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Juniper Networks Enterprise Routing and Switching, Professional (JNCIP-ENT, JN0-650) (JNCIP-ENT) (JNCIP-ENT) — Questions 76–150

264 questions total · 4 pages · All types, answers revealed

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76
MCQhard

An administrator configures a scheduler map on a Junos MX Series router with three queues: best-effort with transmit-rate remainder, expedited-forwarding with a strict-high transmit rate, and assured-forwarding with a transmit rate of 30 percent. Users report that voice quality degrades whenever assured-forwarding traffic bursts, even though expedited-forwarding is marked strict-high. Which statement explains this behavior?

A.Assured-forwarding queues always preempt expedited-forwarding queues because assured-forwarding has a defined transmit rate.
B.Expedited-forwarding requires a buffer size larger than the default to guarantee priority service.
C.Strict-high scheduling only guarantees priority when the queue is not rate-limited by a shared shaper or when the interface is not oversubscribed by other strict-high queues.
D.Strict-high priority traffic is only guaranteed bandwidth in excess of the configured shaping rate on the physical interface.
AnswerC

A strict-high queue is serviced first, but its effective rate can still be constrained by an interface-level shaper or by other strict-high queues competing for the same bandwidth. If the interface shaper or another strict-high queue consumes the available bandwidth, voice packets can be delayed even though the queue is marked strict-high.

Why this answer

A strict-high queue is always serviced before other queues, but its throughput is still bounded by any interface-level shaper and by the aggregate demand of other strict-high queues. When the interface is oversubscribed or shaped, voice can be delayed despite the strict-high designation, which matches the reported symptom.

Exam trap

The trap here is believing that strict-high priority bypasses all bandwidth limits, when interface shapers and competing strict-high queues can still constrain it.

77
MCQhard

An administrator applies a DSCP rewrite rule to an SRX Series device interface that faces an untrusted WAN. The goal is to mark voice packets with EF (46) and best-effort traffic with 0 before they leave the device. After applying the rewrite rule, the administrator notices that some packets still leave with their original DSCP values. Which statement explains the most likely cause?

A.The rewrite rule is applied to the wrong interface and must be applied to the ingress interface to take effect.
B.Rewrite rules are only supported on MPLS interfaces and cannot rewrite DSCP on IP interfaces.
C.The rewrite rule is applied on the egress interface but the packets were already classified into a different forwarding class by the ingress BA classifier.
D.The rewrite rule only applies to packets whose forwarding class and loss priority match an entry in the rewrite table, and unmatched packets keep their original DSCP.
AnswerD

A DSCP rewrite rule contains a table keyed by forwarding class and loss priority. Packets whose forwarding class and loss priority do not appear in that table are not rewritten and retain their original DSCP, which explains why some packets still leave with their original values on the WAN interface.

Why this answer

A DSCP rewrite rule rewrites only packets whose forwarding class and loss priority are listed in the rewrite table. Packets assigned to a forwarding class or loss priority that is absent from the table keep their original DSCP, which produces the mixed marking observed on the WAN interface.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming a rewrite rule rewrites every packet, when it actually rewrites only the forwarding class and loss priority combinations present in its table.

78
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements are correct regarding the behavior and configuration of multi-supplicant mode on EX Series switches? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.It restricts the port to operating exclusively as an access trunk port.
B.It requires all connected devices to use identical EAP methods and credentials.
C.Each authenticated client on the port can be placed into its own dynamic VLAN via RADIUS.
D.It is mutually exclusive with MAC RADIUS fallback configurations.
E.It allows multiple supplicants to authenticate independently on the same physical port.
AnswersC, E

In multi-supplicant mode, 802.1X authenticates each supplicant independently, and the RADIUS Access-Accept can return a VLAN attribute per client. The switch then assigns each authenticated client to its own dynamic VLAN on the same port.

Why this answer

Option E is correct because multi-supplicant mode on EX Series switches is specifically designed to allow multiple endpoints (supplicants) connected to the same physical interface to authenticate independently, each running its own 802.1X session rather than sharing a single port-based session. Option C is correct because in multi-supplicant mode each authenticated client can receive its own authorization attributes from RADIUS, including a dynamic VLAN assignment (typically via Tunnel-Type, Tunnel-Medium-Type, and Tunnel-Private-Group-ID attributes), so clients on the same port can be placed into different VLANs. Option A is incorrect because multi-supplicant mode does not force the port into access trunk mode; the port remains an access port (or can be configured with other supported modes), and the statement misuses the term 'access trunk port.' Option B is incorrect because supplicants on the port are independent and may use different EAP methods and credentials; there is no requirement that they be identical.

Option D is incorrect because multi-supplicant mode is not mutually exclusive with MAC RADIUS fallback; MAC RADIUS authentication can be configured alongside 802.1X to handle devices that do not support supplicant software.

79
MCQhard

You are redistributing BGP routes into OSPF on an MX Series router. By default, what metric type and cost are assigned to these redistributed routes when they enter the OSPF domain?

A.Metric-type 2 with a cost of 1
B.Metric-type 1 with a cost of 20
C.Metric-type 1 with a cost of 0
D.Metric-type 2 with a cost of 10
AnswerA

Junos defaults redistributed routes entering OSPF to external metric-type 2 with a cost of 1, so the route is advertised without accumulating internal OSPF link costs. Type 1 would add internal costs, which is not the default behaviour.

Why this answer

By default, routes redistributed into OSPF are assigned metric-type 2 (E2) and a default metric value of 1.

80
Multi-Selectmedium

You are configuring RSTP on a Juniper EX Series switch. You need to ensure that the switch can quickly converge in case of a link failure. Which two statements are correct about RSTP edge ports and their configuration? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Edge ports are configured using the 'set protocols rstp interface <interface> edge' command.
B.Edge ports are automatically enabled on all access ports by default in Junos OS.
C.Edge ports participate in the spanning-tree topology and can become root ports if they receive a superior BPDU.
D.Edge ports can be configured globally using the 'set protocols rstp edge' command.
E.When an edge port receives a BPDU, it loses its edge port status and transitions to a normal spanning-tree port.
AnswersA, E

This command correctly configures an interface as an RSTP edge port. Edge ports are connected to end devices and do not receive BPDUs. They transition directly to forwarding state, bypassing the listening and learning states, which speeds up convergence when a device is connected.

Why this answer

RSTP edge ports are configured per interface with the 'edge' keyword. They transition immediately to forwarding, improving convergence for end devices. If an edge port receives a BPDU, it loses its edge status and becomes a normal RSTP port, ensuring loop prevention.

These behaviors are key to RSTP's fast convergence and network stability.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming edge ports are enabled by default or can be configured globally; they must be explicitly set per interface, and they lose edge status upon receiving a BPDU.

81
MCQhard

In a Juniper Virtual Chassis scaling deployment comprising 10 EX4600 switches, how are control and management planes structured across member switches to maintain high availability and failover resilience?

A.Two switches are elected as Master and Backup Routing Engines, while remaining switches act as line cards.
B.Every switch runs its own independent Spanning Tree instance to prevent loops across the virtual backplane.
C.Control traffic is load-balanced across all 10 member switches using ECMP across the dedicated stacking ports.
D.All 10 switches run independent routing engines with separate control planes and synchronized MAC tables.
AnswerA

In a Virtual Chassis, two members are elected as Master and Backup Routing Engines, running the control and management planes, while the remaining eight switches operate as line cards forwarding traffic. This centralised RE model provides the failover resilience required.

Why this answer

A Virtual Chassis designates a Routing Engine (RE) Master and Backup across designated members, while all switches participate in the distributed forwarding plane.

82
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO statements are correct regarding OSPF NSSA (Not-So-Stubby Area) behavior and configuration in Junos OS? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.NSSAs allow the injection of external routes into the area using Type-7 LSAs.
B.Virtual links are fully supported to transit across an NSSA area.
C.An NSSA ABR automatically floods a default summary route into the NSSA by default.
D.NSSAs fully support external Type-5 LSAs originating from normal areas directly within the NSSA.
E.Type-7 LSAs are translated into Type-5 LSAs by the NSSA ABR when exiting into the OSPF backbone.
AnswersA, E

Type-7 LSAs are specifically designed for NSSAs to originate external routes without accepting Type-5 LSAs from the backbone.

Why this answer

NSSA areas allow external routes to be injected via Type-7 LSAs. By default, an NSSA does not flood default routes unless explicitly configured with 'default-lsa'.

83
MCQeasy

Which Junos configuration hierarchy is used to define a BGP peer group to simplify neighbor configurations?

A.routing-options autonomous-system
B.interfaces <interface-name> unit 0 family inet bgp
C.protocols bgp group <group-name>
D.policy-options community
AnswerC

The protocols bgp group hierarchy defines a named peer group, letting common BGP parameters and policies be applied once to many neighbours. This satisfies the stem's requirement to simplify neighbour configuration through a single reusable group definition.

Why this answer

BGP peer groups and neighbor settings are configured under the 'protocols bgp group' hierarchy in Junos.

84
MCQhard

An EX Series switch is configured with 802.1X and MAC RADIUS. A client device connects that does not support 802.1X. The switch attempts 802.1X, times out, and successfully falls back to MAC RADIUS. However, the administrator notices a significant delay (several seconds) before the MAC RADIUS request is sent to the server. What parameter should be tuned to reduce this delay?

A.Reduce the 'supp-timeout' and 'max-retries' parameters under the 802.1X interface configuration.
B.Increase the 'server-timeout' parameter in the access-profile configuration.
C.Disable EAPOL-start message generation on the switch port.
D.Enable fast-reauth under the system authentication options.
AnswerA

Reducing `supp-timeout` and `max-retries` shortens the 802.1X EAPOL retransmission window before fallback triggers. The delay stems from the switch waiting through the full supplicant timeout multiplied by retry count; lowering both parameters accelerates the transition to MAC RADIUS authentication for non-802.1X clients.

Why this answer

The delay occurs because the switch first attempts 802.1X authentication, which times out after a period determined by the 'supp-timeout' (supplicant timeout) and 'max-retries' parameters. These control how long the switch waits for an EAPOL response from the client and how many retries it sends before giving up and falling back to MAC RADIUS. Reducing these values shortens the 802.1X attempt phase, allowing the switch to move to MAC RADIUS faster.

Thus, tuning 'supp-timeout' and 'max-retries' directly addresses the observed delay.

Exam trap

JNCIP-ENT often tests the distinction between timers in the 802.1X authentication process, confusing supplicant timeout (client response) with server timeout (RADIUS response) or other features like fast-reauth.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because 'server-timeout' in the access-profile controls how long the switch waits for a response from the RADIUS server after sending a request, not the initial 802.1X supplicant timeout; increasing it would worsen delays if the server is slow, but here the delay is before the MAC RADIUS request is sent. Option C is wrong because disabling EAPOL-start would prevent the switch from initiating 802.1X, potentially skipping the fallback mechanism or causing other issues; it does not tune the timeout. Option D is wrong because fast-reauth is for expediting re-authentication of already authenticated clients, not for reducing the initial fallback delay from 802.1X to MAC RADIUS.

85
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO statements describe the characteristics of Random Early Detection (RED) and drop profiles in Junos? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Drop profiles are configured under the forwarding-classes hierarchy
B.Drop profiles drop 100% of packets immediately once the queue fill level reaches the start point
C.Drop profile curves plot drop probability against queue buffer fill level
D.Drop profiles help prevent TCP global synchronization by dropping packets before buffers are completely full
E.Drop profiles operate exclusively on Layer 2 control frames
AnswersC, D

The graph maps drop probability versus fill level percentage.

Why this answer

Drop profiles define drop probability against fill level, helping prevent TCP global synchronization.

86
MCQmedium

You are configuring OSPFv3 on a Junos router and need to enable it on an interface that has IPv6 enabled. Which configuration statement is required to activate OSPFv3 on that interface?

A.set protocols ospf3 area 0 interface ge-0/0/0.0
B.set protocols ospf3 area 0 interface ge-0/0/0.0 ipv6
C.set protocols ospf area 0 interface ge-0/0/0.0
D.set protocols ospf3 interface ge-0/0/0.0 area 0
AnswerA

This statement enables OSPFv3 on the specified interface and associates it with area 0. OSPFv3 is configured under the [edit protocols ospf3] hierarchy in Junos OS. Without this interface-level configuration, OSPFv3 will not run on the interface, even if IPv6 is enabled. This is the correct and required step to activate OSPFv3 on an interface.

Why this answer

To enable OSPFv3 on a Junos router, you must configure the interface under the [edit protocols ospf3] hierarchy with the area and interface statements. The correct syntax is set protocols ospf3 area 0 interface ge-0/0/0.0. This activates OSPFv3 on the interface and allows it to form adjacencies with other OSPFv3 routers.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 configuration hierarchies, or misordering the area and interface parameters.

87
MCQhard

A Junos router is the last-hop router for receivers in VLAN 100. The receivers use IGMPv3 and request group 239.5.5.5 from source 10.10.10.10 only. The router has a PIM sparse-mode shared tree (*,G) toward the RP, but traffic from 10.10.10.10 is not being delivered to the receivers. The unicast route to 10.10.10.10 points out a different interface than the one toward the RP. Which action resolves the problem?

A.Add a static IGMP group membership for 239.5.5.5 on the VLAN 100 interface.
B.Configure an RP for the group so the shared tree can be used for delivery.
C.Increase the IGMP query interval on VLAN 100 so the receiver reports are refreshed more often.
D.Ensure PIM is enabled on the interface toward 10.10.10.10 so the router can build the (S,G) tree.
AnswerD

A source-specific join must follow the unicast route to the source, which points out a different interface than the RP path. PIM must be enabled on that outgoing interface for the router to send the (S,G) join and receive the source traffic. Without PIM on that interface, the source tree cannot be built, so enabling it resolves the delivery failure.

Why this answer

When a receiver requests a specific source and group, the last-hop router must create (S,G) state and send a PIM join toward the source using the unicast route to the source address. That route can differ from the path toward the rendezvous point. If PIM is not enabled on the outgoing interface toward the source, the join cannot be sent and traffic is never forwarded, so PIM must be enabled on that interface.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that the shared tree toward the rendezvous point is sufficient for a source-specific request, when the source path may follow a completely different interface that also requires PIM to be enabled.

88
MCQhard

You are configuring an EX Series switch to support IP phones that require both data and voice VLAN segregation on a single access port. You implement an access port configured with a voice VLAN. Which underlying Junos mechanism allows the switch to process untagged data traffic into the native/access VLAN and tagged voice traffic into the voice VLAN simultaneously?

A.Configuring a trunk port with native-vlan-id and voice-vlan parameters.
B.Implementing IEEE 802.1ad provider bridging to double-tag voice and data frames.
C.Enabling port-based authentication with dynamic VLAN assignment via RADIUS.
D.Configuring an access port with the voice-vlan statement, which automatically handles tagging for the specified voice VLAN ID while keeping data untagged.
AnswerD

The voice-vlan statement on an access port makes Junos treat the port as untagged for data in the native VLAN while recognising 802.1Q-tagged frames for the voice VLAN ID, delivering simultaneous segregation without trunk configuration.

Why this answer

On Junos EX switches, configuring an access port with the 'voice-vlan' statement automatically enables the port to accept untagged data traffic into the native/access VLAN and tagged voice traffic into the specified voice VLAN. The switch internally treats the port as a special access port that can process both tagged and untagged frames, without requiring a full trunk configuration. This is the standard Junos mechanism for IP phone + PC daisy-chain deployments.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming a trunk port is required to carry both voice and data VLANs — in Junos, an access port with voice-vlan handles both, and candidates who pick trunk-based answers miss the specific Junos mechanism.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because configuring a trunk port with native-vlan-id and voice-vlan is not the Junos-recommended approach for access ports — voice-vlan on an access port is the correct mechanism. Option B is wrong because 802.1ad provider bridging (QinQ) is for service provider double-tagging, not for separating voice and data on an access port. Option C is wrong because port-based authentication with dynamic VLAN assignment is an 802.1X feature, not the underlying mechanism for voice VLAN tagging on an access port.

89
MCQmedium

An engineer is troubleshooting a BGP route reflection topology where a non-client IBGP peer sends a route to a route reflector. Will the route reflector reflect this route to other non-client IBGP peers?

A.Yes, all routes received by a route reflector are reflected to all peers regardless of client status.
B.No, route reflectors never reflect routes received from any IBGP peer.
C.No, routes received from a non-client peer are only reflected to client peers, not to other non-client peers.
D.Yes, provided the routes contain the same Cluster ID as the receiving non-client peer.
AnswerC

Route reflection follows client and non-client roles: a route learned from a non-client IBGP peer is reflected only to client peers, never to other non-clients. This prevents the non-client-to-non-client advertisement that full-mesh IBGP would otherwise require.

Why this answer

A route reflector reflects routes from clients to clients, clients to non-clients, and non-clients to clients, but it does NOT reflect routes received from a non-client to other non-client peers.

90
MCQmedium

An engineer needs to verify the Rendezvous Point (RP) currently learned via the Bootstrap Router (BSR) mechanism on a Junos device. Which operational command should be used?

A.show pim rps
B.show igmp rp
C.show msdp rp-list
D.show multicast rp-table
AnswerA

`show pim rps` displays the RP set that PIM has learned, including entries sourced via BSR, with their group ranges, priority and holdtime. It directly satisfies the stem's requirement to verify the currently learned BSR RP on the Junos device, unlike commands showing interface or neighbour state.

Why this answer

The 'show pim rps' command displays all active RPs known to the router, including whether they were learned via static configuration, Auto-RP, or BSR.

91
MCQeasy

Which command allows an operator to view the local and remote MAC addresses learned via EVPN control plane and data plane across all bridge domains on an MX Series router?

A.show bridge domain
B.show route table inet.0
C.show evpn database
D.show mpls lsp
AnswerC

The 'show evpn database' command on MX Series displays MAC addresses learned through both the EVPN control plane (Type 2 routes) and the data plane, across every bridge domain, satisfying the requirement to view local and remote entries together.

Why this answer

The 'show evpn database' command displays the EVPN routing/MAC table containing MAC addresses learned via BGP EVPN control plane and local data plane learning.

92
MCQmedium

A network engineer notices that on a Junos EX Series switch, the voice queue is configured with strict-high priority, but during periods of congestion, data traffic is being dropped while voice traffic is unaffected. The engineer wants to ensure that voice traffic is not only prioritized but also limited so it cannot consume all interface bandwidth. Which scheduler property should be added to the voice queue to cap its maximum transmission rate?

A.shaping-rate
B.transmit-rate
C.buffer-size
D.excess-rate
AnswerA

The shaping-rate statement on a scheduler enforces a maximum transmission rate for a queue, effectively capping how much bandwidth it can consume. Applying shaping-rate to the strict-high voice queue limits its usage so it cannot starve other queues, which directly addresses the requirement to cap the voice queue while preserving its priority treatment.

Why this answer

A strict-high priority queue can consume all available bandwidth during congestion, starving lower-priority queues. To prevent this while preserving priority servicing, the shaping-rate property must be configured on the voice queue to enforce a maximum transmission rate. This caps the voice queue's consumption and protects other traffic.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that transmit-rate or excess-rate limits a queue's maximum bandwidth, when only shaping-rate enforces a hard upper bound on transmission.

93
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE types of classifiers are natively supported in Junos Class of Service? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.exp
B.dscp
C.ieee-802.1
D.tcp-port
E.mac-address
AnswersA, B, C

The EXP classifier maps MPLS Experimental bits to forwarding classes and packet-loss priorities, satisfying the stem's requirement for natively supported Junos CoS classifiers. Junos supports exp, inet-precedence, and dscp classifiers; exp specifically handles MPLS label headers, unlike dscp or inet-precedence, which read IP header fields.

Why this answer

Junos CoS natively supports three fixed classifier types: exp, dscp, and ieee-802.1. Option A (exp) is correct because the MPLS EXP classifier maps the 3-bit EXP field in the MPLS shim header to forwarding classes and loss priorities. Option B (dscp) is correct because the DSCP classifier examines the 6-bit Differentiated Services Code Point in the IP ToS byte for IP traffic.

Option C (ieee-802.1) is correct because the IEEE 802.1 classifier inspects the 3-bit User Priority field in the 802.1Q VLAN tag for Layer 2 traffic. Options D (tcp-port) and E (mac-address) are not native Junos CoS classifier types; Junos classifiers operate on CoS marking fields such as EXP, DSCP, and 802.1p, not on TCP port numbers or MAC addresses.

94
MCQeasy

You are configuring a Junos SRX Series device to protect the control plane from a flood of BGP keepalives. You want to police traffic destined to the Routing Engine and apply a rate limit that drops excess packets while allowing normal protocol operation. Which CoS mechanism should you use?

A.A drop profile applied to the loopback interface
B.A rewrite rule applied to the loopback interface
C.A scheduler map applied to the loopback interface
D.A policer applied to a firewall filter that is bound to the loopback interface as an input filter
AnswerD

Policers enforce a rate limit and mark or drop excess traffic. Binding a firewall filter containing a policer to the loopback interface as an input filter applies the rate limit to traffic destined to the Routing Engine, which is exactly the control-plane protection described. This is the standard Junos approach for protecting the RE.

Why this answer

Policers are the Junos mechanism for enforcing a rate limit and dropping or marking excess traffic. To protect the Routing Engine, the policer is referenced by a firewall filter applied as an input filter on the loopback interface, which is the standard control-plane protection pattern.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing egress queuing tools such as scheduler maps and drop profiles with ingress rate-limiting tools such as policers.

95
MCQmedium

An administrator is deploying EVPN multi-homing with all-active mode on an MX Series router. Which configuration element uniquely identifies the provider edge (PE) router's attachment circuit to an Ethernet segment?

A.Route Distinguisher (RD)
B.Ethernet Tag ID
C.Ethernet Segment Identifier (ESI)
D.ESI Label Extended Community
AnswerC

The Ethernet Segment Identifier uniquely identifies the attachment circuit to the Ethernet segment, and all PE routers multi-homing that segment must share the same ESI value. This satisfies the requirement for a unique identifier in all-active EVPN multi-homing.

Why this answer

The Ethernet Segment Identifier (ESI) is a 10-octet unique identifier configured under the interface or access link to identify an Ethernet segment for multi-homing.

96
MCQmedium

You are configuring MAC limiting on an EX Series switch interface to restrict the maximum number of learned MAC addresses to 10. What happens when the 11th unique MAC address attempts to communicate through the interface?

A.The switch drops packets from the new MAC address and optionally logs or generates an SNMP trap.
B.The switch immediately reboots the line card to protect the control plane.
C.The switch forwards the frame and clears the oldest learned MAC entry from the forwarding table.
D.The switch dynamically converts the port into a routed Layer 3 interface.
AnswerA

Exceeding the MAC limit triggers the configured action, typically dropping new source MACs and logging.

Why this answer

By default, MAC limit drop or log actions occur. The standard configurable action when a limit is exceeded includes dropping the packet or shutting down the port.

97
MCQeasy

What is the default OSPF reference bandwidth in Junos OS?

A.100 Mbps
B.10 Gbps
C.10 Mbps
D.1 Gbps
AnswerA

Junos OS sets the OSPF reference bandwidth to 100 Mbps by default, so any interface at or above that speed receives a cost of 1. Administrators must raise this value on faster links to preserve meaningful cost differentiation.

Why this answer

The default OSPF reference bandwidth in Junos OS is 100 Mbps (100,000,000 bps).

98
MCQeasy

Which LLDP TLV (Type-Length-Value) is mandatory for LLDP-MED operation and is used to distinguish media endpoint devices from standard network switches and routers?

A.MAC Address TLV
B.LLDP-MED Capabilities TLV
C.Port ID TLV
D.System Description TLV
AnswerB

The LLDP-MED Capabilities TLV is mandatory for LLDP-MED operation and advertises supported media features, letting the switch classify a device as a media endpoint rather than an infrastructure node. It satisfies the requirement to distinguish endpoints from standard switches and routers.

Why this answer

The Capabilities TLV allows devices to advertise whether they are standard bridge/router devices or LLDP-MED endpoints.

99
MCQmedium

You are deploying a Juniper EX Series switch as an access layer device in a campus network. The uplink port ge-0/0/1 connects to a distribution switch and is expected to carry traffic for VLANs 10, 20, and 30. You want to prevent the access switch from becoming the root bridge for any of these VLANs and ensure that the uplink is preferred for forwarding. Which configuration should you apply on the access switch?

A.Enable RSTP on the access switch and set the uplink port as an edge port to prioritize forwarding.
B.Set the bridge priority to 4096 on the access switch and configure the uplink port as the root port using the root-port command.
C.Configure the uplink port with a higher path cost and set the bridge priority to 61440 on the access switch.
D.Set the bridge priority to 61440 on the access switch and configure the uplink port with a lower path cost.
AnswerD

Setting a high bridge priority (61440) ensures the access switch will not become the root bridge for any VLAN. Configuring the uplink port with a lower path cost makes it the preferred path for forwarding traffic toward the distribution switch. This combination achieves both goals: preventing the access switch from becoming root and ensuring the uplink is used for forwarding.

Why this answer

To prevent the access switch from becoming the root bridge, a high bridge priority such as 61440 is appropriate. To ensure the uplink is preferred for forwarding, a lower path cost on that port is necessary. Together, these settings control both root bridge election and path selection, aligning with best practices for access layer switches in a campus network.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a lower bridge priority is always better, when in fact a higher priority value makes a switch less likely to become the root bridge.

100
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE configuration tasks are required when implementing OSPFv3 on Junos devices? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Configuring BGP autonomous system numbers for OSPFv3 operation
B.Enabling OSPFv3 under the protocols ospf3 hierarchy
C.Assigning interfaces to OSPFv3 areas
D.Defining OSPFv3 area identifiers
E.Enabling IPv4 address families inside protocols ospf3
AnswersB, C, D

OSPFv3 is configured under protocols ospf3.

Why this answer

Configuring OSPFv3 requires specifying protocols ospf3, configuring areas, and enabling OSPFv3 on specific interfaces (IPv6 enabled).

101
MCQeasy

A Junos router connects to a Layer 2 switch that has multiple receivers on VLAN 200. The switch is not running PIM, and the router is the only multicast router on the segment. You want the router to send IGMP general queries on the VLAN 200 interface and track receiver group memberships. Which configuration is required?

A.Configure a static multicast route for 224.0.0.0/4 pointing out the VLAN 200 interface.
B.Enable IGMP on the VLAN 200 interface with a version compatible with the receivers.
C.Enable PIM sparse-mode on the VLAN 200 interface and configure an RP.
D.Enable IGMP snooping on the router's VLAN 200 interface.
AnswerB

IGMP must be enabled on the interface facing the receivers so the router can send general queries and process membership reports. The version must match the receivers, since IGMPv2 and IGMPv3 report formats differ and mismatch causes memberships to be ignored. This directly satisfies the requirement to query and track memberships on VLAN 200.

Why this answer

The router must run IGMP on the interface that faces the receivers to act as the querier and maintain group membership state. IGMP queries solicit reports, and the reports populate the membership database that drives PIM joins. PIM alone does not perform this signaling, and IGMP snooping is a switch-side optimization, so IGMP on the interface with a matching version is the required configuration.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing IGMP snooping, a Layer 2 switch optimization, with IGMP itself, which a router must run on the receiver-facing interface to query and track memberships.

102
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE features or protocols are used in Juniper enterprise switching environments to prevent Layer 2 bridging loops while avoiding traditional Spanning Tree blocking ports? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Rapid PVST+ with bridge priority overrides
B.Virtual Chassis technology
C.Ethernet VPN (EVPN) with VXLAN data plane
D.MSTP with MSTI region mapping
E.Multi-Chassis Link Aggregation (MC-LAG)
AnswersB, C, E

Virtual Chassis collapses multiple switches into one logical device with a single control plane, so inter-member links are treated as internal fabric rather than bridged segments. Loop-free forwarding is achieved without Spanning Tree blocking any port.

Why this answer

MC-LAG, Virtual Chassis, and EVPN-VXLAN eliminate loops via active-active multi-pathing or distributed control planes without traditional STP blocking links.

103
Multi-Selectmedium

An administrator is configuring IGMP snooping on an EX Series switch. Which TWO benefits does IGMP snooping provide in a switched Ethernet environment? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.It automatically acts as the PIM Rendezvous Point for the VLAN.
B.It conserves bandwidth on switch links by filtering unwanted multicast streams.
C.It translates IPv4 multicast addresses to IPv6 multicast addresses.
D.It replaces PIM sparse-mode on Layer 3 core routers.
E.It prevents multicast traffic from flooding all ports in a VLAN by forwarding it only to ports with active receivers.
AnswersB, E

Snooping builds a per-VLAN group membership table from IGMP reports, so multicast is forwarded only to interested ports rather than every port. That filtering of unwanted streams conserves bandwidth on switch links, satisfying the stated benefit.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because IGMP snooping lets the switch listen to IGMP Membership Reports and Leave messages, so it can prune multicast streams from switch links where no receivers exist, thereby conserving bandwidth on those links. Option E is correct because, by default, a Layer 2 switch floods multicast frames out every port in the VLAN; IGMP snooping builds a per-VLAN multicast forwarding table and forwards each group's traffic only to ports that have joined that group via IGMP, preventing unnecessary flooding. Option A is wrong because the PIM Rendezvous Point is a Layer 3 multicast routing function, not something IGMP snooping provides on a switch.

Option C is wrong because IGMP snooping does not perform any IPv4-to-IPv6 multicast address translation. Option D is wrong because IGMP snooping operates at Layer 2 and does not replace PIM sparse-mode, which is required for multicast routing between subnets on Layer 3 devices.

104
MCQhard

You are troubleshooting an EVPN-VXLAN fabric where a host behind Leaf 1 is unable to communicate with a host behind Leaf 2, even though both hosts are in the same VLAN and EVPN instance. You verify that Type 2 routes are being exchanged, but traffic is not forwarded. You suspect an issue with the VXLAN tunnel. Which Junos command would you use to check the status of the VXLAN tunnel interface and its associated VTEP?

A.show configuration protocols evpn
B.show route table bgp.evpn.0
C.show interfaces vtep
D.show ethernet-switching table
AnswerC

The 'show interfaces vtep' command displays the status of the virtual tunnel endpoint interface, including its operational state, encapsulation, and associated VXLAN network identifiers. It helps verify that the VTEP is up and properly configured. If the VTEP is down, VXLAN tunnels cannot be established, preventing traffic forwarding even if EVPN routes are present. This command is essential for diagnosing data plane issues in EVPN-VXLAN.

Why this answer

The 'show interfaces vtep' command is the primary tool to verify the operational status of the VXLAN tunnel endpoint interface on Junos devices. It shows whether the VTEP is up, its encapsulation type, and associated VNIs. If the VTEP is down, VXLAN tunnels cannot be established, and traffic cannot be encapsulated and forwarded, even if EVPN routes are correctly exchanged.

This command directly addresses the suspected data plane issue.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that control plane route exchange guarantees data plane connectivity; the VTEP interface status must be verified separately.

105
MCQmedium

You need to modify the priority of a Junos OSPF interface to ensure it becomes the designated router (DR). Which command accomplishes this?

A.set interfaces xe-0/0/0.0 ospf-priority 200
B.set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 interface xe-0/0/0.0 priority 200
C.set protocols ospf priority 200 interface xe-0/0/0.0
D.set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 interface xe-0/0/0.0 dr-priority 200
AnswerB

OSPF designated router election is decided first by interface priority, then router ID. Setting priority 200 on the interface raises it above the default 128, ensuring this router wins the DR election within area 0.0.0.0.

Why this answer

OSPF interface priority is configured under the interface level within protocols ospf using the 'priority' command.

106
MCQeasy

What does the LLDP-MED acronym stand for in the context of enterprise networking and IP telephony?

A.Link Layer Device Protocol - Managed Ethernet Deployment
B.Link Layer Discovery Protocol - Media Endpoint Discovery
C.Local Loop Discovery Protocol - Mobile Ethernet Device
D.Logical Link Discovery Protocol - Multi-access Equipment Design
AnswerB

Link Layer Discovery Protocol – Media Endpoint Discovery extends IEEE 802.1AB LLDP with TIA-1057 TLVs, enabling automatic VLAN assignment, PoE negotiation and E911 location data for IP phones. This satisfies the stem's IP telephony context, where media endpoint discovery beyond standard LLDP is required.

Why this answer

LLDP-MED stands for Link Layer Discovery Protocol - Media Endpoint Discovery.

107
MCQeasy

A network administrator is configuring an enterprise router to join the Source-Specific Multicast (SSM) range. According to RFC standards, what is the standard IPv4 address block reserved for SSM?

A.239.0.0.0/8
B.232.0.0.0/8
C.224.0.0.0/24
D.224.0.1.0/24
AnswerB

232.0.0.0/8 is the IPv4 block RFC 4607 reserves for Source-Specific Multicast, satisfying the stem's requirement for the standard SSM range. SSM delivers traffic only from explicitly requested sources, so receivers use IGMPv3 or MLDv2 to specify both group and source, unlike ASM's shared 224.0.0.0/4 space.

Why this answer

The range 232.0.0.0/8 is globally reserved by IANA for Source-Specific Multicast (SSM).

108
MCQeasy

Which statement correctly describes the function of an OSPF Stub Area?

A.Stub areas allow bidirectional redistribution of BGP routes.
B.Stub areas block inter-area summary (Type-3) LSAs.
C.Stub areas block external AS-external (Type-5) LSAs and use a default route injected by the ABR.
D.Stub areas allow Type-7 LSAs from external ASBRs.
AnswerC

A stub area blocks Type-5 external LSAs at its boundary, so internal routers hold smaller link-state databases. The ABR instead injects a default route, giving stub routers reachability to external destinations without carrying external prefixes.

Why this answer

Stub areas block external Type-5 LSAs and instead rely on a default route injected by the ABR.

109
MCQhard

An administrator implements MSTP (Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol) in a large data center using Juniper switches. Region boundaries must be maintained strictly. Which three parameters must match identically across all switches for them to be considered part of the same MST region?

A.MAC address, revision number, and region name
B.Region name, revision number, and VLAN-to-instance mapping
C.Bridge priority, hello time, and max age
D.Extended system ID, region name, and forward delay
AnswerB

MSTP region membership requires identical region name, revision number and VLAN-to-instance mapping on every switch. If any of these three parameters differs, the switch belongs to a separate region, so matching all three preserves the strict region boundaries the administrator needs.

Why this answer

MST region configuration requires identical configuration name, revision number, and VLAN-to-instance mapping table.

110
MCQeasy

You want to tag specific BGP routes with a community value using a Junos policy framework. Which configuration snippet correctly defines a community named 'CUSTOM-COMM' with value 65000:100?

A.set routing-options community-list CUSTOM-COMM value 65000:100
B.set protocols bgp group external community CUSTOM-COMM 65000:100
C.set policy-options community CUSTOM-COMM members 65000:100
D.set policy-options policy-statement CUSTOM-COMM community 65000:100
AnswerC

Defining the community under policy-options with the members statement creates a named community object holding the value 65000:100, which policy terms can then match or apply to BGP routes. This satisfies the stem's requirement for a correctly named community using the Junos policy framework.

Why this answer

In Junos, BGP communities are defined under 'policy-options community' with a name and the community value specified in format AS:number or target:AS:number.

111
MCQeasy

Which specific EVPN route type is responsible for carrying IP prefix routes, often used for inter-subnet forwarding in an IP-VRF-to-EVPN integration scenario?

A.Route Type 5
B.Route Type 3
C.Route Type 2
D.Route Type 1
AnswerA

Route Type 5 carries IP prefix routes, enabling inter-subnet forwarding between IP-VRFs across the EVPN fabric. Unlike Types 2 and 3, which advertise MAC/IP and inclusive multicast respectively, Type 5 satisfies the stem's requirement for IP prefix reachability in an IP-VRF-to-EVPN integration.

Why this answer

EVPN Route Type 5 is the IP Prefix Route, which allows the advertisement of IP prefixes (host or subnet routes) independently of MAC addresses, facilitating integrated routing and bridging (IRB) and inter-subnet forwarding.

112
MCQeasy

Which Junos configuration hierarchy is used to disable the generation of OSPF Type-7 to Type-5 LSA translation on an NSSA Area Border Router (ABR)?

A.set protocols ospf area <name> stub no-translate
B.set protocols ospf area <name> nssa translator-role never
C.set protocols ospf translate-type7 off
D.set protocols ospf area <name> nssa no-translation
AnswerB

The 'translator-role never' command disables the NSSA ABR from performing Type-7 to Type-5 translation.

Why this answer

To prevent an NSSA ABR from translating Type-7 LSAs into Type-5 LSAs, you use the 'no-summaries' or 'nssa translator never' commands. Specifically, disabling translation is done via 'set protocols ospf area <name> nssa translator-role never'.

113
MCQhard

An engineer is deploying PIM sparse-mode with anycast RP using two Junos routers that share the loopback address 10.0.0.1/32. Both routers are configured as static RPs for all groups and as MSDP peers with each other using their unique loopback addresses. Receivers attached to Router A join a group whose source is registered with Router B. Traffic initially flows, but after Router B reloads, receivers lose the stream even though Router A still has the anycast RP address reachable. Which mechanism is responsible for restoring source information to Router A?

A.Router A learns the source through the shared (*,G) tree because both routers use the same anycast RP address.
B.The first-hop router sends a PIM Assert to Router A to advertise the source location after the reload.
C.Router B re-registers the source with Router A through PIM Register messages sent to the anycast address.
D.Router B sends Source-Active messages to Router A over the MSDP peering once it relearns the source from the first-hop router.
AnswerD

In anycast RP, MSDP peering between the RP instances synchronizes active source information. After Router B reloads, the source's first-hop router re-registers with B, which rebuilds (S,G) state and sends Source-Active messages to its MSDP peer Router A. Router A can then join toward the source, restoring delivery to receivers attached to it.

Why this answer

Anycast RP uses a shared RP address on multiple routers plus MSDP peering between them using unique addresses. When one RP instance relearns a source through PIM registration, it advertises that source to its MSDP peers with Source-Active messages. The other RP instance installs the state and can build a path for its receivers.

Without MSDP synchronization, receivers attached to the instance that lacks (S,G) state would remain without the stream.

Exam trap

The trap here is expecting the shared anycast RP address alone to synchronize source state, when MSDP peering is what actually exchanges active source information.

114
Multi-Selecthard

You are implementing MSTP on a network of Juniper EX Series switches. You need to ensure that the MSTP region is correctly configured and that VLANs are mapped to the appropriate MSTIs. Which two statements are correct about MSTP configuration on Juniper EX switches? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.MSTP can only be configured on EX Series switches when VSTP is disabled.
B.The MSTP region name must be identical on all switches in the same region.
C.The MSTP revision level can be different on each switch in the region.
D.VLAN-to-MSTI mapping must be consistent across all switches in the region.
E.Each MSTI can have a different root bridge, and the root bridge for MSTI 1 must be the same as the root bridge for the CIST.
AnswersB, D

For switches to be in the same MSTP region, they must have the same region name, revision level, and VLAN-to-MSTI mapping. If the region name differs, the switches will consider themselves in different regions and will not form a single MSTP region, potentially causing loops or suboptimal paths. Therefore, ensuring identical region names is critical for proper MSTP operation.

Why this answer

For MSTP to function correctly, all switches in a region must share the same region name, revision level, and VLAN-to-MSTI mapping. These parameters form the MSTP region identifier. If any of these differ, the switches will not form a single region, leading to potential network issues.

The other statements are incorrect: revision level must be identical, MSTI roots can differ from the CIST root, and while MSTP and VSTP are mutually exclusive, that is not a configuration statement per se.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that MSTP region parameters can be partially mismatched, such as different revision levels, while still forming a region, but all three must match exactly.

115
MCQmedium

You are troubleshooting an EX Series switch where 802.1X authentication is failing for all users. The RADIUS server is reachable and the shared secret matches. Users report that authentication never completes and the switch logs show EAPOL exchanges starting but no Access-Request being sent. Which Junos command should you use to view the current 802.1X authentication state and counters on the interface?

A.show interfaces ge-0/0/10 extensive
B.show network-access aaa statistics radius
C.show ethernet-switching table
D.show dot1x interface ge-0/0/10 detail
AnswerD

This operational command displays the 802.1X authenticator state for the interface, including EAPOL counters, the current role, and whether the port is in authenticated or held state. It helps determine whether the switch is sending EAPOL frames and waiting for supplicant responses, which matches the symptom of EAPOL starting but no RADIUS request being generated.

Why this answer

When EAPOL exchanges begin but no RADIUS Access-Request is generated, the issue lies in the authenticator-supplicant interaction rather than the RADIUS path. The 802.1X operational command for an interface provides EAPOL counters and state, revealing whether the switch is waiting for a supplicant response or has transitioned to an authenticated or held state. This directly addresses the observed symptom.

Exam trap

The trap here is reaching for RADIUS statistics commands when the failure occurs before any RADIUS request is sent, so the RADIUS counters would be empty and unhelpful.

116
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE requirements must be met for an IP phone to successfully discover and use a voice VLAN configured via LLDP-MED on an EX Series switch? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.An LLDP-MED network policy defining the voice VLAN must be configured and applied to the interface.
B.802.1X authentication must be enabled with dynamic VLAN assignment configured on a RADIUS server.
C.The switch must be configured in Layer 3 routing mode with an IRB interface for the voice VLAN.
D.The connected IP phone must support LLDP-MED and be capable of processing network policies.
E.LLDP must be enabled globally and on the specific switch interface.
AnswersA, D, E

LLDP-MED conveys the voice VLAN through a network policy TLV, so an LLDP-MED network policy defining VLAN 50 must exist and be applied to the interface. Without it, no policy is advertised and the phone cannot discover the voice VLAN, satisfying the stem's discovery requirement.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because LLDP-MED conveys VLAN assignment to the phone through a network policy TLV, so a network policy that defines the voice VLAN (and its VLAN ID/802.1p CoS) must be configured and applied to the interface for the phone to learn the voice VLAN. Option D is correct because LLDP-MED is an endpoint-discovery extension; the IP phone must support LLDP-MED and be able to process the network policy TLV to act on the advertised voice VLAN. Option E is correct because LLDP-MED depends on LLDP being enabled both globally and on the specific interface so the TLVs are transmitted to the attached phone.

Option B is not required because LLDP-MED voice VLAN discovery is independent of 802.1X and RADIUS dynamic VLAN assignment. Option C is not required because the voice VLAN can be a Layer 2 VLAN and does not need Layer 3 routing or an IRB interface for LLDP-MED discovery.

Exam trap

The trap is assuming 802.1X or Layer 3 routing is required for LLDP-MED voice VLAN — candidates conflate authentication-based VLAN assignment with LLDP-MED's independent Layer 2 advertisement mechanism.

117
MCQmedium

You are configuring an EX Series switch to authenticate users via 802.1X. The RADIUS server returns a Filter-Id attribute of 'student-acl' in the Access-Accept. You want the switch to apply a firewall filter named 'student-acl' to the authenticated user's traffic. Which configuration is required on the switch?

A.Define a firewall filter named student-acl and reference it under the 802.1X authenticator interface configuration
B.Enable MAC RADIUS authentication and rely on the Filter-Id returned for the MAC address
C.Create a CoA client configuration to push the filter to the switch
D.Configure a static MAC address entry for the user and bind the filter to that entry
AnswerA

For the switch to apply a filter based on the RADIUS Filter-Id attribute, the filter must exist in the Junos configuration and be associated with the 802.1X authentication process. The authenticator interface configuration or access profile must reference the filter, allowing the switch to map the returned Filter-Id to the locally defined filter and apply it to the supplicant's traffic.

Why this answer

When RADIUS returns a Filter-Id, the switch must have a corresponding firewall filter defined locally and must be configured to apply it to the authenticated session. This is done by referencing the filter in the 802.1X authenticator interface configuration or access profile, enabling dynamic application based on the RADIUS response. Static MAC binding and CoA are not required for this initial assignment.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that CoA is needed to apply a Filter-Id, when the filter is applied during the initial authentication based on the Access-Accept if the filter is locally defined and referenced.

118
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of the RADIUS server attribute 'Tunnel-Medium-Type' (Attribute 65) when received during an 802.1X authentication exchange on an EX Series switch?

A.It defines the VLAN ID or VLAN name to which the authenticated client port should be dynamically assigned.
B.It determines the encryption cipher used between the switch and the RADIUS server.
C.It specifies the physical transport media type for the tunnel, such as 802 (Ethernet) for VLAN assignment.
D.It indicates the authentication protocol (PAP, CHAP, EAP) being used in the tunnel.
AnswerC

Tunnel-Medium-Type (Attribute 65) defines the link-layer transport of the tunnel, using values such as 802 for Ethernet, and must accompany Tunnel-Type and Tunnel-Private-Group-ID for dynamic VLAN assignment. On EX Series switches, this triple lets the RADIUS server direct the supplicant into the correct VLAN after 802.1X succeeds.

Why this answer

Tunnel-Medium-Type specifies the media type of the tunnel, which for VLAN assignments in Junos is typically set to 802 (Ethernet).

119
Multi-Selecthard

When designing a BGP confederation architecture, which TWO rules govern how sub-AS numbers and attributes behave across confederation boundaries? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Sub-AS numbers are included in AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE attributes and are stripped when exiting the confederation.
B.External peers outside the confederation treat the confederation as a single autonomous system.
C.BGP multipath cannot be enabled across different member ASNs within the same confederation.
D.MED values are automatically removed across member AS boundaries regardless of configuration.
E.Local preference is discarded when passing routes between different member ASNs inside the confederation.
AnswersA, B

Confederation member ASNs are encapsulated in AS_CONFED segments and stripped at the outer boundary.

Why this answer

Confederations use AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE and AS_CONFED_SET segments to track internal paths, and strip them when advertising to external peers outside the confederation.

120
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO parameters are part of the standard MSTP configuration digest computed across switches in an MST region? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Bridge priority value
B.Interface MAC addresses
C.MST configuration name
D.Hello time and max age timers
E.MST revision number
AnswersC, E

The MSTP configuration digest is a hash of the region's configuration attributes, and the MST configuration name is one of the three hashed parameters. Switches must share identical values for these parameters to belong to the same MST region.

Why this answer

The MST configuration digest includes region name, revision number, and the VLAN-to-instance allocation table.

121
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO actions can be performed using Junos BGP routing policies? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Modifying the local preference attribute of incoming IBGP routes.
B.Dynamically altering the BGP session TCP handshake port numbers.
C.Filtering routes based on AS path regular expressions.
D.Adjusting the BGP keepalive timer values dynamically via policy match actions.
E.Manually assigning physical interface MTU sizes for BGP sessions.
AnswersA, C

BGP routing policies can set or modify local preference on incoming IBGP routes, influencing outbound path selection within the local autonomous system. This satisfies the stated action, since local preference is a well-known BGP attribute adjustable via policy.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because Junos routing policies applied as import policies can match incoming IBGP routes and set the BGP local preference attribute (for example with the 'then local-preference' action), which influences outbound path selection within the local AS. Option C is correct because Junos policy-options support AS path regular expressions via the 'as-path' match condition, allowing routes to be filtered or manipulated based on the AS_PATH attribute. Option B is not valid because BGP TCP port 179 is fixed by the protocol and cannot be changed by routing policy; port configuration is not a policy action.

Option D is not valid because keepalive and hold timers are configured under the BGP neighbor or group hierarchy, not dynamically modified through policy match/action statements. Option E is not valid because interface MTU is a physical/logical interface property configured under interfaces, not something a BGP routing policy can assign.

Exam trap

JNCIP-ENT often tests the confusion between routing policy capabilities and neighbor/interface configuration, tempting candidates to select options about timers, ports, or MTU that are not policy-controlled.

122
MCQmedium

You manage a Juniper Networks enterprise network using OSPF. Router R1 and Router R2 are connected via a point-to-point link. R1 is configured with the interface ge-0/0/0.0 in area 0 with a hello interval of 10 seconds and a dead interval of 40 seconds. R2 has the same interface in area 0 but with a hello interval of 30 seconds and a dead interval of 120 seconds. After configuration, the OSPF adjacency does not form. Which action will resolve the issue?

A.Change the OSPF router ID on R1 to be higher than R2's router ID.
B.Change the network type on R1 to non-broadcast.
C.Change the OSPF area on R1 to area 1.
D.Change the hello interval on R1 to 30 seconds and the dead interval to 120 seconds.
AnswerD

OSPF requires that the hello and dead intervals match on both routers for an adjacency to form. In this scenario, R1 has hello 10 and dead 40, while R2 has hello 30 and dead 120. Changing R1 to match R2's timers will allow the routers to establish the adjacency. This is a common configuration requirement in OSPF.

Why this answer

OSPF requires that the hello and dead intervals match on both routers for an adjacency to form. In this scenario, R1 has hello 10 and dead 40, while R2 has hello 30 and dead 120. Changing R1's timers to match R2's will allow the adjacency to establish.

The other options would not resolve the timer mismatch and could introduce additional issues.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that OSPF areas must match and that changing the area would fix the adjacency, when in fact the timers are the mismatched parameter.

123
MCQmedium

You are configuring a Juniper EX Series switch to prevent loops in a VSTP environment. An access port connected to an end-user device is receiving BPDUs from an unauthorized switch. You want to automatically disable the port if BPDUs are received. Which feature should you enable on the access port?

A.Loop protection
B.Storm control
C.BPDU protection
D.Root protection
AnswerC

BPDU protection (also known as BPDU guard) is designed for edge ports that should not receive BPDUs. When enabled, if a BPDU is received on that port, the port is immediately disabled (err-disabled) to prevent loops. This is the correct feature for the scenario because it directly addresses unauthorized BPDUs on access ports and takes protective action.

Why this answer

BPDU protection is specifically designed to disable edge ports that receive BPDUs, preventing loops caused by unauthorized switches. When enabled on an access port, any BPDU received will cause the port to enter an err-disabled state. This is the standard best practice for end-user ports in a VSTP or RSTP environment.

Root protection and loop protection serve different purposes, and storm control does not address BPDU reception.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing BPDU protection with root protection or loop protection, which have different behaviors and use cases.

124
MCQeasy

An operator configures a BGP routing policy to modify the Local Preference attribute. Under which BGP neighbor relationship type can Local Preference be advertised and evaluated?

A.BGP confederation member AS boundaries only
B.Both EBGP and IBGP peers equally
C.External BGP (EBGP) peers only
D.Internal BGP (IBGP) peers only
AnswerD

Local Preference is a well-known discretionary attribute propagated only across IBGP sessions within an autonomous system; it is not advertised to EBGP peers. This satisfies the stem by confirming that IBGP peers alone evaluate and exchange the attribute.

Why this answer

Local Preference is an IBGP attribute and is exchanged only between internal BGP peers within the same autonomous system.

125
MCQmedium

An administrator is configuring BGP multipath on a Junos router. The router has two BGP paths to the same destination: one with a MED of 100 and another with a MED of 200. Both paths are from the same neighboring AS. The administrator wants both paths to be installed in the forwarding table for load balancing. Which configuration is required?

A.Configure 'multipath' under BGP and set the 'med' to 'always-compare'.
B.Configure 'multipath multiple-as' under BGP and set the MED to the same value on both paths.
C.Enable multipath under the BGP group and ensure that the paths have the same MED.
D.Enable multipath under BGP and ensure that the paths have the same MED by using a routing policy to set MED to a common value.
AnswerD

BGP multipath requires that the paths have equal MED values. By using a routing policy to set the MED to the same value on both paths, and enabling multipath under BGP, the router can install both paths for load balancing. This is the correct approach.

Why this answer

For BGP multipath to install multiple paths, the paths must be equal in terms of MED, among other attributes. If MED values differ, they are not eligible for multipath. The solution is to enable multipath and use a routing policy to set the MED to a common value on both paths, making them equal.

This allows the router to load-balance traffic across both paths.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that simply enabling multipath will work even with different MED values, but BGP multipath requires equal MED (and other attributes) to consider paths as equal.

126
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions can be triggered when a MAC address limit is exceeded on a Juniper switch interface configured with MAC limiting? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.drop
B.quarantine
C.shutdown
D.reboot
E.isolate-vlan
AnswersA, C

Drop discards frames from additional MAC addresses once the configured limit is exceeded, while permitting existing learned addresses to continue forwarding. Juniper offers this as the less disruptive action compared with shutting the interface down.

Why this answer

Configurable actions on MAC limit violation include drop and log, or drop and shutdown (disable) the interface.

127
MCQhard

You are deploying an EVPN-VXLAN fabric on Juniper switches with a multi-homed server connected to two leaf switches in an all-active configuration. The server's MAC address is learned locally on both leaf switches. Which mechanism ensures that only one leaf switch forwards BUM traffic to the server, while both can forward known unicast traffic?

A.Anycast gateway MAC synchronization
B.Designated Forwarder (DF) election based on Type 4 routes
C.Split Horizon filtering based on Type 1 routes
D.MAC address aliasing using Type 2 routes
AnswerB

In all-active multi-homing, the DF election determines which PE forwards BUM traffic to the multi-homed device. Type 4 routes carry the Ethernet Segment Identifier (ESI) and are used in the DF election process. The elected DF is responsible for forwarding BUM traffic, while all PEs can forward known unicast traffic based on locally learned MAC addresses or Type 2 routes.

Why this answer

In all-active multi-homing, the Designated Forwarder (DF) election, based on Type 4 routes, selects one PE to forward BUM traffic to the multi-homed device. This prevents duplicate BUM packets. Known unicast traffic can be forwarded by any PE because MAC addresses are learned locally and advertised via Type 2 routes, allowing load balancing.

Split Horizon, anycast gateway, and aliasing serve different purposes.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that all-active multi-homing requires a single forwarder for all traffic types, when only BUM traffic is subject to DF election.

128
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE types of LSAs are blocked from entering an OSPF Totally Stubby Area? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Type 1 Router LSAs
B.Type 2 Network LSAs
C.Type 4 ASBR Summary LSAs
D.Type 3 Summary LSAs
E.Type 5 AS External LSAs
AnswersC, D, E

Type 4 ASBR Summary LSAs advertise the route to an ASBR and are flooded by the ABR into normal stub areas. Totally stubby areas block them, alongside Type 3 and Type 5, leaving only intra-area routes and a default.

Why this answer

Totally stubby areas block summary LSAs (Type 3), ASBR summary LSAs (Type 4), and AS external LSAs (Type 5). Router (Type 1) and Network (Type 2) LSAs are allowed within the area.

129
Multi-Selecthard

You are tuning an egress interface on a Junos device for a service provider environment. You have configured three drop profiles and applied them to a scheduler map. You need to verify that the weighted random early detection (WRED) behaviour is operating as intended under congestion. Which TWO statements correctly describe how Junos implements drop profiles and WRED? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.Drop profiles only apply to low-priority queues and are ignored for high-priority forwarding classes.
B.WRED drops packets randomly as soon as the queue reaches its configured maximum buffer size, regardless of fill level.
C.Each drop profile defines fill-level thresholds and corresponding drop probabilities that determine which packets are discarded as the queue fills.
D.Drop profiles are applied directly to the physical interface and override any scheduler map configuration.
E.A drop profile is applied to a forwarding class through the scheduler map, linking the class to its drop behaviour.
AnswersC, E

A Junos drop profile is a table of queue fill-level percentages mapped to drop probabilities. As the average queue depth crosses each configured fill level, the associated probability determines the likelihood that an arriving packet is discarded. This is the core mechanism that makes WRED gradual rather than a hard tail drop, and it is exactly what must be verified when tuning congestion behaviour.

Why this answer

Drop profiles in Junos map queue fill levels to drop probabilities and are attached to forwarding classes through schedulers and scheduler maps, which together produce WRED behaviour that ramps up dropping as congestion increases. Statements claiming interface-level override, tail-drop-only operation, or restriction to low-priority queues misdescribe the configuration hierarchy and the gradual nature of weighted random early detection.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing WRED probabilistic dropping, which starts at lower fill-level thresholds, with tail drop, which only discards when the queue is completely full.

130
MCQeasy

What is the primary function of a behavior aggregate (BA) classifier in Junos CoS?

A.It classifies packets based exclusively on header CoS bits such as DSCP or EXP
B.It drops packets exceeding a predefined bandwidth rate
C.It rewrites VLAN tags on egress interfaces
D.It classifies packets based on Layer 4 port numbers and source IP addresses
AnswerA

A behaviour aggregate classifier inspects only the CoS marking already present in the packet header — DSCP for IP or EXP for MPLS — and maps it to a forwarding class and loss priority, without any multifield inspection of source, destination or port.

Why this answer

A Behavior Aggregate (BA) classifier classifies packets based solely on the CoS bits in the packet header (such as DSCP, EXP, or IEEE 802.1p).

131
MCQmedium

An engineer wants to configure a Junos router to act as a Bootstrap Router (BSR) for PIM sparse-mode. Which configuration hierarchy is used to enable the BSR function?

A.[edit protocols msdp bsr]
B.[edit protocols pim bsr]
C.[edit routing-options bsr]
D.[edit protocols pim candidate-rp]
AnswerB

BSR operation is enabled under the [edit protocols pim bsr] hierarchy, where the local router is configured as candidate BSR with priority and as candidate rendezvous point. This satisfies the requirement for PIM sparse-mode bootstrap election.

Why this answer

BSR functionality on Junos is configured under protocols pim bsr.

132
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements are correct regarding the behavior of policers in Junos? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Policers buffer exceeding packets in temporal memory queues until transmission capacity opens
B.Policers can mark the loss priority of exceeding packets
C.Policers are always applied to egress interfaces only
D.Policers guarantee a minimum bandwidth allocation for best-effort traffic
E.Policers use a token bucket algorithm to measure traffic rates
AnswersB, E

Junos policers support actions beyond discard: they can set the packet's loss priority (for example, to high) on traffic exceeding the configured rate. This satisfies the statement's claim, letting downstream congestion controls drop marked packets preferentially.

Why this answer

Policers can drop traffic or mark loss priority, and they operate based on token bucket algorithms.

133
Multi-Selectmedium

When deploying IP phones that utilize a voice VLAN on EX Series access ports, which THREE characteristics or configurations typically apply to this design? (Choose three.)

Select 3 answers
A.The switch port must be configured as a pure Layer 3 routed interface.
B.Untagged traffic generated by an attached PC passes through the phone into the native VLAN of the switch port.
C.The switch port is configured as an access port supporting both a data VLAN (native) and a voice VLAN.
D.The IP phone tags its own voice traffic with the designated voice VLAN ID.
E.The IP phone must be configured to run BGP to exchange voice routes with the switch.
AnswersB, C, D

The phone acts as a Layer 2 pass-through for the attached PC. PC frames remain untagged and are forwarded into the port's native VLAN, while the phone's own voice frames carry an 802.1Q tag, keeping data and voice traffic logically separated.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because in a typical voice VLAN deployment the PC's untagged frames are forwarded by the phone and land in the switch port's native (data) VLAN, keeping PC traffic separate from voice traffic. Option C is correct because the access port carries both a native data VLAN for the attached PC and a tagged voice VLAN for the phone, which is the standard EX Series access-port voice VLAN design. Option D is correct because the IP phone itself applies the 802.1Q tag with the configured voice VLAN ID to its own voice frames, which is how the switch distinguishes voice from data.

Option A is wrong because a pure Layer 3 routed interface does not carry 802.1Q-tagged voice VLAN traffic in this access-port design. Option E is wrong because BGP is a routing protocol between Layer 3 devices and has no role in phone-to-switch voice VLAN tagging or access-port operation.

134
Multi-Selecthard

When configuring OSPF sham-links in Junos to support MPLS VPN back-door links, which TWO characteristics apply? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Sham-links are configured as point-to-point links between PE router loopback addresses within the VPN routing instance.
B.Sham-links are advertised as Type-5 external LSAs across the network.
C.Sham-links require physical interfaces dedicated solely to the backdoor connection.
D.Sham-links prevent OSPF inter-area routing from preferring sub-optimal backdoor paths over the MPLS backbone.
E.Sham-links are only supported in OSPFv3, not OSPFv2.
AnswersA, D

Sham-links use /32 source and destination addresses inside the VPN routing instance.

Why this answer

Sham-links are treated as intra-area links between PE routers and require a separate /32 IP address configured under the loopback or routing instance, appearing as unnumbered or numbered point-to-point links.

135
MCQmedium

You want to map three loss priorities (low, medium-low, high) to different drop profiles within a specific forwarding class. Which statement should you use inside the scheduler configuration?

A.classifier-map
B.drop-profile-map
C.loss-priority-mapping
D.queue-drop-profile
AnswerB

The `drop-profile-map` statement inside a scheduler maps each loss priority (low, medium-low, high) to a specific drop profile, satisfying the requirement to assign three distinct profiles within one forwarding class. Junos uses this hierarchy under the scheduler's `drop-profile-map` to bind PLP values to profiles.

Why this answer

In Junos scheduler configurations, drop-profile-map associates a loss priority and forwarding class with a specific drop profile.

136
MCQeasy

You are configuring a Juniper EX Series switch to support a Layer 2 network with multiple VLANs. You want to use RSTP for faster convergence but need to ensure that each VLAN has its own spanning-tree instance. Which feature should you enable?

A.STP
B.RSTP
C.MSTP
D.VSTP
AnswerD

VSTP (VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol) is a Juniper feature that runs a separate RSTP instance for each VLAN. This provides per-VLAN spanning-tree topologies, allowing independent convergence and load balancing. It is the correct choice because it combines the rapid convergence of RSTP with per-VLAN instances, exactly matching the requirement.

Why this answer

VSTP is the Juniper implementation that runs RSTP per VLAN, providing a separate spanning-tree instance for each VLAN. This meets the requirement of per-VLAN instances with rapid convergence. RSTP and STP use a single instance for all VLANs, and MSTP maps multiple VLANs to a single instance, so they do not provide one instance per VLAN.

VSTP is the appropriate feature for this design.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that RSTP or MSTP can provide per-VLAN instances, when actually VSTP is the Juniper feature that does so.

137
MCQeasy

An enterprise network administrator needs to configure 802.1X authentication on EX Series switches. Which statement is correct regarding the default behavior of the supplicant timeout timer?

A.It dictates how long the switch waits before failing over to MAC RADIUS authentication.
B.It determines how long an authenticated client can remain idle before being disconnected.
C.It defines the duration the switch waits for an EAP-Request/Identity frame response before retransmitting.
D.It specifies the interval before the switch drops the entire RADIUS authentication session.
AnswerC

The supplicant timeout timer governs the interval the authenticator waits for an EAP-Response/Identity from the supplicant before retransmitting the EAP-Request/Identity. This satisfies the stem's constraint on default 802.1X timer behaviour, since the switch acts as authenticator and retransmits to the supplicant when no reply arrives.

Why this answer

In Junos 802.1X, the supplicant timeout timer defines how long the switch waits for a response to an EAP-Request/Identity frame before retransmitting it. This timer is part of the EAPOL handshake and ensures the switch does not wait indefinitely for a supplicant that is slow or unresponsive. It is not related to MAC RADIUS failover, idle disconnect, or RADIUS session teardown.

Exam trap

The trap is confusing the supplicant timeout with other 802.1X timers like idle-timeout, reauthentication, or RADIUS dead-time — candidates must know that supplicant timeout specifically governs EAP-Request/Identity retransmission.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because failover to MAC RADIUS is controlled by the 'mac-radius' configuration and fallback timers, not the supplicant timeout. Option B is wrong because idle disconnect is governed by the 'idle-timeout' or session timeout, not the supplicant timeout. Option D is wrong because dropping the RADIUS session is controlled by RADIUS dead timers and reauthentication intervals, not the supplicant timeout.

138
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements describe the behavior of VSTP (VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol) on Juniper EX Series switches? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.VSTP can interoperate with Cisco's PVST+ protocol.
B.VSTP is incompatible with RSTP fallback modes.
C.VSTP automatically disables all trunk ports if BPDU guard is triggered globally.
D.VSTP runs a separate Spanning Tree instance for each configured VLAN.
E.VSTP requires all VLANs to be mapped into a single master MSTI region.
AnswersA, D

VSTP maps each VLAN to a separate spanning-tree instance using IEEE 802.1Q BPDUs, and Juniper implements compatibility with Cisco's PVST+ so the two can share a topology. This interoperability lets EX Series switches participate in mixed-vendor Layer 2 networks.

Why this answer

VSTP runs an independent spanning tree instance per VLAN and interoperates with PVST+.

139
MCQhard

An enterprise WAN edge router running Junos OS has a single 1 Gbps uplink. The design requires that when total egress congestion occurs, the queue carrying business-critical database replication traffic must be guaranteed a minimum of 400 Mbps, while the queue carrying guest internet traffic must never consume more than 200 Mbps even if bandwidth is idle. Which CoS configuration accomplishes this requirement?

A.Apply a transmit-rate of 400m to the critical queue and a transmit-rate of 200m to the guest queue in the scheduler.
B.Apply a transmit-rate of 400m to the critical queue and a shaping-rate of 200m to the guest queue in the scheduler.
C.Apply a shaping-rate of 400m to the critical queue and a transmit-rate of 200m to the guest queue in the scheduler.
D.Apply a transmit-rate of 400m with exact to the critical queue and a transmit-rate of 200m with exact to the guest queue in the scheduler.
AnswerB

A transmit-rate guarantees the critical queue its minimum share during congestion, while a shaping-rate caps the guest queue's maximum throughput at 200 Mbps regardless of idle capacity. Together they satisfy both the guaranteed-minimum and maximum-limit requirements on the congested uplink interface.

Why this answer

Guaranteeing a minimum and enforcing a maximum are distinct scheduler behaviors. A transmit-rate provides the guaranteed minimum share during congestion, whereas a shaping-rate imposes a hard ceiling on how much a queue can transmit even when bandwidth is available. The critical queue needs the guarantee and the guest queue needs the cap, so pairing transmit-rate with shaping-rate matches the design intent.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a transmit-rate acts as a bandwidth ceiling for a queue, when it actually only guarantees a minimum share during congestion.

140
MCQeasy

Which configuration stanza is used to define custom forwarding classes in Junos?

A.[edit class-of-service drop-profiles]
B.[edit class-of-service classifiers]
C.[edit class-of-service forwarding-classes]
D.[edit class-of-service schedulers]
AnswerC

Custom forwarding classes are defined under the [edit class-of-service forwarding-classes] hierarchy, where each class is mapped to a queue number. This stanza lets you name and assign up to eight classes, satisfying the requirement to define them explicitly rather than rely on default best-effort, expedited, assured and network-control classes.

Why this answer

Custom forwarding classes are defined under the [edit class-of-service forwarding-classes] hierarchy.

141
Multi-Selecthard

When configuring advanced Layer 2 tunneling (Q-in-Q) on Juniper EX Series switches, which THREE statements are correct regarding VLAN stacking behavior and limitations? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.Layer 2 Protocol Tunneling (L2PT) is automatically enabled for all protocols without additional configuration when QinQ is active.
B.MTU sizes across the core must be adjusted to account for the extra 4 bytes of the added outer VLAN tag.
C.Incoming customer frames have an outer VLAN tag pushed onto them at the provider edge ingress port.
D.The inner customer VLAN tags remain entirely untouched and transparent as the frames traverse the provider core.
E.QinQ tunneling requires standard access mode encapsulation on all core-facing uplink ports.
AnswersB, C, D

Because stacked tags add overhead (an extra 4 bytes per tag), core link MTU must be increased to prevent frame fragmentation or drops.

Why this answer

QinQ on Juniper EX switches involves specific encapsulation requirements like flexible-ethernet-services, stacking VLAN tags on ingress and popping on egress, and preserving inner customer VLAN tags transparently.

142
MCQeasy

A network engineer is configuring class of service on a Junos switch and wants to guarantee that the network control traffic forwarding class always has bandwidth available for routing protocol updates, even during heavy data congestion. The engineer also wants to ensure that this class is not starved by other queues. Which scheduler configuration should the engineer apply to the network control forwarding class?

A.A scheduler with a strict-high priority and a policer to cap its rate
B.A scheduler with a low priority and a small buffer size
C.A scheduler with a guaranteed transmit-rate and a high priority
D.A scheduler with an excess transmit-rate and a low priority
AnswerC

Assigning a guaranteed transmit-rate ensures the network control class always has bandwidth reserved, while high priority causes it to be serviced ahead of lower-priority data queues. Together they protect routing protocol updates during congestion without the starvation risk of strict-high priority. This is the recommended approach for the network control forwarding class.

Why this answer

A guaranteed transmit-rate reserves bandwidth for the network control forwarding class, and high priority ensures it is serviced ahead of ordinary data queues, protecting routing protocol updates during congestion without the starvation risk of strict-high priority. Low priority, excess-only rates, and strict-high with policing all fail to provide the required balance of guaranteed bandwidth and preferential servicing.

Exam trap

The trap here is reaching for strict-high priority for important control traffic, when a guaranteed rate with high priority protects bandwidth without starving all other forwarding classes.

143
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO actions can be performed by an OSPF routing policy export filter when redistributing routes into OSPF? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Change the OSPF hello timer interval via routing policy.
B.Modify the OSPF route metric using the metric action.
C.Set the external metric type to Type-1 or Type-2.
D.Alter the OSPF router ID of neighboring routers.
E.Change the OSPF area ID of external routes dynamically.
AnswersB, C

The export policy's metric action assigns the OSPF external metric carried in the AS-external LSA when redistributing routes into OSPF. This satisfies the stem's requirement, letting the filter control the advertised cost of redistributed routes rather than relying on defaults.

Why this answer

Routing policies when exporting into OSPF can set metric types (Type 1 or Type 2) and modify route metrics. They cannot directly change area ID during redistribution without area design changes.

144
MCQmedium

You are configuring a Juniper EX Series switch to support a VoIP deployment. You want to ensure that voice traffic from IP phones is placed in VLAN 100 and data traffic in VLAN 200, with the phone tagging voice packets with 802.1p priority 5. Which feature should you configure?

A.Private VLAN with primary VLAN 100 and secondary VLAN 200.
B.MSTP with MSTI 1 for VLAN 100 and MSTI 2 for VLAN 200.
C.Voice VLAN with VLAN ID 100 and 802.1p priority 5, and data VLAN 200 on the access port.
D.Q-in-Q tunneling with outer VLAN 100 and inner VLAN 200.
AnswerC

Voice VLAN allows the switch to automatically place voice traffic into a specified VLAN and apply a priority. Configuring the voice VLAN as 100 with priority 5 and data VLAN as 200 on the access port meets the requirement, as the phone will tag voice packets with the appropriate VLAN and priority.

Why this answer

The voice VLAN feature on Juniper EX Series switches enables automatic assignment of voice traffic to a specific VLAN and can set 802.1p priority. By configuring voice VLAN 100 with priority 5 and data VLAN 200, the switch will recognize VoIP traffic (via LLDP-MED or MAC address) and place it in the correct VLAN with the appropriate priority, ensuring QoS for voice.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing voice VLAN with other VLAN features like private VLANs or Q-in-Q, which do not provide automatic voice traffic handling and prioritization.

145
MCQeasy

Which IPv4 multicast address range is designated for Source-Specific Multicast (SSM) operations according to IANA standards?

A.224.0.1.0/24
B.224.0.0.0/24
C.239.0.0.0/8
D.232.0.0.0/8
AnswerD

232.0.0.0/8 is the IANA-designated SSM range, letting receivers specify both source and group in IGMPv3 or MLDv2 joins. This satisfies the stem's requirement for the standard SSM block, unlike the ASM ranges 224.0.0.0/4 or the administratively scoped 239.0.0.0/8.

Why this answer

The range 232.0.0.0/8 is reserved for Source-Specific Multicast (SSM) by IANA.

146
MCQeasy

Which BGP attribute is used to prevent routing loops in a BGP confederation?

A.ORIGINATOR_ID
B.AS_PATH
C.CLUSTER_LIST
D.AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE
AnswerD

AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE is a BGP attribute used within a confederation to record the sub-AS numbers that a route has traversed. It functions similarly to AS_PATH but is only used within the confederation. When a route leaves the confederation, the AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE is removed and replaced with the confederation identifier in the AS_PATH. This attribute prevents loops within the confederation by allowing routers to detect if a route has already passed through their sub-AS.

Why this answer

In a BGP confederation, the AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE attribute is used to prevent loops within the confederation. It records the sub-AS numbers that a route has traversed. When a router receives a route with its own sub-AS number in the AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE, it detects a loop and rejects the route.

This attribute is only used internally within the confederation and is stripped when advertising to external peers. The other attributes serve different purposes.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the loop prevention mechanisms of route reflection (CLUSTER_LIST, ORIGINATOR_ID) with those of BGP confederations (AS_CONFED_SEQUENCE).

147
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO statements are correct regarding captive portal redirection behavior on EX Series switches? (Choose two)

Select 2 answers
A.Clients can be granted pre-authentication access to specific IP addresses using a walled garden or bypass list.
B.Captive portal redirection requires the client to run a proprietary Juniper client software agent.
C.HTTPS traffic is automatically decrypted and redirected without client browser certificate errors.
D.Unauthenticated HTTP traffic is intercepted and redirected to the captive portal login URL.
E.Redirection is achieved by modifying the client's local operating system registry settings via DHCP.
AnswersA, D

A walled garden or bypass list lets unauthenticated clients reach specified IP addresses before captive portal authentication completes, satisfying the requirement for pre-authentication access to permitted resources. Traffic to all other destinations remains intercepted and redirected to the portal, so granular exceptions are enforced without granting full network access prematurely.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because EX Series captive portal supports a walled garden (bypass list) that allows unauthenticated clients to reach specific IP addresses or domains—such as DNS, DHCP, or authentication servers—before they log in. Option D is correct because the switch intercepts unauthenticated HTTP requests and redirects them to the captive portal login URL, which is the core mechanism of captive portal redirection. Option B is incorrect because captive portal authentication is browser-based and does not require any proprietary Juniper client agent.

Option C is incorrect because HTTPS traffic is not decrypted or redirected; certificate errors would occur if interception were attempted, so HTTPS is typically blocked or bypassed rather than transparently redirected. Option E is incorrect because redirection is performed by the switch intercepting HTTP traffic, not by modifying client OS registry settings via DHCP.

148
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE mechanisms are utilized by Junos to protect OSPF routing operations and control plane resources? (Choose three)

Select 3 answers
A.OSPF cryptographic authentication (MD5 or keychain-based authentication)
B.Routing Engine firewall filters protecting the lo0 interface against OSPF spoofing/flooding
C.Strict TCP handshake validation for OSPF hello packets
D.IPsec tunnel encapsulation mandatory for all intra-area OSPFv2 packets
E.OSPF overload / stub router advertising during high CPU or startup
AnswersA, B, E

Cryptographic authentication prevents unauthorized routers from forming adjacencies.

Why this answer

Control plane protection for OSPF includes Routing Engine firewall filters (lo0 filters), OSPF cryptographic authentication (MD5/SHA), and OSPF graceful restart helper mode / overload control.

149
MCQhard

An enterprise design uses PIM sparse-mode with a BSR. An engineer notices that the router has successfully elected a BSR, but no Candidate-RP messages are being processed. Which operational command should the engineer use to verify the BSR candidate information and elected BSR address on the router?

A.show igmp bsr
B.show pim bsr statistics
C.show msdp bsr-state
D.show multicast bsr
AnswerB

This command displays bootstrap messages received, elected BSR address, and candidate RP information.

Why this answer

The 'show pim bsr local' or 'show pim bsr' commands display information regarding the BSR state, elected BSR, and received bootstrap messages.

150
MCQhard

You are deploying IP phones on an EX4300 switch. The phones require PoE+ (802.3at) and must be allocated power based on their actual consumption rather than a fixed class. Which PoE management mode should you configure on the switch?

A.class
B.consumption
C.static
D.priority
AnswerB

In 'consumption' mode, the switch allocates power based on the actual power consumption of the device, measured in real time. This allows more efficient use of the power budget, as devices that draw less than their class maximum free up power for other ports. It is ideal for PoE+ phones with varying power needs.

Why this answer

The 'consumption' mode allocates power based on actual power draw, which is more efficient than class-based or static allocation. This is particularly useful for PoE+ devices like IP phones that may not always draw maximum power, allowing the switch to support more devices within its power budget.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that 'class' mode dynamically adjusts to actual consumption; it reserves power based on the class, not real-time usage.

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