runs tests, and produces software packages that are ready to deploy. For a CI/CD pipeline that requires building and testing application code before deployment to Amazon ECS, CodeBuild is the correct service to perform these build and test actions.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse AWS CodePipeline (the orchestration layer) with the actual build service, mistakenly thinking that CodePipeline itself performs the build and test steps, when in fact it only coordinates other services like CodeBuild.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS CodePipeline is a continuous delivery service that orchestrates the pipeline stages (source, build, test, deploy) but does not itself build or test code; it relies on other services like CodeBuild for those actions. Option B is wrong because AWS CodeDeploy is a deployment service that automates code deployments to compute services (including ECS) but does not perform build or test operations. Option C is wrong because AWS CodeCommit is a source control service that hosts Git repositories and does not have any capability to build or test application code.

9
MCQmedium

A company uses AWS Organizations and has a central security account. They want to use AWS Security Hub to aggregate findings from all member accounts. They have enabled Security Hub in the security account and invited all member accounts. However, findings from member accounts are not appearing in the Security Hub console of the security account. What is the most likely cause?

A.The member accounts have not configured Security Hub to send findings to the security account.
B.The IAM role used by Security Hub in the security account does not have permissions to read findings from member accounts.
C.Security Hub cannot aggregate findings from member accounts in different regions.
D.The member accounts have not enabled Security Hub and accepted the invitation.
AnswerD

Each member account must enable Security Hub.

Why this answer

Each member account must enable Security Hub and accept the invitation before findings are aggregated. Option A is wrong because Security Hub supports cross-region aggregation. Option B is wrong because IAM permissions are needed but not the primary cause.

Option C is wrong because there is no such requirement.

10
MCQmedium

A company is migrating a .NET application from Windows Server to AWS. The application uses SQL Server and needs to run on Amazon EC2. The company wants to reduce licensing costs. Which Amazon EC2 instance type should the company use?

A.C5
B.T3
C.A1
D.I3
AnswerB

T3 instances are burstable and cost-effective for workloads with moderate CPU usage, reducing licensing costs.

Why this answer

T3 instances are burstable and cost-effective for workloads with moderate CPU usage, making them ideal for reducing licensing costs for a .NET application on SQL Server. Option A (C5) is compute-optimized and may be overkill, increasing costs. Option C (A1) is ARM-based and may not support .NET.

Option D (I3) is storage-optimized and not cost-effective for this scenario.

11
MCQmedium

A company is modernizing its monolithic application by breaking it into microservices. The application uses a shared MySQL database. The team wants to implement a database per microservice pattern. Which AWS service should be used to manage multiple databases efficiently?

A.Amazon RDS for MySQL with multiple DB instances
B.Amazon ElastiCache for Redis
C.Amazon DynamoDB
D.Amazon EFS
AnswerA

Correct. Amazon RDS for MySQL allows creating multiple DB instances, each serving as a dedicated database for a microservice, with automated backups, scaling, and maintenance.

Why this answer

Amazon RDS for MySQL can manage multiple DB instances, each dedicated to a microservice, with managed backups, scaling, and maintenance. Option B (Amazon ElastiCache for Redis) is wrong because it is a caching layer, not a primary database. Option C (Amazon DynamoDB) is wrong because it is a NoSQL database, which may not suit all microservices, especially those requiring relational data.

Option D (Amazon EFS) is wrong because it is a file storage service, not a database.

12
Multi-Selecthard

A company has a multi-account AWS environment. The security team wants to enforce that all IAM roles in the production accounts can only be assumed from a specific IP range (the corporate network). Which TWO approaches can achieve this?

Select 2 answers
A.Attach a Service Control Policy (SCP) to the production OU that denies sts:AssumeRole unless the request source IP is within the corporate range.
B.Use a VPC endpoint for STS and restrict access to the endpoint.
C.Configure AWS WAF to block requests from IPs outside the corporate range.
D.Add a condition to the trust policy of each IAM role that requires the source IP to be in the corporate range.
E.Attach a Service Control Policy (SCP) to each IAM role that denies assume role unless the source IP is corporate.
AnswersA, D

SCPs can enforce conditions on API calls.

Why this answer

An SCP attached to the production OU can deny sts:AssumeRole actions unless the request's source IP falls within the corporate range. SCPs operate at the organization level and apply to all accounts in the OU, providing a centralized guardrail that cannot be overridden by account administrators. This enforces the IP restriction across all IAM roles in the production accounts without modifying individual role trust policies.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse SCPs with resource-based policies, thinking SCPs can be attached to individual IAM roles, or they mistakenly believe WAF or VPC endpoints can control IAM API calls, when in fact only SCPs and trust policies directly enforce source IP restrictions on sts:AssumeRole.

13
MCQmedium

A company is migrating a monolithic e-commerce application to a microservices architecture on AWS. The migration must minimize downtime and allow rollback. Which migration strategy should the company use?

A.Refactor
B.Big bang migration
C.Strangler fig pattern
D.Rehost (lift and shift)
AnswerC

Gradually replaces monolith with microservices, allowing rollback.

Why this answer

The strangler fig pattern allows gradual replacement of monolithic components with microservices, minimizing downtime and enabling easy rollback. Option A (refactor) typically involves rewriting the entire application, which often requires significant downtime and increases risk. Option B (big bang migration) migrates all components at once, leading to extended downtime and high risk.

Option D (rehost) moves the monolith as-is without modernization, which does not achieve the goal of migrating to a microservices architecture.

14
MCQmedium

A company is migrating a monolithic application to AWS. They want to minimize refactoring effort while gaining some benefits of the cloud. Which migration strategy is most appropriate?

A.Refactor / Re-architect
B.Repurchase
C.Rehost (lift-and-shift)
D.Replatform (lift-tinker-and-shift)
AnswerC

Minimal changes; move as-is to EC2 or VMware Cloud on AWS.

Why this answer

Rehost (lift-and-shift) involves moving the application as-is to AWS with minimal changes, aligning with the goal of minimizing refactoring effort. Option A is wrong because Refactor/Re-architect requires significant code changes. Option B is wrong because Repurchase involves switching to a different product, often a SaaS solution.

Option D is wrong because Replatform (lift-tinker-and-shift) involves some modifications to the application to take advantage of cloud capabilities, which requires more effort than pure rehost.

15
MCQmedium

A company uses AWS Organizations with multiple accounts. The security team wants to enforce that all new S3 buckets are encrypted using AES-256. What is the MOST effective way to enforce this requirement?

A.Create an SCP that denies s3:CreateBucket unless encryption is specified.
B.Use CloudTrail to monitor bucket creation and alert security team.
C.Create an SCP that denies s3:PutBucketPublicAccessBlock without encryption.
D.Use AWS Config rules to detect non-compliant buckets and auto-remediate.
AnswerA

SCPs can deny actions based on conditions like encryption.

Why this answer

A service control policy (SCP) can deny creation of S3 buckets without encryption. Options B, C, and D are not effective at enforcing across all accounts.

16
MCQmedium

A company uses AWS CodePipeline to deploy a web application to an Elastic Beanstalk environment. The deployment pipeline includes a source stage, a build stage using CodeBuild, and a deploy stage. Recently, deployments have been failing in the deploy stage with the error: 'The environment is in an invalid state for this operation.' The developer confirms the build artifacts are correct. What is the MOST likely cause?

A.The environment's load balancer is not available
B.The environment's Auto Scaling group has insufficient capacity
C.The Elastic Beanstalk environment uses a t2.micro instance type which is not supported by CodePipeline
D.Another deployment or configuration update is already in progress on the environment
AnswerD

Elastic Beanstalk locks the environment during updates.

Why this answer

If another deployment or configuration update is already in progress, Elastic Beanstalk prevents concurrent operations, resulting in the 'environment is in an invalid state for this operation' error. Option A is incorrect because load balancer unavailability would cause health check or routing issues, not this error. Option B is incorrect because insufficient Auto Scaling capacity would lead to scaling failures, not an invalid state error.

Option C is incorrect because CodePipeline does not impose instance type restrictions on Elastic Beanstalk environments.

17
MCQhard

A company is building a serverless application using AWS Lambda. The function needs to access a private Amazon RDS MySQL database. The Lambda function and the RDS instance are in the same VPC. What is the correct way to configure the Lambda function to connect to the database?

A.Configure the Lambda function to run in the same VPC, subnets, and security group as the RDS instance.
B.Use a NAT Gateway to allow Lambda to access RDS through the internet.
C.Assign an IAM role that allows Lambda to access RDS and configure the security group to allow traffic from the Lambda service.
D.Attach an Elastic Network Interface (ENI) to the Lambda function in the same subnet as the RDS instance.
AnswerA

This allows Lambda to connect to RDS over the network. The security group must allow inbound from Lambda's security group.

Why this answer

Lambda functions in a VPC must be configured with the same VPC, subnets, and security group as the RDS instance to establish direct network connectivity. By placing the Lambda function in the same security group, you can allow inbound traffic from the security group itself (self-referencing rule) or explicitly open the database port (e.g., 3306 for MySQL) to the Lambda's security group. This ensures traffic stays within the VPC and does not traverse the internet, meeting security and latency requirements.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume IAM roles or NAT Gateways provide network access, but AWS Lambda requires explicit VPC configuration with subnets and security groups to route traffic to private resources like RDS within the same VPC.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a NAT Gateway is used to allow outbound internet access from a private subnet, not to enable Lambda to connect to RDS within the same VPC; using a NAT Gateway would route traffic through the internet, which is unnecessary and insecure for private database access. Option C is wrong because an IAM role alone does not provide network connectivity; Lambda still needs to be attached to the VPC via an ENI, and security group rules must explicitly allow traffic from the Lambda function's ENI, not from the Lambda service itself. Option D is wrong because Lambda automatically creates and attaches an ENI when configured with VPC settings; you cannot manually attach an ENI to a Lambda function, and the ENI is placed in the specified subnets, not directly attached as a separate step.

18
MCQeasy

A company is using Amazon API Gateway to expose a REST API. The API backend is a Lambda function that queries an Amazon DynamoDB table. During peak hours, the API returns HTTP 429 (Too Many Requests) errors. What is the MOST cost-effective way to reduce these errors?

A.Enable API caching in API Gateway.
B.Enable DynamoDB auto-scaling.
C.Increase the throttling limits in API Gateway.
D.Increase the reserved concurrency of the Lambda function.
AnswerC

Increasing API Gateway throttling limits directly allows more requests to be processed before hitting the limit. This is the most cost-effective as it involves only a configuration change without additional infrastructure costs.

Why this answer

HTTP 429 errors from API Gateway indicate that the request rate is exceeding the configured throttling limits. Increasing the throttling limits allows more requests to pass through directly, and this is a cost-effective configuration change. Option A (API caching) can reduce backend load but does not address the throttling limit itself.

Option B (DynamoDB auto-scaling) addresses DynamoDB capacity, not API Gateway throttling. Option D (Lambda reserved concurrency) addresses Lambda throttling, but the 429 is from API Gateway, not Lambda.

Exam trap

Candidates often confuse the source of 429 errors. In API Gateway, 429 errors indicate throttling at the API Gateway level, not necessarily at the backend. Therefore, increasing backend capacity (Lambda concurrency or DynamoDB throughput) may not resolve the issue if the API Gateway limit is too low.

19
MCQeasy

A company is migrating a monolithic application to a microservices architecture on AWS. They want to decouple the services and ensure that messages between services are processed asynchronously and durably. Which AWS service should they use for this purpose?

A.Amazon Kinesis Data Streams
B.Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS)
C.Amazon Simple Notification Service (SNS)
D.AWS Step Functions
AnswerB

SQS is a fully managed message queue for decoupling and asynchronous processing.

Why this answer

Amazon SQS (Simple Queue Service) is the correct choice for decoupling microservices with asynchronous, durable message processing. It provides a fully managed message queue that allows services to send, store, and receive messages between software components without losing messages. Amazon Kinesis Data Streams (option A) is designed for real-time streaming of large data, not for point-to-point queue-based messaging.

Amazon SNS (option C) is a pub/sub service that pushes messages to subscribers, but it does not provide durable storage or polling capabilities. AWS Step Functions (option D) is used for coordinating complex workflows, not for basic asynchronous messaging.

20
MCQmedium

A company is migrating 50 TB of data from on-premises to Amazon S3 over a 100 Mbps internet connection. The migration must complete within 30 days. What should they do?

A.Use AWS Snowball Edge devices
B.Use AWS DataSync to transfer data
C.Use AWS Direct Connect to increase bandwidth
D.Use S3 Transfer Acceleration
AnswerA

Snowball Edge provides physical data transfer, overcoming bandwidth limitations.

Why this answer

At 100 Mbps, transferring 50 TB would take approximately 48 days (50 TB * 1024 GB/TB * 1024 MB/GB * 8 bits/byte / (100 Mbps) / 86400 sec/day ≈ 48 days), exceeding the 30-day window. AWS Snowball Edge can transfer data faster via physical shipment. Option A (increase bandwidth) may not be feasible.

Option C (S3 Transfer Acceleration) still uses internet. Option D (AWS DataSync) also uses network.

21
MCQhard

A company is migrating a legacy monolithic e-commerce platform to AWS. The platform consists of a Java-based web application, an Oracle database, and a file server storing product images. The company's migration requirements are: (1) minimize downtime during cutover, (2) reduce operational overhead for the database, (3) enable future migration to microservices. The current on-premises environment experiences high I/O latency for the file server. The company has already set up a VPN connection to AWS and has installed the AWS Application Discovery Service agent on all servers. During the assessment, you discover that the Oracle database is 2 TB and the file server holds 5 TB of images. The web application is tightly coupled with the database and uses stored procedures. You need to design the migration approach. Which combination of actions should be taken?

A.Use AWS Snowball Edge to transfer the database and files. After data is loaded, cut over DNS to AWS.
B.Use AWS DMS for continuous replication of the database to Amazon RDS for Oracle. Use AWS DataSync to copy files to Amazon EFS. Then cut over.
C.Use AWS DMS with ongoing replication to Amazon RDS for Oracle. Use S3 Transfer Acceleration to upload files to Amazon S3. Then cut over.
D.Refactor the application into microservices using Amazon ECS. Use Amazon RDS for Oracle and Amazon S3 for images. Then cut over gradually.
AnswerC

Minimizes downtime, reduces operational overhead, and addresses high latency.

Why this answer

Using AWS DMS with ongoing replication minimizes downtime, RDS for Oracle reduces operational overhead, and S3 with Transfer Acceleration addresses high latency for file transfer. Option A is wrong because Snowball is offline and may cause longer cutover. Option B is wrong because EFS is not the best for image storage; S3 is better.

Option D is wrong because refactoring to microservices during migration increases risk and complexity.

22
MCQmedium

A company is using AWS Lambda functions to process data from an S3 bucket. Recently, the function has been timing out. The function has a 5-minute timeout configured. What is the most likely cause of the timeout?

A.The Lambda function was moved to a different VPC.
B.The Lambda function's reserved concurrency is set too low.
C.The Lambda function's memory is too low.
D.The Lambda function is processing larger files than before.
AnswerD

Larger files increase processing time, causing timeout.

Why this answer

The most likely cause of the timeout is that the Lambda function is processing larger files than before, which increases execution time beyond the 5-minute timeout. Option A is incorrect: moving to a different VPC might cause network latency but not necessarily a timeout due to file processing. Option B is incorrect: reserved concurrency controls the number of concurrent executions, not the execution duration of a single invocation.

Option C is incorrect: while increasing memory can improve CPU performance and reduce execution time, the immediate cause of a timeout is typically an increase in processing workload, such as larger files. Therefore, option D is correct.

23
MCQmedium

A company is planning to migrate its on-premises data warehouse to AWS. The data warehouse runs on a large Oracle RAC cluster with complex stored procedures and ETL jobs. The company wants to minimize migration effort while gaining cloud benefits. Which AWS service should be used as the target?

A.Amazon DynamoDB
B.Amazon RDS for Oracle
C.Amazon Redshift
D.Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL
AnswerC

Redshift is AWS's data warehouse service, suitable for migrating from Oracle.

Why this answer

Amazon Redshift is the AWS data warehouse service that can migrate from Oracle RAC with minimal changes using the AWS Schema Conversion Tool (SCT). Option A is incorrect because Amazon DynamoDB is a NoSQL database, not a data warehouse. Option B is incorrect because Amazon RDS for Oracle is a relational database service and not optimized for data warehousing workloads.

Option D is incorrect because Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL is a relational database, not a data warehouse.

24
MCQhard

A solutions architect is reviewing the above IAM policy attached to an S3 bucket. A user from IP address 10.0.1.5 makes a request over HTTP (not HTTPS). Will the user be able to download an object?

A.No, because the IP address is not in the allowed range.
B.Yes, because the IP address is allowed.
C.No, because the request is not using HTTPS.
D.Yes, because the Allow statement is evaluated first.
AnswerC

The Deny statement blocks non-HTTPS requests.

Why this answer

The Deny statement with aws:SecureTransport=false explicitly denies requests that are not using HTTPS. Even though the Allow statement permits the IP range, the Deny overrides it. Therefore, the request is denied.

25
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a multi-account AWS environment with a centralized logging account. Which TWO services should be used to aggregate logs from all accounts?

Select 2 answers
A.AWS CloudTrail with cross-account S3 bucket
B.Amazon CloudWatch Logs with cross-account subscription
C.Amazon S3 cross-region replication
D.Amazon VPC Flow Logs
E.Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose
AnswersA, B

CloudTrail can deliver logs to a centralized S3 bucket in another account.

Why this answer

AWS CloudTrail can be configured to deliver log files to an S3 bucket in a centralized logging account by using cross-account S3 bucket policies. This allows all accounts in the organization to send their CloudTrail logs to a single destination, enabling centralized auditing and analysis.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse cross-region replication (Option C) with cross-account log aggregation, not realizing that replication alone does not solve the multi-account collection requirement, and that VPC Flow Logs (Option D) are per-account and need explicit cross-account delivery configuration.

26
MCQmedium

A company is using AWS CodePipeline with an S3 source action. After a successful deployment, the latest commit ID is stored as an environment variable in the CodeBuild project. The team notices that subsequent pipeline executions are not triggering when new commits are pushed to the S3 bucket. What is the most likely cause?

A.The CodePipeline service role lacks permissions to poll the S3 bucket.
B.The S3 bucket policy does not allow CodePipeline to read objects.
C.The S3 bucket does not have an event notification configured to trigger the pipeline.
D.The CodePipeline webhook is misconfigured.
AnswerC

Without event notification, CodePipeline won't automatically start on new commits.

Why this answer

With an S3 source action in CodePipeline, you must configure an S3 event notification to trigger the pipeline when a new commit (object) is pushed. Without this notification, CodePipeline will not automatically start a new execution on changes. Option A is incorrect because CodePipeline does not poll S3; it relies on event notifications.

Option B is incorrect because CodePipeline reads objects using its service role, not via bucket policy. Option D is incorrect because webhooks are used for external sources like GitHub, not for S3.

27
MCQmedium

A company is migrating a monolithic application to microservices on Amazon ECS. The application needs to communicate with external partners via HTTPS. The company wants to use mTLS for mutual authentication. Which AWS service should be used to handle the mTLS termination?

A.Application Load Balancer (ALB) with mutual TLS
B.Amazon CloudFront with a custom origin
C.Network Load Balancer (NLB) with TLS termination
D.Amazon API Gateway HTTP API
AnswerA

ALB supports mTLS for mutual authentication.

Why this answer

Application Load Balancer (ALB) supports mutual TLS (mTLS) natively by configuring a trust store on the listener that validates client certificates against a Certificate Authority (CA) bundle you upload. This allows the ALB to terminate the HTTPS connection and perform client certificate authentication before forwarding traffic to the ECS service, meeting the requirement for mTLS termination without custom proxy logic.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing ALB mTLS with NLB TLS termination or assuming API Gateway HTTP API supports mTLS, when in fact only ALB and API Gateway REST API (not HTTP API) offer mutual TLS termination for incoming client connections.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because Amazon CloudFront does not support mTLS; it can only present client certificates to origins (origin-facing mTLS) but cannot terminate incoming mTLS connections from clients. Option C is wrong because Network Load Balancer (NLB) with TLS termination only validates server certificates and does not support client certificate authentication (mTLS) at the listener level. Option D is wrong because Amazon API Gateway HTTP API does not support mTLS; only API Gateway REST API supports mTLS via mutual TLS authentication, but the HTTP API variant lacks this feature.

28
MCQmedium

A company is migrating its on-premises NoSQL database (MongoDB) to Amazon DocumentDB. The migration must have minimal downtime. The company uses AWS DMS with ongoing replication. After starting the replication, the target DocumentDB cluster shows a lag of several minutes. The source MongoDB has high write throughput. What should the company do to reduce replication lag?

A.Increase the DMS replication instance size.
B.Increase the DocumentDB cluster instance size.
C.Disable CDC and perform a full load only.
D.Enable Parallel Apply in DMS task settings.
AnswerA

More resources improve replication speed.

Why this answer

Larger DMS instances handle higher throughput. Option B is wrong because increasing DocumentDB size doesn't help DMS. Option C is wrong because CDC captures changes.

Option D is wrong because Parallel Apply is not a DMS setting.

29
MCQeasy

A company uses AWS Lambda to process events from an SQS queue. The Lambda function has a reserved concurrency of 5. During peak hours, messages are being backed up in the queue. The function's duration is well within the 15-minute limit. What is the fastest way to increase throughput?

A.Increase the function's maximum thread count.
B.Increase the reserved concurrency to 20.
C.Create additional SQS queues and distribute messages.
D.Increase the SQS batch size to 100.
AnswerB

More concurrency allows more messages to be processed in parallel.

Why this answer

Increasing the reserved concurrency to 20 allows more Lambda functions to run simultaneously, enabling more messages to be processed in parallel. This is the fastest way to increase throughput because it directly increases the number of concurrent executions handling messages from the SQS queue. Option A is incorrect because Lambda does not have a configurable maximum thread count.

Option C is incorrect because the SQS batch size is limited to a maximum of 10, not 100. Option D is incorrect because creating additional queues would require significant application changes and does not directly increase the processing capacity of the existing Lambda function.

30
MCQeasy

A company wants to centralize management of IAM users and groups across multiple AWS accounts. The solution should allow users to access resources in any account without needing separate credentials. Which AWS service should be used?

A.AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
B.AWS Organizations
C.AWS IAM Identity Center (AWS SSO)
D.AWS Directory Service for Microsoft Active Directory
AnswerC

Provides centralized user management and single sign-on.

Why this answer

AWS IAM Identity Center (formerly AWS SSO) is the correct service because it provides a centralized identity source that allows users to sign in once with a single set of credentials and then access multiple AWS accounts and applications. It integrates with AWS Organizations to manage user and group permissions across accounts, eliminating the need for separate IAM users in each account.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse AWS Organizations with a user management service, but Organizations only manages accounts and policies, not user identities or authentication.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because IAM is account-scoped and cannot centralize user management across multiple AWS accounts; it requires creating separate IAM users in each account, which defeats the goal of single sign-on. Option B is wrong because AWS Organizations provides policy-based management and consolidated billing but does not itself offer a user directory or authentication mechanism; it relies on IAM Identity Center or other identity providers for user access. Option D is wrong because AWS Directory Service for Microsoft Active Directory is a managed AD service that can be used as an identity source, but it is not the AWS-native service for centralizing IAM user and group management across accounts; IAM Identity Center is the recommended service for this purpose.

31
MCQmedium

A company has a multi-account AWS environment with a central security account. They want to enable Amazon GuardDuty in all accounts and centrally view findings. The security team has already enabled GuardDuty in the security account and invited all member accounts. However, the security account is not receiving findings from all member accounts. Upon investigation, some member accounts show that GuardDuty is not enabled, and some show that they have not accepted the invitation. The team needs a scalable solution to enable GuardDuty across all accounts and ensure findings are sent to the security account. What should the team do?

A.Use AWS Config rules to detect accounts without GuardDuty and send alerts.
B.Use AWS CloudFormation StackSets to deploy GuardDuty resources in each account.
C.Use AWS Control Tower to enable GuardDuty in all accounts via a custom blueprint.
D.Use the GuardDuty delegated administrator feature with AWS Organizations to automatically enable GuardDuty in all accounts and centralize findings.
AnswerD

Automates enablement and centralization.

Why this answer

The GuardDuty delegated administrator feature integrated with AWS Organizations allows the security account to be designated as the GuardDuty administrator, which can then automatically enable GuardDuty for all existing and future member accounts in the organization. This eliminates the need for manual invitations and acceptances, ensuring that findings are centrally aggregated in the security account without requiring per-account configuration.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may choose CloudFormation StackSets (Option B) thinking it can deploy GuardDuty resources across accounts, but they overlook that StackSets cannot automatically accept GuardDuty invitations or leverage the Organizations delegated administrator model to bypass the manual acceptance step.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS Config rules can only detect noncompliant resources and trigger alerts or remediation actions, but they cannot automatically enable GuardDuty across accounts or manage the invitation/acceptance workflow required for centralized findings. Option B is wrong because CloudFormation StackSets can deploy resources across accounts, but they require the member accounts to already have accepted the GuardDuty invitation or be part of the same organization; they do not automate the invitation acceptance process or leverage the delegated administrator model to bypass manual steps. Option C is wrong because AWS Control Tower custom blueprints are used to deploy additional governance controls or resources, but they do not natively support the GuardDuty delegated administrator feature; enabling GuardDuty across all accounts in Control Tower is better achieved through Organizations integration, not a custom blueprint.

32
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps to set up AWS CloudTrail for logging API activity in the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

First create the S3 bucket, then create the trail, configure events, enable security features, and verify delivery.

33
MCQmedium

A company has a multi-account AWS environment and wants to enforce that all EC2 instances are launched with a specific AMI ID. The AMI ID is maintained by the security team in a central account. What is the MOST effective way to enforce this across all accounts?

A.Create an EC2 launch template with the approved AMI and share it with all accounts
B.Use AWS CloudTrail to monitor instance launches and trigger a Lambda function to terminate non-compliant instances
C.Use AWS Config rules in each account to detect non-compliant instances and send alerts
D.Apply a service control policy (SCP) that denies ec2:RunInstances if the ami parameter does not match the approved AMI ID
AnswerD

SCPs enforce at the API level across all accounts in the organization.

Why this answer

An SCP can centrally deny the ec2:RunInstances action unless the request includes a specific AMI ID parameter, enforced across all accounts in the AWS Organization. This preventive control blocks non-compliant launches at the API level, ensuring no instance can be created with an unapproved AMI, regardless of account-level permissions.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates confuse detective controls (Config, CloudTrail/Lambda) with preventive controls (SCPs), assuming that alerting or terminating non-compliant instances is as effective as blocking the launch entirely.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because sharing an EC2 launch template does not enforce its use; users can still launch instances with other AMIs by ignoring the template. Option B is wrong because CloudTrail monitoring with Lambda termination is a reactive, detective control that allows non-compliant instances to run temporarily, incurring cost and risk before termination. Option C is wrong because AWS Config rules are also detective, only alerting or triggering remediation after a non-compliant instance exists, not preventing the launch.

34
MCQeasy

A DevOps engineer notices that a CloudFormation stack update fails with the error: 'UPDATE_ROLLBACK_FAILED'. The stack is in a state where some resources were updated, but others failed to update. The engineer needs to fix the stack and complete the update. What should the engineer do FIRST?

A.Add a new resource to the stack to force a new update
B.Manually correct the resources that are preventing rollback, then use 'ContinueUpdateRollback'
C.Submit another stack update with the original template to overwrite the changes
D.Delete the stack and recreate it with the same template
AnswerB

This is the standard procedure to recover from rollback failure.

Why this answer

When a stack update fails and rollback fails, you must manually fix the resources that prevent rollback (e.g., delete a resource that is stuck) and then continue the rollback. Option A is wrong because you cannot update a stack in UPDATE_ROLLBACK_FAILED state without first completing the rollback. Option C is wrong because you cannot add resources while in failure state.

Option D is wrong because you cannot delete the stack without first fixing the rollback.

35
Multi-Selecthard

A company uses AWS Organizations with a dedicated security account. They want to centralize the management of AWS Config rules and ensure that all accounts are compliant with the same set of rules. Which THREE steps should they take?

Select 3 answers
A.Apply a service control policy (SCP) that requires AWS Config to be enabled.
B.Create an AWS Config aggregator in the security account to view compliance status across accounts.
C.Use AWS CloudFormation StackSets to deploy the desired AWS Config rules to all accounts.
D.Enable AWS Config in all accounts across the organization.
E.Use AWS CloudTrail to monitor compliance status.
AnswersB, C, D

Centralized dashboard.

Why this answer

An AWS Config aggregator in the security account collects compliance data from all member accounts, providing a centralized view of rule compliance across the organization. This enables the security team to monitor and audit compliance without logging into each account individually.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing service control policies (SCPs) with service enablement; SCPs restrict permissions but cannot automatically enable AWS Config, leading candidates to incorrectly select option A as a way to enforce compliance.

36
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. A solutions architect runs the AWS CLI command to check the state of an EC2 instance. The output shows the instance is running. However, the application team reports that the instance is unreachable over SSH. What is the MOST likely cause?

A.The CLI command is querying the wrong instance
B.A security group rule blocks inbound SSH traffic
C.The instance is in a 'stopped' state
D.The instance does not have EBS optimization enabled
AnswerB

Security groups control inbound traffic.

Why this answer

The instance state is 'running', so it is not stopped or terminated. The most likely cause for being unreachable over SSH is that a security group rule blocks inbound SSH traffic (port 22). Option B is correct.

Option A is wrong because the query is for the correct instance. Option C is wrong because the instance is running. Option D is wrong because EBS optimization does not affect network connectivity.

37
Multi-Selecthard

A company is designing a new application that will process streaming data from thousands of IoT devices. The data must be ingested in real time and then processed using Apache Flink. Which services should be used? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.Amazon Kinesis Data Streams
B.AWS Lambda
C.Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics for Apache Flink
D.Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose
E.Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS)
AnswersA, C

Kinesis Data Streams is designed for real-time data ingestion.

Why this answer

Amazon Kinesis Data Streams is the correct ingestion service because it provides a durable, scalable, real-time data streaming platform that can handle the high throughput from thousands of IoT devices. It stores data in shards for up to 365 days, enabling Apache Flink to consume and process the data with exactly-once semantics and low latency.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Kinesis Data Firehose with Kinesis Data Streams, not realizing that Firehose is a delivery service that does not support Apache Flink's requirement for per-record replay and checkpointing, while Data Streams provides the necessary persistent, ordered stream.

38
MCQhard

A company is running a stateful web application on EC2 instances behind an ALB. Users report that when they refresh a page, they are logged out. What is the best solution to fix this issue?

A.Enable cross-zone load balancing on the ALB.
B.Enable sticky sessions on the ALB.
C.Replace the ALB with a Classic Load Balancer.
D.Use ElastiCache to store session data.
AnswerB

Sticky sessions route user to the same instance.

Why this answer

Enabling sticky sessions (session affinity) on the ALB ensures that all requests from a user session are routed to the same EC2 instance, preventing logout on page refresh. Option A is incorrect because cross-zone load balancing distributes traffic across instances in multiple Availability Zones but does not affect session persistence. Option C is incorrect because replacing the ALB with a Classic Load Balancer does not provide a better solution; ALB also supports sticky sessions.

Option D is incorrect because while ElastiCache can store session data externally, it does not address the routing issue; the root cause is that requests are going to different instances, so sticky sessions directly solve the problem.

39
MCQhard

Refer to the exhibit. An SCP is attached to an OU. A developer in an account under this OU tries to launch a t3.large EC2 instance. What will happen?

A.The instance launch is allowed because the condition uses StringNotEquals, which is not evaluated correctly.
B.The instance launch is denied because the SCP denies any instance type not in the allowed list.
C.The instance launch is denied, but only if the account's IAM policy also denies it.
D.The instance launch is allowed because the SCP has an explicit deny, but it only applies to certain instance types.
AnswerB

Correct: the deny effect applies when the condition is true.

Why this answer

The SCP explicitly denies any EC2 instance launch where the instance type does not match the allowed list using `StringNotEquals`. Since `t3.large` is not in the allowed list (`t2.micro`, `t2.small`, `t2.medium`), the condition evaluates to true, triggering the explicit deny. SCPs act as a guardrail that overrides any IAM permissions, so the launch is denied regardless of the account's IAM policies.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think `StringNotEquals` is a misconfiguration or that SCPs only apply if the IAM policy also denies, but in reality, an explicit deny in an SCP is absolute and cannot be bypassed by IAM allows.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because `StringNotEquals` is evaluated correctly by AWS; it denies actions when the specified value does not match the allowed list, not the other way around. Option C is wrong because SCPs are evaluated before IAM policies and can deny actions even if the IAM policy allows them; an explicit deny in an SCP cannot be overridden by an IAM allow. Option D is wrong because the SCP's explicit deny applies to all instance types not in the allowed list, and `t3.large` is not in that list, so the deny is triggered.

40
MCQeasy

A company has multiple AWS accounts that are centrally managed using AWS Organizations. The security team requires that all API activity be logged and retained for 7 years. The logs must be stored in a central Amazon S3 bucket that is in the management account. Which solution meets these requirements with the least operational overhead?

A.Enable CloudTrail in each account and use S3 Cross-Region Replication to copy logs to a central bucket.
B.Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to stream CloudTrail logs from each account to a central S3 bucket.
C.Enable CloudTrail in each account individually and configure log file delivery to a bucket in that account.
D.Enable AWS CloudTrail in the management account with organization trail, and configure the trail to deliver logs to an S3 bucket in the management account.
AnswerD

Organization trail delivers logs from all accounts to a central bucket.

Why this answer

Enabling an organization trail in the management account automatically applies CloudTrail to all accounts in the AWS Organization, delivering logs to a single S3 bucket in the management account without any per-account configuration or additional replication mechanisms. This meets the 7-year retention requirement with the least operational overhead, as the trail is centrally managed and logs are stored directly in the central bucket.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume they must enable CloudTrail in each account individually or use replication/streaming services, failing to recognize that an organization trail in the management account automatically centralizes log delivery from all accounts with minimal configuration.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because S3 Cross-Region Replication adds operational complexity and cost, and it does not address the need to centrally collect logs from all accounts without per-account CloudTrail setup. Option B is wrong because Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose requires setting up a delivery stream in each account and adds unnecessary complexity and potential data transformation overhead, whereas an organization trail provides direct log delivery. Option C is wrong because it requires enabling CloudTrail individually in each account and then manually aggregating logs from separate buckets, which increases operational overhead and does not leverage the centralized management capabilities of AWS Organizations.

41
MCQhard

A company runs a containerized application on Amazon ECS with Fargate launch type. The application experiences intermittent timeouts when calling an external API. The ECS tasks are in a private subnet with a NAT gateway. How can the company improve the reliability of outbound traffic?

A.Place the tasks in a public subnet with auto-assign public IP.
B.Deploy a NAT gateway in each Availability Zone and update the route tables.
C.Increase the NAT gateway's bandwidth by using a larger instance type.
D.Use AWS Transit Gateway to route traffic through a central VPC.
AnswerB

Eliminates single point of failure for outbound traffic.

Why this answer

A NAT Gateway in each AZ provides high availability; without it, a single NAT Gateway failure causes timeouts. Option A is wrong because it reduces security. Option C is wrong because it does not address NAT redundancy.

Option D is wrong because it adds complexity without directly fixing NAT issues.

42
MCQeasy

A company runs a web application on EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The application experiences periodic spikes in traffic. The operations team wants to ensure that the application can handle the spikes without manual intervention. What is the MOST cost-effective solution?

A.Use a scheduled scaling policy to add instances during predicted peak hours.
B.Create a target tracking scaling policy using the ALB RequestCountPerTarget metric.
C.Manually add instances when traffic spikes are expected.
D.Use a simple scaling policy based on CPU utilization.
AnswerB

This automatically scales based on request count per target.

Why this answer

A target tracking scaling policy automatically adjusts capacity based on a specific metric, and using the ALB RequestCountPerTarget metric is appropriate for handling traffic spikes in a cost-effective manner. This policy maintains the desired metric value by adding or removing instances as needed, without manual intervention. Option A is incorrect because a scheduled scaling policy assumes predictable peaks, but the traffic spikes are periodic and may not follow a fixed schedule.

Option C is incorrect because manual intervention is not cost-effective and defeats the purpose of automation. Option D is incorrect because a simple scaling policy based on CPU utilization may not react quickly enough to sudden traffic spikes and could be less cost-effective than target tracking.

43
Drag & Dropmedium

Drag and drop the steps to deploy a serverless application using AWS SAM in the correct order.

Drag steps to the numbered slots on the right, or tap a step then tap a slot.

Steps
Order
1Step 1
2Step 2
3Step 3
4Step 4

Why this order

The correct order for deploying a serverless application with AWS SAM is to first write the SAM template (defining resources and configuration), then build the application (compiling code and dependencies), then package the built artifacts (uploading to S3), then deploy the stack (using CloudFormation), and finally test the deployed application to ensure it works as expected. Common mistakes include swapping build and package, writing the template after building, or deploying before packaging, which lead to errors or incomplete deployments.

44
MCQeasy

A company is migrating a stateful application to AWS. The application maintains session state in memory on the application server. Which AWS service should be used to store session state for high availability?

A.Amazon RDS
B.Amazon S3
C.Amazon ElastiCache
D.Amazon EBS
AnswerC

ElastiCache (Memcached or Redis) is purpose-built for session state.

Why this answer

Mazon ElastiCache because it is a managed in-memory caching service that can store session state with low latency and high availability across multiple nodes. Option A (Amazon RDS) is a relational database that uses disk-based storage, making it slower for session state. Option B (Amazon S3) is object storage with higher latency, unsuitable for real-time session data.

Option D (Amazon EBS) is block storage attached to a single EC2 instance, not providing shared access for high availability.

45
MCQeasy

A company is using AWS Elastic Beanstalk to deploy a web application. The application's performance degrades over time due to increasing database connections. The company wants to implement a solution that automatically scales the database tier based on connection count. Which action should be taken?

A.Migrate the database to Amazon DynamoDB with auto scaling.
B.Use Amazon RDS Proxy to manage database connections and enable connection pooling.
C.Enable Multi-AZ on the RDS instance and modify the DB instance class.
D.Configure the Auto Scaling group to scale based on CPU utilization.
AnswerB

RDS Proxy reduces connection overhead and scales.

Why this answer

Amazon RDS Proxy manages connection pooling and can scale with application, reducing load on database. Option A is wrong because DynamoDB is a different database. Option C is wrong because scaling EC2 instances does not address database connections.

Option D is wrong because modifying RDS instance type is manual and not automatic.

46
MCQmedium

A solutions architect is troubleshooting an issue where an EC2 instance cannot connect to the internet. The output of the describe-instances CLI command is shown in the exhibit. The instance is in a VPC with a public subnet that has a route table with a default route pointing to an internet gateway. The security group allows outbound traffic to 0.0.0.0/0. What is the MOST likely cause of the problem?

A.The subnet's route table does not have a route to the internet gateway.
B.The instance does not have a public IP address.
C.The instance is not in a running state.
D.The security group is blocking outbound traffic.
AnswerB

Correct. The instance likely lacks a public IP address, which is required for direct internet access from a public subnet.

Why this answer

The stem states that the subnet has a route table with a default route to an internet gateway, and the security group allows outbound traffic. The exhibit shows describe-instances output, which likely indicates the instance does not have a public IP address. Without a public IP, the instance cannot communicate with the internet even though routing is configured correctly.

Option B is correct.

Exam trap

Candidates often assume that a route to an internet gateway is sufficient for internet access, but they overlook the need for the instance to have a public IP address in a public subnet.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the instance can still have a public IP address assigned (e.g., via an Elastic IP or auto-assign public IP), but without a route to the internet gateway, that public IP is irrelevant for outbound connectivity. Option C is wrong because the instance state is not mentioned in the exhibit as a problem; if it were not running, the describe-instances output would show a 'stopped' or 'terminated' state, and the question states the instance is running. Option D is wrong because the security group explicitly allows outbound traffic to 0.0.0.0/0, so it is not blocking traffic.

47
MCQmedium

Refer to the exhibit. A company has an IAM policy that allows s3:GetObject on all objects in 'my-bucket' but denies access to objects in the 'confidential' folder. A user tries to access 's3://my-bucket/confidential/report.pdf'. What will happen?

A.Access is denied because the Deny statement explicitly matches the resource.
B.Access is allowed because the Deny statement is not evaluated.
C.Access is denied only if the user is not authorized by other policies.
D.Access is allowed because the Allow statement is broader.
AnswerA

An explicit Deny always overrides an Allow.

Why this answer

An explicit Deny statement overrides any Allow. The policy denies access to objects in the 'confidential' folder, so the user will be denied access to 'report.pdf'. Option B is wrong because even though the Allow statement exists, the explicit Deny takes precedence.

Option C is wrong because the Deny is explicit and does not require other policies. Option D is wrong because the broader Allow does not override the explicit Deny.

48
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a microservices architecture using Amazon ECS with Fargate. The services need to communicate with each other. The company wants to implement service discovery and load balancing at the application layer. Which TWO services should the company use?

Select 2 answers
A.Amazon API Gateway
B.Network Load Balancer (NLB)
C.AWS Cloud Map
D.Application Load Balancer (ALB)
E.Amazon Route 53
AnswersC, D

Cloud Map provides service discovery for dynamic resources.

Why this answer

AWS Cloud Map is correct because it provides service discovery for microservices by allowing services to register their DNS names and health checks, enabling dynamic routing between ECS Fargate tasks. Application Load Balancer (ALB) is correct because it operates at Layer 7 (application layer), supporting HTTP/HTTPS traffic, path-based routing, and integration with ECS for load balancing across Fargate tasks.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Network Load Balancer (NLB) as an application-layer solution because it can handle TLS termination, but it operates at Layer 4 and lacks the HTTP-aware routing required for application-layer communication.

49
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is using AWS Organizations with multiple accounts. The central IT team wants to deploy a set of common VPCs in each account using AWS CloudFormation StackSets. The StackSets must be managed from the management account. Which THREE permissions are required for the StackSets to successfully deploy stacks into member accounts?

Select 3 answers
A.The management account must have an IAM role (StackSetsAdminRole) with permissions to create stack instances in member accounts.
B.The management account must have an AWS Organizations SCP that allows CloudFormation StackSets operations.
C.The execution role in member accounts must have permissions to create the resources defined in the CloudFormation template (e.g., VPC, subnets).
D.Each member account must have a self-managed IAM role named 'AWSCloudFormationStackSetExecutionRole' with a trust policy allowing the management account to assume it.
E.The management account must have permission to assume the execution role in member accounts (via IAM trust policy).
AnswersA, C, E

This is the admin role that assumes the execution role in member accounts.

Why this answer

StackSets require the management account to have an IAM role (commonly named 'AWSCloudFormationStackSetAdministrationRole') that grants permission to create and manage stack instances in member accounts. This role is assumed by CloudFormation to perform operations across accounts, and it must have a trust policy allowing the CloudFormation service to assume it.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the optional self-managed execution role (option D) as a requirement, when in fact service-managed StackSets eliminate the need for manual role creation in member accounts.

50
MCQeasy

A company uses AWS Organizations to manage multiple accounts. The security team wants to ensure that no IAM users are created in member accounts. All access must be through federated roles. Which approach should they use?

A.Apply an SCP to the root OU that denies the iam:CreateUser action.
B.Set an IAM password policy in each account that requires strong passwords.
C.Use AWS Config rules to detect IAM users and automatically delete them.
D.Use AWS CloudTrail to monitor for CreateUser and alert the security team.
AnswerA

SCPs prevent user creation entirely.

Why this answer

Service Control Policies (SCPs) in AWS Organizations allow the security team to centrally restrict permissions across all member accounts. By applying an SCP to the root organizational unit (OU) that denies the `iam:CreateUser` action, no IAM users can be created in any member account, ensuring all access must come from federated roles. SCPs are evaluated before IAM policies and cannot be overridden by account administrators, making them the most effective preventive control.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse detective controls (like AWS Config or CloudTrail) with preventive controls (like SCPs), assuming that monitoring or alerting can effectively enforce a policy, whereas only SCPs can proactively block the action across all accounts in an organization.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because setting an IAM password policy does not prevent the creation of IAM users; it only enforces password complexity requirements for existing users, so it fails to meet the goal of blocking user creation entirely. Option C is wrong because AWS Config rules are detective, not preventive; they can detect IAM users after creation but cannot automatically delete them without custom remediation actions, and even then, there is a window where users exist. Option D is wrong because AWS CloudTrail monitoring is also detective; it can alert on `CreateUser` events but does not prevent the action from occurring, so users could still be created before the security team responds.

51
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new container-based application using Amazon EKS. The application requires persistent storage for stateful workloads, such as databases. The storage must be highly available and durable across multiple Availability Zones. Which storage solution should be used?

A.Use Amazon EBS volumes with the EBS CSI driver.
B.Use Amazon FSx for Lustre as a shared file system.
C.Use Amazon EFS with the EFS CSI driver.
D.Use Amazon S3 with the S3 CSI driver.
AnswerC

EFS is a regional, highly available file system that can be mounted by containers across AZs.

Why this answer

Amazon EFS provides a fully managed, elastic NFS file system that is accessible from multiple Amazon EKS worker nodes across different Availability Zones simultaneously. The EFS CSI driver enables Kubernetes pods to mount EFS as a persistent volume, delivering the required high availability and durability for stateful workloads like databases without single-AZ dependency.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse EBS's single-AZ attachment with multi-AZ availability, or mistakenly think S3's CSI driver provides file-level access, when in fact EFS is the only AWS managed file system that natively supports multi-AZ access and the Kubernetes CSI standard for stateful workloads.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Amazon EBS volumes are bound to a single Availability Zone and cannot be shared across multiple AZs, making them unsuitable for multi-AZ highly available storage. Option B is wrong because Amazon FSx for Lustre is optimized for high-performance computing and large-scale data processing, not for general-purpose persistent storage for databases, and it lacks native integration with Kubernetes CSI for stateful workloads. Option D is wrong because Amazon S3 is an object storage service, not a file system; it does not support standard file system semantics like POSIX locks or concurrent read/write from multiple pods, and the S3 CSI driver is not an official or widely supported solution for persistent volume claims in EKS.

52
MCQmedium

A company is designing a new application that requires a relational database with automated backups and multi-AZ redundancy. The database workload is predictable with occasional read replicas for reporting. Which AWS service should be used?

A.Amazon RDS
B.Amazon Redshift
C.Amazon DynamoDB
D.Amazon ElastiCache
AnswerA

RDS provides managed relational databases with multi-AZ and backups.

Why this answer

Amazon RDS is the correct choice because it provides managed relational databases (e.g., MySQL, PostgreSQL, Oracle, SQL Server) with built-in automated backups and Multi-AZ redundancy for high availability. The workload is predictable and requires occasional read replicas for reporting, both of which are natively supported by RDS without the need for complex configuration.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse Amazon Redshift's columnar storage and read replica-like features (e.g., concurrency scaling) with a relational database, but Redshift is not designed for transactional workloads or automated Multi-AZ failover.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B (Amazon Redshift) is wrong because it is a petabyte-scale data warehouse optimized for analytical queries on large datasets, not a transactional relational database for predictable workloads with read replicas. Option C (Amazon DynamoDB) is wrong because it is a NoSQL key-value and document database that does not support relational features like joins or SQL queries, and its read replicas are not designed for occasional reporting in the same manner as RDS. Option D (Amazon ElastiCache) is wrong because it is an in-memory caching service (Redis/Memcached) that does not provide persistent relational storage, automated backups, or Multi-AZ redundancy for a database workload.

53
MCQmedium

A company receives a Trusted Advisor recommendation to reduce costs by deleting unused Amazon EBS snapshots. The company has hundreds of snapshots. Which approach should the company use to identify and delete snapshots that are no longer needed?

A.Enable detailed billing reports and analyze costs.
B.Use the AWS CLI to list all snapshots and manually check each one.
C.Use AWS Backup to manage snapshots and set retention rules.
D.Use Amazon S3 Lifecycle policies to expire snapshots automatically.
AnswerC

AWS Backup can automate snapshot lifecycle and identify old snapshots.

Why this answer

AWS Backup provides lifecycle policies and centralized snapshot management, making it easy to identify and automatically delete unused snapshots. Option A is incorrect because detailed billing reports show cost data but do not help identify which specific snapshots are unused. Option B is incorrect because manually checking each snapshot with the AWS CLI is not scalable for hundreds of snapshots.

Option D is incorrect because Amazon S3 Lifecycle policies manage S3 objects, not EBS snapshots.

54
MCQhard

A company has multiple AWS accounts that each have their own VPCs with overlapping CIDR ranges. They want to use AWS Transit Gateway to connect these VPCs to a central network account. However, overlapping CIDRs prevent attachment. What is the MOST scalable solution?

A.Use AWS PrivateLink to connect each VPC to the network account.
B.Create VPC peering connections between each VPC and the network account.
C.Set up a NAT gateway in each VPC and route traffic through the transit gateway using private IP addresses from a separate CIDR block.
D.Assign new non-overlapping CIDR ranges to each VPC and update all resources.
AnswerC

NAT translates overlapping IPs to unique addresses, enabling communication.

Why this answer

It uses a NAT gateway in each VPC to translate overlapping private IPs to unique private IPs from a separate CIDR block before routing through the Transit Gateway. This allows the Transit Gateway to forward traffic without conflict, as the NAT gateway performs source network address translation (SNAT) to eliminate IP overlap. This approach is highly scalable because it avoids re-architecting existing VPCs and can be applied incrementally as new VPCs are added.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume Transit Gateway can handle overlapping CIDRs natively, but it cannot; the NAT gateway is required to perform address translation before traffic enters the Transit Gateway, and this is the most scalable solution without renumbering VPCs.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS PrivateLink creates point-to-point connections via Network Load Balancers and endpoint services, which does not resolve overlapping CIDR conflicts between VPCs; it only provides private connectivity to specific services, not full network routing. Option B is wrong because VPC peering requires non-overlapping CIDR ranges to route traffic, and overlapping CIDRs will cause routing conflicts and prevent successful peering connections. Option D is wrong because assigning new non-overlapping CIDR ranges to each VPC is not scalable; it requires extensive reconfiguration of all resources, downtime, and is impractical for a large number of accounts with existing workloads.

55
Multi-Selectmedium

A company wants to implement a cost allocation strategy using tags across multiple accounts in AWS Organizations. Which TWO practices should be followed?

Select 2 answers
A.Define a standardized set of tags (e.g., CostCenter, Owner, Project) and enforce them using AWS Config rules.
B.Enable AWS-generated tags automatically for all resources.
C.Use service control policies (SCPs) to require tags on all resources.
D.Apply tags only at the resource creation time; they cannot be added later.
E.Use AWS Cost Explorer to filter costs by tags across accounts.
AnswersA, E

Standardization and enforcement are key for cost allocation.

Why this answer

Defining a standardized set of tags and enforcing them with AWS Config rules ensures consistent cost allocation tagging across all accounts in AWS Organizations. AWS Config rules can evaluate resources for tag compliance and trigger remediation actions, such as automatically tagging resources or sending notifications, which is essential for accurate cost tracking. This approach aligns with the AWS Well-Architected Framework's cost optimization pillar by enabling granular cost allocation and chargeback.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing service control policies (SCPs) with tag enforcement mechanisms; SCPs control permissions, not resource configurations, so candidates often incorrectly select SCPs for tagging requirements instead of AWS Config rules or tag policies.

56
MCQmedium

A company is building a new serverless application using AWS Lambda functions. The application processes images uploaded to an Amazon S3 bucket. Each image triggers a Lambda function that resizes the image and stores the result in another S3 bucket. The company expects a high volume of uploads, up to 10,000 images per minute. The current Lambda function is configured with a timeout of 5 minutes and 1024 MB of memory. During testing, the Lambda function times out for large images. What should the company do to ensure the function can process large images without timing out?

A.Increase the Lambda function timeout to 15 minutes.
B.Use Amazon SQS to decouple the S3 event and Lambda invocation, allowing Lambda to pull messages in batches.
C.Migrate the image processing to Amazon ECS on Fargate with a long-running task.
D.Increase the Lambda function memory to 3008 MB to get more CPU and network throughput.
AnswerD

More memory allocates more vCPU, speeding up image processing.

Why this answer

Increasing Lambda memory proportionally increases CPU and network throughput, which can significantly speed up image processing, especially for large images, thereby reducing the likelihood of timeout. Option A: Increasing timeout does not address the root cause of slow processing; it only allows the function to run longer, but the function may still time out if processing is too slow. Option B: Using SQS decouples invocation but does not speed up individual function execution; it mainly helps with throttling and retries.

Option C: Migrating to ECS on Fargate is not necessary; Lambda can handle this workload with sufficient memory allocation.

57
MCQhard

A company is migrating a legacy application that uses TCP on port 8080 to AWS. The application must be accessible from the internet. The company wants to use an Application Load Balancer. What must the company do to ensure the load balancer can accept traffic on port 8080?

A.Configure the security group to allow inbound traffic on port 80 and 443 only.
B.Change the ALB's default port to 8080.
C.Assign an Elastic IP address to the ALB.
D.Create a listener for port 8080 on the ALB.
AnswerD

You can create a listener for any port.

Why this answer

ALB supports custom ports; you create a listener for port 8080. Option A is wrong because ALB does not require a specific security group port; you can configure any port. Option B is wrong because you cannot change the ALB's default ports; you add a listener.

Option C is wrong because ALB itself does not need a public IP; it uses a DNS name.

58
MCQmedium

A company is designing a multi-account AWS environment for different business units. They need to share a central Amazon RDS database with read replicas in each account for disaster recovery. What architecture minimizes cross-region data transfer costs while maintaining high availability?

A.Use a VPC endpoint to share the database across accounts without data transfer costs.
B.Create a cross-region read replica in the central account and grant access to other accounts.
C.Share a snapshot of the RDS instance with each account and restore it as a read replica in the same region.
D.Create an IAM role in each account to access the central RDS instance directly.
AnswerB

This uses a cross-region read replica that can be accessed by other accounts, providing a continuously synced copy for disaster recovery. Although cross-region data transfer costs apply, it is the only option that uses a proper read replica.

Why this answer

Creating a cross-region read replica in the central account and granting access to other accounts allows each account to have a local read replica that stays in sync with the source, providing high availability and disaster recovery while minimizing cross-region data transfer costs (since replicas are in the same region as the source? Actually, the replica is cross-region, so costs are incurred, but among the given options, this is the only one that uses actual read replicas for continuous replication. Option C is wrong because restoring a snapshot creates an independent instance that does not automatically sync with the source, so it does not meet the requirement for continuous replication and disaster recovery.

Exam trap

Candidates often mistakenly think that sharing a snapshot and restoring it creates a read replica, but snapshots are point-in-time and do not replicate ongoing changes. A true read replica requires continuous replication.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because VPC endpoints (Gateway or Interface endpoints) are used for private connectivity to AWS services within the same region and do not eliminate data transfer costs for cross-region replication; they also cannot share an RDS database across accounts without additional configuration. Option B is wrong because creating a cross-region read replica in the central account and granting access to other accounts would incur cross-region data transfer costs for replication traffic, which contradicts the requirement to minimize such costs. Option D is wrong because creating an IAM role in each account to access the central RDS instance directly does not provide a local read replica for disaster recovery and would introduce cross-region latency and potential single points of failure.

59
MCQhard

A company is migrating an on-premises .NET application to AWS. The application uses a SQL Server database with a large number of stored procedures and triggers. The company wants to reduce licensing costs by moving to an open-source database. Which AWS service should the solutions architect use to automate the database conversion?

A.AWS Database Migration Service (DMS)
B.AWS App2Container
C.AWS Schema Conversion Tool (SCT)
D.AWS Application Migration Service (CloudEndure)
AnswerC

Correct: SCT automates schema and code conversion to target databases.

Why this answer

AWS Schema Conversion Tool (SCT) automates the conversion of database schema and code to a target database like PostgreSQL or MySQL. DMS handles data migration, not schema conversion. App2Container is for containerizing applications.

CloudEndure is for server migration.

60
Multi-Selectmedium

A company is designing a disaster recovery strategy for a production database running on Amazon RDS for MySQL. The RTO is 15 minutes and RPO is 1 hour. Which TWO solutions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Export the database to Amazon S3 using AWS DMS and import in another Region
B.Deploy Multi-AZ RDS instance and enable automatic failover
C.Use automated backups with point-in-time recovery in the same Region
D.Take manual snapshots every hour and restore in another Region
E.Create a cross-Region read replica and promote it during disaster
AnswersB, E

Multi-AZ provides synchronous replication, RPO ~seconds, RTO ~minutes.

Why this answer

Multi-AZ RDS for MySQL provides automatic synchronous standby replication to a different Availability Zone, enabling automatic failover within minutes (typically 1-2 minutes) without data loss. This meets the 15-minute RTO and 1-hour RPO, as failover is automated and synchronous replication ensures zero data loss.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Multi-AZ (synchronous, same-Region) with cross-Region read replicas (asynchronous, cross-Region), or assume manual snapshots can meet tight RTO/RPO without considering restore time and operational complexity.

61
MCQhard

A company is designing a new web application that will be deployed on Amazon ECS with Fargate. The application must scale based on the number of requests per container. The company wants to use a service that can automatically adjust the number of tasks based on a custom metric. Which solution should the company use?

A.Configure an ECS Service Auto Scaling policy with a target tracking scaling policy based on a custom CloudWatch metric.
B.Configure Amazon DynamoDB auto scaling to adjust the read capacity based on the request count.
C.Use Application Auto Scaling to register the ECS service and create a step scaling policy.
D.Use the AWS Auto Scaling console to create a scaling plan that includes the ECS service.
AnswerA

ECS Service Auto Scaling supports target tracking for custom metrics.

Why this answer

ECS Service Auto Scaling with a target tracking scaling policy can use a custom CloudWatch metric (e.g., requests per container) to automatically adjust the number of Fargate tasks. This approach directly matches the requirement to scale based on a custom metric, as target tracking maintains the metric at a specified target value by adding or removing tasks.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may confuse step scaling with target tracking, or incorrectly assume that a scaling plan from the AWS Auto Scaling console is required for ECS services, when in fact ECS Service Auto Scaling with target tracking is the direct and recommended solution for custom metrics.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because DynamoDB auto scaling adjusts read/write capacity for a DynamoDB table, not ECS task counts; it is irrelevant to scaling a web application's containerized tasks. Option C is wrong because while Application Auto Scaling can register an ECS service, step scaling policies require predefined step adjustments and are less optimal for maintaining a custom metric at a target value compared to target tracking. Option D is wrong because the AWS Auto Scaling console creates scaling plans for multiple resources, but for ECS services, the recommended and simpler approach is to use ECS Service Auto Scaling directly with a target tracking policy, not a scaling plan.

62
Multi-Selecthard

A company is using AWS CodePipeline to automate deployments of a web application. The pipeline includes a build stage using AWS CodeBuild and a deploy stage using AWS CodeDeploy to an Auto Scaling group. Recently, deployments have been failing during the deploy stage with an error indicating that the target instances are not in a healthy state. The CodeDeploy agent logs show that the agent is running but the application validation scripts are failing. Which THREE actions should the solutions architect take to troubleshoot and resolve the issue?

Select 3 answers
A.Test the validation script manually on a healthy instance to confirm it works as expected.
B.Increase the deployment timeout in the CodeDeploy deployment group to allow more time for validation.
C.Review the CodeDeploy agent logs on a failing instance to identify the specific error in the validation script.
D.Verify that the AppSpec file includes the correct lifecycle event hooks (e.g., ValidateService).
E.Configure an Auto Scaling lifecycle hook to perform health checks before the instance is placed in service.
AnswersA, C, D

Manual testing helps isolate whether the script itself is faulty.

Why this answer

Options A, C, and D are correct. Checking AppSpec hooks ensures the validation scripts are correctly defined. Reviewing CodeDeploy agent logs helps identify script failures.

Testing the validation script manually on a healthy instance verifies its functionality. Option B is wrong because increasing the deployment timeout does not fix the script failure. Option E is wrong because CodeDeploy does not use Auto Scaling lifecycle hooks for instance health; it uses its own deployment lifecycle.

63
Multi-Selecteasy

A company is migrating a batch processing workload to AWS. The workload runs daily and processes large files. Which TWO AWS services are most suitable for this workload? (Choose TWO.)

Select 2 answers
A.AWS Step Functions
B.Amazon ECS
C.Amazon SQS
D.AWS Batch
E.AWS Lambda
AnswersA, D

Step Functions can orchestrate batch workflows.

Why this answer

AWS Batch is a purpose-built service for batch computing, handling job scheduling, scaling, and execution. AWS Step Functions orchestrates the workflow, managing dependencies, retries, and parallelism. The other options are less suitable: Amazon ECS is for container orchestration, not specifically batch; Amazon SQS is a message queue; AWS Lambda has execution time and memory limits that make it unsuitable for processing large files daily.

Therefore, the two correct choices are AWS Batch and AWS Step Functions.

64
MCQhard

A company runs a critical web application on EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). During a recent deployment, users experienced errors. The team wants to automatically roll back the deployment if the error rate exceeds 5% within 10 minutes after deployment. Which solution meets these requirements with minimal operational overhead?

A.Configure the Auto Scaling group to use ELB health checks and replace instances if the error rate increases.
B.Use CodeDeploy with manual approval gates and a script that checks error rates.
C.Use CodeDeploy with a CloudWatch alarm on the ALB error rate that triggers a deployment rollback.
D.Use a custom Lambda function that monitors ALB error rates and triggers a rollback via CodeDeploy API.
AnswerC

CodeDeploy natively supports CloudWatch alarm-based automatic rollback.

Why this answer

AWS CodeDeploy supports automatic rollback based on CloudWatch alarm metrics, such as the ALB error rate exceeding 5% for 10 minutes, with minimal operational overhead. Option A is incorrect because modifying Auto Scaling group health checks does not directly monitor application-level error rates for rollback. Option B is incorrect because manual approval gates require human intervention and do not provide automatic rollback.

Option D is incorrect because using a custom Lambda function adds complexity and is not the best practice; CodeDeploy with CloudWatch alarms provides a simpler, fully managed solution.

65
MCQhard

A company uses AWS Organizations with hundreds of accounts. The central IT team wants to manage IP address ranges for VPCs across all accounts using a custom AWS Resource Access Manager (RAM) resource share. They have created a resource share containing the IP address CIDR blocks (as managed prefix lists) and shared it with the organization. However, some accounts cannot see the shared prefix lists. What is the MOST likely cause?

A.The organization's sharing feature for Amazon VPC is not enabled in the management account.
B.Managed prefix lists are not supported by AWS RAM.
C.The accounts need to accept the resource share invitation manually.
D.The resource share can only include one type of resource at a time.
AnswerA

RAM requires enabling sharing with AWS Organizations for each service; VPC sharing must be enabled.

Why this answer

AWS Organizations requires the 'Enable sharing with AWS Organizations' feature to be explicitly enabled in the management account for RAM to share resources with all accounts in the organization. Without this setting, resource shares are limited to individual accounts, and prefix lists shared via RAM will not be visible to member accounts.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often assume sharing with an organization works automatically without any prerequisite configuration, overlooking the explicit enablement step required in the management account.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because managed prefix lists are fully supported by AWS RAM and can be shared across accounts. Option C is wrong because when sharing with an organization, member accounts do not need to accept invitations; the sharing is automatic once the feature is enabled. Option D is wrong because a single RAM resource share can include multiple resource types, such as prefix lists, subnets, and licenses, as long as they are supported by RAM.

66
Matchingmedium

Match each AWS networking concept to its definition.

Drag a concept onto its matching description — or click a concept then click the description.

Concepts
Matches

Connect two VPCs using private IP addresses

Allow private instances to access the internet

Enable communication between VPC and the internet

Stateless firewall for controlling traffic at subnet level

Stateful firewall for controlling traffic at instance level

Why these pairings

A VPC is a logically isolated virtual network. Subnets are subdivisions of the VPC. An Internet Gateway provides internet access to public subnets, while a NAT Gateway provides outbound internet access to private subnets.

Security Groups control instance-level traffic.

67
MCQhard

A company is designing a new application that will use Amazon DynamoDB as its primary database. The application has two access patterns: one requires strongly consistent reads, and the other requires eventually consistent reads. The company wants to minimize costs while meeting the read consistency requirements. How should the company configure DynamoDB reads?

A.Use strongly consistent reads for all read requests to ensure data accuracy.
B.Use DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX) to cache reads and achieve strong consistency.
C.Use DynamoDB global tables with strongly consistent reads enabled.
D.Use strongly consistent reads for the pattern that requires it, and eventually consistent reads for the other pattern.
AnswerD

Optimizes cost by using the cheaper eventually consistent reads when acceptable.

Why this answer

DynamoDB supports both strongly consistent reads and eventually consistent reads at the API level (via the `ConsistentRead` parameter). Strongly consistent reads return the most up-to-date data but consume twice the read capacity units (RCUs) compared to eventually consistent reads. By using strongly consistent reads only for the access pattern that requires it, and eventually consistent reads for the other pattern, the company minimizes RCU consumption and thus costs while meeting the specific consistency requirements of each pattern.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may assume DAX can provide strong consistency (it cannot) or that global tables are a solution for local consistency requirements, when in fact the correct approach is to use the native DynamoDB `ConsistentRead` parameter selectively based on the access pattern.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because using strongly consistent reads for all requests would double the RCU consumption for the pattern that only needs eventually consistent reads, unnecessarily increasing costs. Option B is wrong because DAX is an in-memory cache that provides eventually consistent reads by default; it does not support strongly consistent reads, so it cannot satisfy the pattern requiring strong consistency. Option C is wrong because DynamoDB global tables are designed for multi-region replication and provide eventually consistent reads across regions; they do not support strongly consistent reads globally, and enabling them does not help meet local consistency requirements.

68
MCQhard

A company has a legacy application that runs on a single EC2 instance. The application writes logs to a local file. The company wants to centralize log management without modifying the application code. Which solution is MOST operationally efficient?

A.Use AWS CloudTrail to capture log file changes.
B.Modify the application to write logs to stdout and use the awslogs driver.
C.Install and configure the Amazon CloudWatch agent on the EC2 instance.
D.Set up an Amazon S3 bucket and use an AWS Lambda function to periodically copy log files.
AnswerC

CloudWatch agent can collect logs from local files without code changes.

Why this answer

The Amazon CloudWatch agent can be installed on the EC2 instance without modifying application code. It reads the local log file and sends the logs to Amazon CloudWatch Logs for centralized management, making it the most operationally efficient solution.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates may think modifying the application to use stdout with the awslogs driver is simpler, but that requires code changes, which the question explicitly prohibits.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because AWS CloudTrail captures API activity and management events, not log file changes on an EC2 instance. Option B is wrong because it requires modifying the application code to write logs to stdout, which violates the requirement to not modify application code. Option D is wrong because setting up an S3 bucket and Lambda function to periodically copy log files introduces unnecessary complexity and latency compared to the real-time streaming provided by the CloudWatch agent.

69
MCQmedium

A company is migrating a legacy monolithic application to AWS. The application currently uses a shared filesystem for storing user-uploaded documents. The company wants to decouple storage and compute, ensure high durability, and minimize operational overhead. Which AWS service should the company use to replace the shared filesystem?

A.Amazon EBS
B.Amazon EFS
C.Amazon S3
D.Amazon FSx for Windows File Server
AnswerC

Amazon S3 provides scalable, durable object storage suitable for user-uploaded documents.

Why this answer

Amazon S3 is the correct choice because it provides a highly durable (99.999999999% durability), scalable, and fully managed object storage service that decouples storage from compute. Unlike a shared filesystem, S3 allows multiple compute instances (e.g., EC2, Lambda) to access the same documents via HTTP/HTTPS APIs without needing a mounted filesystem, minimizing operational overhead. It also supports features like versioning, lifecycle policies, and cross-region replication, making it ideal for user-uploaded documents in a migration scenario.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse shared filesystem requirements with network-attached storage (NAS) services like EFS or FSx, overlooking that object storage (S3) is the most durable, scalable, and operationally lightweight option for user-uploaded documents when compute and storage need to be decoupled.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because Amazon EBS provides block-level storage that must be attached to a single EC2 instance at a time (or shared via multi-attach with specific constraints), making it unsuitable as a shared filesystem for multiple compute instances and not decoupling storage from compute. Option B is wrong because Amazon EFS is a managed NFS filesystem that, while shared, still requires compute instances to mount it and incurs operational overhead for managing file-level access, and it does not offer the same level of durability (99.999999999% vs 99.999999999% for S3) or cost efficiency for large-scale document storage. Option D is wrong because Amazon FSx for Windows File Server provides a fully managed Windows file server using the SMB protocol, which introduces licensing costs and operational complexity, and is not designed for the high durability and decoupling benefits of object storage for user-uploaded documents.

70
MCQmedium

A company runs a critical workload on EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group across three Availability Zones. The application needs to maintain a consistent IP address for outbound traffic to external partners. The current design uses a NAT gateway in each AZ, but partners whitelist a single IP. How can the company provide a fixed outbound IP while maintaining high availability?

A.Use a proxy fleet of EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer.
B.Use a single NAT gateway across all three AZs and assign an Elastic IP.
C.Use a NAT instance with an Elastic IP in one AZ.
D.Deploy a Network Load Balancer with Elastic IPs in front of NAT instances in each AZ.
AnswerD

NLB provides a static IP and distributes traffic to NAT instances across AZs for HA.

Why this answer

A Network Load Balancer (NLB) with Elastic IPs can distribute traffic to NAT instances across multiple Availability Zones, providing a fixed outbound IP and high availability. If one AZ fails, the NLB redirects traffic to healthy NAT instances in other AZs, ensuring the workload remains operational. Option A is incorrect because a proxy fleet behind an ALB would still result in multiple outbound IPs, as ALB instances have different IPs.

Option B is incorrect because using a single NAT gateway across all AZs is not possible – NAT gateways are AZ-specific and cannot span zones; also, a single NAT gateway is a single point of failure. Option C is incorrect because a single NAT instance in one AZ lacks high availability – if that AZ fails, outbound connectivity is lost.

71
MCQhard

A company is designing a microservices architecture on ECS with Fargate. Services need to communicate securely within a VPC and be accessible from the internet via an Application Load Balancer. The solution must minimize operational overhead. Which networking configuration should be used?

A.Services in private subnets with a NAT Gateway and an ALB in public subnets.
B.Services in private subnets with a VPC endpoint and an NLB.
C.Services in a single public subnet with an ALB.
D.Services in public subnets with Internet Gateways and an ALB.
AnswerA

Private subnets provide isolation, NAT for outbound, ALB for inbound.

Why this answer

Placing ECS Fargate services in private subnets ensures they are not directly exposed to the internet, enhancing security. The Application Load Balancer (ALB) in public subnets handles internet-facing traffic and forwards requests to the private services. A NAT Gateway is required for the private services to initiate outbound internet access (e.g., for pulling container images or external dependencies), while the ALB provides inbound connectivity without exposing the services directly.

This setup minimizes operational overhead by using AWS-managed components (Fargate, ALB, NAT Gateway) and avoids managing bastion hosts or custom routing.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse the need for a NAT Gateway with outbound-only internet access, mistakenly thinking private subnets cannot reach the internet at all, or they assume an NLB is sufficient for HTTP-based microservices without considering Layer 7 routing requirements.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because a Network Load Balancer (NLB) operates at Layer 4 and does not support HTTP/HTTPS routing or path-based rules, which are typically needed for microservices; also, VPC endpoints are used for private connectivity to AWS services, not for internet-facing traffic, and the question requires internet accessibility via an ALB. Option C is wrong because placing services in a single public subnet exposes them directly to the internet, bypassing the security of private subnets and increasing attack surface; it also violates best practices for microservices isolation. Option D is wrong because placing services in public subnets with Internet Gateways directly exposes them to inbound internet traffic, defeating the purpose of a secure microservices architecture and increasing operational overhead for security groups and patching.

72
MCQhard

A global company uses AWS Organizations with many OUs and accounts. The finance team needs to track costs by cost center, which is tagged on each resource. However, some resources are not tagged. Which solution will provide the MOST accurate cost allocation?

A.Enable cost allocation tags and use AWS Cost Explorer to filter by tag.
B.Create AWS Budgets reports for each cost center using tag filters.
C.Export AWS Cost and Usage Reports to Amazon QuickSight and use tag-based filtering.
D.Use AWS Cost Categories to group costs by tag value and set a default rule for untagged resources.
AnswerD

Cost Categories can group costs by tags and assign untagged resources to a default category.

Why this answer

AWS Cost Categories allow you to group costs by tag values and, crucially, set a default rule for untagged resources. This ensures that all resources—tagged or not—are assigned to a cost center, providing the most accurate cost allocation across the entire organization. Other options only filter or report on tagged resources, leaving untagged costs unallocated.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates assume tag-based filtering or reporting tools (Cost Explorer, Budgets, QuickSight) can handle untagged resources, but they cannot—only Cost Categories with a default rule can allocate costs for untagged resources.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because enabling cost allocation tags and using Cost Explorer to filter by tag only reports on resources that already have the tag; untagged resources are excluded, leading to incomplete cost allocation. Option B is wrong because AWS Budgets reports with tag filters also only apply to tagged resources; they do not handle untagged resources, so costs from untagged resources are not tracked by cost center. Option C is wrong because exporting CUR to QuickSight and using tag-based filtering still requires tags to be present on resources; untagged resources are not assigned to any cost center, resulting in inaccurate allocation.

73
MCQeasy

A retail company is migrating its e-commerce platform from a monolith running on a single on-premises server to AWS. The current application consists of a Java-based web server, a MySQL database, and a caching layer using Redis. The company wants to modernize the architecture by adopting microservices, using serverless where possible, and minimizing operational overhead. The migration must be completed within six months with minimal disruption to ongoing operations. The solutions architect proposes the following initial steps: containerize the Java application and run it on Amazon ECS with Fargate, migrate the MySQL database to Amazon Aurora Serverless v2, and replace Redis with Amazon ElastiCache for Redis Serverless. However, the team is concerned about the complexity of the migration and the potential for downtime. Which recommendation should the solutions architect make to address these concerns?

A.Rewrite the entire application as microservices from scratch and deploy them in a new AWS environment. Cut over all traffic at once after testing.
B.Use AWS Blue/Green deployment for the monolith to reduce downtime, then migrate to microservices after the deployment is stable.
C.Use the Strangler Fig pattern to incrementally replace monolith functionality with microservices, routing traffic to new services as they are built.
D.Perform a lift-and-shift migration of the monolith to EC2 instances, then gradually refactor into microservices over the next year.
AnswerC

This pattern allows gradual migration with minimal disruption, aligns with the timeline, and enables modernization in steps.

Why this answer

The Strangler Fig pattern allows the team to incrementally replace specific functionalities of the monolithic e-commerce platform with microservices, routing traffic to the new services as they are built. This minimizes disruption and downtime by avoiding a big-bang cutover, and it aligns with the goal of modernizing to microservices and serverless within the six-month timeline. The pattern leverages an existing ingress controller (e.g., an Application Load Balancer with path-based routing) to gradually shift requests from the monolith to new services running on Amazon ECS with Fargate, while the database and caching layers are migrated separately with minimal impact.

Exam trap

The trap here is that candidates often confuse Blue/Green deployments (which reduce downtime for a single application version) with the Strangler Fig pattern (which is specifically designed for incremental migration from a monolith to microservices), leading them to choose Option B as a safe but incomplete solution.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because rewriting the entire application from scratch as microservices and performing a single cutover introduces high complexity, significant risk of downtime, and likely exceeds the six-month timeline, contradicting the requirement for minimal disruption. Option B is wrong because Blue/Green deployment for the monolith reduces downtime during deployment but does not address the migration to microservices; it keeps the monolith intact and defers the modernization, failing to meet the goal of adopting microservices and serverless. Option D is wrong because a lift-and-shift to EC2 instances postpones refactoring for over a year, which violates the six-month migration deadline and does not minimize operational overhead, as it retains the monolithic architecture and requires managing EC2 instances.

74
MCQeasy

A company is designing a new microservices architecture on Amazon ECS with Fargate. Each microservice must be isolated and able to communicate with others only through defined APIs. Which solution provides the BEST isolation and security?

A.Use AWS App Mesh with Envoy sidecars to control traffic between services.
B.Place all microservices in the same security group and allow all traffic.
C.Use an Application Load Balancer per microservice with listener rules.
D.Use VPC peering between each microservice's VPC.
AnswerA

App Mesh provides service-level security and observability.

Why this answer

AWS App Mesh with Envoy sidecars provides service-level traffic control, encryption, and observability without modifying application code. It enforces fine-grained routing and security policies (e.g., mTLS, retries, timeouts) between microservices, ensuring isolation and that communication only occurs through defined APIs. This aligns with the microservices principle of strict API boundaries and defense in depth.

Exam trap

The SAP-C02 exam often tests the misconception that network-level controls (security groups, VPC peering) are sufficient for microservice isolation, but the exam requires understanding that application-layer service mesh (like App Mesh) provides the necessary API-level security and observability.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because placing all microservices in the same security group and allowing all traffic removes network segmentation, violating the isolation requirement and exposing services to unrestricted lateral movement. Option C is wrong because an Application Load Balancer per microservice adds unnecessary complexity, cost, and does not enforce service-to-service API-level security; ALBs operate at Layer 7 but cannot enforce mTLS or fine-grained routing between individual service instances. Option D is wrong because VPC peering between each microservice's VPC is operationally unscalable (n² peering connections), introduces latency, and does not provide application-layer API control or encryption between services.

75
MCQmedium

A company runs a batch processing application on a scheduled EC2 instance that starts every night. The instance processes a large number of files from an S3 bucket and writes results to another S3 bucket. The job takes approximately 6 hours to complete. Recently, the job has been failing after 4 hours with an error indicating that the instance's EBS root volume is full. The instance type is t3.medium with a 20 GB gp2 root volume. The application writes temporary files to the root volume. The company wants to fix this with minimal changes to the application and infrastructure. What should a solutions architect recommend?

A.Create an additional EBS volume and mount it to the instance.
B.Change the instance type to one with instance store volumes.
C.Increase the size of the EBS root volume to 100 GB.
D.Modify the application to compress temporary files.
AnswerC

More space on root volume resolves the issue without code changes.

Why this answer

Increasing the root volume size provides more space for temporary files without requiring application changes. Option A is wrong because creating an additional EBS volume and mounting it would require application changes to write to a different path. Option B is wrong because instance store volumes are ephemeral and may not be available on t3 instances, and would also require application changes.

Option D is wrong because compressing temporary files may not be sufficient and requires code changes.

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