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Certified Incident Handler (212-89) (212-89) — Questions 151206

206 questions total · 3pages · All types, answers revealed

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151
MCQeasy

While investigating a server compromise, you need to ensure the digital evidence collected from the RAID array is admissible in court. What is the most critical requirement for the chain of custody?

A.Deleting temporary files to prevent cross-contamination
B.Encrypting the collected evidence folder with AES-256
C.Creating a bit-stream image of the disk drive
D.Maintaining a detailed log of every individual who accessed or transferred the evidence
AnswerD

A continuous, documented record of custody is essential to prove the integrity of the evidence in a legal proceeding.

Why this answer

Chain of custody requires a chronological log of who handled the evidence, where it was stored, and proof that it was not altered, typically via cryptographic hashes.

152
MCQmedium

You are investigating a compromised Linux host. Using 'tcpdump' to capture traffic on interface eth0 to analyze C2 communication on port 443, which command is most efficient for saving the output to a file for later analysis in Wireshark?

A.tcpdump -c eth0 port 443
B.tcpdump -i eth0 port 443 > capture.txt
C.tcpdump -r capture.pcap port 443
D.tcpdump -i eth0 port 443 -w capture.pcap
AnswerD

The -w flag correctly writes the captured traffic to a file.

Why this answer

The -w flag is used in tcpdump to write raw packets to a .pcap file.

153
MCQhard

An attacker is bypassing WAF signatures by using Unicode encoding. Which WAF feature must be enabled to normalize the traffic before inspection?

A.Content-Type header inspection
B.SSL/TLS offloading
C.UTF-8/Unicode normalization
D.Request body buffering
AnswerC

Normalization transforms encoded characters into a standard form, making them detectable by pattern-matching signatures.

Why this answer

Unicode normalization ensures that multiple representations of the same character are converted to a standard format that signatures can recognize.

154
MCQmedium

Which tool would you use to perform a live analysis of HTTP traffic and inspect for malicious payloads in real-time?

A.Nmap
B.Wireshark
C.Netstat
D.Syslog
AnswerB

Wireshark allows for detailed inspection of HTTP streams and packet contents.

Why this answer

Wireshark is the standard tool for capturing and analyzing raw network traffic, including the contents of HTTP packets.

155
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE pieces of information should be included in an incident triage report?

Select 3 answers
A.The date and time of the incident discovery.
B.The private health records of the affected users.
C.The systems and services impacted by the incident.
D.The initial findings or indicators of compromise (IOCs).
E.The names of all employees who have access to the building.
AnswersA, C, D

This is critical for establishing the incident timeline.

Why this answer

Triage reports should focus on impact, scope, and initial findings.

156
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are recommended when creating a forensic copy of a hard drive?

Select 2 answers
A.Using a physical write-blocker
B.Copying only the files that seem important
C.Reformatting the drive before imaging
D.Installing new drivers on the drive
E.Calculating the cryptographic hash of the original and the image
AnswersA, E

Write-blockers ensure the source drive is not modified.

Why this answer

Integrity is ensured by hashing and using write-blockers.

157
MCQeasy

An incident handler is reviewing an alert from the Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) system. What is the main goal of the 'Containment' phase?

A.To identify the attacker
B.To limit the scope and damage of the incident
C.To analyze the root cause
D.To recover normal operations
AnswerB

Containment limits the damage and prevents further impact.

Why this answer

The primary goal of containment is to stop the spread of the attack and prevent further damage.

158
MCQhard

An email header contains 'X-Forefront-Antispam-Report'. What can an analyst determine from this?

A.The email is definitely malicious
B.The sender is a known spammer
C.The email is encrypted
D.The email was scanned by Microsoft's filtering engine
AnswerD

This header is specific to Microsoft services.

Why this answer

This header provides information on how Microsoft's filtering engine analyzed the message, including spam confidence levels.

159
MCQmedium

During a suspected ransomware incident, you are using EnCase Endpoint to perform remote triage. You need to collect volatile data without triggering the ransomware's anti-forensic triggers. Which action should you take first to ensure the integrity of evidence?

A.Review the Windows Event Logs for unauthorized access.
B.Capture the RAM using a trusted forensic tool like DumpIt.
C.Perform a bit-stream image of the physical hard drive.
D.Shut down the computer to prevent further encryption.
AnswerB

RAM capture must happen first to preserve state-dependent evidence before the system is altered.

Why this answer

Capturing volatile data (RAM) before any other forensic action is standard practice as it is the most fragile evidence.

160
MCQmedium

A department head demands to know the names of the employees involved in an internal data leak. Which policy document defines your obligation to disclose or withhold this information?

A.Acceptable Use Policy
B.Incident Communication Policy
C.Access Control Policy
D.Data Classification Policy
AnswerB

This policy governs the flow of information during an incident, including HR and legal privacy constraints.

Why this answer

The communication and disclosure policy defines the rules for internal and external information sharing during an incident.

161
MCQeasy

What is the primary purpose of a write blocker in a forensic investigation?

A.To speed up data transfer.
B.To ensure no data is modified on the source media.
C.To encrypt the data on the drive.
D.To allow multiple people to read the drive.
AnswerB

Preservation of evidence integrity is the primary goal.

Why this answer

A write blocker prevents any data from being written to the source drive, ensuring the integrity of the evidence.

162
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE actions should be avoided during the initial response phase to ensure evidence integrity?

Select 3 answers
A.Encrypting the evidence files.
B.Installing security patches immediately.
C.Shutting down a system without capturing volatile data.
D.Using native system tools that overwrite logs.
E.Documenting the initial state of the system.
AnswersB, C, D

Patches change the state of the system, potentially destroying evidence.

Why this answer

Modifying, destroying, or altering evidence is strictly forbidden during incident response.

163
MCQeasy

Which documentation is required when transferring physical evidence from a responder to a forensic lab?

A.User access log.
B.Incident summary report.
C.Chain of Custody form.
D.Asset inventory list.
AnswerC

A CoC form documents who handled the evidence, when, and where.

Why this answer

Chain of Custody (CoC) documents are required to ensure the legal integrity of the evidence.

164
MCQmedium

You are documenting a post-incident review. Which of the following should be included in the 'Timeline of Events' section?

A.A list of all employees who were working during the incident
B.The cost estimate for all hardware replaced
C.The personal opinion of the investigators on who was responsible
D.The chronological order of detection, analysis, and containment actions
AnswerD

A factual, chronological record of response actions is essential for accountability and review.

Why this answer

An accurate timeline must include the exact time an event was detected and every response action taken.

165
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO settings in a WAF policy are most effective at mitigating automated bot-driven web attacks?

Select 2 answers
A.Enabling verbose debugging mode
B.Implementation of a CAPTCHA challenge
C.Disabling all HTTP POST requests
D.Rate limiting based on IP address
E.Reducing the global connection timeout
AnswersB, D

CAPTCHA effectively differentiates human users from automated scripts.

Why this answer

Rate limiting and challenge-response mechanisms (like CAPTCHA) are the most effective controls for blocking automated bots.

166
MCQeasy

In the context of the NIST Incident Response Life Cycle, which phase immediately follows the 'Detection and Analysis' phase, specifically focusing on limiting the scope of the compromise?

A.Recovery
B.Containment
C.Lessons Learned
D.Eradication
AnswerB

Containment is the explicit phase meant to limit the incident scope.

Why this answer

Containment is the phase where the responder takes action to stop the spread or further damage of the incident.

167
MCQeasy

A first responder is using a 'Live Response' toolkit. What is the main characteristic of these tools?

A.They provide permanent remote access to the attacker.
B.They are designed to run from a USB drive to minimize impact on the target disk.
C.They require the computer to be turned off.
D.They automatically delete evidence after collection.
AnswerB

Using an external drive prevents the tool from overwriting data on the target hard drive.

Why this answer

Live response tools are designed to collect data from a running system with minimal impact on the target environment.

168
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following represent critical log sources that should be correlated when investigating a potential network-based exfiltration incident?

Select 3 answers
A.NTP server logs
B.DNS query logs for destination domain lookup
C.Print server logs
D.Firewall logs for denied/allowed outbound connections
E.NetFlow records for byte count analysis
AnswersB, D, E

DNS logs show the destination infrastructure being queried.

Why this answer

Firewall logs, NetFlow, and DNS logs provide the full picture of an outbound exfiltration event.

169
MCQmedium

What is the purpose of enabling 'Request Body Buffering' on a WAF during incident response?

A.To compress incoming traffic
B.To improve web server performance
C.To allow the WAF to inspect the full request body for malicious payloads
D.To hide the web server version from attackers
AnswerC

Buffering ensures that the full payload is available for inspection, preventing partial-request bypasses.

Why this answer

Buffering allows the WAF to receive the entire request before inspecting it, which is necessary to detect payloads that span across packets.

170
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following indicators are primary artifacts to look for when investigating potential lateral movement on a Windows network?

Select 2 answers
A.Event ID 7045 (Service Installation)
B.Event ID 1000 (Application Error)
C.Event ID 4624 (Logon)
D.Event ID 4688 (Process Creation)
E.Event ID 1102 (Log Cleared)
AnswersA, C

Attackers often install services to maintain persistence during lateral moves.

Why this answer

Service installation and login events (4624/4625) are primary methods for lateral movement.

171
MCQmedium

You are performing a post-incident review. Which action is the most important to ensure that the 'Lessons Learned' process effectively improves future response capabilities?

A.Documenting the root cause and defining specific, actionable process changes
B.Updating the password policy
C.Archiving all forensic images for ten years
D.Assigning blame to the employee who made the error
AnswerA

Actionable changes address the underlying vulnerabilities found during the incident.

Why this answer

The root cause analysis and resulting action items are what drive actual improvement in the IR lifecycle.

172
MCQeasy

Which syslog facility would typically be configured on a network device to send audit logs to a central server?

A.kernel
B.local0
C.cron
D.mail
AnswerB

Local facilities are the standard method for exporting logs to a SIEM.

Why this answer

Syslog facilities like 'auth' or 'local0' are commonly used to tag security-related logs on network devices.

173
MCQeasy

When an email incident is resolved, why is it necessary to update the organization's blocklist?

A.To comply with legal regulations
B.To prevent re-occurrence of the same campaign
C.To improve system performance
D.To delete the user's account
AnswerB

This is the core purpose of blocklisting.

Why this answer

Updating the blocklist prevents future delivery of emails from the same source or with the same malicious artifacts.

174
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are legal considerations when handling an incident?

Select 3 answers
A.The cost of upgrading the company's hardware
B.The speed of the internet connection used for analysis
C.Compliance with regional data breach notification laws
D.Admissibility of collected evidence in a court of law
E.Privacy rights of the employees involved
AnswersC, D, E

Failure to report breaches can lead to massive fines.

Why this answer

Data privacy, regulatory reporting, and evidence admissibility are critical legal areas.

175
MCQhard

While investigating a breach, you need to verify the integrity of a system file. Which process is correct to ensure the file has not been altered?

A.Compare the file size with the original.
B.Check the 'Date Modified' timestamp.
C.Generate a SHA-256 hash and compare to a trusted baseline.
D.Open the file in a text editor to look for changes.
AnswerC

Cryptographic hashing is the definitive method for integrity checking.

Why this answer

Generating a cryptographic hash (SHA-256) of the file and comparing it to a known good baseline is the standard process for integrity verification.

176
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following are safe practices when analyzing a suspicious email?

Select 2 answers
A.Disabling all antivirus tools to observe behavior
B.Opening attachments in your primary email client
C.Ensuring the analysis environment is isolated from the network
D.Clicking every link to check for live sites
E.Performing analysis in an isolated virtual machine
AnswersC, E

Prevents data exfiltration.

Why this answer

Using virtual machines and disconnecting from the corporate network are safe practices.

177
MCQmedium

You are analyzing an email and the URL redirects through multiple shortened link services. What is the recommended way to find the final landing page?

A.Click the link to see where it goes
B.Block all shortened links
C.Run a packet capture on the gateway
D.Use a URL lookup or unshortening service
AnswerD

This is the safe way to resolve redirects.

Why this answer

Using a 'URL unshortening' service or tool allows the analyst to see the final destination without clicking the link.

178
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO of the following activities are considered 'Eradication' steps in the incident response lifecycle?

Select 2 answers
A.Writing an incident report
B.Re-imaging infected workstations
C.Removing malicious files and registry keys
D.Conducting a post-incident meeting
E.Notifying the news media
AnswersB, C

This ensures the system is brought back to a known-clean state.

Why this answer

Eradication involves removing the malicious components and restoring clean systems to normal operations.

179
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following indicators are found in email-based malware delivery?

Select 3 answers
A.Hidden links pointing to malicious domains
B.Sender address mismatching the organization's domain
C.The email has a standard company footer
D.The email was sent during business hours
E.Suspicious attachments (e.g., .zip, .docm)
AnswersA, B, E

Malicious URLs are a primary delivery method for malware.

Why this answer

Malicious emails often contain suspicious attachments, unexpected links (URLs) leading to malicious sites, and deceptive sender addresses to trick users.

180
MCQeasy

Which HTTP header is most critical to inspect when identifying the origin of an attack passing through a reverse proxy?

A.Referer
B.X-Forwarded-For
C.User-Agent
D.Host
AnswerB

This header contains the IP address of the client connecting to the proxy, essential for source identification.

Why this answer

The 'X-Forwarded-For' header allows the original client IP to be preserved through proxy/load balancer hops.

181
MCQmedium

After eradicating a malware infection, you need to ensure the system is hardened against future occurrences. Which action is most effective against fileless malware?

A.Implement PowerShell Constrained Language Mode
B.Enable auto-updates for all applications
C.Install an extra antivirus
D.Enable full disk encryption
AnswerA

This restricts the ability of malicious scripts to call sensitive APIs.

Why this answer

Disabling PowerShell for non-administrative users or implementing Constrained Language Mode is a key defense against fileless script-based attacks.

182
MCQmedium

What is the purpose of 'Sandboxing' in email security?

A.To provide a backup of the email
B.To store malicious emails for future reference
C.To encrypt the email body
D.To safely execute and observe file behavior
AnswerD

This is the core function.

Why this answer

Sandboxing executes a file in a controlled, virtual environment to observe its behavior before allowing it to reach the end user.

183
MCQeasy

An analyst receives a report of a phishing email. Which email header field is most reliable for verifying the path taken by the email through intermediate mail transfer agents?

A.X-Originating-IP
B.Return-Path
C.X-Mailer
D.Received
AnswerD

This header tracks the path through servers.

Why this answer

The Received header is added by every MTA that handles the message, providing a verifiable path.

184
MCQhard

You have identified a potential Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) in your network. Which evidence preservation strategy is required to maintain the validity of the logs found in a SIEM?

A.Moving the logs to a backup server
B.Applying a cryptographic hash to the exported logs
C.Printing the logs to a secure PDF
D.Taking a screenshot of the SIEM dashboard
AnswerB

Hashing provides proof of integrity for digital evidence.

Why this answer

Generating cryptographic hashes for log files ensures they can be verified as untampered during later analysis.

185
MCQmedium

You suspect a file on a Linux server is malicious. What command can you use to obtain the MD5 hash of the file?

A.checkhash [filename]
B.hash -md5 [filename]
C.md5sum [filename]
D.echo md5 [filename]
AnswerC

This command outputs the MD5 checksum of the file.

Why this answer

The 'md5sum' utility is the standard tool in Linux distributions for calculating MD5 hashes.

186
MCQhard

You are configuring a SIEM for long-term storage of investigation logs. Which feature is most important to prevent evidence tampering?

A.WORM (Write Once, Read Many) storage media
B.Automatic log compression
C.Log deduplication
D.Real-time log alerting
AnswerA

WORM media is the standard for long-term evidence integrity.

Why this answer

WORM (Write Once, Read Many) storage ensures that logs cannot be deleted or modified once they are written, providing strong integrity.

187
MCQhard

You suspect a CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery) attack. What log entry pattern confirms this?

A.Multiple POST requests without a corresponding GET request
B.High volume of 401 Unauthorized errors
C.Referer header showing a domain different from the application's domain
D.A sudden change in the session cookie value
AnswerC

CSRF relies on requests being triggered from an attacker-controlled site; a mismatch in the Referer header is a clear indicator.

Why this answer

CSRF attacks originate from a different site. Checking the 'Referer' header in the logs for unexpected domains is the primary method for detection.

188
Multi-Selectmedium

During a malware analysis, which TWO of the following indicators are typically used to identify persistence mechanisms in the Windows registry?

Select 2 answers
A.HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT\CLSID
B.HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Control Panel\Desktop
C.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\System\CurrentControlSet\Services
D.HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Explorer\MountPoints2
E.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run
AnswersC, E

Services are frequently used to run malware as background daemons.

Why this answer

The 'Run' keys and 'Services' keys are the most common locations malware uses to ensure automatic execution upon boot.

189
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following steps are considered best practices when performing network forensics on a live environment?

Select 2 answers
A.Maintain a strict chain of custody for all PCAP files
B.Disable all logging to prioritize bandwidth
C.Capture traffic using a SPAN port or network tap
D.Reboot the network devices to clear the buffer
E.Modify the firewall rule to allow all traffic for analysis
AnswersA, C

This ensures the integrity of the evidence for investigations.

Why this answer

Capturing traffic and ensuring proper chain of custody are fundamental requirements.

190
Multi-Selecthard

Which THREE of the following are effective network forensics techniques for identifying an attacker's C2 server infrastructure?

Select 3 answers
A.Enabling SNMP on all edge hosts
B.Disabling ICMP echo responses
C.Reverse DNS (PTR) lookup of destination IPs
D.WHOIS registration data analysis
E.Threat intelligence reputation checks
AnswersC, D, E

PTR records can reveal the domain hosting the C2 infrastructure.

Why this answer

Reverse DNS, WHOIS, and reputation analysis are core techniques for investigating C2 servers.

191
Multi-Selecthard

When notifying stakeholders during a major data breach, which TWO of the following groups must be informed according to standard incident communication plans to satisfy regulatory and operational needs?

Select 2 answers
A.The entire public customer base via social media.
B.Legal Counsel/Privacy Officer.
C.The software development team lead.
D.IT Infrastructure Team.
E.External marketing vendors.
AnswersB, D

They must determine the legal obligations for reporting breaches.

Why this answer

Stakeholder notification must balance legal requirements with operational continuity.

192
Multi-Selectmedium

Which THREE of the following items should be included in an email incident report?

Select 3 answers
A.Chronological timeline of the incident
B.Personal contact information of the attacker
C.List of affected users or systems
D.Full history of every email ever sent to the user
E.Remediation steps taken
AnswersA, C, E

Essential for reconstruction.

Why this answer

A description of the incident, the impact, and the remediation steps are required for a report.

193
MCQmedium

When classifying the severity of an incident, which factor should carry the most weight in your decision-making process?

A.The number of security tools that flagged the alert
B.The time of day the incident occurred
C.The technical complexity of the exploit
D.The potential impact on business availability and data integrity
AnswerD

Business impact is the ultimate metric for incident severity classification.

Why this answer

The impact on business operations is the most significant factor in determining the urgency and scope of the response.

194
MCQeasy

A stakeholder asks you to prioritize the recovery of a compromised system. According to incident response best practices, what is your first responsibility?

A.Notify legal counsel.
B.Update firewall rules.
C.Rebuild the system from backup.
D.Identify and confirm the security incident.
AnswerD

Confirmation and triage are the initial steps of the incident response process.

Why this answer

Triage and identification must occur before any recovery or containment steps to ensure the scope is understood.

195
MCQeasy

You are reviewing logs after an incident. You see a sequence of requests starting with 'admin.php', then 'admin.php?id=1', then 'admin.php?id=1 OR 1=1'. What is the attacker doing?

A.Executing a cross-site scripting attack
B.Testing for SQL injection vulnerabilities
C.Performing a directory traversal
D.Performing a brute-force attack
AnswerB

The inclusion of 'OR 1=1' is a classic signature used to test for SQL injection by forcing a true condition.

Why this answer

This sequence shows reconnaissance followed by an attempt to bypass authentication via SQL injection.

196
MCQhard

When dealing with digital evidence in a remote investigation, what is the standard procedure to ensure evidence integrity during network transfer?

A.Use a secure, encrypted tunnel and verify hashes at the destination
B.Compress the data using zip files to reduce file size
C.Email the files to the lead investigator
D.Transfer the data over FTP to a staging server
AnswerA

Integrity is maintained by encryption and verification at receipt.

Why this answer

Using encrypted, secure tunnels and verifying hashes at both ends is the standard for remote forensic collection.

197
Multi-Selectmedium

Which TWO of the following are essential components of an effective Incident Communication Plan?

Select 2 answers
A.A list of internal and external stakeholder contact details
B.A standard template for forensic report generation
C.A list of firewall rules for blocking malicious IPs
D.Defined escalation criteria for notifying executive management
E.Scripts for resetting user passwords
AnswersA, D

Having verified contact information for legal, HR, and external entities is critical for rapid coordination.

Why this answer

An effective communication plan must include defined points of contact (who to talk to) and escalation triggers (when to notify them).

198
Multi-Selecteasy

Which THREE of the following roles are typically included in an IR team?

Select 3 answers
A.The company's primary janitor
B.Human Resources Representative
C.Incident Handler/Lead
D.The company's web designer
E.Legal Counsel
AnswersB, C, E

HR is involved for internal incidents and employee communication.

Why this answer

An IR team requires technical, legal, and managerial expertise.

199
MCQeasy

An incident handler is analyzing a malware incident that used a phishing email. What is the most important field to check in the email header to determine the true origin of the email?

A.Received header
B.Subject line
C.Message-ID
D.Content-Type
AnswerA

The Received header tracks the hops the email made to reach the destination.

Why this answer

The 'Received' headers show the path the email took and the IP addresses of the mail servers involved, helping trace the original sender.

200
MCQmedium

If a user receives an email with an attachment that is a 'compressed password-protected file', why is this a red flag?

A.It requires too much storage space
B.It is a sign of high security
C.It prevents security gateways from scanning the contents
D.It violates corporate policy
AnswerC

This is the primary evasion goal.

Why this answer

Password protection hides the file contents from automated antivirus scanners.

201
MCQeasy

You are establishing an Incident Response Plan (IRP). Which document should prioritize the technical steps for restoring services after a ransomware attack?

A.Playbook
B.Business Continuity Plan
C.Communication Plan
D.Security Policy
AnswerA

A playbook provides specific, repeatable steps for handling a defined incident type.

Why this answer

The Incident Response Plan focuses on the procedural steps for handling specific incident types, including recovery.

202
Multi-Selecthard

Which TWO of the following are valid methods to identify a malicious attachment?

Select 2 answers
A.Forwarding the email to the entire company
B.Performing behavioral analysis in a sandbox
C.Checking the file hash against a known threat database
D.Opening the attachment on a personal device
E.Deleting the attachment based on its size
AnswersB, C

Effective for unknown malware.

Why this answer

Analyzing file hashes against threat intelligence and performing behavioral analysis in a sandbox are valid methods.

203
Multi-Selecteasy

Which TWO actions are recommended for secure evidence storage?

Select 2 answers
A.Mailing evidence without tracking.
B.Storing in a locked cabinet with access control.
C.Leaving the evidence on a public desk.
D.Copying evidence to a public server for sharing.
E.Keeping a digital log of who accesses the storage.
AnswersB, E

Ensures physical security and chain of custody.

Why this answer

Evidence should be kept in a controlled, access-restricted environment to maintain its integrity.

204
MCQmedium

You are reviewing a failed incident case management report. The team failed to capture the 'Time of Detection' vs. 'Time of Occurrence'. Which metric is directly impacted by this lack of documentation?

A.False Positive Rate
B.Mean Time to Detect (MTTD)
C.Mean Time to Contain (MTTC)
D.Mean Time to Recover (MTTR)
AnswerB

MTTD relies on the delta between the start of the event (occurrence) and the awareness of the event (detection).

Why this answer

Mean Time to Detect (MTTD) is calculated by the difference between the actual occurrence and the detection time; failing to record these makes the metric impossible to compute.

205
MCQmedium

You suspect a malware incident caused unauthorized data exfiltration. Which log source is most useful to identify the destination IP of the exfiltrated data?

A.Application logs
B.Local security policy settings
C.Firewall logs
D.System event logs
AnswerC

These logs record all outbound traffic, including destination IPs.

Why this answer

Firewall logs provide a record of all outbound connections and are the most reliable source for identifying destination IP addresses in an exfiltration event.

206
MCQeasy

Which document is essential to maintain during a malware incident to ensure accountability and track the actions taken by the incident response team?

A.User Manual
B.Incident Log
C.System Backup
D.Vulnerability Assessment Report
AnswerB

This is the primary record for tracking the IR process timeline.

Why this answer

An Incident Log (or Chain of Custody record) is critical for documenting every step, tool, and decision made during the response process.

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