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Certified Incident Handler (212-89) (212-89) — Questions 301–321

321 questions total · 5 pages · All types, answers revealed

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301
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are essential components of an effective Incident Communication Plan?

Select 2 answers
A.A list of internal and external stakeholder contact details
B.A standard template for forensic report generation
C.A list of firewall rules for blocking malicious IPs
D.Defined escalation criteria for notifying executive management
E.Scripts for resetting user passwords
AnswersA, D

A current contact list for internal and external stakeholders is essential because the plan's notification and escalation duties depend on reaching the right parties quickly. Without accurate details, escalation paths stall and regulatory or customer notifications breach mandated timelines, directly undermining the communication plan's purpose during an incident.

Why this answer

Option A is correct because an effective Incident Communication Plan must identify who needs to be notified during an incident, so maintaining up-to-date contact details for internal and external stakeholders (employees, customers, regulators, law enforcement, media) is essential for timely and accurate dissemination of information. Option D is correct because defined escalation criteria specify the thresholds, severity levels, and triggers that determine when and how executive management must be notified, ensuring leadership is engaged appropriately without unnecessary delays or over-notification. Options B, C, and E are not components of an Incident Communication Plan: a forensic report template (B) belongs to incident investigation and documentation procedures, firewall rules for blocking malicious IPs (C) are part of technical containment and network security controls, and password reset scripts (E) are remediation/IT operational tools rather than communication planning elements.

302
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE of the following roles are typically included in an IR team?

Select 3 answers
A.The company's primary janitor
B.Human Resources Representative
C.Incident Handler/Lead
D.The company's web designer
E.Legal Counsel
AnswersB, C, E

Human Resources participates in IR teams because incidents often involve insider threats, employee misconduct or disciplinary and legal consequences. HR advises on privacy, employment law and staff communications, satisfying the stem's expectation that a typical IR team spans technical, legal and organisational functions rather than engineers alone.

Why this answer

The three roles marked correct are B, C, and E. Human Resources Representative (B) is typically included because HR manages employee-related aspects of an incident, such as insider threat investigations, disciplinary actions, and coordination of personnel communications. Incident Handler/Lead (C) is the core role that directs the technical response, triages alerts, contains and eradicates threats, and coordinates the overall IR lifecycle.

Legal Counsel (E) is essential for advising on regulatory notification requirements, preserving evidence and chain of custody, managing liability, and ensuring compliance with laws such as GDPR or HIPAA. The unmarked options do not belong: the company's primary janitor (A) and web designer (D) have no defined IR responsibilities, authority, or technical/legal expertise relevant to incident response.

Exam trap

The trap is including tangential staff (janitor, web designer) because they exist in the company — the exam tests whether you know the canonical IR role set, not whether a person is available.

303
MCQhard

A web application is behind a reverse proxy that forwards client requests. During an incident, you need to identify the true source IP of an attacker who is sending malicious requests. The web server logs show the IP of the reverse proxy instead of the client. Which HTTP header should you inspect in the web server logs to find the original client IP?

A.Host
B.X-Forwarded-For
C.User-Agent
D.Referer
AnswerB

X-Forwarded-For is the de facto standard header used by proxies to convey the originating IP address of a client. When a reverse proxy forwards a request, it appends the client IP to this header. Inspecting it in the web server logs allows you to trace back to the true source, provided the proxy is configured to pass it and the logs capture it.

Why this answer

When a reverse proxy forwards requests, it typically adds the X-Forwarded-For header containing the original client IP. Web server logs must be configured to capture this header. Inspecting it allows incident responders to identify the true source IP of the attacker, which is essential for blocking, geolocation, and further investigation.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that the IP address in the web server log is always the client IP, ignoring the presence of a reverse proxy that masks the true source.

304
MCQhard

During a first response to a compromised server, you need to capture the contents of RAM. The server is a critical production system that cannot be taken offline. Which factor is most important to consider when selecting a memory acquisition tool for this scenario?

A.The tool must be able to acquire memory without any writes to the target system's disk.
B.The tool must be able to acquire memory from a remote location over the network.
C.The tool must be able to acquire memory at the fastest possible speed, regardless of system impact.
D.The tool must be able to acquire memory without causing a system crash or requiring a reboot.
AnswerD

In a production environment where downtime is unacceptable, the memory acquisition tool must be stable and not cause a system crash. A crash would not only disrupt services but also destroy the volatile evidence. Tools that operate in kernel mode or use specialized drivers must be thoroughly tested to ensure they do not conflict with existing software. This factor is paramount to balance forensic needs with operational continuity.

Why this answer

When dealing with a critical production server that cannot be taken offline, the overriding concern is that the memory acquisition tool must not cause a system crash or require a reboot. A crash would disrupt services and destroy the volatile evidence you are trying to capture. Other factors like speed, disk writes, or remote capability are secondary to ensuring the system remains stable and operational during the acquisition process.

Exam trap

The trap here is focusing on speed or stealth when the primary constraint is maintaining system uptime and stability.

305
MCQeasy

An incident handler is analyzing a malware incident that used a phishing email. What is the most important field to check in the email header to determine the true origin of the email?

A.Received header
B.Subject line
C.Message-ID
D.Content-Type
AnswerA

The Received header records each mail transfer agent hop, with the originating server listed bottom-up. Examining these entries reveals the true sending IP and relay path, which the From header can spoof, making it the key field for tracing origin.

Why this answer

The Received header is the most important field because each mail server that handles a message prepends its own Received header, creating a chronological chain that traces the message's path from origin to destination. By reading the headers bottom-up (oldest first), an investigator can identify the originating IP address and mail server, which is essential for determining the true source of a phishing email. Subject, Message-ID, and Content-Type can all be trivially spoofed or fabricated by the sender and carry no routing information.

Exam trap

212-89 often tests the misconception that Message-ID or Subject identifies the sender — candidates forget that only the Received chain carries routing evidence, and that it must be read bottom-up to find the true origin.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option B is wrong because the Subject line is user-supplied text with no forensic value for origin tracing — attackers routinely craft innocuous or spoofed subjects. Option C is wrong because the Message-ID is generated by the sending mail system and can be arbitrarily forged; it identifies the message but not its path or origin. Option D is wrong because Content-Type merely describes the MIME structure of the message body (e.g., text/html, multipart/mixed) and reveals nothing about the sender's location or routing.

306
MCQmedium

During an incident involving a compromised e-commerce web application, you need to determine whether an attacker used a stolen session cookie to access a user's account. Which HTTP header should you examine first in the web server access logs to identify the session token used in the malicious requests?

A.Referer
B.Cookie
C.User-Agent
D.Authorization
AnswerB

The Cookie header carries the session identifier (e.g., JSESSIONID, PHPSESSID) that the server uses to associate a request with an authenticated session. By examining this header in the access logs, you can pinpoint the exact token used by the attacker, compare it with the legitimate user's token, and confirm session hijacking. This is the most direct evidence of session token reuse in web application incidents.

Why this answer

The Cookie header is the only HTTP header that directly carries the session identifier used for authentication in cookie-based web applications. During a session hijacking investigation, correlating the Cookie value across requests allows you to confirm that an attacker used a stolen token. Other headers provide contextual information but lack the session token required to prove hijacking.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that the Authorization header contains session cookies, when in fact it is used for different authentication schemes and would not reveal the session token in a typical web application.

307
MCQmedium

If a user receives an email with an attachment that is a 'compressed password-protected file', why is this a red flag?

A.It requires too much storage space
B.It is a sign of high security
C.It prevents security gateways from scanning the contents
D.It violates corporate policy
AnswerC

Password-protected archives block gateway inspection because the scanner cannot derive the decryption key, so antivirus and sandbox engines see only ciphertext. This directly satisfies the stem's constraint: the attachment evades content scanning, letting malware reach the user's endpoint unchecked while appearing as a routine compressed file.

Why this answer

Password-protected compressed archives (e.g., ZIP, RAR, 7z) cannot be inspected by email security gateways because the contents are encrypted. Attackers use this to smuggle malware past antivirus and sandbox scanning, since the gateway cannot decrypt the archive without the password, which is typically provided in the email body.

Exam trap

The trap is focusing on policy or storage aspects of the attachment rather than the core security issue — encrypted archives bypass gateway inspection, which is the reason they are flagged.

How to eliminate wrong answers

Option A is wrong because storage size is not the security concern — compressed files are usually small, and size alone is not a red flag. Option B is wrong because password protection on an unsolicited email attachment is not a sign of legitimate high security; it is a deliberate evasion technique. Option D is wrong because while it may violate policy, the fundamental security reason it is a red flag is the scanning bypass, not the policy violation itself.

308
MCQeasy

You are establishing an Incident Response Plan (IRP). Which document should prioritize the technical steps for restoring services after a ransomware attack?

A.Playbook
B.Business Continuity Plan
C.Communication Plan
D.Security Policy
AnswerA

A playbook provides specific, repeatable steps for handling a defined incident type.

Why this answer

The Incident Response Plan focuses on the procedural steps for handling specific incident types, including recovery.

309
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are valid methods to identify a malicious attachment?

Select 2 answers
A.Forwarding the email to the entire company
B.Performing behavioral analysis in a sandbox
C.Checking the file hash against a known threat database
D.Opening the attachment on a personal device
E.Deleting the attachment based on its size
AnswersB, C

Detonating the attachment in an isolated sandbox observes its actual runtime behaviour, such as process creation, registry writes or outbound connections, revealing malicious intent that static signatures miss. This satisfies the stem's requirement for a valid identification method.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because executing a suspicious attachment in an isolated sandbox lets analysts observe its runtime behavior—such as file system changes, registry modifications, network callbacks, and process creation—which reliably reveals malicious intent without risking production systems. Option C is correct because computing the file's cryptographic hash (e.g., MD5, SHA-1, or SHA-256) and comparing it to threat intelligence databases like VirusTotal or an internal IOC repository quickly determines whether the sample matches known malware. Option A is wrong because forwarding a potentially malicious attachment to the entire company propagates the threat and can trigger widespread compromise.

Option D is wrong because opening the attachment on a personal device exposes that device and its data to infection and provides no controlled analysis. Option E is wrong because file size is not an indicator of maliciousness, so deleting based on size alone would both miss real threats and remove benign files.

310
MCQhard

An incident handler is analyzing a malware sample that appears to be a ransomware variant. The sample encrypts files with a specific extension and drops a ransom note. The handler wants to determine the encryption algorithm used to potentially find weaknesses. Which artifact from the malware analysis is most directly useful to identify the encryption algorithm?

A.The ransom note text file
B.Disassembly of the encryption routine
C.The file extension appended to encrypted files
D.Strings extracted from the malware binary
AnswerB

Disassembling the encryption routine allows the handler to see the exact cryptographic APIs and constants used, such as AES, RSA, or Salsa20. By examining the code flow and calls to Windows CryptoAPI or custom implementations, the algorithm can be identified with high confidence. This is the most direct and reliable method to determine the encryption algorithm and assess potential weaknesses.

Why this answer

Disassembling the encryption routine provides the most definitive identification of the encryption algorithm by revealing the specific cryptographic functions and constants used. The ransom note, file extension, and strings may offer clues but lack the technical precision required. For ransomware analysis, understanding the algorithm is crucial for potential decryption or identifying implementation flaws.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that the file extension or ransom note will name the encryption algorithm, when they are often cosmetic and not technically informative.

311
MCQmedium

During a network intrusion investigation, a first responder needs to capture volatile network configuration data from a compromised Windows server before it is rebooted. Which command should be used to display the current ARP cache?

A.ipconfig /all
B.route print
C.netstat -ano
D.arp -a
AnswerD

The arp -a command displays the current ARP cache, listing IP addresses and their corresponding physical (MAC) addresses. This is essential for identifying potential ARP spoofing or mapping network segments during an incident. On a compromised Windows server, capturing the ARP cache before reboot preserves evidence of local network relationships and possible attacker presence. It directly answers the requirement.

Why this answer

The ARP cache is a volatile artifact that maps IP addresses to MAC addresses and can reveal attacker presence or network topology. On Windows, the arp -a command lists these entries. Other commands like netstat, ipconfig, and route print provide different network information and do not display the ARP cache, so they are not suitable for this task.

Exam trap

The trap here is confusing the ARP cache with general network configuration output; commands like ipconfig /all show local adapter details but not the ARP entries for other hosts.

312
Multi-Selecthard

A first responder is documenting a compromised Linux server that is still running. The responder needs to record the system's current network state to later identify unauthorized connections and potential data exfiltration. Which two commands should the responder use to capture this volatile information? (Choose two.)

Select 2 answers
A.ps aux
B.lsmod
C.netstat -antp
D.df -h
E.ss -tulpn
AnswersC, E

The netstat -antp command displays all TCP connections with numeric addresses, listening ports, and the associated process IDs. On a live Linux system, this captures the current network state, including established connections that may indicate command-and-control or exfiltration channels. The -p flag requires root privileges but provides the critical mapping to the responsible process. This output is volatile and must be saved to external media immediately, as it will change as connections open and close.

Why this answer

To capture current network state on a live Linux server, the responder must use commands that display active connections, listening ports, and associated processes. Both netstat -antp and ss -tulpn provide this information; ss is the modern replacement for netstat. These outputs are volatile and must be saved to external media.

The other commands address disk usage, kernel modules, or process lists, which do not fulfil the requirement to record network connections. Thus, the two network-focused commands are the correct choices.

Exam trap

The trap here is selecting general system information commands like ps aux or lsmod instead of the specific network-state commands that reveal active connections.

313
MCQmedium

A junior responder arrives at a compromised Windows 10 workstation. Before touching the keyboard, they photograph the screen. The system is still powered on and a suspicious process is visible in Task Manager. The responder's supervisor asks them to capture the most volatile evidence first. Which action should the responder take next?

A.Capture the contents of RAM using a forensic memory acquisition tool.
B.Shut down the system and remove the hard drive for imaging.
C.Disconnect the network cable to isolate the workstation from the network.
D.Run a full antivirus scan to identify and remove the malicious process.
AnswerA

RAM is the most volatile evidence and contains running processes, network connections, encryption keys, and injected code that vanish when power is lost. Capturing memory first preserves this ephemeral data before any other action alters it. The supervisor's instruction aligns with the order of volatility, which prioritizes CPU registers and cache, then RAM, before less volatile storage. A memory image also enables later timeline and malware analysis.

Why this answer

The order of volatility dictates that the most perishable evidence must be collected first. RAM contains running processes, network connections, and encryption keys that are lost on shutdown or reboot. Capturing memory before any other action preserves this critical evidence.

Antivirus scanning, shutdown, or network isolation would alter or destroy volatile data, so they are inappropriate as the immediate next step. Only memory acquisition aligns with the supervisor's instruction and standard first response practice.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that containment or malware removal should happen before evidence capture, when volatile data must actually be preserved first.

314
MCQmedium

An incident responder is examining a suspected business email compromise (BEC) message. The message passed SPF, DKIM, and DMARC alignment checks. The From display name is the CEO's name, but the actual envelope sender is a lookalike domain registered two days ago. Which characteristic of this message most directly explains why the authentication checks succeeded while the message is still malicious?

A.The message used a compromised internal mailbox with a valid SPF record, so the sending IP passed SPF.
B.The receiving gateway disabled DMARC enforcement for executive names, which is why the checks passed.
C.The lookalike domain published its own SPF, DKIM, and DMARC records that align with its own domain, so authentication passes for that domain even though it impersonates the CEO's display name.
D.The message was sent through a reputable bulk email service, which automatically signs all outbound mail with the recipient's domain keys.
AnswerC

SPF, DKIM, and DMARC validate the sending domain, not the display name. A newly registered lookalike domain can publish its own valid SPF, DKIM, and DMARC records, causing all checks to pass for that domain. Because the display name is what users see, the message can pass authentication while still impersonating the CEO, which is the core BEC technique.

Why this answer

Email authentication validates the domain that sent the message, not the display name shown to the user. A lookalike domain can publish its own SPF, DKIM, and DMARC records and pass all checks for itself, allowing a BEC message to appear legitimate. Incident handlers must inspect the actual envelope sender and domain age, not rely solely on authentication results.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that a passing SPF, DKIM, and DMARC result means the message is trustworthy, when authentication only validates the sending domain and not the display name or intent.

315
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO actions are recommended for secure evidence storage?

Select 2 answers
A.Mailing evidence without tracking.
B.Storing in a locked cabinet with access control.
C.Leaving the evidence on a public desk.
D.Copying evidence to a public server for sharing.
E.Keeping a digital log of who accesses the storage.
AnswersB, E

A locked cabinet with access control physically restricts who can reach the evidence, preventing tampering or theft. This satisfies the chain-of-custody and integrity requirements for secure evidence storage by limiting access to authorised personnel only.

Why this answer

Option B is correct because storing evidence in a locked cabinet with access control enforces physical security and restricts custody to authorized personnel, satisfying chain-of-custody requirements for secure evidence storage. Option E is correct because keeping a digital log of who accesses the storage creates an auditable access record that documents each individual's interaction with the evidence, which is essential for maintaining chain of custody and detecting unauthorized access. Options A, C, and D do not belong: mailing evidence without tracking breaks the chain of custody and provides no delivery confirmation, leaving evidence on a public desk exposes it to theft or tampering, and copying evidence to a public server for sharing violates confidentiality and integrity controls by allowing uncontrolled access.

316
MCQmedium

You are reviewing a failed incident case management report. The team failed to capture the 'Time of Detection' vs. 'Time of Occurrence'. Which metric is directly impacted by this lack of documentation?

A.False Positive Rate
B.Mean Time to Detect (MTTD)
C.Mean Time to Contain (MTTC)
D.Mean Time to Recover (MTTR)
AnswerB

MTTD measures elapsed time between an incident's occurrence and its detection. Without documented Time of Occurrence and Time of Detection, that interval cannot be calculated, so the metric is directly undermined. Other metrics, such as MTTR, depend on response and recovery timestamps instead.

Why this answer

Mean Time to Detect (MTTD) is calculated by the difference between the actual occurrence and the detection time; failing to record these makes the metric impossible to compute.

317
MCQmedium

During a malware incident investigation on a Windows 10 workstation, you discover a scheduled task named 'MicrosoftEdgeUpdateTaskMachineCore' that launches 'C:\Users\Public\updater.exe' every 15 minutes. Legitimate Edge update tasks do not execute binaries from the Public profile. Which containment action best preserves volatile evidence while stopping the recurring malicious execution?

A.Delete 'C:\Users\Public\updater.exe' and remove the scheduled task definition from the registry hive offline
B.Run 'schtasks /Delete /TN "MicrosoftEdgeUpdateTaskMachineCore" /F' and reboot the workstation to clear the infection
C.Quarantine the workstation from the network and leave the scheduled task running so the attacker's behavior can be observed
D.Disable the scheduled task with 'schtasks /Change /TN "MicrosoftEdgeUpdateTaskMachineCore" /DISABLE', then capture a memory image of the running process
AnswerD

Disabling the task halts the recurring execution of the masquerading binary without destroying the running process or its volatile memory, and the subsequent memory capture preserves injected code, network sockets, and encryption keys that would be lost on reboot. This satisfies containment while retaining evidence needed for root-cause analysis and scope determination.

Why this answer

Disabling the malicious scheduled task halts reinfection while leaving the running process and its volatile state intact for memory acquisition, which is the priority during containment of a recurring execution mechanism. Deleting the task, rebooting, or removing the binary destroys evidence and prevents proper root-cause analysis and scoping.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that removing the persistence artifact (deleting the task or binary) is the safest containment step, when doing so destroys volatile evidence before it can be captured.

318
MCQmedium

You are handling a confirmed incident in which an attacker uploaded a web shell named 'image_thumb.php' to a public-facing Apache server running PHP. The file is being invoked repeatedly via HTTP POST requests. Which action should you take FIRST to contain the threat while preserving forensic evidence?

A.Immediately rebuild the server from a known-good image and restore the most recent backup.
B.Capture volatile data and a forensic copy of the web shell, then block its execution and network access to it while keeping the original in place.
C.Configure the WAF to block requests containing the string 'image_thumb.php' and continue monitoring.
D.Delete the web shell and restart the Apache service to break any active attacker sessions.
AnswerB

This approach preserves the original artifact for analysis, captures volatile evidence such as running processes and network connections that would be lost on reboot, and contains the threat by preventing execution and inbound access. It follows the incident handling sequence of identification, containment, and evidence preservation before eradication.

Why this answer

Containment must balance stopping the attacker with preserving evidence. Capturing volatile data and a forensic copy of the web shell, then blocking its execution and external access, achieves both. Deleting the file, rebuilding the server, or relying solely on a WAF signature all sacrifice forensic value or leave the intrusion path open, undermining the subsequent eradication and recovery phases.

Exam trap

The trap here is assuming that deleting the malicious file or rebuilding the server is the fastest way to contain the incident, when doing so actually destroys the volatile evidence and artifacts needed to determine scope and root cause.

319
MCQmedium

You suspect a malware incident caused unauthorized data exfiltration. Which log source is most useful to identify the destination IP of the exfiltrated data?

A.Application logs
B.Local security policy settings
C.Firewall logs
D.System event logs
AnswerC

Firewall logs record permitted outbound connections with source, destination IP and port, so they reveal which external address received the exfiltrated traffic. Host-based logs show local activity but rarely the external destination, and application logs lack network detail.

Why this answer

Firewall logs provide a record of all outbound connections and are the most reliable source for identifying destination IP addresses in an exfiltration event.

320
MCQeasy

Which document is essential to maintain during a malware incident to ensure accountability and track the actions taken by the incident response team?

A.User Manual
B.Incident Log
C.System Backup
D.Vulnerability Assessment Report
AnswerB

An incident log records each action, timestamp and decision taken by the response team during the malware incident, providing the chronological audit trail needed to demonstrate accountability and support later review or legal proceedings. It satisfies the stem's accountability and action-tracking requirement.

Why this answer

An Incident Log (or Chain of Custody record) is critical for documenting every step, tool, and decision made during the response process.

321
MCQeasy

You are a first responder called to a scene where a laptop is running and logged in. You need to preserve the most volatile evidence. What should you do first?

A.Remove the hard drive and connect it to a write blocker.
B.Take photographs of the screen and surrounding area.
C.Capture a memory image using a forensic tool.
D.Shut down the laptop to prevent further damage.
AnswerC

Capturing a memory image is the highest priority because RAM contents are lost upon power-off or reboot. This step preserves running processes, encryption keys, and network connections that are critical for understanding the incident. It should be done before any other collection to avoid losing volatile data. Using a validated tool ensures the image is forensically sound and can be analyzed later.

Why this answer

Volatile evidence such as RAM contents is lost when a system is powered down. Capturing a memory image first ensures that critical artifacts like running processes, network connections, and encryption keys are preserved. Other actions, like photographing the screen or removing the hard drive, are either less volatile or require powering down the system.

Therefore, memory capture is the correct initial step in preserving the most perishable evidence.

Exam trap

The trap here is thinking that shutting down the system is a safe way to preserve evidence, when it actually destroys volatile data.

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