MS-102 Practice Test 3 — 10 Questions

Question 1

Your organization uses Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps. You need to create a policy that detects when a user signs in from an unknown IP address and then downloads a large number of files. Which THREE components should you configure?

Choose an answer to begin — your selection is scored in the full session.

Accepted Answer

Scope (users and groups). The policy must be scoped to specific users or groups to ensure that the anomaly detection rule (unknown IP followed by mass download) applies only to the intended set of accounts. Without scoping, the policy would evaluate all users, which may generate excessive noise or miss targeted monitoring. In Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps, the Scope (users and groups) setting is a required component when creating an anomaly detection policy to define which identities are monitored.

Answer

IP address range category

Answer

Session policy

Question 2

Your organization is planning to migrate from on-premises Exchange to Exchange Online. You need to choose a migration strategy. Which TWO statements about migration methods are correct?

Accepted Answer

A minimal hybrid deployment allows you to manage mailboxes in both on-premises and Exchange Online.. A minimal hybrid deployment uses Microsoft Entra Connect to synchronize on-premises Active Directory with Microsoft Entra ID, enabling centralized management of mailboxes across both environments. This allows administrators to manage on-premises and Exchange Online mailboxes from a single Exchange admin center, making option B correct.

Answer

A hybrid migration requires that you do not synchronize on-premises Active Directory with Microsoft Entra ID.

Answer

A staged migration can be used to migrate mailboxes from Exchange 2019 to Exchange Online.

Answer

An IMAP migration migrates email, contacts, and calendar data.

Question 3

A company plans to enable Self-Service Password Reset (SSPR) for all users. The administrator needs to ensure that users are required to register at least two authentication methods before they can use SSPR. Which configuration setting should the administrator modify?

Accepted Answer

Set the 'Number of methods required to reset' to 2 in the SSPR authentication methods settings.. The 'Number of methods required to reset' setting directly controls how many authentication methods a user must provide during the SSPR reset process. By setting this value to 2, the administrator ensures that users must register at least two methods (e.g., phone and email) before they can reset their password, as SSPR requires the registered methods to match the reset requirement.

Answer

Enable combined registration for SSPR and Microsoft Entra ID Multi-Factor Authentication.

Answer

Configure a Conditional Access policy requiring MFA registration for SSPR.

Answer

Set the 'Number of questions required to register' to 2 in the security questions settings.

Question 4

An organization wants to delegate user creation to help desk staff without granting global admin rights. Which role should be assigned?

Accepted Answer

User Administrator. The User Administrator role is the correct choice because it grants the specific permissions needed to create and manage users and groups, including resetting passwords, without the broad privileges of Global Administrator. This role aligns with the principle of least privilege for help desk staff who need to perform user creation tasks.

Answer

Global Administrator

Answer

Helpdesk Administrator

Answer

License Administrator

Question 5

You are a security administrator for a company that uses Microsoft Defender XDR. You need to integrate Microsoft Defender XDR with Microsoft Sentinel to create a unified incident view. You want to ensure that incidents from Defender XDR are automatically created in Sentinel. What should you do?

Accepted Answer

Enable the Microsoft Defender XDR connector in Microsoft Sentinel and turn on incident creation. Enabling the Microsoft Defender XDR connector in Microsoft Sentinel and turning on incident creation is the correct method to ensure incidents from Defender XDR are automatically created in Sentinel. This provides a unified incident view and enables Sentinel's SOAR capabilities on Defender XDR incidents.

Answer

In Microsoft Defender XDR settings, enable the Microsoft Sentinel integration and select the Sentinel workspace

Answer

Configure a custom detection rule in Defender XDR that calls the Microsoft Sentinel API

Answer

Install the Microsoft Sentinel solution for Microsoft Defender XDR from the Content Hub

Question 6

Your organization uses Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. You need to configure advanced hunting to query device information. Which TWO tables contain device-related data?

Accepted Answer

DeviceInfo. DeviceInfo is correct because it is the primary table in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint advanced hunting that stores comprehensive device metadata, including OS version, device name, and sensor health. This table is essential for querying device-related information such as device inventory, onboarding status, and configuration details.

Answer

AlertInfo

Answer

EmailEvents

Answer

IdentityLogonEvents

Question 7

Which THREE features are part of Microsoft Defender XDR? (Select THREE.)

Accepted Answer

Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. Microsoft Defender XDR is a unified security solution that integrates signals from Microsoft Defender for Endpoint, Microsoft Defender for Office 365, Microsoft Defender for Identity, and others. The correct answers are B, C, and E. Option A (Microsoft Purview) is a data governance and compliance solution, not part of Defender XDR. Option D (Microsoft Sentinel) is a separate cloud-native SIEM and SOAR solution.

Answer

Microsoft Purview

Answer

Microsoft Sentinel

Question 8

Your organization wants to use Microsoft Defender for Office 365 to protect against malicious links and attachments in email. Which Defender plan is required?

Accepted Answer

Microsoft Defender for Office 365 Plan 1.. Microsoft Defender for Office 365 Plan 1 includes Safe Links and Safe Attachments, which are the specific features required to protect against malicious links and attachments in email. These features scan URLs and attachments in real time to block malicious content before it reaches users.

Answer

Exchange Online Protection.

Answer

Microsoft Defender for Endpoint.

Answer

Microsoft Defender for Office 365 Plan 2.

Question 9

Which THREE are features of Microsoft Entra ID Governance? (Choose three.)

Accepted Answer

Entitlement management. Entitlement management is a core feature of Microsoft Entra ID Governance that enables organizations to manage the lifecycle of access for internal and external users through access packages, catalogs, and policies. It automates access requests, approvals, and assignments, ensuring users have the right access to resources like groups, apps, and SharePoint sites.

Answer

Password protection

Answer

Conditional access policies

Question 10

Which THREE conditions can be used in a dynamic group rule for a device?

Accepted Answer

deviceModel. `deviceModel` is a valid attribute that can be used in a dynamic group rule for devices in Microsoft Entra ID (formerly Azure AD). Dynamic group rules for devices support attributes such as `deviceModel`, `deviceCategory`, and `deviceOSVersion` to automatically include or exclude devices based on their hardware or software characteristics.

Answer

lastLogonTimestamp

Answer

passwordLastSet