PMP Process — Managing Technical Aspects Practice Question
A key vendor informs you that they cannot deliver a critical component on time due to a raw material shortage. This component is on the critical path. The vendor has a history of poor performance. What should the project manager do FIRST?
⚠ Common exam trap
The trap here is that candidates often jump to reactive solutions (like finding a new vendor or compressing the schedule) instead of first consulting the pre-planned risk response, which is the correct first step per PMBOK's risk management process.
Answer choices
Why each option matters
Answer the question above first, then reveal the full breakdown to understand why each option is right or wrong.
Correct answer & explanation
✓
Implement the risk response plan that was developed for this vendor risk
The project manager should first implement the risk response plan that was developed for this vendor risk. Since the vendor has a history of poor performance, this risk should have been identified during planning, and a response plan (e.g., using an alternative supplier or buffer stock) should already exist. Acting on the pre-approved plan ensures a structured, timely response without unnecessary delays or escalation.
Answer analysis
Option-by-option breakdown
For each option: why learners choose it and why it is or isn't the right answer here.
- ✗
Immediately contact alternative vendors to find a replacement
Why it's wrong here
Immediately contacting alternative vendors bypasses the structured risk management process. While finding a replacement might be a component of a mitigation strategy, the project manager's primary responsibility is to first consult and execute the pre-defined risk response plan. Acting without referring to the plan can lead to uncoordinated efforts, inefficient resource allocation, or even trigger unintended secondary risks.
- ✗
Perform schedule compression techniques to recover the delay
Why it's wrong here
Performing schedule compression techniques, such as crashing or fast-tracking, is a schedule management activity aimed at reducing project duration, typically in response to a delay's impact. However, this action addresses the symptom (the delay) rather than the root cause (the vendor's inability to deliver). The initial focus must be on implementing the risk response to resolve the vendor issue before determining if schedule adjustments are necessary to recover lost time.
- ✓
Implement the risk response plan that was developed for this vendor risk
Why this is correct
Implementing the pre-developed risk response plan is the most appropriate and professional first action when an identified risk event occurs. This proactive approach ensures that the project team follows the agreed-upon strategy, which was carefully planned and approved to mitigate, avoid, transfer, or accept the specific vendor risk. Adhering to the plan minimizes reactive decision-making and leverages prior analysis to maintain project control and objectives.
- ✗
Escalate to senior management for a decision
Why it's wrong here
Escalating to senior management for a decision is generally reserved for risks that exceed the project manager's authority or for situations where the planned risk responses have proven ineffective. Since a specific risk response plan for this vendor risk already exists, the project manager is expected to execute that plan first. Bypassing the established risk management process and immediate escalation can undermine the project team's autonomy and create unnecessary burden on senior leadership.
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Written by Johnson Ajibi, MSc IT Security
Senior Network & Security Engineer · founder of Courseiva
This PMP practice question is part of Courseiva's free PMI certification practice question bank. Courseiva provides original exam-style practice questions with explanations, topic-based practice, mock exams, readiness tracking, and study analytics to help learners prepare for the PMP exam.