Question 439 of 892
People — Leading ProjectshardMultiple ChoiceObjective-mapped

Quick Answer

The answer is to implement the contingency plan documented in the risk register. This is correct because the risk was already identified, assessed, and logged in the risk register with a pre-defined response; when the trigger—the vendor’s inability to deliver—occurs, the project manager must execute the agreed-upon contingency plan without delay, especially since the component is on the critical path and any delay threatens the project schedule. On the PMP exam, this scenario tests your understanding of the “Implement Risk Responses” process and the distinction between contingency plans (for identified risks) and workarounds (for unidentified risks). A common trap is to jump into replanning or escalating, but the correct first step is always to follow the documented plan. Memory tip: “If it’s in the register, execute the plan; if it’s a surprise, create a workaround.”

PMP People — Leading Projects Practice Question

This PMP practice question tests your understanding of people — leading projects. Read the scenario carefully and evaluate each option against the stated constraints before committing to an answer. After answering, compare your reasoning against the explanation and wrong-answer breakdown below. Once you have made your selection, read the full explanation to reinforce the concept and understand why each distractor is designed to mislead on exam day.

Your project is in the middle of execution when a key vendor informs you that they will be unable to deliver a critical component on time due to a raw material shortage. The component is on the critical path. The risk was identified and logged in the risk register with a mitigation plan. What should you do FIRST?

Clue words in this question

Noticing these words before you look at the options changes how you read each choice.

  • Clue: "first"

    Why it matters: Order matters here. You are being tested on which action comes before the others — not which action is generally useful.

Question 1hardmultiple choice
Read the full NAT/PAT explanation →

Answer choices

Why each option matters

Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.

Correct answer & explanation

Implement the contingency plan documented in the risk register

The PM should implement the agreed-upon contingency plan as per the risk response strategy. This is proactive and follows the plan.

Key principle: NAT direction and interface roles matter as much as the IP address mapping. Inside/outside designation controls which traffic is translated.

Answer analysis

Option-by-option breakdown

For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.

  • Implement the contingency plan documented in the risk register

    Why this is correct

    The risk register contains pre-approved response plans; implementing it is the correct first step.

    Clue confirmation

    The clue word "first" in the question point toward this answer.

    Related concept

    Static NAT maps one inside address to one outside address.

  • Ask the vendor to expedite the delivery at no extra cost

    Why it's wrong here

    While negotiation is possible, the immediate step is to activate the contingency plan.

  • Immediately source an alternative vendor without formal approval

    Why it's wrong here

    Sourcing without approval bypasses procurement processes and may violate contracts.

  • Notify the sponsor and request a schedule extension

    Why it's wrong here

    Notifying stakeholders is important but implementing the contingency plan takes precedence.

Common exam traps

Common exam trap: NAT rules depend on direction and matching traffic

NAT is not only about the public address. The inside/outside interface roles and the ACL or rule that matches traffic are just as important.

Detailed technical explanation

How to think about this question

NAT questions usually test address translation, overload/PAT behaviour, static mappings and whether the right traffic is being translated. Read the interface direction and address terms carefully.

KKey Concepts to Remember

  • Static NAT maps one inside address to one outside address.
  • PAT allows many inside hosts to share one public address using ports.
  • Inside local and inside global describe the private and translated addresses.
  • NAT ACLs identify traffic for translation, not always security filtering.

TExam Day Tips

  • Identify inside and outside interfaces first.
  • Check whether the scenario needs static NAT, dynamic NAT or PAT.
  • Do not confuse NAT matching ACLs with normal packet-filtering intent.

Key takeaway

NAT direction and interface roles matter as much as the IP address mapping. Inside/outside designation controls which traffic is translated.

Real-world example

How this comes up in practice

A small business has 20 workstations on the 192.168.1.0/24 network and one public IP from its ISP. The router uses PAT (NAT overload) so all 20 devices share one public address using different source ports. NAT questions test whether you understand the four address terms and which direction each translation applies.

What to study next

Got this wrong? Here's your next step.

Review the four NAT address types (inside local, inside global, outside local, outside global), PAT port overload, and static vs dynamic NAT use cases. Then practise related PMP NAT questions on configuration and troubleshooting.

Related practice questions

Related PMP practice-question pages

Use these pages to review the topic behind this question. This is how one missed question becomes focused revision.

Practice this exam

Start a free PMP practice session

Short sessions build daily habit. Longer sessions build exam-day stamina. Try a timed session to simulate real conditions.

FAQ

Questions learners often ask

What does this PMP question test?

People — Leading Projects — This question tests People — Leading Projects — Static NAT maps one inside address to one outside address..

What is the correct answer to this question?

The correct answer is: Implement the contingency plan documented in the risk register — The PM should implement the agreed-upon contingency plan as per the risk response strategy. This is proactive and follows the plan.

What should I do if I get this PMP question wrong?

Review the four NAT address types (inside local, inside global, outside local, outside global), PAT port overload, and static vs dynamic NAT use cases. Then practise related PMP NAT questions on configuration and troubleshooting.

Are there clue words in this question I should notice?

Yes — watch for: "first". Order matters here. You are being tested on which action comes before the others — not which action is generally useful.

What is the key concept behind this question?

Static NAT maps one inside address to one outside address.

About these practice questions

Courseiva creates original exam-style practice questions with explanations and wrong-answer analysis. It does not publish real exam questions, exam dumps, or protected exam content. Learn why practice questions differ from exam dumps →

How Courseiva writes practice questions · Editorial policy

Same concept, more angles

1 more ways this is tested on PMP

These questions test the same concept from different angles. Work through them to make sure you can recognise it however the exam phrases it.

Variation 1. Your project is in execution phase, and a key vendor informs you that they will be unable to deliver a critical component on time due to a supply chain disruption. This risk was identified in the risk register and a contingency plan was developed. The project timeline is tight, and any delay will impact the critical path. What should you do FIRST?

hard
  • A.Immediately find an alternative vendor who can deliver on time
  • B.Implement the contingency plan as documented in the risk register and communicate with stakeholders
  • C.Re-baseline the project schedule to accommodate the delay
  • D.Alert the project sponsor about the delay and ask for additional time

Why B: Option B is correct because the contingency plan already exists for this identified risk. The PM should implement it and communicate the situation to stakeholders. Option A is incorrect because simply alerting without taking action is insufficient. Option C is incorrect because switching vendors without following the contingency plan may introduce new risks and costs. Option D is incorrect because re-baselining the schedule without approval is not appropriate; contingency plans are meant to be used.

Last reviewed: Jun 21, 2026

Question Discussion

Share a tip, memory trick, or ask about the reasoning behind this question. Do not post real exam questions, leaked content, braindumps, or copyrighted exam material. Comments are moderated and may be removed without notice.

Loading comments…

Sign in to join the discussion.

This PMP practice question is part of Courseiva's free PMI certification practice question bank. Courseiva provides original exam-style practice questions with explanations, topic-based practice, mock exams, readiness tracking, and study analytics to help learners prepare for the PMP exam.