MS-102 Practice Test 2 — 30 Questions

Question 1

A security administrator wants to configure Automated Investigation and Response (AIR) in Microsoft 365 Defender to automatically isolate a device when a high-severity alert for malware is detected. Which step is required?

Accepted Answer

C: Configure the device to be part of a device group and enable automation level.. To enable Automated Investigation and Response (AIR) in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint, the device must be added to a device group, and the automation level for that group must be set to 'Full – remediate threats automatically' or a similar level. This configuration allows Defender to automatically isolate a device when a high-severity malware alert is triggered, as part of the built-in AIR playbooks.

Answer

A: Create an automation rule in Microsoft Sentinel.

Answer

B: Create a custom detection rule in advanced hunting.

Answer

D: Enable auto-removal of malware from devices.

Question 2

A security administrator wants to ensure that all email attachments are scanned in a sandbox environment and blocked if malicious, with email delivery delayed until scanning completes. Which Microsoft 365 Defender policy should the administrator configure?

Accepted Answer

Safe Attachments policy. Safe Attachments policy is the correct choice because it specifically provides time-of-delivery scanning of email attachments in a virtual sandbox environment. When configured with the 'Dynamic Delivery' action, the email body is delivered immediately while the attachment is held and scanned; if the attachment is found malicious, it is blocked and the user is notified. This directly meets the requirement to delay email delivery until scanning completes and block malicious attachments.

Answer

Safe Links policy

Answer

Anti-spam policy

Answer

Anti-phishing policy

Question 3

Administrators want to enforce multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all users when accessing cloud applications from untrusted networks. They plan to use Azure AD Conditional Access with named locations. Which two components must be configured to meet this requirement? (Select two.)

Accepted Answer

named location for the corporate network. Option B is correct because named locations in Azure AD Conditional Access allow administrators to define trusted network boundaries, such as the corporate network's public IP range. By marking this named location as a trusted location, the Conditional Access policy can then require MFA when users access cloud applications from any network that is not the corporate network, effectively enforcing MFA from untrusted networks.

Answer

location policy

Answer

Conditional Access policy targeting MFA registration

Question 4

A security analyst wants to automatically create a Microsoft Teams message in a dedicated security channel whenever a Microsoft 365 Defender incident with severity 'High' is created. Which automation approach should the analyst use?

Accepted Answer

Power Automate. Power Automate is the correct choice because it provides a no-code/low-code workflow that can be triggered by Microsoft 365 Defender's 'When an incident is created or updated' connector, filter for severity 'High', and then post a message to a dedicated Teams channel via the 'Post a message in a chat or channel' action. This directly meets the requirement for automatic, event-driven notification without custom code.

Answer

Automation rules in Defender

Answer

Microsoft Graph API

Answer

Action Center

Question 5

A compliance officer needs to block users from sharing emails that contain credit card numbers with external recipients. When a user attempts to send such an email, it should be blocked immediately, and a policy tip should notify the user. Which Microsoft Purview solution should the officer configure?

Accepted Answer

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policy.. A Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policy is the correct solution because it is specifically designed to detect sensitive information types (e.g., credit card numbers via predefined rule patterns matching the Luhn algorithm) in transit and enforce actions such as blocking the email and displaying a policy tip to the sender. This meets the compliance officer's requirement to block external sharing of credit card data immediately with user notification.

Answer

Sensitivity label with encryption.

Answer

Microsoft Defender for Office 365 Safe Attachments policy.

Answer

Communication compliance policy.

Question 6

An administrator has configured group-based licensing in Azure AD. After adding users to the group, some users do not receive licenses. The users are in the group and have an assigned usage location. What is a possible reason?

Accepted Answer

The users have conflicting license assignments from another source. Option C is correct because group-based licensing in Azure AD can fail when a user already has a license assigned from another source, such as direct assignment or another group. Azure AD's group-based licensing processes assignments in a deterministic order, and if a conflict arises (e.g., different service plans or SKUs), the system may skip the user and log an error in the audit logs. This is a common scenario when users are migrated from direct licensing to group-based licensing without removing the existing assignments.

Answer

The group is a mail-enabled security group, which is not supported for group-based licensing

Answer

The license product name in the group setting does not match the available licenses in the tenant

Answer

The users have not accepted the Microsoft Online Service Terms

Question 7

A security administrator notices that users are receiving phishing emails that evade built-in anti-spam filters. The administrator wants to enable users to report these suspicious emails from Outlook and have them automatically trigger an investigation and block the sender. Which feature should be configured in Microsoft Defender for Office 365?

Accepted Answer

User reported settings in the Microsoft 365 Defender portal. User reported settings in the Microsoft 365 Defender portal allow administrators to configure how user-reported messages are handled. When enabled, users can report suspicious emails directly from Outlook, and these reports can automatically trigger an investigation and block the sender via automated investigation and response (AIR) policies. This directly addresses the requirement to have user-reported emails initiate security actions.

Answer

Attack simulation training

Answer

Threat Explorer

Answer

Safe Links

Question 8

A security administrator wants to reduce the risk of credential dumping from LSASS on managed Windows endpoints. Which Attack Surface Reduction rule should be enabled?

Accepted Answer

Block credential stealing from the Windows Local Security Authority Subsystem. Option A is correct because the 'Block credential stealing from the Windows Local Security Authority Subsystem' ASR rule (GUID: 9e6c4e1f-7d60-472f-ba1a-a39ef669e4b2) specifically prevents credential dumping from LSASS by blocking access to the process memory via common techniques like Mimikatz or direct API calls (e.g., OpenProcess, ReadProcessMemory). This directly reduces the risk of credential theft on managed Windows endpoints.

Answer

Block executable files from running unless they meet prevalence, age, or trusted list criteria

Answer

Block untrusted and unsigned processes that run from USB

Answer

Block JavaScript or VBScript from launching downloaded executable content

Question 9

A company wants to require that all users accessing a critical internal application must be on a compliant device (managed by Intune) and must have authenticated with multi-factor authentication in the last 30 minutes. Which Conditional Access configurations are needed?

Accepted Answer

Grant control 'Require multi-factor authentication' and 'Require device to be marked as compliant' with session control 'Sign-in frequency' set to 30 minutes. Option A is correct because it combines the required grant controls ('Require multi-factor authentication' and 'Require device to be marked as compliant') with the session control 'Sign-in frequency' set to 30 minutes. The sign-in frequency session control enforces reauthentication after the specified time window, ensuring MFA was performed within the last 30 minutes. The grant controls ensure both MFA and device compliance are satisfied simultaneously.

Answer

Grant control 'Require multi-factor authentication' and 'Require device to be marked as compliant' and 'Require all the selected controls'

Answer

Grant control 'Require multi-factor authentication' and 'Require hybrid Azure AD joined device' with session control 'App enforced restrictions'

Answer

Grant control 'Block access' for non-compliant devices and separate policy for MFA

Question 10

A security administrator needs to discover which cloud apps are being used in the organization and then block usage of unsanctioned apps in real time using a reverse proxy. Which two Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps features must be configured to meet these requirements? (Select all that apply.)

Accepted Answer

Cloud Discovery. Cloud Discovery (A) is correct because it analyzes traffic logs from your network to identify all cloud apps in use, providing visibility into sanctioned and unsanctioned apps. Conditional Access App Control (C) is correct because it enforces real-time access controls via a reverse proxy, allowing you to block unsanctioned apps as users attempt to access them.

Answer

App Connectors

Answer

API connectors

Question 11

A security administrator wants to prevent Microsoft Office applications (Word, Excel, PowerPoint) from creating child processes, which is a common technique used by malware to execute malicious code. Which attack surface reduction (ASR) rule should be enabled?

Accepted Answer

Block all Office applications from creating child processes. Option A is correct because the ASR rule 'Block all Office applications from creating child processes' (GUID: D4F940AB-401B-4EFC-AADC-AD5F3C50688A) specifically prevents Word, Excel, and PowerPoint from spawning child processes such as cmd.exe, PowerShell, or wscript.exe. This directly mitigates a common malware technique where Office macros or exploits launch malicious executables. The rule is part of Microsoft Defender for Endpoint's attack surface reduction capabilities and is designed to stop process injection and lateral movement without blocking legitimate Office functionality.

Answer

Block executable files from running unless they meet a prevalence, age, or trusted list criteria

Answer

Block Office applications from creating executable content

Answer

Block Win32 API calls from Office macros

Question 12

A compliance officer needs to retain all email messages in a user's Exchange Online mailbox for 7 years after the message is sent or received, and then automatically delete them. The retention must be enforced regardless of user actions. Which Microsoft Purview solution should be used?

Accepted Answer

Retention policy with Exchange location. A retention policy with the Exchange location in Microsoft Purview allows you to define a retention period (e.g., 7 years) and then automatically delete messages after that period. It enforces the retention regardless of user actions because it operates at the service level, not relying on user cooperation. This meets the compliance officer's requirement for mandatory, time-based retention and deletion.

Answer

Litigation hold

Answer

Classification policy

Answer

In-place eDiscovery hold

Question 13

A security analyst has identified a new malware sample with a specific SHA256 hash. The analyst needs to immediately block this file from executing on any managed endpoint across the organization, including prevention of future execution. Which Microsoft Defender for Endpoint capability should the analyst use?

Accepted Answer

Indicators (IoCs) for file hashes. Option B is correct because Indicators of Compromise (IoCs) for file hashes in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint allow an analyst to create a block indicator for a specific SHA256 hash. This action immediately prevents the file from executing on any managed endpoint and persists across reboots, effectively blocking future execution attempts. Unlike other capabilities, IoCs provide a direct, hash-based block that is enforced by the Microsoft Defender Antivirus engine at the point of execution.

Answer

Attack surface reduction (ASR) rules

Answer

Custom detection rules via advanced hunting

Answer

Microsoft Defender Vulnerability Management

Question 14

A company wants to require approval for any activation of the Global Administrator role in Privileged Identity Management (PIM). The approvers are predefined as members of a security group named 'GA-Approvers'. Activations must require a business justification and expire after 4 hours. Which PIM configuration should the administrator modify to meet these requirements?

Accepted Answer

Edit the role settings of the Global Administrator role in PIM.. Option A is correct because the requirement to require approval, enforce a business justification, and set a 4-hour expiration for Global Administrator activations is configured in the role settings of the Global Administrator role within Privileged Identity Management (PIM). These settings control activation parameters such as approval requirements, justification, and maximum activation duration, which directly map to the stated needs.

Answer

Create an access review for the Global Administrator role.

Answer

Configure Azure AD Identity Protection to require MFA for Global Administrator.

Answer

Assign the Global Administrator role directly to the users temporarily.

Question 15

A security administrator wants to prevent attackers from stealing credentials by blocking access to the Local Security Authority Subsystem Service (LSASS) from untrusted processes. Which Attack Surface Reduction (ASR) rule should the administrator enable to meet this requirement?

Accepted Answer

Block credential stealing from the Windows local security authority subsystem (lsass.exe).. The ASR rule 'Block credential stealing from the Windows local security authority subsystem (lsass.exe)' (GUID: 9e6c4e1f-7d60-472f-ba1a-a39ef669e4b2) directly prevents untrusted processes from accessing LSASS memory, which is a common technique used by attackers to dump credentials via tools like Mimikatz. This rule blocks attempts to open lsass.exe with specific access rights (e.g., PROCESS_VM_READ) from non-trusted processes, thereby protecting credential material stored in LSASS.

Answer

Block executable files from running unless they meet a prevalence, age, or trusted list criterion.

Answer

Block Office applications from creating child processes.

Answer

Block persistence through Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) event subscription.

Question 16

A legal department needs to preserve all communications related to an ongoing lawsuit. They identify specific users and require that their mailbox items and OneDrive files are not altered or deleted. Which Microsoft Purview feature should be used?

Accepted Answer

Litigation Hold. Litigation Hold is the correct feature because it preserves all mailbox items and OneDrive files for specific users in their current state, preventing any alteration or deletion by users or automated processes. This is essential for legal holds where data must be immutable for eDiscovery purposes, and it applies at the user level rather than broadly across the organization.

Answer

Retention Policy

Answer

Data Loss Prevention (DLP)

Answer

eDiscovery

Question 17

A compliance officer needs to retain all documents in a SharePoint Online site associated with the Finance department for 7 years, and after that automatically delete them. During the retention period, users must not be able to edit or delete the documents. Which solution should they use?

Accepted Answer

Create a retention label with 'Retain as regulatory records' and publish it to the site, then use auto-apply based on site location. Option B is correct because a retention label with 'Retain as regulatory records' locks the document against editing or deletion during the retention period, and auto-applying the label based on site location ensures all documents in the Finance site inherit the 7-year retention and automatic deletion. This meets the compliance officer's requirement for immutable retention and automatic disposal without manual user intervention.

Answer

Create a retention policy scoped to the site with 'Retain as records' action

Answer

Create a sensitivity label with 'Retain as records' and apply it manually

Answer

Create a litigation hold for the site

Question 18

An organization with Microsoft Entra ID P2 licenses wants to require multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all users but allow them to register their authentication methods before being forced to use MFA. Which configuration should they implement?

Accepted Answer

Conditional Access policy with MFA grant and a registration campaign. Conditional Access policies can include a registration campaign for combined security info registration, allowing users to preregister MFA methods before the policy requiring MFA is enforced. This provides a smooth user experience. Security defaults enforce MFA immediately without a pre-registration period. Per-user MFA requires enabling MFA per user and does not include a registration campaign. Identity Protection user risk policy triggers MFA based on risk, not a blanket requirement.

Answer

Security defaults

Answer

Per-user MFA

Answer

Identity Protection user risk policy

Question 19

An administrator needs to allow external users from a partner company to sign up for access to a SharePoint Online site using their own Azure AD accounts. Which configuration should the administrator enable?

Accepted Answer

Enable 'External identities' > 'Self-service sign-up' in Azure AD. Option B is correct because enabling 'Self-service sign-up' in Azure AD External Identities allows external users to sign up for access to applications (including SharePoint Online sites) using their own Azure AD accounts without manual admin intervention. This feature creates guest user objects automatically when the external user completes the sign-up flow, which satisfies the requirement for partner users to sign up using their existing Azure AD credentials.

Answer

Enable 'Email one-time passcode authentication' for guests

Answer

Configure a cross-tenant access policy for the partner tenant

Answer

Create guest user accounts manually in Azure AD

Question 20

An organization has multiple Microsoft Entra ID tenants and wants to allow partner users to access internal applications using their own corporate credentials. Which feature should be used to enable this?

Accepted Answer

Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration. Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration is the correct feature because it allows partner users to access internal applications using their own corporate credentials (their home tenant identity) without requiring any external accounts or local user management. B2B collaboration uses cross-tenant trust relationships, enabling seamless single sign-on (SSO) via SAML/WS-Fed or OIDC protocols, which aligns with the requirement to use existing partner credentials.

Answer

Microsoft Entra B2C

Answer

Azure AD Connect

Answer

Tenant-to-tenant migration